ITEC Question Bank PDF

Skin & Eye Treatments 1. Where can cytoplasm be found: a) Inside the nucleus b) Lining the cell c) Inside the cell but outside the nucleus d) Surrounding the nucleolus 2. Which type of skin tends to age more quickly; a) White b) Asian c) Young d) Black 3. W...

Skin & Eye Treatments 1. Where can cytoplasm be found: a) Inside the nucleus b) Lining the cell c) Inside the cell but outside the nucleus d) Surrounding the nucleolus 2. Which type of skin tends to age more quickly; a) White b) Asian c) Young d) Black 3. What is the function of white fibrous tissue; a) Insulatory b) Stretching c) Supports other tissues d) Protection 4. Which bone forms the tear ducts; a) Frontal b) Lacrimal c) Ethmoid d) Temporal 5. What is the position of the masseter; a) From zygomatic arch to mandible b) Around the eye c) Between masseter and corner of mouth d) Upper eyelid 6. In which of the following circumstances must medical permission be sought before eyebrow shaping can be performed; a) Eye infection b) Skin allergies c) Inflammation d) Epilepsy 7. Honey is suitable for which skin type; a) All skin types b) Dry skin c) Oily skin d) Mature skin 8. The circulation of the cell is formed by; a) Nucleus b) Vacuoles c) Centrioles d) Endoplasmic reticulum 1 9. Which one of the following is a viral infection; a) Verrucas b) Lentigo c) Milia d) Psoriasis 10. The Granular layer is known as; a) Stratum corneum b) Stratum spinosum c) Startum granulosum d) Startum germinativum 11. Which muscle produces an annoyed expression; a) Frontalis b) Nasalis c) Levator palpebrae d) Temporalis 12. Where is bone marrow found; a) Compact bone b) Haversian canals c) Cancellous bone d) Sesamoid bones 13. Crow's feet form on which part of the face; a) Around the mouth b) Sides of the face c) Forehead d) Around the eyes 14. Which of the following is a total contraindication to thermal masks; a) Clients with high vascular complexions b) Diabetes c) Slipped disc d) Epilepsy 15. The centre of the cell is called: a) Nucleus b) Vacuoles c) Nucleolus d) Mitochondria 16. What is the position of the depressor labii inferioris; a) Between masseter and corner of mouth b) Mid line of chin to lower lip c) Across the face d) From temporal bone to mandible 17. Where do capillaries arise from; a) Arterioles b) Arteries c) Venules d) Veins 2 18. What is the first stage of mitosis; a) Anaphase b) Prophase c) Metaphase d) Telophase 19. The outer layer of lymphatic vessels consist of; a) Muscular tissue b) Elastic tissue c) Fibrous tissue d) Endothelial cells 20. Which type of tissue contains fibrocytes and mast cells; a) Adipose b) White fibrous c) Areolar d) Yellow elastic 21. What type of skin disorder is a port wine stain; a) Bacterial b) Fungal c) Viral d) Pigmentation 22. How many bones does the cervical vertebra contain; a) 12 b) 5 c) 4 d) 7 23. What type of bone is the hyoid bone; a) Sesamoid bone b) Flat bone c) Small bone d) Irregular bone 24. Which one of the following is not a benefit of fuller's earth; a) Increases blood circulation b) Deep cleansing c) Reduces vascularity d) Desquamation 25. Dry skin more commonly affects; a) Asian skin b) Young skin c) Black skin d) Middle age skin 26. Empty sacs with the cytoplasm are called; a) Vacuoles b) Mitochondria c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus 3 27. Redness of the skin, itching and skin lesions are common symptoms of which skin disorder; a) Herpes simplex b) Chloasma c) Papilloma d) Dermatitis 28. The Stratum Germinativum is also known as; a) The granular layer b) The basal layer c) The clear layer d) The surface layer 29. What type of bone is the vomer; a) Short b) Long c) Sesamoid d) Flat 30. What is the action of the temporalis; a) Opens mouth b) Retracts lower jaw c) Flexes head d) Raises and retracts lower jaw 31. Arteries carry; a) Deoxygenated blood to the lungs b) Oxygenated blood to the lungs c) Deoxygenated blood from the heart to the body d) Oxygenated blood from the heart to the body 32. What are the 2 types of leucocytes; a) Monocytes and granulocytes b) Lymphocytes and monocytes c) Granulocytes and non granular leucocytes d) Granulocytes and lymphocytes 33. What is a cell made of; a) Cytoplasm b) Centrioles c) Protoplasm d) Mitochondria 34. Comedones are more commonly known as; a) Freckles b) Whiteheads c) Blackheads d) Moles 35. Lack of muscle tone is common on which skin type; a) Mature b) Dry c) Oily d) Young 4 36. Where does the formation of ATP take place; a) Nucleus b) Nucleolus c) Mitochondria d) Ribosomes 37. How is melanin produced; a) By cells called Melanocytes. b) During the process of desquamation. c) In the sweat glands of the dermis. d) By cells called Histiocytes. 38. The turbinator bone is located on which part of the face; a) Cheek b) Nose c) Chin d) Forehead 39. Where can adipose tissue be found; a) Back of the eyes b) Feet c) Nose d) Lips 40. What type of skin disorder do broken capillaries fall under; a) Bacterial b) General c) Pigmentation d) Viral 41. Which layer of the skin contains melanin; a) Stratum granulosum b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum corneum d) Stratum germinativum 42. The shoulder blades are called; a) Sternum b) Clavicle c) Scapulae d) Ribs 43. Which one of the following is a function of lymph; a) Carry excess tissue fluid away from tissue space b) Remove and destroy harmful bacteria c) Transports excess waste away from tissues d) Transport oxygen to the lymphatic capillaries 44. The centrosome divides into 2 centrioles during which phase of mitosis; a) Prophase b) Anaphase c) Telophase d) Metaphase 5 45. AHA’s are; a) Alpha hydrogen acids b) Alpha hydroxy acids c) Alpha hydroxy alkalines d) Alpha hydrogen alkalines 46. Which one of the following is an effect of deep effleurage; a) Improves skin texture b) Spreads the medium c) Improves muscle tone d) Increases lymph flow 47. Pseudo folliculitis describes; a) Scarring that becomes enlarged b) Flesh moles c) Uneven patches of skin tone d) An inflammatory skin disorder in which the hair curls back and re enters the follicle 48. DNA can be found in; a) Mitochondria b) Cytoplasm c) Nucleus d) Golgi apparatus 49. Which pigment gives skin its natural colour; a) Histamine b) Melanin c) Heparin d) Collagen 50. Hyperaemia can be defined as; a) A reduction in the blood's ability to carry oxygen. b) When the body becomes hot it causes the skin to flush. c) When the body becomes cold, body hair stands on end raising the body temperature. d) When sweat and sebum form a protective barrier on the skin. 51. Eczema can be recognised by; a) Scaly dry patches with bleeding at points b) Yellow patches of skin c) Red patches covered with silvery scales that are constantly shed d) A pigmentation involving the upper cheeks 52. What is the action of the depressor anguli oris; a) Raises the mandible b) Retracts lower jaw c) Pulls down corners of the mouth d) Pull down lower lip 53. Where is the mentalis positioned; a) Across the cheek bone b) Forehead c) Chin d) Nose 6 54. What is the function of venules; a) To carry deoxygenated blood from the capillaries to the larger veins b) To carry deoxygenated blood from the larger veins to the capillaries c) To carry oxygenated blood from the capillaries to the larger veins d) To carry oxygenated blood from the larger veins to the capillaries 55. Rosewater is most suitable for which skin type; a) Dehydrated b) Young c) Oily d) Dry 56. The 'protein factories' of a cell are called; a) Lysosomes b) Ribosomes c) Golgi apparatus d) Mitochondria 57. The mandible is also known as; a) The forehead b) The upper jaw c) The cheekbone d) The lower jaw 58. What is the structure of lymphatic capillaries; a) Fine blind ended permeable tubes b) Fine blind ended hollow permeable tubes c) Fine blind ended permeable tubes, composed of a single layer of endothelial cells d) Fine blind ended permeable tubes composed of a single layer of epothelial tissue 59. What should not be included on a record card; a) Date b) Religion c) Name d) Date of Birth 60. Which bone is found on the roof of the mouth; a) Mandible b) Palatine c) Vomer d) Maxilla 61. Where is the procerus nasi positioned; a) Sides of the nose b) Between eyebrows c) Lower lip d) Above the eyebrow 62. Which muscle is responsible for sniffing; a) Procerus nasi b) Frontalis c) Masseter d) Nasalis 7 63. Why would you use petroleum jelly around the eye during a last tint; a) To enhance the colour of the tint b) So the tint will last longer c) To enable the tint to be applied more evenly d) To protect the area surrounding the eye from tint 64. The spindle fibres disintegrate and the centrioles replicate during which phase of mitosis; a) Metaphase b) Prophase c) Interphase d) Telophase 65. Which is the most general connective tissue found in the body; a) Adipose b) Areolar c) Yellow elastic d) Lymphoid 66. All lymph passes into; a) Lymphatic nodes b) Lymphatic ducts c) Lymphatic capillaries d) Lymphatic tissue 67. The submandibular nodes are located; a) Face b) Arms c) Legs d) Chest 68. The moving end of a muscle is called; a) The insertion b) The origin c) The attachment d) The belly 69. Where is the nasalis positioned; a) Above the eyebrows b) Between the upper lip and bottom of nose c) Sides of the nose d) Between the eyebrows 70. Which type of cells are responsible for the production of collagen and elastin; a) Fibroblasts b) Mast cells c) Leucocytes d) Histiocytes 71. Which one of the following is not a function on the acid mantle; a) Natural moisturiser b) Controls bacteria levels c) Prevents infections d) Controls temperature levels 8 72. Cleansing lotions are; a) Oil in water solutions b) Water in oil emulsions c) Oil based emulsions d) Water based solutions 73. Which one of the following is not a benefit of a kaolin clay ingrediant; a) Mildly astringent b) Removes impurities c) Helps desquamation d) Tightens the pores 74. What is the characteristic of Asian type skin; a) Freckles with sensitivity to UV rays b) Thin skin with broken capillaries on upper cheeks c) Often oily but smooth and evenly coloured d) Dry, flaky skin 75. What is the function of the nucleolus; a) The control centre of the cell b) To produce chromosomes c) The power house of the cell d) To programme the formation of ribosomes 76. Which fatty substance in the skin is converted into Vitamin D from UV light; a) Melanin b) MSH c) Ergosterol d) Heparin 77. Which of the following is a congenital skin disorder; a) Acne vulgaris b) Psoriasis c) Chloasma d) Papilloma 78. The bone at the top of the arm is called; a) Humerus b) Ulna c) Radius d) Carpals 79. What type of bones allow movement; a) Short bones b) Flat bones c) Sesamoid bones d) Long bones 80. What artery supplies the head and neck; a) The common carotid b) Sphenic artery c) Maxillary artery d) Jugular artery 9 81. Which muscle pushes the mandible out and open the mouth; a) Lateral pterygoid b) Medial pterygoid c) Orbicularis oculi d) Masseter 82. What is the action of the sternocleidomastoid; a) Elevates scapula b) Draws scapula backwards c) Bends neck laterally d) Flexes head 83. Voluntary muscle is also known as; a) Smooth muscle b) Cardiac muscle c) Unstriated muscle d) Skeletal muscle 84. Hyperplasia causes; a) Comedomes b) Keloids c) Poor skin texture d) Pustules 85. Which toner is the mildest of the toning products; a) Skin tonics b) Alcohol based toners c) Skin fresheners d) Astringents 86. Which of the following is a total contraindication to eyebrow shaping; a) Medical oedema b) Diabetes c) Styes d) Whiplash 87. Where does the cell receive its energy from; a) Oxygen b) Mitochondria c) Centrosomes d) Golgi apparatus 88. Which one of the following cannot be absorbed by the skin; a) Drugs b) Water c) Some chemical substances d) Essential oils 89. Which skin disorder gives skin a flushed reddened appearance; a) Acne vulgaris b) Eczema c) Herpes zoster d) Acne rosacea 10 90. The zygomatic bone is a type of; a) Flat bone b) Sesamoid bone c) Irregular bone d) Short bone 91. Smooth muscle is also known as; a) Skeletal muscle b) Involuntary muscle c) Voluntary muscle d) Cardiac muscle 92. When a muscle contracts and moves it is known as; a) Isometric contraction b) Antagonist c) Isotonic contraction d) Muscle attachment 93. What is the function of thrombocytes; a) Transport of nutrients b) Protect the body from infection c) Blood clotting d) Solvent in the blood 94. Human cells contain how many chromosomes; a) 46 b) 42 c) 33 d) 23 95. Which of the following is not a petrissage movement; a) Knuckling b) Vibrations c) Thumb kneading d) Rolling 96. Which skin type would you use a calamine clay ingrediant; a) Congested b) Dry c) Dehydrated d) Sensitive 97. When carrying out a consultation with your client it is advisable to ask; a) All types of questions b) Open questions c) Closed questions d) Personal questions 98. Which one of the following is not contained within protoplasm; a) Carbohydrates b) Cytoplasm c) Proteins d) Salt 11 99. Desquamation can be defined as; a) The cells on the surface of the skin are constantly shedding. b) Granules which are visible in healing after trauma. c) A pigmentation which gives skin its colour. d) Cell division. 