Operational guidelines
1188 Questions
1 Views

Choose a study mode

Play Quiz
Study Flashcards
Spaced Repetition
Chat to Lesson

Podcast

Play an AI-generated podcast conversation about this lesson

Questions and Answers

Which of the following actions should the Incident Commander (IC) prioritize immediately upon arriving at a working incident?

  • Reviewing and revising the Incident Action Plan based on updated information.
  • Establishing an effective operating position and announcing it, evaluating the situation, initiating communications, determining incident objectives, and tracking assignments. (correct)
  • Coordinating activities of all Command and General Staff positions.
  • Developing a detailed long-term Incident Action Plan (IAP).

During the transfer of command, what responsibility shifts from the initial Incident Commander (IC #1) to the subsequent IC?

  • Only the responsibility for strategic planning.
  • No responsibilities are transferred; the initial IC remains responsible for the incident's overall management.
  • Responsibility for all functions, including establishing command, evaluating the situation, and developing a plan. (correct)
  • Only the responsibility for tactical operations.

An Incident Commander (IC) is developing an Incident Action Plan (IAP). Which action reflects the IC's responsibility in this process?

  • Delegating plan creation to the Command Staff, without direct oversight.
  • Assigning responsibility for plan execution to the Safety Officer.
  • Developing strategies and tactics to accomplish objectives, requesting and assigning resources, and revising the IAP as needed. (correct)
  • Relying solely on pre-determined plans without adapting to the current situation.

What is the purpose of initiating and maintaining an accurate incident organization and tracking all assignments?

<p>To ensure efficient resource allocation and accountability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario necessitates an Incident Commander (IC) to revise the Incident Action Plan (IAP)?

<p>When there is a change in incident objectives, strategies, or available resources. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance should Incident Commander #1 (IC #1) explicitly announce the 'Command' option over the radio?

<p>Only when the initial actions described by IC #1 do not clearly indicate the Command option is being utilized. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary responsibility of the first-arriving engine/truck at an incident scene, regarding positioning and initial actions?

<p>Establishing command and initiating a size-up while other units stage tactically. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should responding units, other than the first-arriving engine/truck, take upon approaching an incident scene?

<p>Stage in a position of tactical advantage off the incident block, awaiting instructions from Incident Commander (IC #1). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the 'Command' mode, where should Incident Commander #1 (IC #1) ideally establish the Command Post?

<p>In a fixed location outside the hazard zone, utilizing department-approved tracking methods. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What criteria determine when Incident Commander #1 (IC #1) can relinquish command?

<p>When command is transferred to another officer or when the incident is stabilized and terminated. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under the 'Investigation' command option, what is the first-arriving officer's (IC#1) primary responsibility upon arrival?

<p>Conducting a size-up based on available information and performing a hazard assessment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When utilizing the 'Fast Action' command option, under what circumstance should the first-arriving officer (IC #1) transition to establishing a formal Command Post?

<p>Once the incident is stabilized and IC#1 can move to an unencumbered, fixed position. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a 'Fast Action' scenario, if the first-arriving officer's (IC#1) direct involvement in a task is no longer effectively contributing to stabilizing the incident, what action should IC#1 take?

<p>Move to an exterior, unencumbered, fixed position to establish a formal Command Post. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which command option emphasizes the immediate need for a strong, strategic-level command presence from the beginning of the incident?

<p>Command. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition should command be transferred from the first-arriving officer (IC#1) during a 'Fast Action' scenario?

<p>When another officer in an unencumbered position arrives, such as another Engine officer or Battalion Chief. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key similarity between the 'Investigation' and 'Fast Action' command options regarding the first-arriving officer's (IC#1) initial actions?

<p>Both necessitate conducting a size-up of the incident and a hazard assessment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which NIMS document outlines the Incident Command options recognized by the Salt Lake City Fire Department?

<p>The NIMSC manual. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to guideline 04-03B, what triggers the use of different command options?

<p>The incident and tactical capabilities of the first-arriving fire department member. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical information should the first-arriving officer include in the initial radio report to establish command effectively?

<p>Unit designation, description of the incident situation, obvious conditions, actions being taken, obvious safety concerns, declaration of initial strategy, resource determination, and command location. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the initial radio report, what does 'resource determination' refer to regarding incident command?

<p>Specifying the additional resources needed to effectively manage the incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the first-arriving officer describe 'obvious conditions' in their initial radio report?

<p>Observations like 'working fire,' 'haz-mat spill,' or 'multiple patients' to quickly communicate the incident's severity. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for the first-arriving officer to declare an initial strategy in the radio report?

<p>To provide responding units with a clear direction of actions being taken at the incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a hazmat incident involving a tanker truck with leaking product, what actions should the first arriving officer communicate in the initial radio report?

<p>Set up an isolation perimeter, deny entry, and declare a defensive operation, while requesting a full hazmat assignment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When establishing command at the scene of a vehicle accident, what key action should the first-arriving officer communicate in the initial radio report?

<p>Begin patient care and request additional ambulances. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of communicating 'obvious safety concerns' in the initial radio report?

<p>Alert responding units to potential hazards and risks at the scene. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to establish and communicate the location of command (e.g., 'Engine 2 will have 200 east Fire Command') in the initial radio report?

<p>To identify the location where the Incident Commander will be located, facilitating communication and coordination. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for transferring command during an incident?

<p>To advance or improve the command system in place. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios necessitates a transfer of command specifically from Command Post to Command Post?

<p>The responding Battalion Chief arrives on scene, reinforcing the Command Post. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the transfer of command process, what is the most important detail the current Incident Commander (IC) should brief the incoming IC on?

<p>The current incident conditions, resource allocation, and progress toward objectives. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is utilizing a standardized process for transferring command crucial at an incident?

<p>To ensure critical information is maintained and all personnel are accounted for. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which scenario would a transfer of command from 'Fast Attack to Command Post' most likely occur?

<p>The initial IC is a company officer who initially engaged in direct tactical actions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides face-to-face, what is the alternative method for the incoming Incident Commander (IC) to contact the current IC during a transfer of command?

<p>Contacting the IC via the radio. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific resource-related information should the current Incident Commander (IC) provide during the transfer of command briefing?

<p>The current resource determination (hold, release, request additional resources, etc.). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a transfer of command at the end of an operational period, who typically assumes command from the outgoing Incident Commander?

<p>Another Chief officer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should the transfer of command aim to leave the Incident Commander (IC) in an 'unencumbered position'?

<p>To ensure the new IC can effectively manage and account for all resources while using appropriate worksheets. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the given radio exchange example, why does Battalion 2 initially decline the face-to-face meeting requested by West Command (Engine 1)?

<p>Battalion 2 is engaged in completing a 360° assessment of the incident. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the content, what is the primary factor that determines whether a Chief Officer should assume command upon arriving at an incident?

<p>The number of resources on scene and status of achieving tactical priorities. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the radio exchange excerpt, what specific action does Battalion 2 take to confirm their understanding of the current incident status before assuming command?

<p>Battalion 2 requests a CAN (Conditions, Actions, Needs) report from the current IC (Engine 1). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a transfer of command, what specific piece of information must the member assuming command communicate, in addition to their arrival?

<p>The current incident strategy (e.g., offensive or defensive). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the transfer of command formally acknowledged to ensure clear communication and understanding among all parties involved?

<p>The relieved member and dispatch both acknowledge the transfer of command over the radio. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the transfer of command notification, what subsequent action does the new Incident Commander (IC) undertake regarding the relieved officer?

<p>The new IC provides the relieved officer with a new assignment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key expectation does the Salt Lake City Fire Department have regarding the role of First Arriving and/or Command worksheets in incident management?

<p>Worksheets are critical in the management and accountability of all resources on scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following incident stabilization, what should be the Incident Commander's (IC) subsequent primary focus?

<p>Shifting focus to loss prevention and property conservation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the content, why might external resources like utility companies be necessary during property conservation?

<p>To effectively stop the loss of additional property. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the defining characteristic of achieving 'Loss Stopped' benchmark in property conservation?

<p>All actions to conserve property are completed, and no additional property is at risk due to hazards, including potential damage from fire department operations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should crews be assigned at an incident to maximize efficiency?

<p>Assign crews to achieve the highest tactical priority in the shortest time possible, even if it means addressing multiple priorities simultaneously. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does achieving an 'All Clear' signify in the context of incident operations, and why is it important?

<p>All occupants are accounted for and removed from the structure; it facilitates rescue efforts and incident stabilization. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When reporting a 'Conditional All Clear', what critical information should the Search Group immediately convey to Command and Dispatch?

<p>The specific conditions that prevent a complete search. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where incident conditions pose extreme risks to personnel, what specific declaration should Command make regarding search activities?

<p>Command will not be reporting a (Primary/Secondary) All Clear. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the 'Under Control' benchmark signify regarding incident stabilization?

<p>Hazards are still present, but control measures prevent them from impacting people, animals, and property. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After achieving the 'Under Control' benchmark, what action should Command take?

<p>Communicate 'Under Control' to Dispatch and record it. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the Incident Commander's (IC) responsibility regarding the Incident Action Plan (IAP) during incident stabilization?

<p>Formulating, implementing, and continuously reevaluating a flexible IAP based on observed conditions and personnel reports. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Incident Commanders should utilize conditions observed on scene along with what other information to determine whether or not the incident is being brought under control?

<p>Information provided by assigned personnel. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for the Incident Commander to constantly reevaluate the Incident Action Plan (IAP) throughout the incident?

<p>To adapt to changing incident conditions and ensure continued effectiveness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When can benchmark can be declared as “Conditional?

<p>If there are areas that will not/cannot support life or are unable to be searched due to incident conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does a 'Secondary All Clear' declaration occur, indicating completion of the Life Safety incident priority?

<p>After fire control is achieved and personnel risk is minimized, confirming no victims (alive or deceased) are found during a thorough search. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the 'Primary All Clear' and 'Secondary All Clear' benchmarks differ in their implications for ongoing operations?

<p>'Primary All Clear' suggests a shift to incident stabilization, while 'Secondary All Clear' confirms thoroughness after risk minimization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between 'Incident Stabilization' and 'Property Conservation' in the context of tactical priorities?

<p>Incident Stabilization always precedes Property Conservation, as controlling the incident is necessary before preventing property damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what specific way do search and rescue efforts support the overarching tactical priority of 'Life Safety'?

<p>By directly locating, removing, sheltering, and/or treating individuals, including fire service personnel, threatened by the incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a structure fire, after achieving 'Primary All Clear', what critical action should the Incident Commander undertake next, aligned with established tactical priorities?

<p>Transition resources towards incident stabilization, such as fire control or hazardous product containment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a 'Primary All Clear' during a structure fire, the Incident Commander receives conflicting reports about a possible victim still inside. What immediate action should be taken?

<p>Immediately re-evaluate the risk assessment and initiate another focused primary search based on the new information. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a hazmat incident involving a leaking tanker, resources are stretched thin. Which tactical priority should guide the Incident Commander's initial resource allocation?

<p>Life Safety, prioritizing evacuation and treatment of affected individuals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a building fire where partial collapse is imminent, how should the tactical priorities guide the Incident Commander's decisions regarding interior operations?

<p>Continuously assess the risk to personnel and adjust operations to balance Life Safety with Incident Stabilization and Property Conservation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a Support Engine, as outlined in the provided guidelines?

<p>To augment Command by assigning Operations-based personnel to critical positions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon arriving at a confirmed 'Working Incident,' what information should the Support Engine transmit over the radio?

<p>Unit designation, arrival as Support Engine, direction of travel, and personnel count. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If Command has not yet established a staging area upon the Support Engine's arrival, what action should the Support Engine Officer take?

<p>Identify a suitable location for staging and confirm the location with Command. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary initial assignment for the Support Engine Officer upon arrival at a working incident, unless otherwise directed by Command?

<p>Incident Safety Officer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After assuming the role of Incident Safety Officer, what is the first action the Support Engine Officer should take, according to the guidelines?

<p>Report to the Command Post and receive a briefing on incident strategy and resource allocation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

As the Incident Safety Officer, the Support Engine Officer conducts a 360° size-up. What is the primary reason for performing this size-up?

<p>To confirm alignment between the incident strategy and observed conditions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific radio channel should the Support Engine monitor after acknowledging dispatch and while en route to a confirmed working incident?

<p>Command Channel (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While en route to the incident, what is the advisory recommendation for the Support Engine unit to communicate with Fire over Channel 1?

<p>Inquire if they are responding as the Support Engine if not specified by dispatch. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key responsibility for the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) to ensure personnel safety during operations?