100. Erector Pili can be defined as; a) Hair follicles which produce sebum. b) Tiny muscles which are attached to each hair. c) Microscopic capillaries. d) Nerve endings. 101. Lentigo can be recognised by; a) Dark patches of pigmentation with a slightly raised appearance b) Small pigmented areas of skin c) Large area of dilated capillaries d) A complete loss of colour in large areas of the skin 102. Cells become visible on which layer of the epidermis; a) Stratum germinativum b) Stratum lucidum c) Stratum spinosum d) Stratum corneum 103. What is the position of the occipitalis; a) Over the occipital bone b) Over the frontal bone c) Sides of the nose d) Over the parietal bone 104. Glycerine is best used for; a) Young skin b) Dry skin c) Oily skin d) Sensitive skin 105. At which point should the eyebrow not extend beyond; a) From the centre of the nose to the inner corner of the eye b) From the side of the nose to the centre of the eyebrow c) From the side of the nose to the inner corner of the eye d) From the inner corner of the eye to the outer corner of the eye 106. The 'power houses' of the cell are known as; a) Lysosomes b) Centrioles c) Nucleus d) Mitochondria 107. A complete loss of colour on the face and limbs is known as; a) Vitiligo b) Chloasma c) Papilloma d) Albinism 12 108. Liver spots are also known as; a) Vitiligo b) Lentigo c) Ephelides d) Naevae 109. The orbicularis oris is positioned; a) Across the face b) Around the mouth c) Chin d) From the forehead to the nose 110. Which one of the following is the chief muscle of mastication; a) Buccinator b) Orbicularis oculi c) Mentalis d) Masseter 111. Hyper pigmentation describes; a) Darker pigmented areas of skin b) Uneven patches of skin tone c) Brown pigmentation on the upper cheeks d) An inflammatory skin disorder 112. Which one of the following is a benefit of exfoliation creams; a) Increase the skin’s natural moisture holding ability b) Brighten the complexion and refine the skin texture c) Speeds up renewal of cells d) Increases circulation and temperature of skin 113. What is the function of lymphatic capillaries; a) To carry excess tissue fluid away from tissue space b) to collect lymph and transport it to the heart c) To transport excess waste d) To add extra leucocytes and lymphocytes to the blood 114. A bacterial infection of the pilo sebaceous duct is known as; a) Impetigo b) Folliculitis c) Dermatitis d) Naevae 115. Which one of the following is not a pigmentation disorder; a) Chloasma b) Ephelides c) Lentigo d) Urticaria 116. Define centrioles; a) Dense areas of cytoplasm b) Paired, rod like organelles that lie at right angles to each other c) The point where 2 chromatids join in the chromosome d) Empty spaces within the cytoplasm 13 117. At the metaphase of mitosis; a) The centrosome divides into 2 centrioles b) Spindle threads of the centrioles divide to form new centromeres c) The cell is resting d) The chromosomes arrange themselves at the centre of the cell, each attached to the spindle by its centromere 118. Which type of cleanser would be suitable to use on dry skin; a) Cream b) Milk c) Lotion d) Gel 119. Which is the most common type of skin; a) Dry b) Combination c) Oily d) Sensitive 120. Where on the body should a tinting patch test be performed; a) On the eyelid b) A small area of the skin behind the ear c) A small area at the back of the neck d) On the palm of the hand 121. What is the main energy transporter within the cell; a) ATP b) Oxygen c) Protoplasm d) Cytoplasm 122. Define adipose tissue; a) Nervous tissue b) Permeable tissue c) Elastic tissue d) Fatty tissue 123. Which one of the following is not a bacterial skin disorder; a) Acne vulgaris b) Boils c) Impetigo d) Verruca 124. Tinea pedis can be recognised by; a) A small horny tumour found on the skin b) Red patches on the skin covered with silvery scales c) Infections which attach themselves to Keratinised structures d) A lack of melanocytes 125. Which muscle turn the lower lip outwards; a) Depressor anguli oris b) Masseter c) Medial pterygoid d) Mentalis 126. What is the action of the posterior deltoid; 14 a) Draws arm backwards b) Lowers scapula c) Adducts arms d) Adducts leg 127. Which bone is the only moveable bone on the face; a) Mandible b) Maxilla c) Occipital d) Frontal 128. Which bone provides attachment for the tongue; a) Sphenoid b) Ethmoid c) Hyoid d) Mandible 129. What is the function of leucocytes; a) Blood clotting b) To fight infection c) To transport waste products d) Regulate body temperature 130. The four plasma proteins are as follows; a) Albumin, globulin, fibrinogen and prothrombin b) Potassium, globulin, albumin and prothrombin c) Albumin, potassium, fibrinogen and prothrombin d) Iodine, prothrombin, fibrinogen and albumin 131. The lymphatic system works with the circulatory system by; a) Transporting waste products away from the tissues b) Carrying hormones to various organs c) Carrying oxygen to every cell and system of the body d) Transporting oxygen and nutrition to the skin, hair and nails 132. What are lymph nodes made of; a) Lymphatic tissue b) Fibrous tissue c) Elastic tissue d) Muscular tissue 133. Egg white has the following effect on the skin; a) Healing b) Nourishing c) Toning d) Hydrating 134. Which one of the following is a characteristic of mature skin; a) Uneven skin tone b) Open pores c) Fine lines and wrinkles around the eye d) Comedones 135. Which part of the cell acts as a filter between the fluid inside the cell and the tissue fluid outside it; 15 a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleur membrane c) Nucleus d) Cell membrane 136. Cell reproduction is known as; a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Meiosis d) Mitosis 137. Which of the following can be found in the epidermis; a) Sweat glands b) Lymph vessels c) Melanocytes d) Elastin 138. What type of skin disorder is impetigo; a) Viral infection b) Congenital infection c) Bacterial infection d) General infection 139. The cheek bone is known as; a) Zygomatic b) Turbinator c) Frontal d) Occipital 140. Where is cancellous bone found; a) Ends of long bones and in irregular bones b) Ends of irregular bones c) Ends of long bones and in irregular, flat and sesamoid bones d) Ends of long bones and in flat bones 141. Where is the risorius positioned; a) Around the eye b) Between the masseter and corner of the mouth c) Behind the cheek bone d) Upper eyelid 142. What is the composition of muscle; a) 75% water, 20% proteins, 5% fats, mineral salts and glycogen b) 75% water, 15% proteins, 10% fats, mineral salts and glucose c) 75% water, 20% proteins, 5% fats, mineral salts and glucose d) 75% water and 25% proteins 143. Lymphatic capillaries unite to become; a) Lymph nodes b) Lymphatic vessels c) Lymphatic tissue d) Lymphatic ducts 144. Venules have the following structure; 16 a) The walls are one cell thick and porous b) An endothelial layer made of squamous epithelial tissue c) They have a thin wall with a large lumen d) They have a think wall with a small lumen 145. Where are erythrocytes produced; a) Nucleus of a cell b) Red bone marrow c) Liver d) Spleen 146. Milia are commonly found on; a) Forehead b) Chin c) Upper cheeks d) Upper lip 147. Which type of cleanser would be ideal to use on young skin; a) Cream b) Lotion c) Gel d) Milk 148. Which is the strongest of all toners; a) Rosewater b) Skin tonics c) Astringents d) Purified water 149. Dense areas of cytoplasm containing the centrioles are called; a) Chromatids b) Centromere c) Chromosomes d) Centrosomes 150. Collagen is; a) Nervous tissue b) Muscular tissue c) Connective tissue d) Lymphoid tissue 151. A complete lack of melanocytes causes; a) Papilloma b) Albinism c) Vitiligo d) Naevae 152. The stratum lucidum is also known as; a) Clear layer b) Surface layer c) Basal layer d) Granular layer 153. What percentage concentration of AHA’s are safe; 17 a) Less than 10% b) Less than 20% c) Less than 15% d) More than 5% 154. Pre heat treatments are used; a) To cleanse the skin b) To tone the skin c) To make it easier to remove comedones and blockages on the skin d) To keep the skin tight and supple 155. How would you recognise a stye; a) Red and swollen eyelid b) A small raised boil at the base of an eyelid follicle c) Flaking skin around the eye with red itchy patches d) Red, sore patches underneath the eye 156. Why is it important to do an eyebrow tint before you shape the brows; a) To lessen the amount of time it takes to perform the treatment b) To ensure the client is awake during the treatment c) To avoid the brows looking thick and coarse d) After tweezing the pores are open which would cause an infection if any tint should get into them 157. What is the function of the cell membrane; a) To control every organelle within the cytoplasm b) To destroy worn out parts of a cell c) To keep the nucleus and the cytoplasm in the cell d) To let carbohydrates pass through the cell 158. What is the second phase of mitosis; a) Metaphase b) Telophase c) Prophase d) Interphase 159. What is the purpose of collagen in the skin; a) To keep the skin supple b) To keep the skin elastic c) To produce the anticoagulant heparin d) To plump up the skin 160. The Acid Mantle is formed from; a) Eccrine & apocrine fluid b) Mast cells c) Sweat & sebum d) Histamine & heparin 161. What are lymphatic capillaries; a) Capillaries which transport lymph around the lymphatic system b) Muscular tissue which prevent the back flow of lymph c) Vessels which transport waste materials to the lymph nodes d) Vessels which work with blood to collect excess tissue fluid 162. What is the structure of voluntary muscle; 18 a) Bundles of unmyelinated sheath b) Spindle shaped cells with no nucleus c) Cylindrical cells which make up fibres which have several nuclei and are surrounded by a sheath d) Striated fibres with a membrane and nucleus 163. Which muscle aids mastication; a) Buccinator b) Masseter c) Orbicularis oculi d) Depressor anguli oris 164. Which of the following skin disorder is contagious; a) Impetigo b) Acne vulgaris c) Chloasma d) Comedones 165. When should effleurage be used; a) Only at the end of the treatment b) At the