<p>Ensuring all personnel are equipped with proper protective equipment and operating in a safe manner. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should the Apparatus Driver/Operator (Engineer) assigned as Staging Area Manager (SAM) take immediately upon arrival at the Command Post?

<p>Retrieve the SAM packet from the Command vehicle to understand established protocols and resource management strategies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the Staging Area Manager (SAM) collaborate with Command to effectively manage resources?

<p>By working together to determine minimum staging asset levels, ensuring that the staging area is neither over nor under-resourced. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary responsibility of Firefighter(s) assigned to the Welfare Unit upon arrival at an incident?

<p>To augment or establish a Rehab/Welfare unit, ensuring adequate resources and location for crew rehabilitation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides providing basic medical assessments, what additional logistical responsibility might Firefighter(s) in the Welfare Unit assume?

<p>Overseeing the deployment of lighting to remote areas of the scene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances might Command opt to utilize the Support Engine in a tactical capacity, differing from its primary support role?

<p>When there is a need for immediate tactical intervention, and the Support Engine is either still en route or just arriving on the scene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Support Engine is utilized in a tactical capacity due to immediate needs, what action should Command take to maintain its designed support function?

<p>Request an additional Engine from dispatch to replace the assigned unit and ensure continued Command support. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key factor in ensuring the effectiveness of the Staging Area Manager (SAM) in tracking resources?

<p>The SAM's accurate recording of all resources arriving and leaving the staging area, facilitating accountability and efficient deployment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) during an incident?

<p>Monitoring incident operations and advising the Incident Commander (IC) on safety matters. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what is the initial assignment typically given to the officer of a Support Engine upon arrival at a 'working incident'?

<p>Incident Safety Officer. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the scope of the Incident Safety Officer's (ISO) responsibilities regarding incident operations?

<p>To monitor operations and advise on all matters relating to operational safety and personnel health. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of conducting a 360-degree evaluation of the incident scene for the Incident Safety Officer (ISO)?

<p>To identify all incident-related hazardous situations and report them to the IC. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a minimum knowledge requirement, as stated in the guideline, for an individual to serve as an Incident Safety Officer (ISO)?

<p>Knowledge of personnel accountability systems. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, who has the ultimate responsibility for all responders at an incident?

<p>The Incident Commander (IC). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following NIMS courses is a required qualification for the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) position?

<p>IS 800 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline what action should be taken if the Incident Commander (IC) deviates from assigning the Support Engine Officer as the Incident Safety Officer (ISO)?

<p>The IC is still responsible for naming an ISO for the incident. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Incident Safety Officer's (ISO) responsibility concerning assigned incident personnel?

<p>To ensure the safety, welfare, and accountability of these personnel, including establishing a rehab/welfare unit. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) take if they observe an unsafe action occurring at the incident?

<p>Exercise emergency authority to stop the unsafe action immediately. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Incident Safety Officer's (ISO) role in utilizing subject matter experts or technical specialists?

<p>To determine the need for and oversee these experts when dealing with unique safety issues or hazards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical radio designation for the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) during an incident?

<p>Safety (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides setting up and communicating collapse zones, what other tactical considerations are part of the Incident Safety Officer's (ISO) responsibilities?

<p>Evaluating traffic hazards and apparatus placement, and monitoring smoke and fire conditions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action must the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) take regarding the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?

<p>Ensure a RIC is available and ready, performing a face-to-face to share observations and concerns. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to guideline 04-036F, under what condition can the Support Engine take on a different function from Safety Officer?

<p>If the Incident Commander needs a tactical resource. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On a larger incident where multiple Battalion Chiefs (B/C) respond, what is the guideline for assigning the Incident Safety Officer (ISO)?

<p>The third arriving B/C will assume Safety, or face-to-face with Support Engine if already in role. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Salt Lake City Fire Department's public safety radio system according to the guideline?

<p>To communicate information related to official fire department business only. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the Salt Lake City Fire Department emphasize plain communication over ten codes?

<p>Plain communication ensures clarity and understanding by everyone involved. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions violates the Salt Lake City Fire Department's radio procedure guidelines?

<p>Expressing sarcasm or irritation over the air during a stressful incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the Salt Lake City Fire Department assign specific riding positions (A, B, C, D) radio designations?

<p>To ensure accountability and manageability during day-to-day operations and emergencies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the required frequency for tuning and testing portable radios to meet manufacturer specifications?

<p>Biennially (every two years) (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where should documentation of radio inventory, tuning, and repair be recorded?

<p>In ServiceNow (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a radio assessment, which of the following is evaluated?

<p>Antenna condition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should a firefighter take if they observe unprofessional conduct over the radio?

<p>Refrain from engaging in unprofessional conduct, and report the incident to a supervisor if necessary. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to radio procedure guidelines, what assumption should not be made regarding the activation of radio communication systems?

<p>That the activation is accidental without verification. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Due to the sensitive nature of the information, under what circumstances should the Salt Lake City (SLC) Fire Department policy regarding radio procedures be disseminated outside of the department?

<p>To individuals or organizations outside the department with a verifiable operational need, upon approval. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to 47 CFR 95.413, which type of communication is explicitly prohibited over fire department radio channels?

<p>Transmission of music or sound effects for entertainment purposes. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the radio procedure guideline, what type of communication is prohibited, related to legal or ethical considerations?

<p>Communications made in connection with any activity against federal, state, or local law. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific type of communication is prohibited under radio procedure guidelines, focusing on the integrity and accuracy of information?

<p>Transmission of a false or deceptive communication. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate next step if a missing radio is not found within 14 days after the initial notice to the Technology Division?

<p>Deactivate the radio to prevent unauthorized access. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Someone discovers a radio is missing. What is the first step they should take according to the missing radio procedure?

<p>Notify the Technology Division using the Technology Request Form. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific information about the missing radio is required when filing a lost/stolen report with the Salt Lake City Police Department?

<p>Serial number, make, model, and color of the radio. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action should the person responsible for a missing radio take immediately upon discovering the radio?

<p>Notify the Technology Division using the Technology Request Form. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After discovering a radio is missing and notifying the Technology Division, what is the timeframe within which a lost/stolen report must be filed with the Salt Lake City Police if the radio is not found?

<p>After 14 days from the initial notice to the Technology Division. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When communicating with another apparatus, what is the proper technique to use?

<p>State the other unit's number first, followed by your own unit number. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an emergency situation, to get control of the radio channel, what specific term should be used?

<p>&quot;Emergency Traffic&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What communication protocol does Salt Lake City Fire Department utilize for common communications to ensure clarity and avoid misunderstandings?

<p>&quot;Plain Communications&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first alternative communication method to use if Backup Channels 1 and 2 are unavailable during an incident?

<p>Switch to channels Backup 3 and 4 (6D and 7D). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition should dispatchers resort to using cellular phones for dispatching?

<p>When all backup and UCAN channels are unavailable. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During task force operations, what communication channel is designated for routine dispatch operations?

<p>Channel 1: Dispatch Channel (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Task Force Operations, what is the procedure for units to receive and respond to assignments?

<p>Units remain on Channel 1, then switch channels after dispatch based on their location, and return to Channel 1 upon completion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immediate action should a radio operator take if they unintentionally activate the radio duress (orange) button?

<p>Immediately contact Dispatch to indicate the notification was an accident. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a radio duress button is activated and the operator is under duress, what code should be used if it is safe to do so?

<p>Code '10-33' (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what specific circumstance is the Salt Lake City Fire Department authorized to use the '10-33' code when requesting police support?

<p>When plain English communication could compromise the safety of the public or firefighters. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate action for Dispatch to take if a radio duress button is activated but no one makes contact to indicate it was an accident?

<p>Attempt to contact the person to whom the radio is assigned or the Captain in charge of the apparatus where the radio is located. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should Dispatch relay to Police and the on-duty Battalion Chief upon receiving a '10-33' duress code?

<p>The last known location of the person giving the 'duress' code. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate indication that a user will experience when the radio system has completely failed?

<p>Hearing a continuous tone instead of the confirmation 'chirp'. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of the Dispatch Radio consoles failing, but portable radios remain operational, what immediate action should dispatch take to ensure notifications are still being received?

<p>Conduct a test to determine if stations are receiving notifications through speakers and gongs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a system-wide radio failure, what is the designated channel for routine fire department operations, and why is a separate channel specified?

<p>'Backup 1' (4D), to maintain communication during routine operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific information should dispatch communicate to all stations when the dispatch radio consoles are out of service?

<p>That dispatch radio consoles are out of service and if notifications will/will not be conducted through speakers and gongs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a complete radio system failure affecting all users, what should users do immediately after recognizing the failure?

<p>Switch to 'Backup 1' (4D) or 'Backup 2' (5D) channels for continued operations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides notifying the Technology Director and the Radio Technician, who else should be informed immediately when Dispatch experiences a radio console failure?

<p>The on-duty Battalion Chief, and the Deputy Chief over Operations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific action should fire stations take when speakers and gongs are unavailable during a Dispatch radio console failure?

<p>Monitor portable radios until further notice to receive dispatch notifications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday event, what is the most crucial reason for the Incident Commander to request the next higher alarm?

<p>To provide adequate resources for both ongoing firefighting and the rescue operation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions should the Incident Commander prioritize to maintain fireground control during a Mayday operation?

<p>Ensure that crews maintain their firefighting positions to prevent fire spread while rescue efforts proceed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary consideration when determining if units can be switched back to the original incident channel following a Mayday event?

<p>Command's discretion along with completion of a PAR. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Incident Commander is managing a complex structure fire with a firefighter Mayday. What is the MOST appropriate action regarding Rapid Intervention Crews (RIC)?

<p>Assign additional RICs, with one dedicated to fire suppression and another to the Rapid Intervention operation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical purpose of requesting additional ground ambulances and considering a medical helicopter on standby during a Mayday incident?

<p>To ensure prompt and comprehensive medical support for potential injuries resulting from the Mayday. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Dispatch's responsibility when a Mayday call is transmitted and Command does not immediately acknowledge the transmission?

<p>Initiate alert tones and follow up to ensure Command copies the Mayday. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the priority for Dispatch when a Mayday call is received?

<p>Giving the Mayday priority over other tasks as needed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

On a working incident, what channels should dispatch monitor?

<p>The primary operational channel, Channels 1 and 16. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After acknowledging a Mayday declaration, what should Command do regarding information from the Mayday member?

<p>Confirm the Mayday report, attempt to get more information if needed, and provide direction/support. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are the Incident Commander on the scene. What key information would you want to ascertain from the firefighter who declared the Mayday?

<p>If the member is alone or are others trapped/lost (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If multiple tactical channels are in use on the fireground, what is Command's responsibility after receiving a Mayday declaration?

<p>Transmit the Emergency Traffic declaration on all channels. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a Mayday declaration, what action should Command take regarding radio channel options?

<p>Consider radio channel options, referencing SLCFD SOG 04-07A, Section F. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a firefighter has declared a mayday event and is alone and initiating self-rescue: what direction should Command provide?

<p>Provide positive calming/emotional support (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first action a firefighter should take when realizing they are in trouble within an Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) environment?

<p>Recognize and understand they are in trouble. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After recognizing they are in trouble, what immediate action should a firefighter prioritize if still able to move within the IDLH environment?

<p>Move to a safer, more secure location. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance should a firefighter assume the Firefighter Survival Position, according to the guideline?

<p>If unable to move to a safer location. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario warrants a Company Officer initiating a Mayday communication?

<p>When unable to account for a member operating in the Hazard Zone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific action should Command take upon being alerted by Dispatch about a confirmed Emergency Alert Button activation from a member on-scene?

<p>Announce a Command-Initiated Mayday. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following acknowledgement of a Mayday call, what is the minimum expected level of information that should be provided by the member in distress?

<p>Location, nature of the emergency, and assistance needed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Mayday situation, beyond activating their SCBA PASS alarm and initiating radio communications, what immediate action should a firefighter also take?

<p>Turn on all personal light sources. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Mayday situation, what technique is essential for a firefighter to implement to conserve air and prolong their survival?

<p>Air management techniques/procedures. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday situation, who is authorized to transmit radio communications, besides the individuals communicating the Mayday?

<p>Command. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of firefighters required to be designated as a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) for immediate search and rescue operations?

<p>Four. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances does radio communication during 'Emergency Traffic' prioritize over routine operational updates?

<p>When there is an on-scene emergency, imminent danger, or a significant hazardous situation reported. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should Command take to indicate that 'Emergency Traffic' communication is complete and standard radio operations can resume?

<p>State “All clear, resume normal radio traffic”. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios best describes a situation where the term 'Mayday' should be used?

<p>Reporting members in imminent danger. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to repeat the term 'Mayday' at least three times when transmitting it over the radio during an emergency?

<p>To ensure that the message is transmitted and received. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a Personal Accountability Report (PAR) during an incident?

<p>To provide the Incident Commander with the location and situation of fire crews operating at the scene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what should all members do to protect themselves and their crewmembers during emergency scene operations and training evolutions?

<p>Take every precaution to safeguard themselves and their crewmembers at all times. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday event, after Command acknowledges the 'Emergency Traffic' announcement, what is the distressed member's NEXT responsibility?

<p>Provide a detailed report including Who, What, Where, and Air status. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immediate action should a member take if their initial Mayday declaration is not acknowledged by Command or Dispatch?

<p>Retransmit the Mayday declaration a second time on the same channel. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a Mayday call is still unacknowledged after the second attempt, what should the distressed member do NEXT?

<p>Turn the channel selector knob fully clockwise or counterclockwise and retransmit. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for Command to announce 'Emergency Traffic' immediately upon hearing a Mayday declaration?

<p>To alert all personnel on the fireground and control the radio frequency for emergency communications. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the 'Who' component of a Mayday report, what specific information is the distressed member expected to provide?

<p>The engine/truck number and their assigned seat position. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a Mayday report is missing key information, such as the member's location, what action should Command take?

<p>Request the missing information from the Mayday member. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When providing the 'Where' component of a Mayday report, what level of detail is expected from the distressed member?

<p>Their current location and position, including any landmarks if possible. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the 'Air' component of a Mayday report refer to, and why is this information critical?

<p>The SCBA air supply status of the distressed member, vital for assessing immediate risk. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) Officer do if the crew cannot meet minimum staffing requirements?

<p>Immediately notify Command, who will re-assign personnel as available. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Beyond the minimum standard, what can the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) request through Command?

<p>Specialty units such as Heavy Rescues and HazMat Teams. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the yellow tarp in the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) staging area?

<p>It designates the location of the RIC-specific equipment cache. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) staging area offer a view of two sides of the structure or operational area?

<p>To monitor for potential fire spread and structural collapse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a high-rise fire, where might Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) members be assigned to stage?

<p>In stairwells or other appropriate locations within the Resource Division. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it advantageous for the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) Officer to remain near the Command Post?

<p>To facilitate face-to-face communication and updates. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Rapid Intervention Crew's (RIC) minimum equipment requirement regarding supplied air?

<p>One RIC Air Supply Bag or department-compatible SCBA with face piece. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides standard forcible entry tools and a thermal imager, what other specialized tool should always be included in the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) cache?

<p>A rotary saw with a selection of blades. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday event, what immediate communication action should Command prioritize after declaring Emergency Traffic?

<p>Communicating directly with the Mayday member (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In responding to a Mayday for a large commercial structure fire, what should the Incident Commander consider before immediately deploying the RIC?

<p>Attempting to gain more information about the Mayday member's location and situation (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a Mayday declaration at a residential structure fire, which action should Command take regarding the deployment of the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?

<p>Immediately deploy the RIC to the reported location. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After assigning a RIC Division or Group Supervisor during a Mayday incident, what critical decision must Command then make?

<p>Whether to retain or pass Command of the fire incident (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday event, while rescue efforts are underway, what is a critical responsibility of Command related to ongoing fire suppression?

<p>Ensuring crews do not abandon firefighting positions already in place (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the 'LAST' acronym for RIC operations, what does the 'Stabilize' step primarily involve?

<p>Correcting air supply issues and providing life-saving medical interventions (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Mayday guideline, what should the RIC do after the Mayday member is stabilized?

<p>Transfer the Mayday member to the Medical Group. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a distressed member best establish initial communication with Command during a Mayday event?

<p>By contacting Command via the assigned fire ground channel (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the responsibility of the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) regarding egress points during pre-deployment operations?

<p>To identify, secure, and maintain clear pathways of travel at both primary and secondary egress points. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance is the use of a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) not required at a working incident?

<p>When the fire is in an incipient stage that could be controlled by a portable fire extinguisher, without the use of PPE or SCBA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) conducting a 360-degree walk-around of the structure and operational area during pre-deployment?

<p>To familiarize themselves with potential hazards and access points. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to fire/incident being declared 'Under Control', what action contradicts the proper utilization of a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?

<p>RIC providing relief for operating fire crews actively engaged in firefighting. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During pre-deployment, what is a crucial action for the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) to ensure effective communication?

<p>Monitoring all radio traffic on assigned tactical channels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What additional action should Command consider to enhance Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) readiness at incidents of a large or complex nature?

<p>Establish multiple RICs at each operational entry point or appropriate locations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What pre-deployment action should the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) take regarding water supply, if applicable?

<p>Establish a separate RIC water supply and hose line. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What equipment is considered essential for all Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) operations?

<p>Ground ladders (12’ Roof and a 24’ extension), BLS medical equipment, and an AED (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Mayday situation, what is the most crucial initial action Command must take upon hearing the Mayday declaration?

<p>Transmit an Emergency Traffic declaration on all tactical channels in use. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of firefighters required to compose a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) as defined by this SOP?

<p>Four, equipped and designated for immediate search and rescue operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday event, after declaring emergency traffic and communicating with the distressed member, what is Command's next critical responsibility regarding communication?

<p>Determine the best communication plan by either keeping all operations on the current channel or move other companies to a different channel. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a declared Mayday, why should the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) officer ideally communicate face-to-face with Command before deployment?

<p>To minimize non-essential radio traffic on the designated Mayday channel. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an 'Emergency Traffic' radio communication, which parties are primarily permitted to transmit over the radio?

<p>Command and those individuals communicating the situation/hazard. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance is the term 'Mayday' exclusively reserved for use in radio communications?

<p>To report members in imminent danger. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon hearing a Mayday declaration and the Emergency Traffic announcement, what is the immediate responsibility of individual companies at the scene?

<p>Cease all non-emergency traffic and await communication from Command. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following communication strategies might Command employ during a Mayday situation to manage radio traffic effectively?

<p>Keep all operations (fire and Rescue) on the current Fire Ground channel. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a Personal Accountability Report (PAR) in the context of this SOP?

<p>To update the Incident Commander on crew locations and situations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an 'Emergency Traffic' communication, what specific statement should Command make to signal the resumption of normal radio traffic?

<p>&quot;All clear, resume normal radio traffic.&quot; (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday incident, after the initial Emergency Traffic declaration, what specific action should Command take as soon as possible regarding personnel accountability?

<p>Call for a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) on the designated fire ground operations channel. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the SOP emphasize repeating the term 'Mayday' at least three times during a Mayday transmission?

<p>To ensure the message is successfully transmitted and received amidst potential radio interference and noise. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a Mayday declaration, Emergency Traffic announcement, and determination of communication plan, what is the most critical information Command needs to gather when communicating with the member who declared the Mayday?

<p>Specific details about the situation and status of the member(s) involved. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the SOP define a 'RIC Cache', and what is its intended use?

<p>A specified selection of tools dedicated for the RIC’s use and staged at a specific location.. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical action that must be taken by the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) Officer upon hearing a Mayday and Emergency Traffic announcement, before deploying for rescue?

<p>Ensure that all members of the RIC are aware of the Mayday situation and preparing to deploy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the SOP, what overall objective guides the procedures outlined for Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) operations?

<p>To provide a process for implementing and operating a RIC for lost, distressed, or trapped firefighters. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum daily staffing requirement for the Salt Lake City Fire Department Water Rescue Team (WRT)?

<p>Two currently trained and certified Water Rescue Technicians. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When Medic Engine 7 is dispatched to a non-water rescue emergency within its assigned medical district, what is the standard protocol?

<p>The crew shall respond from quarters or on the air in the Medic Engine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance can Medic Engine 7 travel in Water Rescue 7 when conducting business inside of their assigned medical district?

<p>At the discretion of the Water Rescue Officer, who must notify the Dispatch Center and their respective Battalion Chief. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Water Rescue Team is dispatched to a confirmed water rescue incident of any kind within Salt Lake City limits, what is the response protocol?

<p>The Water Rescue Company responds, and the WRT Officer can choose to leave the Medic Engine in quarters and respond in the Water Rescue Apparatus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides Logistics personnel, who else can deliver the Water Rescue Boat and Trailer to a Water Rescue incident, upon request from the WRT Officer?

<p>Another acceptable vehicle, as determined by the WRT Officer. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A water rescue incident requires advanced rope management skills. Which resource should the Water Rescue Team Officer request in addition to the standard WRT response?

<p>The Heavy Rescue Team. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When outside of their assigned medical district, what must the Water Rescue Officer do when deciding to travel in Water Rescue 7 to facilitate a more rapid response to a potential call?

<p>Notify the Dispatch Center and Battalion 2. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of establishing a consistent response configuration for the Salt Lake City Fire Department Water Rescue Team?

<p>To ensure a timely and effective response to water rescue events. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of Water Rescue Technicians required to be on duty daily to maintain a functioning Water Rescue Team?

<p>At least two (2) currently trained and certified Water Rescue Technicians (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides Medic Engine 7 and the Water Rescue Boat and Trailer, which other apparatus is part of the standard Water Rescue Team response configuration according to SOG 04-12 A?

<p>Water Rescue 7 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition should the Water Rescue Officer notify the Dispatch Center and their respective Battalion Chief regarding the use of Water Rescue 7?

<p>When conducting business inside of their assigned medical district, but deems traveling in the engine inappropriate. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When responding to a water rescue incident within Salt Lake City limits, what action should the Water Rescue Team Officer take regarding the Medic Engine?

<p>The WRT Officer has the option to leave the Medic Engine in quarters and respond in the Water Rescue Apparatus. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides Logistics personnel, who else can deliver the Water Rescue Boat and Trailer to the scene of a water rescue incident?

<p>Another acceptable vehicle (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance should the Water Rescue Team (WRT) Officer request the Heavy Rescue Team to respond to a water rescue incident?

<p>If additional rope management or other technical rescue skills and equipment are required. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately reflects the Salt Lake City Fire Department's policy regarding Water Rescue Team responses within city limits?

<p>The Water Rescue Team responds to all water rescue incidents within Salt Lake City limits, regardless of station district. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When conducting business outside of their assigned medical district, what must happen if the Water Rescue Team chooses to travel in Water Rescue 7 to facilitate a more rapid response to a potential water rescue?

<p>The Water Rescue Officer must notify the Dispatch Center and Battalion 2. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the sequential steps in water rescue with progressively more risk to the rescuer?

<p>Reach, Throw, Row, Go (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of water rescue involves victims that are beneath the surface of a body of water?

<p>Sub-Surface Water Rescue</p> Signup and view all the answers

What must SLCFD members operate within?

<p>Their specified/documented level of training</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Swiftwater rescue, two Upstream Spotters and two Downstream Safeties should be in place before any WRT member enters the waterway.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the overall goal of every water-based rescue operation?

<p>All of the above (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Water Rescue Team responds within the boundaries of Salt Lake County, but outside Salt Lake City limits, who should the Dispatch Center notify?

<p>Both District Battalion Chiefs</p> Signup and view all the answers

All requests for the Water Rescue Team's assistance outside of Salt Lake County by those agencies without a mutual-aid agreement do not require the permission of the Mayor's Office.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) document, what does the term 'Emergency Traffic' refer to?

<p>To alert all operating personnel of an on-scene emergency, imminent danger or otherwise significantly hazardous situation</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC) document, what does the term 'Mayday' refer to?

<p>Reporting members in imminent danger (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum staffing requirement for a Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)?

<p>One (1) Officer and three (3) members</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Mayday situation, who should be the point of communication?

<p>Distressed member, Command and RIC members (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the Mayday declaration is not immediately acknowledged by Command or Dispatch, what should the Mayday member do?

<p>Retransmit the Mayday declaration a second time</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is 'Emergency Traffic' used on the radio?

<p>When radio traffic is limited to emergency messages.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Using unprofessional comments or verbiage over the air is acceptable if it enhances communication.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the document, which of the following is a prohibited radio communication?

<p>Transmitting obscene, indecent or profane words, language or meaning (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should Salt Lake City Fire Department's (SLCFD) radios be inventoried and assessed by The Fire Communications Technician.

<p>No less than annually</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Support Safety Engine guidelines, the Incident Commander (IC) is not ultimately responsible for the safety of all responders at an incident.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who does the Incident Safety Officer (ISO) advise on matters relating to operational safety?