beginning of the facial massage c) After every petrissage movement d) Before tapotment movements 166. Which one of the following is not a benefit of soft fruits; a) Increases moisture levels b) They have an acid reaction on skin c) Corrects the PH balance of dry skin d) Regenerates skin cells 167. The tint is mixed with what percentage of hydrogen peroxide; a) 10% b) 15% c) 5% d) 20% 168. The golgi apparatus is responsible for; a) Circulation b) Storage c) Digestion d) Communication 169. What is the function of yellow elastic cartilage; a) To support other cartilage b) To protect the cells c) To provide flexibility d) Insulation 170. The body temperature of healthy humans is; a) 36.8 degrees celsius b) 38.6 degrees celsius c) 37.5 degrees celsius d) 37.8 degrees celsius 171. Warts can be recognised by; 19 a) Blocked glands b) Horny tumours on the skin c) Small pigmented areas of skin d) Brown patches on the skin 172. Urticaria is also known as; a) Butterfly mask b) Nettle rash c) Cold sore d) Shingles 173. A cold sore is also known as; a) Herpes zoster b) Impetigo c) Herpes simplex d) Acne vulgaris 174. Which muscle is responsible for smiling; a) Levator anguli oris b) Zygomaticus c) Buccinator d) Levator labii superioris 175. Which muscle stretches from the modiolus to the mandible; a) Masseter b) Zygomaticus c) Temporalis d) Depressor anguli oris 176. Lymphatic vessels open up into; a) Lymph nodes b) Lymph duct c) Lymph tissue d) Lymph capillaries 177. Flesh moles are known as; a) Hypo pigmentation b) Pseudo folliculitis c) Dermatosis papulosa nigra d) Keloids 178. Orange flower water is suitable for; a) Dry skin b) Oily skin c) All skin types d) Mature skin 179. What is a pustule; a) A small inflamed elevation of the skin that is filled with pus b) A small inflamed elevation of the skin that does not contain pus c) Sebum trapped in a blind duct with no surface opening d) A build up of sebaceous secretions which have become trapped 180. What type of skin disorder is Tinea Pedis; 20 a) Fungal b) Viral c) Bacterial d) Pigmentation 181. Malignant melanoma is defined as; a) A malignancy found in melanin b) A malignant mole c) A malignancy found in ergosterol d) A malignant tumour of melanocytes 182. What is protoplasm; a) A network of membranes that forms a system of sacs b) A small body within the nucleus c) The centre of the cell d) A slightly opaque, colourless jelly like substance 183. Which part of the body is the cervical spine positioned; a) Lower back b) Ribs c) Neck d) Pelvis 184. Which bone helps to form the orbital cavity; a) Ethmoid b) Lacrimal c) Sphenoid d) Parietal 185. Whiteheads are known as; a) Milia b) Comedones c) Papilloma d) Papules 186. Which muscle is positioned underneath the masseter; a) Mandible b) Maxilla c) Risorius d) Buccinator 187. What is the structure of involuntary muscle; a) Spindle shaped cells with no membrane and one nucleus b) Striated fibres with a membrane and no nucleus c) Cylindrical cells with several nuclei d) Spindle shaped cells with a membrane and no nucleus 188. Cleansing creams are; a) Oil based emulsions b) Water in oil emulsions c) Oil in water solutions d) Water based emulsions 189. What is the action of the masseter; 21 a) Opens upper eyelid b) Lifts upper lip c) Raises lower jaw d) Closes eyelid 190. In which phase does the nucleolus disappear; a) Interphase b) Telophase c) Prophase d) Anaphase 191. Ephelides are more commonly referred to as; a) Liver spots b) Whiteheads c) Blackheads d) Freckles 192. Which layer of the skin is the cell membrane not visible; a) Stratum granulosum b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum corneum d) Stratum lucidum 193. Sesamoid bones can be defined as; a) The body’s levers b) Strong and compact bones c) Bones within tendons d) Protective bones with broad flat surfaces 194. The bone on the sides and lower cranium is known as; a) Parietal b) Lacrimal c) Occipital d) Temporal 195. What is the middle layer of the lymphatic vessels made up of; a) Enodthelial cells b) Fibrous tissue c) Muscular tissue d) Muscular and elastic tissue 196. Which type of skin is brush cleansing not recommended on; a) Dehydrated b) Oily c) Dry d) Sensitive 197. What are the characteristics of sensitive skin; a) Dull, sallow appearance b) Fine texture often with broken capillaries c) Darker pigmented areas d) Uneven texture with enlarged pores 198. What is the effect of avocado on the skin; 22 a) Hydrates the skin b) Tightens the pores c) Stimulates the nerve endings d) Aids desquamation 199. What is the action of the anterior deltoid; a) Draws arm backwards b) Elevates shoulders c) Rotates scapula d) Draws arm forward 200.Which muscle opens the upper eyelid; a) Levator palpebrae b) Masseter c) Orbicularis oculi d) Sternocleidomastoid 201. The point where the 2 chromatids join in the chromosome is called; a) Centrosome b) Centriole c) Centromere d) Nucleus 202. The study of cells and tissue is called; a) Histology b) Physiology c) Homeostasis d) Meiosis 203. Bones with broad flat surfaces for muscle attachment are known as; a) Flat bones b) Irregular c) Long bones d) Sesamoid bones 204. What is the position of the medial pterygoid; a) From the temporal bone to the mandible b) Upper eyelid c) Inner surface of mandible d) Across the cheekbone 205. What type of bone is the maxilla; a) Long bone b) Flat bone c) Sesamoid bone d) Irregular bone 206. An afferent vessel transports lymph; a) Around the body b) To the lymph ducts c) To the lymph nodes d) To lymph capillaries 207. The occipital nodes are located; 23 a) On the face b) At the back of the skull c) Armpits d) Elbows 208. Sebum which becomes trapped in a blind duct with no surface opening describes; a) Papules b) Milia c) Pustules d) Pseudo folliculitis 209. What is the structure of lymphatic vessels; a) Thick walled, collapsible vessels carrying lymph b) Thick walled, collapsible tubules c) Thin walled, collapsible vessels carrying lymph d) Thin walled, collapsible vessels 210. A function of arterioles; a) To carry oxygenated blood to the lungs b) To distribute essential oxygen and nutrients to the body c) To carry deoxygenated blood from the capillaries to the larger veins d) To relax and dilate providing a blood supply to active organs 211. Which type of cleanser would you use on mature skin; a) Lotion b) Cream c) Gel d) Milk 212. Which one of the following is one of the main veins of the head and neck; a) Axillary b) Maxillary c) Internal carotid d) Left iliac vein 213. What is the function of adipose tissue; a) Secretory b) Protective c) Recoil d) Connecting 214. Where are the erythrocytes broken down; a) In the pancreas b) In the kidneys c) In the lymph d) In the spleen 215. Plasma is described as; a) A slightly opaque straw coloured fluid b) A thin opaque straw coloured fluid c) A slightly thick straw coloured fluid d) A thick opaque straw coloured fluid 216. What is the function of endoplasmic reticulum; 24 a) Forms a system of sacs and canals b) Growth and repair c) Destroys worn out parts of a cell d) Secretes carbohydrates 217. Chloasma can be recognised by; a) A complete lack of melanocytes b) Small pigmented areas of the skin c) Butterfly mask d) A large area of dilated capillaries 218. The back of the cranium is made up of which bone; a) Occipital b) Temporal c) Parietal d) Lacrimal 219. Where is the foramen magnus located; a) Occipital bone b) Mandible c) Parietal bone d) Frontal 220. What is a muscle’s main fuel; a) Lactic acid b) Glucose c) Oxygen d) Blood 221. When completing an eyebrow shape the arch should be at the highest point when the client is looking; a) Down towards the nose b) To the right c) Straight ahead d) To the left 222. Which muscle moves the scalp backwards; a) Frontalis b) Buccinator c) Occipitalis d) Levator labii superioris 223. Which muscle raises the mandible; a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Medial pterygoid c) Lateral pterygoid d) Temporalis 224. Which one of the following is a characteristic of black skin; a) More reactive to stimuli such as rashes or inflammations b) The texture of the skin is thin c) More prone to fine lines and wrinkles d) Uneven patches of skin tone 225. Carbohydrates are combined with protein compounds in; 25 a) Ribosomes b) Mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) Nucleus 226. When performing vibrations what part of your hand should you use; a) Palm of the hand b) Knuckles c) Pads of 2 fingers d) Fingertips 227. Which one of the following is a type of irregular bone; a) Sphenoid b) Lacrimal c) Metacarpals d) Scapula 228. What is the structure of muscle tissue; a) Muscle tissue has spindle shaped cells with a nucleus b) Muscle tissue is bound is bundles and contained in a sheath c) Muscle tissue has striated fibres with only 1 nucleus d) Muscle tissue is made up of several nuclei and is surrounded by a sheath 229. Where is the pectoralis major positioned; a) Waist b) Chest c) Shoulder d) Arm 230. Egg yolk would be recommended to use on which skin type; a) Young skin b) Sensitive skin c) Oily skin d) Mature skin 231. Erythrocytes are; a) Cells that fight infection b) Cells that transport oxygen as oxyhaemoglobin c) Cells responsible for blood clotting d) Cells that form collagen 232. Which massage movement is particularly good for tension in the neck and shoulders; a) Effleurage b) Petrissage c) Tapotment d) Vibrations 233. Where is the right lymphatic duct positioned; a) Chest b) Leg c) Arm d) Neck 234. Which of the following are AHA’s not found; 26 a) Citrus fruit b) Milk c) Biberries d) Bread 235. Oatmeal is used in face masks for; a) Hydration b) Rebalancing c) Desquamation d) Toning 236. Where is Sebum produced; a) Sebaceous glands b) Apocrine glands c) Lymphatic capillaries d) Erector pili 237. Fruit acid peels are known as; a) HLA’s b) LHA’s c) AHA’s d) HAH’s 238. The Granular layer is known as; a) Stratum corneum b) Stratum spinosum c) Startum granulosum d) Startum germinativum 239. Which one of the following is an effect of tapotment; a) Increases blood supply to specific areas b) Improves lymph flow c) Improve skin texture d) Relaxes the client 240. Where is the trapezius positioned; a) Lower back b) Shoulders c) Neck d) Upper back 241. Which ingrediant forms a base for a product; a) Humectant b) Emulsion c) Emollient d) Wheatgerm 242. Which clay ingrediant is most suited to younger skin; a) Fuller’s earth b) Kaolin c) Calamine d) Magnesium carbonate 243. Which one of the following is an eyelid infection; 27 a) Blepharitis b) Neuralgia c) Stye d) Conjunctivitis 244. Which muscle purses the lips; a) Orbicularis oris b) Levator anguli oris c) Orbicularis oculi d) Lateral pterygoid 245. Which antiseptic ingredient in toners is particularly beneficial to promote healing for a blemished skin; a) Linoleic acid b) Hexachlorophene c) Glycolic acid d) Lanolin 246. The origin of a muscle is known as; a) The main body of the muscle b) The attachment of the muscle to tendons c) The fixed end of the muscle d) The moving end of the muscle 247. What type of skin are milia commonly found; a) Oily b) Sensitive c) Mature d) Dry 248. Which muscle covers the frontal and parietal bones; a) Mentalis b) Occipitalis c) Nasalis d) Frontalis 249. Scarring that becomes enlarged and projects from the skin’s surface is known as; a) Keloids b) Dermatitis papulosa nigra c) Pseudo folliculitis d) Papules 250. Which one of the following is not a function of muscle; a) Produce movement b) Maintain posture c) Temperature control d) Protects organs 251. The clavicle is more commonly referred to as; a) The shoulder blade b) The collar bone c) The lower back d) The breast bone 252. Which one of