<p>The Incident Commander (IC) or Unified Command</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Support Safety Engine guidelines, what is first assignment given to the Officer.

<p>Incident Safety Officer (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Support Engine approaches the scene, what information should they broadcast over the radio?

<p>Unit Designation, Arrival as Support Engine, Direction of Travel, Number of personnel if less than or more than four (4).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the SLCFD's tactical priorities?

<p>Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radio benchmark does the Incident Commander use after a completion of the search and rescue efforts have been extended to every involved and/or exposed occupancy that can be safely entered and have yielded no savable victims?

<p>Primary All Clear (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the transfer of command guideline document, what is the preferred method of contact between the arriving officer and the prior Incident Commander (IC)?

<p>face-to-face</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Fast Action Command Option for a medical incident with a multivehicle accident?

<p>We'll be out on patient care (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of HazMat Technicians that must be available daily to maintain a functioning HazMat team, according to the Salt Lake City Fire Department's standard?

<p>Seven (7) currently trained and certified HazMat Technicians (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a unit from a designated HazMat station responds to a non-hazardous materials emergency, what is the default procedure regarding the vehicle they should use?

<p>Crews should respond in their respective engines unless otherwise requested. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what specific circumstance can the HazMat crew choose to travel in HazMat 10 or HazMat 14 when conducting department business?

<p>When conducting business outside of their assigned medical district to facilitate a more rapid response to a HazMat call. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a HazMat crew deems it inappropriate to travel in their respective engine while conducting business inside their assigned medical district, what action must the HazMat Officer take?

<p>Notify the Dispatch Center and their respective Battalion Chief. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which combination of units would be referred to as the 'HazMat Company'?

<p>Any configuration of Engine 10, Engine 14, HazMat 10, HazMat 14 and Special Ops 14 together (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, where are the two stations located that house the Salt Lake City Fire Department's Hazardous Materials Response Team?

<p>Stations 10 and 14 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are the engines at the designated HazMat stations identified in terms of unit designation?

<p>They retain the designation as Engine 10 or Engine 14. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the document, what factor might necessitate a modification in the standard apparatus response configuration of the HazMat team?

<p>The unique nature of hazardous materials incidents. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance can the Captain of the HazMat crew proceed directly to the scene without retrieving their HazMat apparatus?

<p>If they determine the incident requires immediate action and they possess the necessary equipment, or another properly equipped HazMat apparatus is en-route. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action should a HazMat crew take if dispatched to a HazMat call while already engaged on a different incident with their engine in their district?

<p>Respond with the phrase, 'En-route but delayed for apparatus exchange' and retrieve their HazMat apparatus before responding. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a HazMat incident occurs within Salt Lake City limits, what is the protocol regarding Incident Command?

<p>The officer from the first arriving Engine/Truck company retains Incident Command, even after HazMat arrival. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a HazMat response required outside of Salt Lake City limits, but within Salt Lake County, what notification procedure must the HazMat Officer follow?

<p>Notify the appropriate District Battalion Chief that one or both HazMat crews are leaving the City. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the protocol for a HazMat Team to respond to an incident outside of Salt Lake County without a mutual-aid agreement?

<p>Permission must be obtained from the Mayor’s Office, requested by the Chief of the Department or designee. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a HazMat team is dispatched outside of Salt Lake County, which additional notification and response actions are required?

<p>The District Battalion Chiefs must be notified by the Dispatch Center, <em>and</em> they shall respond <em>with</em> the HazMat Team. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a HazMat incident, when is it most appropriate for the HazMat crew Captain to consider transferring overall Incident Command to the HazMat Officer.

<p>Command is <em>never</em> transferred to the HazMat Officer unless specifically requested by the initial Incident Commander due to unique circumstances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a HazMat incident occurs on the border of Salt Lake City and another municipality within Salt Lake County, requiring a collaborative response, how should the Incident Command structure be determined?

<p>The agencies involved should establish a Unified Command, with each agency providing a designated Incident Commander to jointly manage the incident. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of HazMat Technicians that must be staffed daily for the Salt Lake City Fire Department's Hazardous Materials Response Team?

<p>Seven (7) HazMat Technicians (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance is a HazMat Officer required to notify the Dispatch Center and their respective Battalion Chief?

<p>When conducting business inside their assigned medical district and traveling in the HazMat unit is deemed inappropriate. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which units are co-located at Station 14 as part of the Hazardous Materials Response Team?

<p>Engine 14, HazMat 14, and Special Ops 14. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the designation for any combination of Engine 10 or 14, HazMat 10 or 14, and Special Ops 14 units operating together?

<p>The HazMat Company (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should the HazMat Officer take when responding to a non-hazardous material incident outside of their assigned medical district?

<p>Travel in HazMat 10 or HazMat 14 to facilitate a more rapid response to a potential HazMat call, after notifying Dispatch and their respective Battalion Chief. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a unit at a designated HazMat station is dispatched to a non-HazMat emergency, what is the standard procedure for their response?

<p>The crews shall respond from quarters in their respective engines. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of maintaining two HazMat stations in different locations within Salt Lake City?

<p>To ensure a functioning Hazardous Materials Response Team capable of rapid deployment across the city. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best describes the Salt Lake City Fire Department's approach to HazMat team apparatus response configurations?

<p>Flexibility to modify apparatus response based on the unique nature of hazardous materials incidents. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should a HazMat unit crew do if dispatched to a HazMat call while already responding to a different incident in their engine?

<p>Respond with the phrase, “En-route but delayed for apparatus exchange” and retrieve their HazMat apparatus prior to responding to the HazMat incident. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what specific circumstance can the HazMat crew Captain proceed directly to a HazMat incident scene without exchanging for the HazMat apparatus?

<p>If they have the necessary equipment to mitigate the emergency <em>or</em> if another properly equipped HazMat apparatus is en-route. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within Salt Lake City limits, who retains overall incident command at a hazardous materials incident when a HazMat team is assisting?

<p>The officer of the Engine/Truck companies on the scene requesting assistance from a HazMat response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When HazMat teams respond to an incident outside Salt Lake City limits but within Salt Lake County, what notification procedure must be followed?

<p>The HazMat Officer must notify the appropriate District Battalion Chief. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under which circumstance is permission from the Mayor's Office required for a HazMat Team response?

<p>When responding outside of Salt Lake County without a mutual-aid agreement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is responsible for requesting permission from the Mayor's Office for a HazMat Team response outside of Salt Lake County without a mutual-aid agreement?

<p>The Chief of the Department, or designee. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a HazMat team is dispatched outside Salt Lake County, what additional notification and response procedure is required?

<p>The dispatch center notifies both District Battalion Chiefs, and the Battalion Chiefs <em>shall</em> respond with the HazMat Team. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario best describes a situation where the Captain of the HazMat crew would exercise their discretion to proceed directly to the scene of a HazMat call, forgoing the apparatus exchange?

<p>A small gasoline spill at a local gas station, and the HazMat crew is equipped with absorbent materials in their current engine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of establishing minimum operational guidelines for Hazmat responses within the Salt Lake City Fire Department?

<p>To broaden the safety margin for personnel and promote operational efficiency. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the Salt Lake City Fire Department's Hazmat operations policy, what could be the consequences of failing to adhere to established guidelines?

<p>Civil and criminal penalties as defined by law. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a Hazmat incident, the Incident Commander is considering an action that has a high probability of success but also carries significant risk. Which concept should guide their decision-making?

<p>Risk/benefit analysis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Hazmat response, where is the decontamination process typically conducted?

<p>Warm Zone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first priority during all Salt Lake City Fire Department Hazmat Team operations?

<p>Life safety of the responders and patients (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A firefighter, trained to the operations level begins to assist with advanced mitigation strategies at a large Hazmat incident. Which of the following safety principles has been violated?

<p>Operating within one's specified/documented level of training. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between NFPA 470, NFPA 1500, OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120, and the Salt Lake City Fire Department's Hazmat operations guidelines?

<p>SLCFD Hazmat personnel shall comply with these regulations, where applicable. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Hazmat incident, resources are stretched and choices must be made. The Incident Commander (IC) must decide between protecting a nearby water source from contamination or salvaging valuable property. How should the IC prioritize these actions based on established priorities?

<p>Prioritize environmental protection to prevent long-term ecological damage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a Hazmat incident, what is the significance of approaching from uphill and upwind?

<p>It minimizes the risk of exposure to hazardous materials and aids in determining wind direction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for establishing an initial Isolation Zone at a Hazmat incident?

<p>To prevent the spread of contamination and protect responders and the public. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the hazardous product at an incident is unknown, what determines the size of the initial Isolation Zone?

<p>The chemical phase (solid, liquid, or gas). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the Primary Assessment phase, what key information should responders attempt to gather from a safe distance?

<p>The product's name, phase, container type, and potential victims. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to a Hazmat Team's arrival, under what condition should rescuers perform an immediate rescue?

<p>If an immediate rescue is required to save lives. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If immediate rescue is required before the Hazmat Team arrives, what should rescuers do regarding personal protective equipment?

<p>Consult with the Hazmat Team enroute to confirm the adequacy of structural firefighting gear and SCBA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should be provided to the receiving hospital when transporting a patient exposed to hazardous materials?

<p>The chemical, exposure amount/duration, patient's condition, antidotes given, and level of decon. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When establishing wind direction at a Hazmat incident, why is relying solely on airport wind data unreliable?

<p>Weather conditions vary across the valley, making airport data potentially inaccurate at the incident location. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of SLCFD Guideline 04-13B regarding hazardous materials incidents?

<p>To offer general guidance on initial actions, size-up, safety priorities, and tactical assignments during the early stages of a hazmat incident. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, which of the following best describes the scope of a 'Hazardous Materials Incident'?

<p>The release or imminent release of hazardous material from its container, including related criminal activities. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the acronym APIE-T represent in the context of hazmat incident response?

<p>A risk-based response model that allows for plan adjustments based on the evolving conditions at a hazmat scene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which zone at a hazardous materials incident is considered free from contamination and designated as a planning and staging area?

<p>Cold Zone (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A substance is classified as a 'physical hazard' under this SOG due to which characteristic?

<p>Its potential to cause immediate physical harm through explosion, fire, or reactivity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Hazmat incident, what is the purpose of establishing operational zones?

<p>To delineate areas requiring specific PPE and skill levels, restricting access to essential personnel. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary objective of 'decontamination' at a hazardous materials incident?

<p>To remove or neutralize contaminants from personnel and equipment to prevent secondary contamination. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for Command and/or the Hazmat Group Supervisor to conduct a Risk/Benefit Analysis early in a Hazmat incident?

<p>To evaluate the potential hazards and weigh them against the potential benefits of the planned actions, informing the overall operational strategy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Hazmat operations, why is a trained Rapid Intervention Team (RIT) required before Hot Zone entry?

<p>To provide immediate assistance and rescue to personnel operating in the Hot Zone in case of an emergency. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what is the function of the Incident Action Plan (IAP) during a hazmat response?

<p>To outline the response strategy and objectives defined by Incident Command, whether orally or in writing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the Hazardous Materials Team as defined in this guideline?

<p>SLCFD members certified to the NFPA Technician Level (NFPA 470) in hazardous materials response and mitigation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for implementing a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) system during a Hazmat incident?

<p>To ensure the location and status of all personnel on scene are known, enhancing safety and coordination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the secondary assessment phase at an incident, what action should be prioritized if an evacuation has already taken place?

<p>Confirming that the building or property is fully evacuated and all evacuees are accounted for. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event that personnel are unaccounted for during an evacuation, what action may become necessary during the secondary assessment?

<p>Initiating a search operation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should all hazards be identified and minimized/controlled prior to personnel deployment in a Hazmat scenario?

<p>To reduce the risks to which responding personnel are exposed, improving overall safety and operational effectiveness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of establishing and maintaining an effective communications system/plan during Hazmat incidents?

<p>To facilitate seamless information flow, coordination, and decision-making among all involved personnel. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a key consideration for utilizing both the Department PIO and EM PIO during an incident?

<p>Communicating evacuation routes, evacuated areas, and contact information to locate evacuees to local media. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should SLCFD investigators be included in notifications made to law enforcement agencies such as the FBI or DEA?

<p>Anytime law enforcement notifications are made. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is there a need to prepare for decontamination during Hazmat operations?

<p>To minimize secondary contamination and protect the health and safety of responders and the public. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of establishing a personnel evacuation signal and plan?

<p>To quickly remove all personnel from the area in the event of a sudden and imminent hazard. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Phase II - Pre-Entry Operations, which acronym phase involves gathering information from various sources such as dispatch, callers, witnesses, and facility representatives?

<p>Analyze (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If assigned 'Investigation' by the Incident Commander (IC) during pre-entry operations, what action should be prioritized?

<p>Locating the caller and/or responsible party from a safe location. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of using monitoring tools during the analysis phase of pre-entry operations at a hazardous materials incident?

<p>To discover the extent of contamination spread and determine safe exposure concentrations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When formulating a response plan during pre-entry operations, which factor should be considered to make informed decisions concerning immediate and long-term consequences?

<p>Immediate and long-term life safety. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the progression of all Salt Lake City Fire Department (SLCFD) Hazardous Materials responses?

<p>They progress through four operational phases: arrival/command, pre-entry, entry, and termination, with possible compression, extension, or simultaneity of phases. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Phase I operations at a Hazmat incident, what is the most important guideline for Operations Level first responders to remember?

<p>Act in a defensive manner and avoid over-committing, particularly into potential Hot Zones. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Hazmat incident, if the SLCFD Hazmat Team is not part of the initial dispatch, what action should the Incident Commander (IC) take?

<p>Request the Hazmat Team as soon as possible to facilitate a timely response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the designated operational level at which non-SLCFD Hazmat personnel are permitted to function during an incident within Salt Lake City?

<p>Operations Level, as defined by the NFPA and SLCFD guidelines. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon the arrival of the Hazmat Team at a Hazmat incident, what action should their officer initially undertake?

<p>Report to Command to receive a situation assessment and assist in developing and implementing an Incident Action Plan. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In managing a Hazmat incident, what is the guideline regarding the transfer of overall incident command to the Hazmat Officer?

<p>It is not necessary, or even recommended, as the initial IC can maintain overall command. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During what phase of a hazardous materials incident would actions such as reconnaissance, monitoring, and plugging/patching leaks primarily take place, requiring specialized Technician Level skills?

<p>Phase III: Entry Operations (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the SLCFD's approach to Hazmat incidents, which statement best reflects the relationship between operational phases and the skills required?

<p>Phase I requires Operations Level skills applicable to all members, while Phases II-IV necessitate Technician Level skills specific to the situation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the Salt Lake County Health Department require action to neutralize pathogens during blood washes?

<p>To prevent untreated pathogens from contaminating waterways via storm drains. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should fire crews do if dispatched on a blood wash call after already handling the original incident?

<p>Request dispatch to send a different apparatus and remain in service. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct procedure for preparing the Bru Tab solution for a blood wash?

<p>Add the Bru Tabs to the sprayer after it has been filled with water, and allow them to dissolve for approximately 5 minutes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important not to pre-mix the Bru Tab solution and store it on the apparatus?

<p>The solution has a limited shelf life of about 8 hours once mixed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should be done with heavy concentrations of blood before applying the Bru Tab solution?

<p>The blood should be removed with absorbents and placed in a bio bag. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long should the Bru Tab solution sit on the affected area to ensure pathogens are neutralized?

<p>10 minutes (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what action should be taken when addressing a blood wash incident on private property?

<p>The property owner should be directed to contact a clean-up company for blood removal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What equipment will be supplied to heavy apparatus for blood wash procedures?

<p>A ½ gallon sprayer and a sleeve of Bru tabs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it critical to avoid opening a previously unopened suspicious package without proper assessment?

<p>Because opening it might expose the public and department personnel to unreasonable dangers like explosives, biological agents, or toxins. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate procedure for collecting samples from a suspicious package incident?

<p>Sample collection should only be conducted by the Hazardous Material Response Team, and then transferred to a pre-identified agency for transportation and further analysis. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a suspicious package incident, what key step must be taken to ensure accountability and facilitate further investigation?

<p>Coordinate with specified agencies to identify a single responsible party for incident follow-up. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to allowing personnel who have been potentially exposed to hazardous chemicals at a suspicious package incident to return to service or be transported to a hospital, what critical action must be taken?

<p>Ensure exposed personnel are properly decontaminated according to SLCFD policy 06-36C Chemical Exposures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be prioritized at a threat scene involving a suspicious package to maintain the integrity of potential evidence?

<p>Treat threat scenes as crime scenes by preserving evidence, maintaining chain of custody, and documenting all field tests conducted. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for Salt Lake City Fire Department's (SLCFD) emphasis on notifying multiple agencies during a suspicious package or chemical suicide incident?

<p>To leverage specialized expertise and jurisdictional authority for effective incident mitigation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a suspicious package incident where explosives cannot be ruled out, which specific agency, in addition to the HazMat team and police, must be notified?

<p>The Salt Lake City Bomb Squad. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the guideline explicitly state that first responders should not attempt to contain, package, or physically investigate a suspicious package?

<p>To minimize the risk of exposure and contamination to hazardous materials. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary initial action that first responders should take upon discovering a suspicious package in a building?

<p>Isolate the area and deny entry, creating a hot zone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a chemical suicide incident, which agency's notification is specifically mentioned in addition to the standard notifications for hazardous packages?

<p>Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way does the guideline allow for the identification of a suspicious substance without direct physical contact?

<p>By remotely gathering information from responsible parties. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should public safety actions be prioritized at a suspicious package incident after isolating the area and notifying the appropriate agencies?

<p>Ensure the safety of endangered persons, decontamination, treatment, and transport of contaminated individuals. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Unified Command situation involving a suspicious package, what is the primary responsibility of the Salt Lake City Fire Department Incident Commander (IC)?

<p>To identify a lead agency from the law enforcement side and coordinate actions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the Incident Commander (IC) play in suspicious package or chemical suicide incidents despite the existence of the guideline?

<p>The IC determines the best plan for mitigating the incident, using the guidelines as a resource. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After mitigating initial public safety concerns at a chemical suicide incident, what actions may the Salt Lake City Fire Department personnel undertake in coordination with law enforcement?

<p>Field testing in support of law enforcement investigation and chain of evidence actions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it acceptable for Salt Lake City Fire Department personnel to perform field screening during a suspicious package incident?

<p>When field screening contributes to public safety and rules out immediate threats or explosive devices. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who is primarily responsible for ensuring that standard notifications are made and that appropriate field testing and sampling are conducted during a hazardous materials incident?

<p>The Hazardous Material Response Team Incident Commander. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of limiting field screening during suspicious package incidents?

<p>To ensure actions do not increase the threat to the public or department personnel. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical element must be maintained when department personnel collect samples for evidence at an incident scene?

<p>Strict adherence to chain of evidence actions and documentation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what situation is it acceptable for Salt Lake City Fire Department personnel to collect down-range photographs at suspicious device incidents?

<p>When the photographs document potential hazards as part of coordination with lead law enforcement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If, during an incident, the Salt Lake City Fire Department personnel collect potentially hazardous materials, what key information must be determined and communicated?

<p>Strict chain of custody processes including destination and agency responsible for transport. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should off-duty personnel equipped with fire department radios take during an earthquake, according to the provided guidelines?

<p>Place themselves in service 'on the air,' if possible. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial action that companies in service at the time of the earthquake should take?

<p>Immediately clear the station with all apparatus and place themselves in service. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the highest patrol priority for fire companies immediately following an earthquake?

<p>Hospitals, rest homes, and schools. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During patrols after an earthquake, what should companies avoid until an accurate situation status is established?

<p>Committing to a specific incident. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary objective of the earthquake response procedures outlined in the guidelines?

<p>Promoting a systematic and coordinated operation to stabilize and mitigate the situation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When encountering large evacuation efforts, which action relating to police assistance should be taken?

<p>Police assistance shall be requested by operations through the Command Center. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who assumes responsibility for on-scene medical operations during a major earthquake, according to the provided guidelines?

<p>The Task Force Operations Officer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what order of priority should command tactics be implemented in the event of a major earthquake?

<p>Protect life, then property. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a major earthquake causing widespread damage and communication loss, what is the expected operational mode for fire companies during the initial period?

<p>Companies will operate as independent units under the direction of their respective company officers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a major earthquake and subsequent communication loss, approximately how long may it take to establish even a temporary fire department radio link between units, potentially impacting initial response coordination?

<p>Approximately one hour. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the Salt Lake City Fire Department to have a specific procedure in place for earthquake response?

<p>To facilitate efficient utilization of available resources in mitigating the effects of a severe earthquake. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what action should all on-duty personnel take immediately following a major earthquake?

<p>Remain on duty until relieved by off-duty personnel. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following an earthquake, what is the protocol for relieving on-duty personnel, once off-duty personnel begin to arrive?

<p>On-duty personnel shall be relieved to provide for the welfare of their families. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of earthquake response, what is the role of the Salt Lake City Public Safety Dispatch Office in managing mutual aid agreements?

<p>Activating all signed mutual response and mutual aid agreements to address contingencies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific action does the Salt Lake City Public Safety Dispatch Office take concerning notifications and callbacks following a major earthquake?

<p>They will implement callbacks as set forth in Policy 04-10 Notifications and Callbacks. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of placing UASI MITS (Urban Area Security Initiative Mobile Interoperability Support Team) vehicles into operation during an earthquake response?

<p>To ensure proper communication among emergency responders. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial action that must be undertaken to establish control and efficiency during a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)?

<p>Establish a clear chain of command with an Incident Commander. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a mass casualty incident, what is the primary role of the Medical Group Supervisor?

<p>To oversee and manage the medical aspects of the incident scene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical action must be performed during triage, beyond categorizing patients, according to the SOG?

<p>Opening the airway and controlling serious hemorrhage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following considerations is paramount when determining patient priority during the triage process?

<p>The severity and type of injury sustained relative to immediate treatability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical factor that determines whether a patient is categorized as 'Immediate (Priority I)' during triage at a mass casualty incident?

<p>The potential for rapid deterioration and death without immediate intervention. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way does the Salt Lake City Fire Department's MCI guideline define a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)?

<p>A situation where the demand overwhelms initial resource capacity.. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After the Triage Officer has identified patients that require transportation what should happen next according to the guideline?

<p>Transport the most critically injured/ill first. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the START triage system, what is the most critical treatment that can be performed outside of opening an airway?

<p>Controlling serious hemorrhage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a mass casualty incident, what is the guiding principle for prioritizing treatment of casualties?

<p>Treating the most critically ill first, then proceeding to others based on severity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a mass casualty incident, which action should NOT delay transport of a casualty?

<p>Performing a complete medical assessment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the Medical Communications Branch play during a mass casualty incident?

<p>Providing individual hospitals with patient priority and major injury information. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the START triage system, what factors categorize victims during the rapid evaluation process?

<p>Ventilation, perfusion, and mental status. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a mass casualty incident, what is the recommended course of action for victims categorized as 'walking wounded'?

<p>Segregation from other injured individuals and evacuation at a later time. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following injuries would classify a patient as Priority I (Immediate) in a mass casualty incident?

<p>Major multiple fractures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Immediate priority for a patient who falls under the D.O.A./Non-Resuscitable category?

<p>Confirmation of death and respectful handling of the deceased. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the START system aid first responders during a mass casualty incident involving a motor vehicle incident (MVI)?

<p>By identifying victims most at risk of early death and offering basic stabilization measures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During hostile contact, what is the immediate priority for RTF and Extraction Team medical personnel?

<p>Assume a lower profile or move to cover as directed, prioritizing Force Protection actions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical responsibility of Force Protection officers regarding RTF or Extraction Team medical personnel during operations?

<p>To never leave RTF or Extraction Team medical personnel behind. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does LCES, which RTFs and Extraction Teams should maintain, stand for?

<p>Lookout, Communications, Escape Routes, and a Safe Refuge (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Within the Warm Zone, who has tactical control of the RTF and Extraction Team?

<p>The officer in charge of the Force Protection element. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When RTFs encounter multiple casualties in close proximity in the Warm Zone, what is the first criterion to determine who to assess first?

<p>Still/Obvious Life Threat (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of medical treatment provided by RTFs in the Warm Zone?

<p>To stabilize as many casualties as possible using rapid, TECC-based lifesaving interventions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the potential actions to take for a person who is injured (or uninjured) who can walk without assistance?

<p>Instructed to place their hands on their head and either shelter in place, self-evacuate down corridors, or escorted to safe areas (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What equipment is carried by Extraction Teams to facilitate casualty movement?

<p>Soft litters, SKEDS, rescue straps, tarps, and backboards (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key responsibility of the second-arriving SLCFD company officer when assigned as the Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS)?

<p>Assuming command of Rescue Task Forces and Extraction Teams. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance might the first-arriving company officer be assigned as the Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS)?