the following is a characteristic of white skin; a) Prone to keloid scarring 28 b) Sensitivity to UV rays c) Yellow in tone d) Loss of firmness and elasticity 253. When using brush cleansing, faster speeds should be used for which skin type; a) Oily b) Dry c) Mature d) Dehydrated 254. Short bones can be defined as; a) Protective bones with broad flat surfaces b) Strong and compact bones that require little movement c) Bones within tendons d) The body’s levers 255. Which type of toner would you use on a client presenting with sensitive skin; a) Skin fresheners b) Skin tonics c) Witch hazel d) Astringents 256. What are the characteristics of dry skin; a) Uneven texture, shiny, thick skin b) High colour, enlarged pores c) Thin skin with fine lines, no visible pores d) Lack of elasticity and firmness 257. The material needed to form chromosomes is called; a) Centrosomes b) Centrioles c) Centromere d) Chromatin 258. Which one of the following is not a function of the skeleton; a) Protection b) Support c) Heat absorption d) Movement 259. How long before tinting should a patch test be performed; a) Approx 48 hours b) Approx 24 hours c) Approx 8 hours d) Approx 36 hours 260. Haversian canals can be defined as; a) Passageways which run lengthways b) Passageways which run lengthways through compact bone c) Passageways which run lengthways through cancellous bone d) Passageways found in cancellous bone containing oxygen and nutrients 261. Which bones form the bridge of the nose; a) Ethmoid bones 29 b) Nasal bones c) Vomer d) Lacrimal 262. Which one of the following is not a benefit of tapotment; a) Revitalises tissue b) Relaxes the client c) Increases muscle tone d) Stimulates nerve endings 263. What is the action of the trapezius; a) Flexes head b) Draws arm forward c) Draws scapula backwards d) Bend neck laterally 264. Which one of the following is not an effect of thermal masks; a) Hydrating and toning b) Increases lymph flow c) Improves cellular regeneration d) Relaxing 265. Which muscle raises the mandible; a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Medial pterygoid c) Lateral pterygoid d) Temporalis 266. Which muscle pulls the lower lip straight down; a) Depressor labii inferioris b) Depressor anguli oris c) Orbicularis oculi d) Buccinator 267. Which type of skin is more prone to keloid scarring; a) Dry b) Black c) Asian d) Mature 268. What are the characteristics of arteries; a) They have thick walls and a small lumen b) They have thin walls and a small lumen c) They have thin walls and a thin lumen d) They have thin walls and a large lumen 269. Pulmonary circulation is the transport of blood; a) From the lungs to the heart b) From the heart to the upper and lower body c) From the heart to the lungs and back again d) From the lungs to the heart and back again 270. Oil based emulsions are; a) Cleansing foams 30 b) Cleansing lotions c) Cleansing milks d) Cleansing creams 271. What type of valves do lymphatic vessels have; a) Bicuspid valves b) Semi lunar valves c) Tricuspid valves d) Micuspid valves 272. What causes the colour in comedones; a) Dried out papule b) Oxidation c) Osmosis d) Diffusion 273. Which one of the following is a function of the nucleus; a) To secrete waste materials supplying the cell with energy b) To control every organelle within the cytoplasm c) To form the circulation of a cell d) Cell reproduction 274. Which type of skin is steaming not recommended; a) Sensitive b) Dry c) Oily d) Mature 275. The inner layer of the lymphatic vessels is made up of; a) Muscular tissue b) Endothelial cells c) Elastic tissue d) Fibrous tissue 276. Fine superficial lines, superficial flaking and broken capillaries are common characteristics of which skin type; a) Dehydrated b) Oily c) Sensitive d) Combination 277. An efferent vessel transports filtered lymph; a) To the lymphatic ducts b) Back to the system c) To the lymph nodes d) To the lymphatic vessels 278. Which type of tissue is the dermis made of; a) Elastic tissue b) Fibrous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Muscular tissue 279. Couperose skin indicates; a) Dry skin b) Oily skin 31 c) Sensitive skin d) Dehydrated skin 280. What do Mast Cells produce; a) Areolar tissue b) Histamine & Heparin c) Melanin d) Red blood cells 281. Eyebrow shaping must not be performed on scar tissue how long after a major operation; a) 2 years b) 1 year c) 6 months d) 18 months 282. When the skin is too cold it begins to heat itself up. What is this process called; a) Hyperaemia b) Vasodilation c) Heat regulation d) Vasoconstriction 283. Which natural ingredient helps to dry oily skin; a) Egg white b) Lemon juice c) Oatmeal d) Honey 284. Which one of the following is an example of a long bone; a) Carpals b) Ribs c) Ethmoid d) Phalanges 285. For one centimetre of tint how many drops of hydrogen peroxide would you use; a) 1 drop b) 5 drops c) 2 drops d) 3 drops 286. The scapula falls under which category of bone; a) Irregular bone b) Flat bone c) Short bone d) Sesamoid bone 287. When should vibrations be introduced during the facial massage; a) At the beginning of the treatment b) After the initial effleurage c) Towards the end of the treatment d) As a linking movement 288. Where are the deltoids positioned; a) Shoulder b) Arm 32 c) Upper back d) Abdominals 289. The belly of a muscle describes; a) The insertion point of the muscle b) The fixed end of the muscle c) The contracting muscle d) The thickest part of the muscle 290. Which massage movement produces a stimulating action on the tissues; a) Vibrations b) Knuckling c) Percussion d) Effleurage 291. Which muscle lifts the upper lip only; a) Levator labii superioris b) Zygomaticus c) Levator palpebrae d) Splenius capitis 292. Humectants; a) Attract moisture to the skin b) Rebalance PH of the skin c) Dry oily skin d) Soothes skin 293. What is the function of the centrioles; a) Supply the cell with energy b) Store waste materials c) Play a part in mitosis d) Circulation of oxygen within the cell 294. Wheatgerm contains; a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin E c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D 295. What do Eccrine glands excrete; a) Milky fluid b) Oil c) Sebum d) Watery sweat 296. How is oily skin characterised; a) Pale and thin skin with milia on upper cheeks b) No visible pores with broken capillaries c) High colour skin with dilated capillaries d) Uneven texture, enlarged pores with comedones and papules 297. Which one of the following is a viral infection; a) Verrucas b) Lentigo 33 c) Milia d) Psoriasis 298. How is a chromosome formed; a) 2 strands of centrioles held together by a centrosome b) 2 strands of chromatids held together by a centromere c) Within the nucleolus d) During the formation of ATP 299. Which type of skin is prone to hyperpigmentation from operation scars and lesions; a) White b) Mature c) Combination d) Asian 300. Veins carry; a) Oxygenated blood to the heart b) Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart c) Deoxygenated blood back to the heart d) Deoxygenated blood to the lungs 301. What is dermatitis; a) An inflammation of the skin caused by external factors b) An allergy marked by the eruption of wheals with severe itching c) An erythema covered with silvery scales d) Eczema 302. Which type of skin would you use cleansing lotions on; a) Dry b) Congested c) Mature d) Dehydrated 303. Desquamation occurs on which layer of the skin; a) Stratum spinosum b) Stratum lucidum c) Granular layer d) Stratum corneum 304. Which type of toner would you use on a client who had combination skin; a) Purified water b) Skin fresheners c) Astringents d) Skin tonics 305. Which one of the following does lymph not contain; a) Erythrocytes b) Luecocytes c) Waste materials d) Lymphoctyes 306. Which of the following is contraindicated to brush cleansing; a) Sinus blockage b) Acne rosacea 34 c) Claustrophobia d) Lentigo 307. Ringworm can also be referred to as; a) Herpes zoster b) Tinea corporis c) Tinea pedis d) Dermatitis 308. Which layer of skin is the primary site of mitosis; a) Prickle cell layer b) Granular layer c) Basal layer d) Clear layer 309. How would you recognise conjunctivitis; a) A small raised boil at the base of an eyelash follicle b) Flaking skin around the eye c) Runny eyes, red, swollen eyelid d) Eyes are red, sore and itching 310. Where is the sternocleidomastoid positioned; a) Back of the neck b) Shoulders c) Sides of the neck d) Neck to the trunk 311. Mastication is another term for; a) Grinning b) Chewing c) Smiling d) Sniffing 312. Which of the following is a type of sesamoid bone; a) Maxilla b) Patella c) Humerus d) Tarsals 313. What is the best base for masks; a) Natural yogurt b) Oatmeal c) Egg white d) Egg yoke 314. Which bone separates the nasal cavities; a) Vomer b) Sphenoid c) Parietal d) Lacrimal 315. What is the maximum number of minutes to leave an eyelash tint on; a) 10 minutes b) 8 minutes 35 c) 12 minutes d) 5 minutes 316. Which one of the following is not found in haversian canals; a) Blood vessels b) Nerves c) Lymph capillaries d) Bone marrow 317. Which one of the following is not a function of AHA’s; a) Stimulate the skin’s blood supply b) Increases speed of renewal of cells c) Increases the skin’s natural moisture holding ability d) Improve the appearance of fine lines and wrinkles 318. Deoxygenated blood travels; a) From the heart to the lungs in the pulmonary vein b) From the lungs to the heart in the pulmonary artery c) From the heart to the lungs in the pulmonary artery d) From the lungs to the heart in the pulmonary vein 319. The function of venules; a) Carry deoxygenated blood to the heart b) Carry deoxygenated blood from venules to the capillaries c) Carry deoxygenated blood from arteries to venules d) Carry deoxygenated blood from capillaries to the larger veins 320. Lack of oil in the skin causes; a) Dry skin b) Oily skin c) Dehydrated skin d) Sensitive skin 321. Hypo pigmentation describes; a) Small pigmented areas of skin b) Uneven patches of skin tone c) Large darker pigmented areas of skin d) An abnormal collection of pigment cells 322. Which muscle surrounds the eye; a) Orbicularis oris b) Levator palpebrae c) Orbicularis oculi d) Temporalis 323. Fuller’s earth is most suitable on which skin type; a) Oily b) Dehydrated c) Dry d) Mature 324. What is the funciton of vacuoles; a) Growth and repair b) Storage 36 c) Energy d) Circulation 325. Almond oil; a) Dehydrates the skin b) Unblocks pores c) Hydrates the skin d) Tightens the skin 326. Lymphoid tissue is a type of; a) Muscular tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Ciliated tissue d) Connective tissue 327. Which type of clay ingredient is suitable for extremely oily skin; a) Calamine b) magnesium carbonate c) Fullers earth d) Flowers of sulphur 328. What is the structure of the cell membrane; a) A fine membrane, made of protein threads and lipids b) A fine membrane, made of fats and carbohydrates c) A fine membrane, made of water and tissue d) A fine membrane, made of water and protein 329. The total contraindication to facial massage is; a) Localised swelling b) Acute inflammation c) Diabetes d) Medical oedema 330. Flat moles are called; a) Sessile b) Naevae c) Urticaria d) Pedunculated moles 331. Which one of the following is not a benefit of petrissage; a) Stimulates nerve endings b) Stimulates circulation c) Improves muscle tone d) Aids desquamation 332. Which one of the following is a type of flat bone; a) Patella b) Mandible c) Nasal d) Temporal 333. Wheatgerm is suitable for; a) Oily skin b) Sensitive skin 37 c) Dry skin d) Young skin 334. What type of bone resembles honeycomb; a) Cancellous bone b) Sesamoid bone c) Compact bone d) Bone marrow 335. Which one of the following is a benefit of hot oil masks; a) Improves colour and skin tone b) Cools the face c) Reduces the appearance of fine lines and wrinkles d) Temporarily tightens the skin 336. Which one of the following does lymphatic tissue not contain; a) Phagocytes b) Lymphoctyes c) Cells dividing to form new lymphoctyes d) Erythrocytes 337. Oversecretion of sebaceous glands results in which type of skin; a) Oily b) Sensitive c) Combination d) Dry 338. What is the function of lymphatic vessels; a) Transport lymph to the lymph nodes b) Transport lymph to the lymphatic capillaries c) Transport lymph to the lymphatic ducts d) Transport lymph towards the heart 339. How would you recognise a papule; a) A small inflamed elevation of the skin b) A small inflamed elevation of the skin that is filled with pus c) A small solid inflammatory elevation of the skin that contains pus d) A small solid inflammatory elevation of the skin that does not contain pus 340. Which one of the following are not specialised cells within the Dermis; a) Leucocytes b) Mast cells c) Thrombocytes d) Histiocytes 341. Which type of toner would be most suited to mature skin; a) Witch hazel b) Skin fresheners c) Alcohol based toner d) Astringents 342. What is the function of antioxidants; a) To moisturise the skin b) To cleanse the skin 38 c) To improve the texture of the skin d) To prevent damage to the skin from free radicals in the environment 343. Which of the following is a contraindication to steaming; a) Enlarged pores b) Vitiligo c) Pseudo folliculitis d) Sinus blockage 344. What is the action of the levator anguli oris; a) Raises the corner of the mouth b) Lifts upper lip c) Moves mouth back and up d) Raises the mandible 345. Witch hazel is most suitable for which type of skin; a) Dry b) Oily c) Sensitive d) Dehydrated 346. Where are lymphocytes formed; a) Red bone marrow b) Lymphatic tissue c) Spleen d) Brain 347. Eyebrow shaping must not be performed on a small scar how long after the incident; a) 1 year b) 6 months c) 2 years d) 1 month 348. Which natural ingredient has a cooling effect on all skin types; a) Natural yogurt b) Herbs c) Cucumber d) Honey 349. Why should dry cotton pads be applied to the eyes once the tint is on the eyelashes; a) Damp ones prevents the tint from taking to the lashes b) Damp ones inhibit the oxidation process c) It takes twice as long for the lashes to darken with damp cotton pads d) The lashes brighten when damp cotton pads are used. 350. Which type of skin would you use exfoliation creams on; a) Oily b) Dry c) All skin types d) Sensitive 351. The levator labii superioris is positioned; a) Below the eyebrows b) Between the eyebrows 39 c) From the eye to the mouth d) Below the lower lip 352. Which one of the following is not a benefit of brush cleansing; a) Gently removes dead surface skin cells b) Improves skin colour c) Stimulates sudoriferous glands to produce sweat, eliminating waste d) Improves cellular regeneration 353. What is the structure of cardiac muscle; a) Spindle shaped cells with several nuclei b) Cylindrical cells with no nucleus and a membrane c) Striated fibres with no neucleus d) Striated fibres with a nucleus 354. The levator labii superioris produces which expression; a) Grinning b) Annoying expression c) Disgusted expression d) Cheerful expression 355. During the interphase of mitosis; a) A new nuclear membrane appears b) The cell is resting c) The nucleolus disappears d) The nuclear membrane of the nucleus disappears 356. What part of the skull does the parietal bone form; a) Back of the craniuim b) Front of the cranium c) Sides of the cranium d) Top and sides of the cranium 357. How would you recognise couperose skin; a) Oily skin with papules and pustules b) Pale, thin skin with fine lines and wrinkles c) Sallow, dull skin with comedones d) Fine skin texture with broken capillaries 358. What are bones made of; a) Osteoblasts b) Blood vessels c) Periosteum d) Bone marrow 359. What is the fourth stage of mitosis; a) Telophase b) Interphase c) Prophase d) Anaphase 360. The effects of enzymatic peel includes; a) Soothes the skin b) Dries the skin 40 c) Heals the skin d) Aids desquamation 361. What is the function of lysosomes; a) Storage b) Aid digestion c) Destroy worn out parts of a cell and bacteria d) Formation of ATP 362. What is the function of white fibrocartilage; a) To provide protection b) To provide flexibility c) To provide heat d) To absorb shock 363. Which clay ingredient has a drying effect on the skin; a) Flowers of sulphur b) Calamine c) Fuller’s earth d) Kaolin 364. Which type of connective tissue is capable of considerable extension and recoil; a) Areolar b) Adipose c) Yellow elastic d) White fibrous 365. How long after an eyebrow tweeze should you advise your client not to wear make up; a) 8 hours b) 1 hour c) 6 hours d) 12 hours 366. Where can lymphoid tissue be found; a) Lining of the stomach b) Heart lining c) The appendix d) The respiratory system 367. What is the third phase of mitosis; a) Interphase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase 368. Which toner has a drying and stimulating effect on the skin; a) Witch hazel b) Rosewater c) Orange flower water d) Chamomile water 369. What is the function of ribosomes; a) Supply the cell with energy b) To allow movement of substances 41 c) To produce protein compounds d) Control the cell 370. Which type of tissue is the supporting tissue of the body; a) Connective b) Muscular c) Nervous d) Epithelium 371. Which type of cleanser would be most suitable for combination skin; a) Cream b) Lotion c) Milk d) Gel 372. At the anaphase of mitosis the; a) Nuclear membrane of the nucleus disappears b) Spindle threads of the centrioles divide to form new centromeres c) Centrosome divides into 2 centrioles d) Cell is resting 373. What is the action of the zygomaticus; a) Pulls lower lip down b) Lifts upper lip c) Moves angle of mouth up, back and out d) Purses lips 374. A build up of sebaceous secretions which have become trapped in the hair follicles and have dried out causes; a) Papules b) Milia c) Comedones d) Pustules 375. The pulmonary artery; a) Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs b) Carries oxygenated blood to the lungs c) Carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the body d) Carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the body 376. Shingles is also known as; a) Urticaria b) Herpes simplex c) Chloasma d) Herpes zoster 377. The frontal bone forms a) The cheekbone b) The lower jaw c) The upper jaw d) The forehead 378. Emollients are used to; a) Cleanse the skin b) Dry out oily skin c) To tighten the skin 42 d) To smooth and soften the skin 379. Which bone contains the upper teeth; a) Mandible b) Sphenoid c) Maxilla d) Vomer 380. Which one of the following is an effect of light effleurage; a) Increases lymph flow b) Increases circulation c) Improves skin texture d) Aids desquamation 381. The surface layer of the epidermis is known as; a) Stratum lucidum b) Stratum corneum c) Stratum spinosum d) Stratum germinativum 382. The pulmonary vein carries blood; a) From the lungs to the heart b) From the heart to the rest of the body c) From the heart to the lungs d) From the heart to the upper body 383. Which one of the following is not a function of lymph nodes; a) To collect lymph and convey it towards the heart b) To form anitbodies against a particular infection c) To filter lymph d) To produce new lymphocytes and antibodies 384. When is it recommended to use a petrissage movement; a) At the end of the massage b) As a linking movement during the massage c) After the initial effleurage d) At the beginning of the massage 385. Where is compact bone found; a) On the outside of most bones and in the shaft of long bones b) On the ends of long bones and flat bones c) On the inside of most bones and in the shaft of long bones d) On the outside of flat and irregular bones and in the shaft of long bones 386. Which one of the following is a type of flat bone; a) Patella b) Mandible c) Nasal d) Temporal 387. Cells have a distinct nucleus in which layer of the skin; a) Basal layer b) Prickle cell layer c) Clear layer 43 d) Granular layer 388. What is the benefit of magnesium carbonate; a) Cleanses b) Stimulates c) Drying d) Soothing 389. A birth mark is known as; a) Port wine stain b) Naevae c) Chloasma d) Vitiligo 390. What is the PH balance of the skin; a) 5.5 - 6.5 b) 5.6 - 6.6 c) 5.6 - 6.5 d) 5.5 - 6.6 391. The Granular layer is known as; a) Stratum corneum b) Stratum spinosum c) Startum granulosum d) Startum germinativum 392. Which one of the following is not a benefit of honey; a) Delays formation of lines b) Removes dead skin cells c) Hydrates the skin d) Stimulates the skin 393. Which muscle is responsible for grinning; a) Temporalis b) Levator palpebrae c) Risorius d) Mentalis 394. Which type of toner is most beneficial for use on oily skin; a) Astringents b) Skin fresheners c) Rosewater d) Skin tonics 395. Which type of toner would be most suitable for dry skin; a) Skin tonics b) Astringents c) Witch hazel d) Rosewater 396. The prickle cell layer of the skin is known as; a) Startum spinosum b) Stratum granulosum c) Startum lucidum 44 d) Stratum corneum 397. Where are eccrine sweat glands found; a) Groin b) Armpits c) Scalp d) Palms of the hands 398. Which type of cleanser would be most suitable for a client presenting with acne; a) Milk b) Cream c) Foam d) Lotion 399. Inflammation around a hair follicle is known as; a) Herpes simplex b) Boils c) Folliculitis d) Herpes zoster 400. Which one of the following is not a function of the skin; a) Absorption b) Elimination c) Sensation d) Movement 401. Which natural ingredient is not recommended for dry skin; a) Avocado b) Egg white c) Lemon juice d) Oatmeal 402. When the skin is too warm it automatically cools itself down. What is this process called; a) Vasodilation b) Heat regulation c) Vasoconstriction d) Absorption 403. Tinea pedis is commonly referred to as; a) Ringworm b) Athlete's foot c) Cold sore d) Shingles 404. Which one of the following is an effect of vibrations; a) Relieves tiredness and muscle pain b) Improves muscle tone c) Increases lymph flow d) Increases blood supply to specific areas 405. Papilloma are more commonly referred to as; a) Freckles b) Blackheads c) Moles 45 d) Liver spots 406. Which one of the following is an effect of calamine clay ingredient; a) Deep cleanses b) Dissolves surface dead skin cells c) Reduces vascularity d) Stimulates circulation 407. Which one of the following is not a general skin disorder; a) Acne vulgaris b) Dermatitis c) Crow's feet d) Comedones 408. What function do lubricants in products have; a) Cleanse b) Tone c) Tighten d) Smooth the skin 409. What type of skin would you use Kiwi on; a) Dry b) Oily c) Young d) Sensitive 410. Which one of the following is not an effect of deep effleurage during facial massage; a) Introduces the client to the therapists touch b) Nourishes skin c) Soothes and relaxes muscular and nervous systems d) Increases circulation 411. Which one of the following is toner used for; a) To cleanse the skin b) To close the pores c) To remove all traces of make up d) To open the pores 412. Which bone forms the base of the cranium; a) Sphenoid b) Occipital c) Parietal d) Ethmoid 413. Where is the Hyoid bone positioned; a) Arm b) Leg c) Nose d) Base of the tongue 414. Which natural ingredient is recommended for sensitive skin; a) Egg white b) Banana c) Lemon juice 46 d) Soft fruits 415. Which bone contains the lower teeth; a) Parietal b) Vomer c) Mandible d) Hyoid 416. The breast bone is also