<p>When the battalion chief has assumed command. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action does the Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS) need to take before deploying Rescue Task Forces (RTFs) and Extraction Teams?

<p>Receiving the 'Green Light' from Command. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Rescue Group Supervisor's responsibility regarding communication during rescue operations?

<p>Acting as the primary point of communication between Rescue Task Forces, Extraction Teams, the Medical Group Supervisor, and Command. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an active shooter mass casualty incident, what is the primary reason for Command to direct the Dispatch Center to alert local hospitals?

<p>To ensure hospitals are prepared for a potential influx of patients with specialized trauma needs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the initial Triage, Treatment, Transfer, and Transport Officers be assigned during a mass casualty incident?

<p>Quickly, based on the first-arriving personnel with medical certifications, then refined as more resources arrive. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In addition to assuming command of deployed and staging teams, what is another key task for the Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS)?

<p>Creating additional Rescue Task Forces and Extraction Teams as needed, while securing BPPE and Force Protection officers for them. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a mass casualty incident, why is it vital to confirm open travel routes for EMS vehicles?

<p>To facilitate expedited transport of casualties to hospitals and ensure continuous access for responding units. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might the Rescue Group Supervisor consider designating Warm Zone Medical Rally Points?

<p>To expedite the transfer of patients when the transport distance to the Casualty Collection Point is long. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of establishing landing zones, controllers, and radio channels for aero-medical assets during a mass casualty incident?

<p>To ensure safe and coordinated air transport of critical patients, and avoid airspace conflicts. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factor most influences where the Rescue Task Force (RTF) medical cache should be located?

<p>Close proximity to the entry point, at the Rescue Task Force staging area, or at the Casualty Collection Point (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are Rescue Task Forces designated, according to the guideline?

<p>Based on the crew’s primary apparatus number (e.g. Medic Engine 2 = RTF 2). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an active shooter event, under what circumstance should Tactical Medics NOT be assigned to both medical provider and Force Protection duties simultaneously?

<p>Due to the potential for conflicting responsibilities, which could compromise both medical care and security. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If there is a legitimate threat of explosion or signs of an active fire at an active shooter incident, what is the primary function of the established Fire Group?

<p>To suppress fires and coordinate non-EMS operational needs while ensuring force protection. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should the Fire Group Supervisor operate on a separate radio channel from the rest of the incident during an active shooter event?

<p>To streamline communication within the Fire Group and reduce the risk of confusion with other operations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what critical circumstance should SLCFD personnel absolutely not enter or move through the 'Hot Zone' or 'Red Light' areas to deploy ladders, hose lines, or other equipment?

<p>Under no circumstances; personnel safety is the priority, especially when there is an active threat of violence. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of the Casualty Collection Point (CCP) during an active shooter event?

<p>To function as the central location for transferring patient care from law enforcement to EMS personnel. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does 'cover' differ from 'concealment' in the context of active shooter events?

<p>Cover protects from hostile fire, while concealment only hides from view without providing ballistic protection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main objective of the initial Contact Team(s) during an active shooter event?

<p>To engage the active shooter to contain or eliminate threat, preventing further harm. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role and composition of the Extraction Team(s) during an active shooter event?

<p>A combined team of SLCFD and LE personnel responsible for moving viable casualties to the Casualty Collection Point. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what conditions would an Extraction Team deploy into the Warm Zone during an active shooter event?

<p>If adequate law enforcement force protection is available to escort them. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of law enforcement officers recommended for a Force Protection team assigned to a medical Rescue Task Force?

<p>Two officers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What factors influence the size and deployment configuration of Force Protection teams during an active shooter event?

<p>The dynamics of the situation, including the threat level and the operational environment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is 'dynamic risk assessment' a continuous process during an active shooter event?

<p>To gather and evaluate information for identifying potential hazards, dangerous conditions, and determine the appropriate risk level throughout the incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an active shooter event, what differentiates a Medical Rally Point (MRP) from a Casualty Collection Point?

<p>MRPs are temporary collection areas inside the Warm Zone for casualties awaiting transport, while Casualty Collection Points are definitive treatment locations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an Immediate Action Rapid Deployment (IARD) scenario, what is the primary justification for swift deployment?

<p>To mitigate immediate, life-threatening risks to innocent individuals. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do LE Rescue Teams support the tactical objectives during an active shooter event?

<p>By extracting viable casualties from the Hot Zone, working behind Contact Teams. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of operational zones at an incident, what is the key factor determining the boundaries of these zones?

<p>The severity of the threat or hazard present in that geographic location. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of law enforcement in controlling the Inner Perimeter during an active shooter event?

<p>To contain the subject(s) and manage entry/exit from the affected area. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an active shooter incident, which scenario describes a spontaneously selected Medical Rally Point (MRP)?

<p>A classroom where a group of casualties has gathered, offering some protection. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinguishing factor between the Warm Zone and the Cold Zone in an active shooter incident?

<p>The level of risk from hostile fire, with the Warm Zone having a mitigated risk and the Cold Zone having no risk. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Outer Perimeter relate to the other operational zones during an active shooter incident?

<p>It encompasses the Inner Perimeter and helps control public access. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the composition of an improvised explosive device (IED)?

<p>A device fabricated with improvised components, potentially including military stores, to cause harm. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main role of the Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS) during an active shooter event?

<p>To direct the Rescue Task Forces (RTFs) in the rapid treatment and extraction of casualties from the Warm Zone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an extended active shooter event, what is a potential role for Rescue Task Force (RTF) personnel within a pre-designated Medical Rally Point (MRP)?

<p>To stage and await casualties being brought out of the Hot Zone by LE Rescue Teams. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the composition and purpose of a Rescue Task Force (RTF)?

<p>A combination of SLCFD and LE Force Protection personnel deployed in the Warm Zone to provide point-of-wound care and prepare casualties for evacuation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of an active shooter event, what does it mean for an area to be considered 'clear' but not 'secure'?

<p>The area has been searched and is believed to be free of immediate threats, but there is still a possibility of danger. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important that operational zones (Hot, Warm, Cold) are not viewed as simply concentric circles around the incident?

<p>Because the threat's location can cause zones to be discontinuous, asymmetrical, and dynamic. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS) ensure effective coordination between Rescue Task Forces (RTFs) and Extraction Teams operating in the Warm Zone?

<p>By serving as the primary point of communication between the RTFs, Extraction Teams, the Medical Group Supervisor, and Command. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of law enforcement (LE) personnel within a Rescue Task Force (RTF)?

<p>To provide force protection, ensuring the safety of the RTF while point-of-wound care is administered. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should Incident Commanders approach establishing Operational Zones during a dynamic incident?

<p>Recognize zones might be discontinues, asymmetrical, and dynamic depending on the threat’s locations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of a Noise Flash Diversionary Device (NFDD) or Flash-Bang during a tactical operation?

<p>To temporarily divert the attention of persons in the immediate vicinity to give tactical teams a window of opportunity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between the Inner and Outer Perimeters in hostage or barricade incidents?

<p>The Outer Perimeter encompasses the Inner Perimeter, which is controlled by law enforcement and excludes the public. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the core mission of Rescue Task Forces (RTF) operating in the Warm Zone?

<p>To provide point-of-wound care to casualties in areas that are clear but not necessarily secure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum composition of a Rescue Task Force (RTF)?

<p>Two SLCFD medical personnel and two armed Force Protection officers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Tactical Operations Center (TOC) during a hostage or barricade incident?

<p>To coordinate law enforcement tactical operations within the inner perimeter. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a barricaded subject incident, what is the primary reason for pre-staging SLCFD suppression and EMS personnel?

<p>To minimize response time and improve outcomes in these high-risk incidents. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC) guidelines and military combat medical guidelines (TCCC)?

<p>TECC guidelines are the civilian equivalent of the military’s combat medical guidelines (i.e.TCCC). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical factor that defines a situation as a 'Barricaded Subject' incident, requiring specialized response protocols?

<p>The suspect refuses to submit to custody and poses a significant threat to safety. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under whose direction do Rescue Task Forces (RTF) operate, and to whom do they report?

<p>RTFs operate under the direction of the RTF Team Leader and report to the Rescue Group Supervisor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the establishment of a Casualty Collection Point (CCP) essential during a hostage/barricade event?

<p>To assemble, triage, treat, and transport casualties in a safe location outside the inner perimeter. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an active hostage rescue operation, what shared responsibility exists between the SLCFD and Law Enforcement (LE)?

<p>Providing medical care and treatment for casualties. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What defines 'Containment' by law enforcement during a hostage/barricade situation, and why is it important?

<p>The isolation of a geographic area to prevent escape or entry. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Given the potential for fire as a weapon or result of SWAT tactics, what is a proactive measure the SLCFD takes during barricaded subject events?

<p>Pre-staging suppression and EMS personnel to minimize response time. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most important communications consideration when SLCFD units are operating in a 'Cold Zone' near an active law enforcement tactical operation?

<p>Maintaining direct communication with law enforcement command to coordinate actions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the operational significance of an 'Explosive Breach' during a barricaded subject or hostage rescue situation, specifically regarding SLCFD's role?

<p>It requires immediate fire suppression support due to the high risk of fire and structural compromise. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of medical efforts under TECC guidelines during high-risk conditions?

<p>Prioritizing interventions that are most likely to improve immediate survival. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Tactical Medics (TMs) integrate their roles as firefighters/officers (SFOs/LEOs) with their medical responsibilities?

<p>By applying TECC/TCCC principles within the context of law enforcement tactical operations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the overarching goal of Tactical Emergency Medical Support (TEMS)?

<p>To reduce injuries, illnesses, disabilities, and deaths related to police operations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does TEMS effectively deliver medical care in dynamic and high-stress law enforcement missions?

<p>By adapting sound medical practices to align with police tactics in challenging environments. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a hostage situation, what is the primary objective of the initial responding patrol officers?

<p>To establish containment, isolating the area and preventing the subject(s) escape. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a hostage situation, what is the primary reason for establishing a Rescue Task Force (RTF) contingency before SWAT and Tactical Medics (TMs) arrive?

<p>To provide quicker casualty access and treatment if the situation escalates. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might SLCFD fire suppression resources be requested to standby at a barricaded subject incident?

<p>To potentially address fires initiated by IEDs, the subject(s), or SWAT actions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what type of incident would a single engine and ambulance response typically be sufficient?

<p>A barricaded subject with no immediate threats. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a hostage barricade event, what is the typical role of SLCFD Tactical Medics (TMs)?

<p>To provide on-scene medical support for law enforcement personnel and others involved. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a hostage situation, what should the Incident Commander (IC) consider regarding the establishment of a Unified Command?

<p>Co-locating with the on-scene law enforcement IC to establish a Unified Command, especially with multiple hostages. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific action does the first arriving unit need to take regarding staging, when arriving on scene at a barricade situation?

<p>Respond to an initial staging area in close proximity to the incident but at a safe location. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the potential of a SWAT team deploying NFDDs or explosive breaching charges impact the role of SLCFD Suppression crews at a barricade incident?

<p>It increases the possibility of fire, necessitating fire crews for potential fire suppression operations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the guideline specify that SLCFD units should not respond directly to the scene of a barricade or hostage situation without instruction from dispatch or law enforcement?

<p>To avoid interfering with law enforcement tactical operations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Incident Commander's (IC) responsibility regarding operational zones at a barricade incident?

<p>To work with the law enforcement IC to identify the Operational Zones and ensure that SLCFD personnel do not enter the area without approval. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of designating a specific approach route for responding units during a barricade situation?

<p>To control access to the scene and maintain situational awareness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a barricade situation, what action should the Incident Commander (IC) take after establishing command?

<p>Provide a quick briefing to all resources on scene regarding the situation and operational plan. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a hostage situation, if tactical medics (TMs) need to move casualties from the Inner Perimeter Hot or Warm Zones, where should they transfer patient care?

<p>To staged SLCFD medical providers in the Outer Perimeter Cold Zone and/or a Casualty Collection Point (CCP) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a hostage situation with the potential for multiple casualties, what specific action should Command take regarding additional resources?

<p>Request an SLCFD Active Shooter Event Assignment and/or an MCI Assignment to standby at the scene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a hostage barricade event with potential for mass casualties, what is the Incident Commander's (IC) responsibility regarding EMS resources?

<p>Determine the Casualty Collection Point location and reroute responding EMS resources accordingly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the first responsibility of the Medical Group Supervisor before or as part of the initial triage at the Casualty Collection Point?

<p>Ensure a body search for weapons is performed on all persons entering the Casualty Collection Point. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a barricade incident involving a fire, which action should the Fire Group Supervisor prioritize concerning fire suppression?