known as; a) The clavicle b) The scapulae c) The sternum d) The pelvic girdle 417. Which part of the face and neck would benefit most from tapotement; a) Forehead b) Cheeks c) Nose d) Under the mandible 418. Where is the lacrimal bone positioned; a) Forehead b) In the nasal cavity c) Eye socket d) Cheek 419. Kaolin is best suited to which skin type; a) Dry b) Oily c) Sensitive d) Mature 420. The agonist muscle is; a) The relaxing muscle b) The fixed end of the muscle c) The moving part of the muscle d) The thickest part of the muscle 421. Which of the following is not an action of the pectoralis major; a) Draws arm backwards b) Draws arm forwards c) Draws arm medially d) Adducts arm 422. What function do carrots have when used on the skin; a) To cleanse the skin b) To revitilise tissues c) To tighten pores d) Cell regeneration 423. Which one of the following is a benefit of petrissage; a) Nourishes skin b) Increases lymph flow c) Introduces the client to the therapists touch 47 d) Improves muscle tone 424. Which muscle creates the look of suprise and horror; a) Frontalis b) Risorus c) Procerus Nasi d) Occipitofrontalis 425. What is the action of the frontalis; a) Raises lower jaw b) Moves scalp forwards c) Shows a disgusted expression d) Moves scalp backwards 426. Which of the following is an involuntary action; a) Lifting an arm b) Heartbeat c) Rotation of the head d) Moving fingers 427. Isometric contraction involves; a) Muscle contraction with no movement b) Muscle stretching c) Muscle contraction with movement d) Muscle contraction with movement and no tension 428. Which muscle allows the neck to rotate from side to side; a) Levator scapulae b) Sternocleidomastoid c) Trapezius d) Masseter 429. What is the action of the procerus nasi; a) Wrinkles at the bridge of the nose b) Dilates nasal opening c) Lifts upper lip d) Purses lips 430. What direction does a muscle take; a) From its origin towards its insertion b) From its insertion towards its origin c) From the muscle fibres to the origin d) From the belly of the muscle to its insertion 431. What is the action of the orbicularis oculi; a) Opens upper eyelid b) Closes eyelid c) Lifts upper jaw d) Retracts lower jaw 432. What would be the most beneficial product for use on sunburn skin; a) Oatmeal b) Lemon juice c) Egg yolk 48 d) Aloe 433. What is the position of the zygomaticus; a) Between the chin and lower lip b) Under the mandible c) Forehead d) Across the face 434. The function of capillaries include; a) To distribute essential oxygen and nutrients to most parts of the body b) To carry deoxygenated blood from the capillaries to the larger veins c) To relax and dilate providing a large blood supply to an active organ d) To carry oxygenated blood to the larger veins 435. Which one of the following is one of the main arteries of the head and neck; a) Right renal artery b) Hepatic artery c) Maxillary d) External carotid 49  Waxing Exam Questions 1. Desquamation can be defined as; a) The cells on the surface of the skin are constantly shedding. b) Granules which are visible in healing after trauma. c) A pigmentation which gives skin its colour. d) Cell division. 2. How is melanin produced; a) By cells called Melanocytes. b) During the process of desquamation. c) In the sweat glands of the dermis. d) By cells called Histiocytes. 3. How should you apply cool wax; a) Using a spatula at a 50 angle b) Using a spatula at a 90 angle c) Using a spatula at a 45 angle d) Using an orange stick 4. What part of the hair can be seen above the skin's surface; a) Root b) Shaft c) Follicle d) Bulb 5. What is the composition of hot wax; a) Paste and wax b) Zinc oxide and resin c) Honey and wax d) Wax and resin 6. Erector Pili can be defined as; a) Hair follicles which produce sebum. b) Tiny muscles which are attached to each hair. c) Microscopic capillaries. d) Nerve endings. 7. Azulene is used to; a) Soothe b) Stimulate c) Decongest d) Heat 8. Threading is; a) A European hair removal method b) An Egyptian hair removal method c) An Asian hair removal method d) An African hair removal method 9. Which one of the following cannot be absorbed by the skin; a) Drugs b) Water c) Some chemical substances d) Essential oils 50 10. How long should a full leg wax treatment take; a) 20 - 30 minutes b) 1 hour c) 30 minutes d) 40 - 50 minutes 11. What is terminal hair; a) Deep rooted hair with no pigmentation b) Deep rooted, coarse, visible pigmented hair c) Fine, soft, downy hair d) Soft, fine hair with pigmentation 12. How would you remove any excess hairs that were missed using hot wax; a) Tweeze them out b) Re apply a second layer of wax c) Apply a layer of cold wax d) Electrolysis 13. Which skin disorder gives skin a flushed reddened appearance; a) Acne vulgaris b) Eczema c) Herpes zoster d) Acne rosacea 14. What is the thickest layer of hair; a) Medulla b) Cortex c) Cuticle d) Pigment 15. What type of skin can cause ingrowing hairs; a) Oily b) Mature c) Dry d) Sensitive 16. A complete lack of melanocytes causes; a) Papilloma b) Albinism c) Vitiligo d) Naevae 17. The connective tissue sheath covers; a) The inner and outer epithelial root sheath b) The follicle and henle's layer c) The pilosebaceous unit d) The follicle and sebaceous gland 18. What happens during the catagen stage of hair growth; a) The hair separates from the papilla b) The hair is actively growing c) The hair is resting d) The hair forms and grows from the matrix in the bulb 51 19. Sugaring wax products are; a) Oil based b) Water soluble c) Oil and water based d) Resin and beeswax based 20. The stratum lucidum is also known as; a) Clear layer b) Surface layer c) Basal layer d) Granular layer 21. Which pigment gives skin its natural colour; a) Histamine b) Melanin c) Heparin d) Collagen 22. What is the medulla; a) Centre core of the hair b) Protective outer layer of the hair c) Thickest layer of the hair d) The part of the hair that is in the follicle 23. After care advice for leg waxing includes; a) Avoid moisturising legs for 48 hours b) Advise the client against wearing tights or hosiery for 24 hours c) Avoid having a shower for 48 hours after treatment d) Avoid using tanning products for 36 hours after treatment 24. How is the hair on the eyebrows classified; a) Capilla b) Hirci c) Cilia d) Supercilia 25. The Acid Mantle is formed from; a) Eccrine & apocrine fluid b) Mast cells c) Sweat & sebum d) Histamine & heparin 26. Which fatty substance in the skin is converted into Vitamin D from UV light; a) Melanin b) MSH c) Ergosterol d) Heparin 27. When waxing the knee what position should it be in; a) Bent when waxing the upper knee and straight when waxing the lower knee b) Bent at all times c) Straight out in front of the client d) Straight when waxing the upper knee and bent when waxing the lower knee 52 28. How often should wooden spatulas be disposed of; a) At the end of the treatment b) After a full day c) After each area being waxed d) After 1 week 29. How would you ensure the hairs stick more firmly into the wax; a) Apply surgical spirits before applying the wax b) Apply the hot wax to damp skin c) Apply talc before applying the wax d) Apply talc after applying the wax 30. Which of the following is a congenital skin disorder; a) Acne vulgaris b) Psoriasis c) Chloasma d) Papilloma 31. How is the temperature of cool wax tested; a) On the therapist's inside wrist b) On the therapist's hand c) On the inside of the client's wrist d) On the client's ankle 32. Which one of the following is not contained in the dermal papilla; a) Blood vessels b) Sebaceous glands c) Nerve endings d) Melanocytes 33. On which part of the leg should you not apply wax; a) On the ankle b) Back of the knee c) Front of the knee d) Above the ankle bone 34. Which of the following can be found in the epidermis; a) Sweat glands b) Lymph vessels c) Melanocytes d) Elastin 35. What is the function of the hypodermal plexus; a) To provide blood supply to the connective tissue sheath b) To provide nourishment for growth to the follicle c) To provide a sensory supply to the papillary layer d) To provide protein keratin to the cells 36. Reactions to patch testing should be observed over a period of; a) 6-12 hours b) 24 - 48 hours c) 48 - 60 hours d) 1 week 53 37. What is hypertrichosis; a) A condition when the growth of terminal hair is abnormal and excessive on any area of the body b) A condition when the growth of vellus hair is normal and excessive on any area of the body c) A condition when the growth of terminal hair is abnormal on the palms of the hands d) A condition when excessive amounts of terminal hair grows on abnormal parts of the body 38. What type of skin disorder is impetigo; a) Viral infection b) Congenital infection c) Bacterial infection d) General infection 39. Warts can be recognised by; a) Blocked glands b) Horny tumours on the skin c) Small pigmented areas of skin d) Brown patches on the skin 40. At what stage would you curl the lower end of the hot wax to create a lip in preparation for removal; a) When the hot wax is fully set b) When the wax has set but is still warm and flexible c) Immediately after application d) Any of the above 41. Where does vellus hair emanate from; a) The cortex b) The stratum corneum c) A lobe of the sebaceous gland d) The acid mantle 42. How long should a half leg wax treatment take; a) 15 minutes b) 40 - 50 minutes c) 20 - 30 minutes d) 10 - 20 minutes 43. Which of the following is a short term depilatory method; a) Shaving b) Threading c) Strip sugar d) Sugar paste 44. Ephelides are more commonly referred to as; a) Liver spots b) Whiteheads c) Blackheads d) Freckles 45. Which layer of the skin is the cell membrane not visible; a) Stratum granulosum b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum corneum d) Stratum lucidum 54 46. Which of the following would not be considered a soothing agent in hot wax; a) Vitamin E b) Tea tree oil c) Chamomile d) Vitamin A 47. Why should you refrain from touching or scratching the area after waxing; a) To avoid ingrowing hairs b) To avoid infection c) To avoid discolouration d) To avoid allergic reactions 48. Which type of tissue is the dermis made of; a) Elastic tissue b) Fibrous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Muscular tissue 49. Where is the root of the hair located; a) In the follicle b) The base of the bulb c) Above the skin's surface d) The upper part of the follicle 50. Cool wax is also known as; a) Hot wax b) Cold wax c) Warm wax d) Sugar wax 51. What is a club hair; a) When the vellus hair separates from the papilla and moves downward while remaining attached to the follicle wall b) When the papilla cells develop into the life giving papilla c) When the terminal hair separates from the papilla and moves upward while remaining attached to the follicle wall d) When the papilla separates and withdraws from the matrix 52. What do Eccrine glands excrete; a) Milky fluid b) Oil c) Sebum d) Watery sweat 53. Which one of the following is a viral infection; a) Verrucas b) Lentigo c) Milia d) Psoriasis 54. Sugaring is most effective on; a) Short hair b) Coarse, dark hair c) Thick, light hair d) Fine hair 55. What is the outer layer of the hair called; 55 a) Medulla b) Follicle c) Cortex d) Cuticle 56. After care advice for underarm waxing includes; a) Avoid applying antiperspirants for 12 hours after treatment b) Avoid applying antiperspirants for 48 hours after treatment c) Avoid applying antiperspirants for 24 hours after treatment d) Avoid antiperspirants for 1 week after treatment 57. What is the definition of superfluous hair; a) An excess of hair which is not abnormal for the age, sex and race of the person involved b) A condition when the growth of terminal hair is abnormal and excessive on any area of the body c) This is when the growth of excessive terminal hair appears in the adult male sexual pattern d) Fine, soft, pigmented hair found on most parts of the body 58. Shingles is also known as; a) Urticaria b) Herpes simplex c) Chloasma d) Herpes zoster 59. During a bikini wax the hairs should be trimmed down to what length; a) 10 - 15mm b) 15 - 20mm c) 2 - 5mm d) 5 - 12mm 60. Wax can be applied twice to which of the following areas; a) Bikini line b) Legs c) Underarm d) Face 61. Why would you apply talc to the skin before waxing; a) To soothe the skin b) To lift the hairs away from the skin c) To make it less painful d) To cool the skin 62. Ringworm can also be referred to as; a) Herpes zoster b) Tinea corporis c) Tinea pedis d) Dermatitis 63. What is the melting point of cool wax; a) 68C b) 50C c) 43C d) 54C 64. The lower part of the bulb is called; 56 a) Cuticle b) Matrix c) Follicle d) Dermal papilla 65. Which one of the following is not a cause of ingrowing hairs; a) Poor waxing technique b) Infrequent exfoliation c) Too much moisture d) Shaving 66. Huxley's layer is; a) 2 more cells thick b) One cell thick c) 5 or more cells thick d) Just under one cell thick 67. What would you do if a client presents with a hairy mole; a) Wax over the mole b) Only use a cool wax over the mole c) Tweeze out the hairs d) Avoid the area completely 68. How is the hair on the armpits classified; a) Vibrissae b) Barba c) Tragi d) Capilla 69. What type of skin disorder is a port wine stain; a) Bacterial b) Fungal c) Viral d) Pigmentation 70. What is dermatitis; a) An inflammation of the skin caused by external factors b) An allergy marked by the eruption of wheals with severe itching c) An erythema covered with silvery scales d) Eczema 71. What do you use to remove the hot wax strip from the skin; a) A wooden spatula b) A disposable spatula c) An orange stick d) The therapist's fingers 72. How long after a baby is born does lanigo hair normally shed; a) One month b) 6 months c) 2 weeks d) 1 year 73. Which one of the following is the most common fault when using cool wax; 57 a) Spreading the wax too thinly b) Starting at the bottom of the area and working up c) Holding the spatula at a 90 angle d) Pulling the strip upwards away from the area 74. How would you test the temperature before applying strip sugar wax; a) On the client's wrist b) On the therapist's wrist c) On the client's elbow d) On the therapist's hand 75. Desquamation occurs on which layer of the skin; a) Stratum spinosum b) Stratum lucidum c) Granular layer d) Stratum corneum 76. Which layer of skin is the primary site of mitosis; a) Prickle cell layer b) Granular layer c) Basal layer d) Clear layer 77. What happens during the telogen stage; a) The hair growth slows down b) The hair grows constantly c) The resting stage for the lower half of the follicle d) The resting stage for the upper half of the follicle 78. After care advice for waxing includes; a) Avoid hot baths for 24 hours b) Avoid hot baths for 12 hours c) Avoid hot baths for 8 hours d) Avoid hot baths for 48 hours 79. What is the function of the dermal papilla; a) Growth b) Protection c) Movement d) Secretion 80. A bacterial infection of the pilo sebaceous duct is known as; a) Impetigo b) Folliculitis c) Dermatitis d) Naevae 81. How would you removal any final traces of cool wax; a) An after treatment oil b) Water c) Aloe vera gel d) Surgical spirits 82. What is the dermal cord; 58 a) When the terminal hair separates from the papilla and moves upwards b) When the lower half of the follicle degenerates c) The lower part of the bulb d) The cells which remain attached to the base of the follicle 83. Hairs should be tweezed; a) Against the direction of growth b) Upwards c) In the direction of hair growth d) Outwards 84. Which one of the following is not a pigmentation disorder; a) Chloasma b) Ephelides c) Lentigo d) Urticaria 85. The cuticle contains; a) Soft keratin b) Hard keratin c) Pigmented keratin d) Unpigmented keratin 86. Why would you not reapply hot wax to the same area; a) To avoid ingrowing hairs b) To prevent small blood spots from appearing c) To avoid burning d) To prevent itching 87. Where are terminal hairs not located on the body; a) Legs and arms b) Upper lip and chin c) Palms of the hands d) Scalp, underarms and pubic area 88. Flat moles are called; a) Sessile b) Naevae c) Urticaria d) Pedunculated moles 89. What is the figure four position when waxing the legs; a) When the client's arm is bent over their head b) When the client's knees are bent outwards and the feet are crossed c) When the client's knee is out to the side with the foot flat against the knee of the other leg d) When the client's legs are bent and the inside knees are touching 90. How often should a client's record card be updated; a) Once a month b) Once every 6 months c) Once a year d) At the end of each treatment 91.What is the best method of removing short hairs; 59 a) Threading b) Hot wax c) Sugaring d) Cold wax 92. The surface layer of the epidermis is known as; a) Stratum lucidum b) Stratum corneum c) Stratum spinosum d) Stratum germinativum 93. Which one of the following is an advantage of using cool wax; a) The wax reaches the correct temperature quickly b) Very efficient for treating small areas c) Best at treating deep rooted coarse dark hairs d) Very efficient for very short hairs 94. The shaft is made up of; a) Soft keratin b) Endothelial cells c) Dead keratinised cells d) Pigmented cells 95. Which organic substance is a main ingredient in cool wax; a) Honey b) Almond oil c) Rose water d) Beeswax 96. Cells have a distinct nucleus in which layer of the skin; a) Basal layer b) Prickle cell layer c) Clear layer d) Granular layer 97. What part of the hair follicle forms the follicle wall; a) Connective tissue sheath b) Outer epithelial root sheath c) Henle's layer d) Inner epithelial root sheath 98. Which of the following is not a contraindication to waxing; a) Tanned skin b) Sunburn c) Abnormal hair growth d) Varicose veins 99. How is the hair in the nostrils classified; a) Hirci b) Vibrissae c) Capilli d) Barba 100. When first applying hot wax what direction should it be applied; 60 a) In the direction of the hair growth b) Against the hair growth in the figure 8 c) In the direction of the hair growth in the figure 8 d) Against the hair growth 101. Which one of the following are not specialised cells within the Dermis; a) Leucocytes b) Mast cells c) Thrombocytes d) Histiocytes 102. Where is Sebum produced; a) Sebaceous glands b) Apocrine glands c) Lymphatic capillaries d) Erector pili 103. What is the definition of lanugo hair; a) A coat of fine, soft, downy hair all over the body of a baby before it is born b) Pale hair which only grows one to 2 centimetres in length c) Coarse, thick hair on the soles of the feet d) Deep rooted coarse hair with no pigment 104. How would you remove the muslin strip from the skin when applying warm wax; a) Fold back 20mm at the end of the strip and grip the flap with the thumb widthways across the strip b) Fold back a corner of the strip and grip the flap with the fingers c) Fold back 10mm at the beginning of a strip and grip the flap with the thumb widthways d) Fold back half the strip and grip the flap with the thumb and index finger 105. How is paste sugar applied; a) With a wooden spatula b) With a plastic spatula c) Using the hands d) With an orange stick 106. Approximately how long after a waxing treatment will body hair grow back; a) 6 - 8 weeks b) 4 - 6 weeks c) 2 - 4 weeks d) 8 - 10 weeks 107. Eczema can be recognised by; a) Scaly dry patches with bleeding at points b) Yellow patches of skin c) Red patches covered with silvery scales that are constantly shed d) A pigmentation involving the upper cheeks 108. Wearing tight clothing straight after a leg wax could cause; a) Red, blotching skin b) Infection c) Allergic reaction d) Ingrowing hairs 109. The medulla contains; 61 a) Endothelial cells b) Hard keratin c) Soft keratin d) Pigmented cells 110. What type of skin disorder is Tinea Pedis; a) Fungal b) Viral c) Bacterial d) Pigmentation 111. On which surface should you not place the wax machine on; a) Wooden b) Ceramic c) Glass d) Iron 112. At what stage is the hair actively growing; a) Telogen b) Catagen c) Anagen d) Pathogen 113. Malignant melanoma is defined as; a) A malignancy found in melanin b) A malignant mole c) A malignancy found in ergosterol d) A malignant tumour of the melanocytes 114. The Granular layer is known as; a) Stratum corneum b) Stratum spinosum c) Startum granulosum d) Startum germinativum 115. Tweezed hairs may grow back; a) Fine and soft b) Thin and lighter c) Thick and longer d) Dark and coarse 116. What do the cells of the cortex contain; a) Soft keratin b) Unpigmented granules and hard keratin c) Soft keratin and pigment granules d) Pigment granules and hard keratin 117. In what direction should hot wax be removed; a) Toward the left b) Against the direction of hair growth c) Towards the right d) Towards the direction of hair growth 118. Which one of the following is not a function of the acid mantle; 62 a) Natural moisturiser b) Controls bacteria levels c) Prevents infections d) Controls temperature levels 119. A complete loss of colour on the face and limbs is known as; a) Vitiligo b) Chloasma c) Papilloma d) Albinism 120. How is the hair on the face classified; a) Vibrissae b) Supercilia c) Barba d) Pubes 121. How long should a bikini line treatment take; a) 20 minutes b) 10 - 15 minutes c) 30 minutes d) 15 - 30 minutes 122. Liver spots are also known as; a) Vitiligo b) Lentigo c) Ephelides d) Naevae 123. Depilatory cream contains; a) A weak acid chemical b) Zinc oxide c) A strong alkaline chemical d) Magnesium carbonate 124. Which of the following is an advantage of hot wax; a) It is not possible to go over the same area more than once b) The technique can cover large areas quickly c) Efficient in treating small areas d) Hot wax reaches the correct temperature very quickly 125. Chloasma can be recognised by; a) A complete lack of melanocytes b) Small pigmented areas of the skin c) Butterfly mask d) A large area of dilated capillaries 126. The prickle cell layer of the skin is known as; a) Startum spinosum b) Stratum granulosum c) Startum lucidum d) Stratum corneum 127. How would you remove cold wax; 63 a) Therapist's fingers b) Wooden spatula c) Orange stick d) Muslin strip 128. Which one of the following is not part of the hair follicle; a) Connective tissue sheath b) Inner epithelial root sheath c) Outer epithelial root sheath d) Middle epithelial root sheath 129. Where are eccrine sweat glands found; a) Groin b) Armpits c) Scalp d) Palms of the hands 130. Which one of the following is not a bacterial skin disorder; a) Acne vulgaris b) Boils c) Impetigo d) Verruca 131. Which part of the leg should you treat first; a) Front of the leg b) Lower back of the leg c) Lower upper leg d) Back of the leg 132. What is the function of the connective tissue sheath; a) To provide warmth and insulation to the epidermis b) To provide nerve endings to the papillary layer c) To provide a sensory and blood supply d) To provide a blood supply to the bulb 133. Tinea pedis can be recognised by; a) A small horny tumour found on the skin b) Red patches on the skin covered with silvery scales c) Infections which attach themselves to Keratinised structures d) A lack of melanocytes 134. A client is contraindicated to waxing; a) Up to 24 hours after sunbathing b) Up to 48 hours after sunbathing c) At least one week after sunbathing d) Up to 36 hours after