<p>Coordinate with law enforcement to ensure the security and safety of fire suppression personnel before engaging. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a mass casualty incident at a hostage situation, which policy and protocol are implemented under the direction of the Medical Group Supervisor?

<p>The SLCFD Mass Casualty policy, District 2B Protocol (Mass Casualty Incident Plan), and the Triage and Treatment Protocol. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the responsibility of the Medical Group Supervisor to ensure timely transport of casualties from the Casualty Collection Point?

<p>Confirm that open travel routes exist for responding EMS vehicles to access the CCP and clear path away from the incident for ambulances transporting to hospitals (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a hostage situation, what is the Fire Group Supervisor's responsibility regarding resources?

<p>Determine the resources needed and request them to a designated safe staging area. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role do Tactical Medics (TMs) play at a barricaded subject incident, and to whom do they directly report?

<p>TMs are considered a tactical asset and operate under the SLCPD SWAT Leadership and LE Tactical Command. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to personnel being dispatched to the scene of a confirmed hostage situation, what action should SLCFD personnel avoid?

<p>Self-Dispatching to the incident. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a barricade event, what guideline should dictate the Fire Group Supervisor's actions regarding the Operational Zones established by law enforcement?

<p>The Fire Group Supervisor should communicate the boundaries of the Operational Zones to all companies and ensure SLCFD personnel stay out of areas that hold a threat of violence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When approaching the scene of a hostage barricade event as an SLCFD unit, what precaution should be taken to minimize risk?

<p>Turn off emergency lights and warning devices before arrival. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to general SLCFD considerations for hostage barricade events, what is a key safety practice for personnel operating at the scene?

<p>Work as teams or in pairs as a minimum and never go anywhere alone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Fire Group Supervisor's responsibility concerning travel routes for fire apparatus during a barricade situation?

<p>Confirm that open travel routes exist for responding fire apparatus and establish a safe staging area. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What considerations should the Fire Group Supervisor make regarding fire suppression tactics, given the potential for fire as a weapon during a barricade event?

<p>Consider allowing active fire to burn until the security and safety of fire suppression personnel can be confirmed by law enforcement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of information should Tactical Medics (TMs) relay to Tactical Command and/or negotiators during a barricade situation?

<p>Any medically specific information during hostage or barricade situations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), what distinguishes it from a typical single-location incident?

<p>The synchronized nature, multiple attackers acting semi-independently at multiple locations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios best describes a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA)?

<p>Two separate teams simultaneously engaging in active shooter events at different schools. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is clear communication between Law Enforcement (LE) and Salt Lake City Fire Department (SLCFD) responders emphasized in the guideline for Complex Coordinated Attacks?

<p>To facilitate optimal outcomes through shared understanding during a dynamic event. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of responding to a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), what is the Salt Lake City Fire Department's (SLCFD) role regarding incident stabilization?

<p>To share the responsibility of incident stabilization with Law Enforcement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between an Area Command and a standard Incident Command System organization?

<p>Area Command oversees multiple incidents or a very large incident with multiple teams, while Incident Command System manages a single incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what constitutes terrorism?

<p>Premeditated, politically-motivated violence against non-combatants intended to influence an audience. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of Salt Lake City Fire Department's guideline 04-17C?

<p>To prepare SLCFD personnel for coordinated terrorist attacks and ensure collaboration with law enforcement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In responding to a Complex Coordinated Attack, which of the following actions is the least likely to be a responsibility shared between SLCFD and Law Enforcement?

<p>Apprehending suspects. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of MACTAC concepts?

<p>To offer tactical options for law enforcement when responding to an extraordinary incident involving extreme violence. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An incident is declared a 'MACTAC Event in progress.' What does this declaration primarily indicate to responding units?

<p>An extraordinary incident exceeding conventional law enforcement tactics and resources. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the concept of Immediate Action Rapid Deployment (IARD) relate to Multi-Assault, Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC)?

<p>IARD is a narrower set of tactics that MACTAC expands upon. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of establishing a Joint Information Center (JIC) during an incident?

<p>To centralize and coordinate public information activities related to the event. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely necessitate the activation of MACTAC protocols?

<p>A coordinated attack involving multiple active shooters in a crowded area. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the BEST definition of an Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?

<p>The location for coordinating information and resources to support incident management activities. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Improvised Explosive Device (IED) is characterized by which of the following?

<p>Placed or fabricated in an improvised manner using destructive materials. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the definition of 'terrorism' guide the response to a potential terrorist event?

<p>It focuses response efforts on the calculated use of violence to instill fear for political, religious, or ideological goals. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary goal of establishing a Unified Command during incident management?

<p>To develop and deploy a consistent response plan while ensuring actions are safe and well-coordinated across multiple agencies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), what is the initial command structure?

<p>Law enforcement, most likely SLCPD, initially holds command. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the early stages of a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), what is a potential challenge related to the establishment of Incident Command Posts (ICPs)?

<p>The simultaneous establishment of multiple independent Incident Commands and Command Posts city-wide due to initially fragmented information. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When responding to a Tactical Law Enforcement Incident, what action should SLCFD personnel take?

<p>Respond and follow the appropriate SLCFD SOG for the event they are dispatched to, while being aware that multiple events may be occurring. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If SLCFD resources suspect that a CCA is underway, what immediate communication steps should be taken?

<p>Immediately communicate the information to the Dispatch Center and personnel operating on scene. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA) is declared, what specific alert should be initiated through Dispatch?

<p>A 'MACTAC Event in progress' announcement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), following an initial declaration, what actions should dispatch take to notify units?

<p>Dispatch should declare “MACTAC Event in progress” utilizing an announcement over the air and/or phone calls to all stations and Support Divisions. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important that the initial dispatch information for a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA) may resemble any other Tactical Law Enforcement Incident?

<p>Because the full scope of a CCA may not be immediately apparent, requiring responders to adapt as more information becomes available. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), why is establishing a Unified or Area Command prioritized?

<p>To manage incident complexity and maintain effective span-of-control. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), what is the primary reason for securing fire stations and SLCFD support facilities?

<p>To ensure the readiness and security of SLCFD assets and personnel. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a large geographic incident with potential travel barriers, what is the primary benefit of establishing multiple staging areas and Casualty Collection Points?

<p>To reduce response times and improve access to victims across the affected area. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a potential Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), why are SLCFD personnel advised not to self-dispatch to the scene?

<p>To mitigate safety and accountability issues, ensuring a coordinated response. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When approaching an incident scene during a potential Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), why should personnel consider turning off emergency lights and warning devices?

<p>To avoid attracting attention from potential threats and minimize noise pollution. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of a 'team spotter' when deploying SLCFD personnel on special assignments during a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA)?

<p>To observe, identify, and help the team avoid potential threats. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might SLCFD Administration and/or operations battalion chiefs initiate automatic holdovers for specific operations personnel during a large-scale Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA)?

<p>To ensure adequate staffing levels and maintain operational readiness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA), what initial action should be taken if bystanders become hostile at an incident scene?

<p>Extricate yourself and advise Dispatch and/or Command of the situation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which zone designation is LEAST likely to involve the potential for individuals to take effective incoming hostile fire?

<p>Cold Zone (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key characteristic defines the Inner Perimeter in the context of a potential explosive threat incident?

<p>Controlled entrance and egress managed by law enforcement (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the 'Warm Zone' differ from the 'Cold Zone' in terms of potential threats?

<p>The Warm Zone may still be in the general proximity of a potential threat, while the Cold Zone is well away from any known or potential threat. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an incident involving a potential IED, what is the primary role of the Hazardous Devices Unit (HDU)?

<p>Rendering safe procedures, explosive destruction, and blast mitigation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Dynamic Risk Assessment during an incident?

<p>To continuously evaluate potential hazards to public safety personnel and the public throughout the incident (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An incendiary device is characterized by its design to cause harm primarily through what means?

<p>Fire (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what area would an individual be considered to be in imminent danger of taking effective hostile fire?

<p>Hot Zone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a distinguishing factor of an Improvised Explosive Device (IED) compared to military ordinance?

<p>IEDs are typically devised from nonmilitary components, while military ordinance is manufactured for military use (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Unified Command situation with law enforcement at an incident scene, what is the most crucial element for the Salt Lake City Fire Department?

<p>Establishing and maintaining effective communication with law enforcement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a situation requiring a staged response due to pre-arrival information about a potential threat, what is the primary factor that dictates when SLCFD units can directly enter the scene?

<p>Instructions from the Dispatch Center and/or on-scene law enforcement officers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon arrival at a potential incident scene requiring staging, what specific information should the first-arriving SLCFD unit communicate to the Dispatch Center and other responding units beyond a standard size-up?

<p>Confirmation of the incident's nature and designation of a specific approach route. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to consider designating a staging area that is not in direct line of sight or in immediate proximity to the scene?

<p>To maintain operational security and reduce risk from potential threats or hazards. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a complex incident requiring a staged response, what is the most important reason for establishing traffic corridors early in the operation?

<p>To ensure clear access to the scene for responding units and a viable egress route. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon establishing Command at a complex incident with law enforcement involvement, what is the Incident Commander's first priority regarding command structure?

<p>Assuming command of SLCFD resources and establishing a Unified Command with the on-scene law enforcement IC, when possible. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Unified Command scenario with law enforcement, what critical action must the Incident Commander take regarding operational zones?

<p>Ensuring non-law enforcement personnel do not enter operational zones, identified in coordination with law enforcement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At any incident, what ongoing process is a responsibility of the Incident Commander?

<p>Conducting and continuing a Dynamic Risk Assessment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a tactical law enforcement incident, what is the PRIMARY reason for advising Command if bystanders become hostile?

<p>To extricate oneself from a potentially escalating situation and manage the overall safety of the incident. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the potential for secondary devices at a tactical law enforcement incident, what is the purpose of designating a second level of staging?

<p>To provide a secure location away from the immediate threat zone for responding resources. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During tactical law enforcement incidents, why is it important to minimize the number of personnel exposed to unnecessary risks?

<p>To reduce the potential for injuries or casualties among responders. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of preserving a potential crime scene during a tactical law enforcement incident, why should responders avoid touching or moving items unnecessarily?

<p>To prevent contamination of evidence that may be critical for LE investigation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a tactical law enforcement incident where casualties are being transported to a hospital, what key action should be taken regarding the casualties' clothing and personal items?

<p>The items should be inventoried and stored securely, informing the hospital staff of their potential evidentiary value. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY reason that keys should be left in all response vehicles during a tactical law enforcement incident?

<p>To ensure vehicles can be quickly moved because of a rapidly evolving situation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of a team spotter when deploying SLCFD personnel on special assignments during a tactical law enforcement incident?

<p>To observe, identify, and help the team avoid threats while they execute their tactical assignment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When approaching a potential tactical law enforcement incident, why is it important to consider turning off emergency lights and warning devices?

<p>To avoid escalating the situation or attracting unwanted attention. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a suicide bombing incident, what step should Command take before allowing crews to move further into the scene?

<p>Ensure HDU technicians have cleared loitering individuals and the area for secondary devices. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason SLCFD personnel should avoid touching or handling any type of IED or suspicious device at a suicide bombing incident?

<p>To avoid accidental detonation of the device. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should SLCFD personnel take regarding emergency vehicles that were inside the blast/crime scene of a suicide bombing?

<p>Leave the vehicles in place until cleared by the HDU to preserve evidence. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a post-detonation suicide bombing response, what is a critical hazard, beyond the immediate blast effects, that SLCFD personnel should immediately monitor for?

<p>Chemical agents, gases, and radioactive materials. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a scene involving threats of explosion and active fire, what is a crucial action the Fire Group Supervisor must undertake to safeguard responding units?

<p>Confirming the existence of open travel routes for responding fire apparatus and establishing a secure staging area. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event a suicide bomber expresses a desire to surrender, what immediate action should law enforcement officers take?

<p>Instruct the suicide bomber to remove all clothing and explosive devices. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential to maintain minimum standoff distances even if a suicide bomber expresses the desire to surrender?

<p>A second party may initiate detonation remotely. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an active shooter incident with a potential for multiple casualties, what pre-emptive action should Command initiate to enhance medical support capabilities?

<p>Requesting an Active Shooter Event Assignment and/or an MCI Assignment to standby at the scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a suicide bombing, if there are any signs of or potential for structural collapse, what action should be taken?

<p>Request the Heavy Rescue Team to respond to the scene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At an active shooter incident, how should the Medical Group Supervisor manage casualties arriving at the Casualty Collection Point to ensure the safety of medical personnel and other victims?