sunbathing 135. How is the hair on the ears classified; a) Vibrissae b) Barba c) Tragi d) Capilla 136. A birth mark is known as; 64 a) Port wine stain b) Naevae c) Chloasma d) Vitiligo 137. How would you apply hot wax; a) Disposable spatula b) Cotton bud c) Therapists hands d) Plastic spatula 138. What is vellus hair; a) Soft fine hair with pigmentation b) Very soft downy type hair c) Deep rooted, coarse hair with no pigmentation d) Deep rooted, coarse, pigmented hair 139. Redness of the skin, itching and skin lesions are common symptoms of which skin disorder; a) Herpes simplex b) Chloasma c) Papilloma d) Dermatitis 140. The Stratum Germinativum is also known as; a) The granular layer b) The basal layer c) The clear layer d) The surface layer 141. Where would you start when removing the wax strip from the area being treated; a) From the top b) From the bottom c) From the left hand side d) From the right hand side 142. What consistency should paste sugar be when applying to the skin; a) Runny b) Hard c) Runny and watery d) Soft and pliable 143. What is the PH balance of the skin; a) 5.5 - 6.5 b) 5.6 - 6.6 c) 5.6 - 6.5 d) 5.5 - 6.6 144. Inflammation around a hair follicle is known as; a) Herpes simplex b) Boils c) Folliculitis d) Herpes zoster 145. What ingredient gives hot wax its flexibility; 65 a) Azulene b) Resin c) Beeswax d) Aloe vera 146. If a client suffers from ingrowing hairs how often should the client exfoliate; a) Every 24 hours b) Every 5 days c) Every 4-7 days d) Every 2 days 147. Lentigo can be recognised by; a) Dark patches of pigmentation with a slightly raised appearance b) Small pigmented areas of skin c) Large area of dilated capillaries d) A complete loss of colour in large areas of the skin 148. Cells become visible on which layer of the epidermis; a) Stratum germinativum b) Stratum lucidum c) Stratum spinosum d) Stratum corneum 149. What gives hair its colour; a) The pigment in the medulla b) The pigment in the cuticle c) The pigment in the follicle d) The pigment in the cortex 150. How would you remove any stray hairs when using cool wax; a) Apply hot wax over the area already waxed b) Apply depilatory cream c) Apply sugar paste d) Tweeze out the hairs 151. At what stage of hair growth does the inner root sheath disintegrate; a) Telogen b) Catagen c) Lanugo d) Anagen 152. Which one of the following is not a function of the skin; a) Absorption b) Elimination c) Sensation d) Movement 153. When the skin is too warm it automatically cools itself down. What is this process called; a) Vasodilation b) Heat regulation c) Vasoconstriction d) Absorption 154. Which of the following skin disorder is contagious; 66 a) Impetigo b) Acne vulgaris c) Chloasma d) Comedones 155. Sugaring is particularly suitable for which type of skin; a) Sensitive b) Dry c) Mature d) Oily 156. What do the cells of the medulla contain; a) Hard keratin and some pigment granules b) Soft keratin and some pigment granules c) Hard keratin and unpigmented granules d) Soft keratin and unpigmented granules 157. What type of skin disorder do broken capillaries fall under; a) Bacterial b) General c) Pigmentation d) Viral 158. Which layer of the skin contains melanin; a) Stratum granulosum b) Stratum spinosum c) Stratum corneum d) Stratum germinativum 159. How long after waxing should you advise your client not to exfoliate; a) 24 hours b) 1 week c) 1-2 days d) 2-3 days 160. How is the hair on the head classified; a) Hirci b) Capilli c) Tragi d) Barba 161. Tinea pedis is commonly referred to as; a) Ringworm b) Athlete's foot c) Cold sore d) Shingles 162. Papilloma are more commonly referred to as; a) Freckles b) Blackheads c) Moles d) Liver spots 163. How long should an underarm treatment take; 67 a) 5-15 minutes b) 15-30 minutes c) 20-3- minutes d) 10-20 minutes 164. Which of the following is a permanent hair removal method; a) Hot wax removal b) Shaving c) Threading d) Electrolysis 165. Which one of the following is not a general skin disorder; a) Acne vulgaris b) Dermatitis c) Crow's feet d) Comedones 166. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of hot wax; a) Hairs need to be longer for effective removal b) It is less effective in removing dark coarse hairs c) Removal can be sticky d) It is not possible to go over the same area more than once 167. A cold sore is also known as; a) Herpes zoster b) Impetigo c) Herpes simplex d) Acne vulgaris 168. In what direction would you apply cool wax; a) Against the direction of hair growth b) In the figure 8 c) In the direction of hair growth d) At a left angle 169. What part of the shaft gives hair its shine; a) Cuticle b) Cortex c) Medulla d) Pigment 170. When the skin is too cold it begins to heat itself up. What is this process called; a) Hyperaemia b) Vasodilation c) Heat regulation d) Vasoconstriction 171. Hyposecretion can be defined as; a) Over production of a hormone b) Where 2 or more hormones are produced c) Where only 1 hormone is secreted d) Under production of a hormone 172. Which one of the following is a cause of ingrowing hairs; 68 a) Overgrowth of the stratum granulosum b) Overgrowth of the stratum corneum c) Overgrowth of the stratum spinosum d) Overgrowth of the stratum germitavium 173. What is the function of the vitreous membrane; a) Separates the connective tissue sheath from the outer root sheath b) Separates the inner root sheath from the outer root sheath c) Separates the inner root sheath from the connective tissue sheath d) Separates the henle's layer from the huxley's layer 174. Which one of the following is a function of adrenaline; a) Constricts blood vessels to increase blood pressure b) responsible for male sexual characteristics c) Activates vitamin D d) Hair growth 175. Menstruation stops in one of the following instances; a) Addison's syndrome b) Cushing's syndrome c) Amenorrhea d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome 176. Which one of the following is not a function of after wax lotion; a) Breaks down any wax residue b) Guards against infection c) Eliminates any feelings of discomfort d) Prevents the hair from growing back more quickly 177. What is the composition of the cortex; a) Thin, unpigmented flat cells b) Thick, pigmented cells c) Several layers of closely packed elongated cells d) Several layer of closely packed endothelial cells 178. The thymus is located; a) Centre of the brain b) In the thorax c) Either side of the neck d) Base of the brain 179. Hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone causes; a) Addison's disease b) High blood pressure c) Diabetes insipidus d) Muscular atrophy 180. Why would you place your gloved hand on the waxed area immediately after ripping off the strip; a) It stops the skin from becoming red b) It prevents ingrowing hairs c) It lessens the stinging sensation d) It stretches the skin 181. Where can vellus hair be found; 69 a) Soles of the feet b) Pubic area c) Head d) Most areas of the body 182. Which hormone does the adrenal medulla secrete; a) Glucocorticoids b) Adrenaline c) Insulin d) Testosterone 183. Where is the pineal body located; a) In the thorax b) Either side of the neck c) Behind the scrotum d) Centre of the brain 184. Why do you need to support the skin on the thighs when pulling off the wax strip; a) To prevent bruising b) To prevent ingrowing hairs c) To avoid blood spots from appearing d) To prevent infection 185. A keratolytic in a depilatory cream; a) Attacks the structure of the follicle, dislodging it easily b) Attacks the keratin in the skin as well as the hair c) Attacks the bulb, dissolving the hair follicle d) Attacks the dermal papilla which makes for easy removal of the hair 186. Hypersecretion can be defined as; a) Too much of a hormone is produced b) Not enough of a hormone is produced c) No hormones are produced d) A balance of hormones are produced 187. Which hormone controls the adrenal cortex; a) Adrenaline b) Prolactin c) Adrenocorticotrophin d) Thyrotrophin 188. The melting point of hot wax is; a) 43C b) 48C c) 68C d) 54C 189. Before applying hot wax for the first time how should you check the temperature; a) On the inside of the therapist's wrist b) Behind the client's ear c) On the client's inside wrist d) On the palm of the therapist's hand 190. Which part of the nervous system does the adrenal medulla support; 70 a) Sympathetic nervous system b) Central nervous system c) Peripheral nervous system d) Parasympathetic nervous system 191. The third phase of the menstrual cycle is known as; a) Secretory phase b) Menstrual phase c) Climacteric phase d) Proliferative phase 192. What is the function of HGH; a) Stimulates production of melanin b) Regulates height and growth c) Controls body rhythms d) Produces milk during lactation 193. The enlarged base of the root is called; a) Arrector pili muscle b) Shaft c) Bulb d) Dermal papilla 194. What length should the hairs be for effective removal using cool wax; a) At least 5mm b) At least 2.5mm c) At least 1mm d) At least 2mm 195. The area to be waxed should be sanitised with; a) Cleansing milk b) Soap and warm water c) Surgical spirits d) After wax lotion 196. Hypersecretion of testosterone in women causes; a) Cushings syndrome b) Amenorrhoea c) Addisons disease d) Breast growth 197. Which hormone is produced by the pineal body; a) Glucogen b) Melatonin c) Adrenaline d) Parathormone 198. What is the function of the cuticle; a) Movement b) Soothing c) Protection d) Insulation 199. After care advice for lip waxing includes; 71 a) Avoid wearing make up for 12-24 hours b) Avoid wearing make up for 8 hours c) Apply foundation over the lip to disguise redness d) Avoid make up for 1 hours 200. Where are the pituitary glands located; a) Base of the brain b) Either side of the neck c) Either side of the uterus d) On top of the kidneys 201. Hyposecretion of thyroxin causes; a) Cretinism b) Amenorrhoea c) Sweating d) Fatigue 202. How is the hair on the eyelashes classified; a) Cilia b) Tragi c) Barba d) Vibrissae 203. Which of the following is a contraindication to waxing; a) Chloasma b) Ephelides c) Erythema d) Vellus hairs 204. In what direction would you remove sugar paste; a) In the direction of the hair growth b) Against the direction of hair growth c) At an angle upwards and outwards d) Any of the above 205. Where are the ovaries located; a) Either side of the uterus b) Above the uterus c) Below the uterus d) Between duodenum and spleen 206. Which one of the following is not contained in the menstrual flow; a) The cells lining the uterus b) The corpus luteum c) The unfertilised ovum d) Blood from broken capillaries in the endometrium 207. Which one of the following is not a function of follicle stimulating hormone; a) Production of progesterone b) Stimulates ovaries to produce oestrogen c) Sperm production in men d) Ovulation in women 208. How long should hairs be for effective removal of hot wax; 72 a) 1cm b) 2cm c) Half a centimetre d) 3cm 209. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using cool wax; a) Skin reaction may occur due to the high working temperature b) Removal can be sticky if not performed proficiently c) It takes a long time to heat up d) Can only remove short hairs 210. Hyposecretion of HGH causes; a) Oedema b) High blood pressure c) Kidney failure d) Dwarfism 211. Which hormone is responsible for sexual development; a) Testes b) Ovaries c) Luteinising hormone d) Gonadotrophins 212. Which of the following is not a layer of the inner root sheath; a) Cuticle layer b) Huxley's layer c) Cortex layer d) Henle's layer 213. Which one of the following is a cause of ingrowing hairs; a) Too much exfoliation b) Oily skin c) Hot wax d) Poor waxing technique 214. Whi