<p>Conduct a body search for weapons on all persons entering the Casualty Collection Point before or as part of the initial triage. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an active shooter event where fire has been intentionally set, what strategic approach should the Fire Group Supervisor consider regarding fire suppression efforts?

<p>Allow the active fire to burn until law enforcement confirms the security and safety of fire suppression personnel. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a suicide bombing incident, under what circumstance should SLCFD personnel approach a suspected bomber?

<p>Only after clearance by the HDU, regardless of the suspect's condition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of an active shooter or explosive event, why is it critical for the Fire Group to operate on a separate radio channel?

<p>To designate and operate on a separate radio channel from the rest of the event. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the Incident Commander (IC) manage the deployment of fire personnel in relation to established Operational Zones at a scene with potential violence?

<p>Communicate the Operational Zones' boundaries to all companies and guarantee SLCFD personnel avoid areas that pose a threat of violence. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What expectation should Command maintain regarding the types of injuries encountered at a suicide bombing incident, informing resource and triage strategies?

<p>Expect numerous types of traumatic injuries resulting from blast pressure, burns, and shrapnel. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific precautions should the Fire Group Supervisor take concerning travel routes and staging areas at an incident with threats of violence?

<p>Confirm that open travel routes exist for responding fire apparatus and establish a safe staging area. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the key characteristic defining the 'No-Go Zone' in an active threat scenario?

<p>The zone closest to the threat where individuals cannot use cover or distance to defend against hostile fire. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it critical to avoid fixating on concentric circles when establishing operational zones during an active threat incident?

<p>Threat locations might cause zones to be discontinuous, asymmetrical, and dynamic. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the Tactical Operations Center (TOC) at an incident scene?

<p>To coordinate law enforcement tactical operations within the inner perimeter. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do Tactical Medics (TMs) enhance the SLCPD SWAT Team's operational capabilities?

<p>By serving as sworn officers trained in both law enforcement tactics and advanced medical care. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is Unified Command essential in incidents involving active threats of explosives and fire as a weapon?

<p>To develop and deploy a consistent, safe, and well-coordinated response plan among multiple agencies. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At an active threat incident, if Salt Lake City Fire Department (SLCFD) units arrive prior to law enforcement establishing command, what immediate action should SLCFD personnel take?

<p>Establish a Fire Command for responding SLCFD and EMS units. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role difference between the Inner and Outer Perimeters at an active shooter incident?

<p>The inner perimeter is controlled by law enforcement; the outer perimeter is controlled by law enforcement and excludes the public. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of shrapnel packed into suicide vests or belts?

<p>To maximize the number of casualties in the explosion (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Salt Lake City Fire Department's policy regarding carbon monoxide detector activations?

<p>Respond to all activations and investigate the cause. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When responding to a carbon monoxide detector activation, what is the first-arriving officer's responsibility concerning personal protective equipment?

<p>Take appropriate precautions for entering a hazardous atmosphere, including protective clothing and SCBA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what action should responders take upon arrival at a residence with a report of a carbon monoxide detector activation?

<p>Calibrate the meter in fresh air and thoroughly investigate all areas, especially those with fuel-burning appliances. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a carbon monoxide meter reads >15 PPM near a fuel-burning appliance, what is the recommended action?

<p>Ventilate the structure and disconnect the fuel source until it is inspected by an authorized agent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does TWA stand for in the context of carbon monoxide exposure, according to the guideline?

<p>Time Weighted Average (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, if a carbon monoxide detector is a smoke detector and there are no obvious fire conditions, which company should respond?

<p>The closest company will respond 10-40 to investigate the condition (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appropriate action for CO readings between 0-5 PPM in an unventilated home according to the guideline?

<p>Recommend the occupants check/reset their detector and call 9-1-1 if it reactivates or if they experience symptoms. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In reference to safety procedures and carbon Monoxide, what action should the Special Operations Coordinator take?

<p>Perform periodic maintenance on meters (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of Heavy Rescue Technicians required to staff the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) daily?

<p>Six (6) currently trained and certified Heavy Rescue Technicians. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following apparatus is part of the standard Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) response configuration?

<p>Heavy Rescue Support Trailer (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, how should the Heavy Rescue apparatus be designated?

<p>Heavy Rescue 1 or just Heavy Rescue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When Truck 1 is traveling outside of its assigned medical district, what is the procedure regarding apparatus?

<p>Truck 1’s crew shall have the option to travel in Heavy Rescue 1. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When Truck 1’s crew opts to travel in Heavy Rescue 1 outside of their assigned medical district, who should the Heavy Rescue Officer notify?

<p>The Dispatch Center and Battalion 1 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the Heavy Rescue Officer do if conducting business inside their medical district, and traveling in Truck 1 is deemed inappropriate?

<p>Notify the Dispatch Center and their respective Battalion Chief. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the collective term used to refer to any combination of Medic Engine 1, Truck 1, Heavy Rescue 1, and HRT Support?

<p>Heavy Rescue Company (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When Medic Engine 1 and/or Truck 1 are dispatched to an emergency call excluding Heavy Rescue Incidents, what is the standard response procedure?

<p>Respond from quarters or on the air in their respective apparatus unless otherwise requested. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances might the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) officers choose to respond directly to a heavy rescue call without the Heavy Rescue apparatus?

<p>If they determine the necessary equipment to mitigate the emergency is on the Truck and Medic Engine, or if a capable Heavy Rescue apparatus is en-route from mutual aid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the procedure if Truck 1 is left in quarters when the Heavy Rescue Company responds to an incident?

<p>Truck 1 is placed out of service by the Dispatch Center. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Heavy Rescue Team is dispatched to a heavy rescue call within Salt Lake City limits, who retains command of the scene?

<p>The officer of the Engine/Truck companies on scene requesting assistance from the HRT. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should Truck 1 communicate over the radio if it is en-route to a heavy rescue call but needs to first exchange for the Heavy Rescue apparatus?

<p>&quot;En-route but delayed for apparatus exchange.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a situation where the Heavy Rescue Team responds to a call within Salt Lake County but outside of Salt Lake City limits, what action does the Dispatch Center take?

<p>Notifies both District Battalion Chiefs that the HRT is leaving the City. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When might the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) Officer request the HazMat Team to respond to a heavy rescue incident?

<p>In situations such as a confined space rescue where hazardous materials may be present. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides Logistics personnel, who else can deliver the HRT Support Trailer to the incident scene upon request from the HRT Officers?

<p>Another acceptable vehicle. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If Medic Engine 1 is in quarters when a heavy rescue call is dispatched and Truck 1 is also responding from the same station, what options does the HRT Officer have regarding staffing the Heavy Rescue apparatus?

<p>The crew can staff the Heavy Rescue apparatus, with Truck 1 on the air, and the HRT Officer has the option to place Medic Engine 1 out of service, or split the crew and bring both the Medic Engine and the Heavy Rescue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of trained and certified Heavy Rescue Technicians required for daily staffing of the Heavy Rescue Team?

<p>Six (6) (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the SOP, which apparatus are always part of the initial 'Heavy Rescue Company' response to a heavy rescue incident?

<p>Medic Engine and Heavy Rescue (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances, outside of heavy rescue incidents, would the Truck crew respond in the Heavy Rescue apparatus?

<p>When conducting business outside of their assigned medical district to facilitate a faster heavy rescue response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Truck is dispatched to a heavy rescue incident, what action does the Dispatch Center take regarding the Truck's normal service status?

<p>The Truck is placed out of service by the Dispatch Center. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the conditions under which the HRT Support unit may respond to a heavy rescue incident?

<p>The HRT Support unit <em>may</em> respond based on the incident's details. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action must the officer take immediately when the Truck crew chooses to travel in the Heavy Rescue apparatus while outside their assigned medical district?

<p>Notify the communications center and Battalion 1. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the Medic Engine and Truck are dispatched to a working fire instead of a heavy rescue incident, how should the crews respond?

<p>The crews should respond from quarters in their respective apparatus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the SOP, what term collectively refers to any combination of the Medic Engine, Truck, Heavy Rescue, and HRT Support units when operating together?

<p>Heavy Rescue Company (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what specific condition can a medic engine crew staff the heavy rescue apparatus, causing the medic engine to go out of service, when a heavy rescue call is dispatched while the truck is already responding to another incident in district?

<p>If the medic engine is in quarters and available. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What radio communication should the truck make when a heavy rescue call is dispatched and the HRT decides to retrieve the heavy rescue apparatus before responding?

<p>&quot;En-route but delayed for apparatus exchange.&quot; (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Heavy Rescue Team responds to an incident within Salt Lake County, but outside the Salt Lake City limits, what notification procedure must be followed?

<p>The communication center must notify both District Battalion Chiefs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what specific circumstance is approval from the Fire Chief (or designee) required before the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) can respond to a request for assistance outside of Salt Lake County?

<p>If the requesting agency does not have a mutual-aid agreement with the SLCFD. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) responds to assist an agency outside of Salt Lake County that lacks a mutual-aid agreement with the SLCFD, what specific notification and response protocol must be followed by the Salt Lake City Fire Department (SLCFD)?

<p>Both District Battalion Chiefs must be notified, and one Battalion Chief shall respond. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of a technical rescue operation, what does a 'general assessment of survivability potential' primarily involve?

<p>Evaluating factors such as mechanism of injury, down-time, access difficulty, and injuries to estimate a patient's chances of survival. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a heavy rescue operation, what is the MOST important reason for establishing a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) system?

<p>To track the location and status of all personnel operating on the scene, enhancing safety. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does 'Recovery Mode' differ from 'Rescue Mode' in emergency operations?

<p>Recovery Mode focuses on retrieving property or remains with a slower tempo, while Rescue Mode prioritizes locating and removing endangered persons quickly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for qualified and equipped backup personnel being paired with rescuers during technical rescues?

<p>To provide real-time support and immediate assistance in case of an emergency involving the primary rescuer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary objective of establishing a 'Rescue Area' (hot zone) at an incident site?

<p>To isolate and control the immediate hazards surrounding the incident, ensuring the safety of both rescuers and potential victims. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an emergency incident, how should a responder utilize 'Risk/Benefit Analysis' when making operational decisions?

<p>The responder should weigh the potential risks against the potential benefits of taking those risks, ensuring the benefits justify the risks. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of heavy rescue operations, why is it crucial to identify and control hazards PRIOR to deploying rescue personnel?

<p>To prevent injuries or fatalities to rescue personnel, ensuring their safety and operational effectiveness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical consideration for the Salt Lake City Fire Department Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) during all operations?

<p>Prioritizing life safety of both rescuers and patients above all other incident priorities. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a heavy rescue incident, what is the MOST significant benefit of establishing and maintaining an effective communication system?

<p>To facilitate coordination, information sharing, and decision-making among all responders, enhancing overall efficiency and safety. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should equipment used in a heavy rescue operation be safety-checked before usage?

<p>To ensure the equipment functions as expected, improving performance and safety. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential consequence of failing to observe the operational guidelines outlined for the Salt Lake City Fire Department Heavy Rescue Team (HRT)?

<p>Death, civil penalties, or criminal charges for the supervisor (Incident Commander, HRT Captain) and/or SLCFD Member. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the correct order of incident priorities during Salt Lake City Fire Department Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) operations?

<p>Life safety of rescuers and patients, stabilization of the scene and rescue of the patients, property conservation, environmental protection. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important reason for implementing a rehabilitation (rehab) plan early in a heavy rescue operation and rotating personnel effectively?

<p>To prevent physical and mental exhaustion of rescue personnel, ensuring sustained operational effectiveness and safety. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guidelines, what specific standards and regulations should SLCFD HRT personnel comply with during operations?

<p>NFPA 2500; NFPA 1500; NFPA 1006; and the OSHA Code of Federal Regulations Sec 29 CFR 1910.120; 1910.134; 1910.146; 1910.147; 1926.650, 651, 652, where applicable. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should the Incident Commander avoid 'micromanaging' tasks?

<p>Micromanaging can slow down the operation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a heavy rescue operation, what is the primary reason for the Rescue Operations Officer and Group/Division Supervisors to avoid becoming too involved in 'hands-on' tasks?

<p>To remain available for overall control, supervision, and 'troubleshooting', ensuring the smooth and efficient execution of the rescue plan. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of this Standard Operating Guideline (SOG) regarding Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) operations?

<p>To offer size-up considerations, tactical assignments, safety priorities, and initial actions for technical/heavy rescue operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what are the minimum NFPA certifications required of members of the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT)?

<p>NFPA 1006 and 2500 Technician Level in rope rescue, tower rescue, confined space rescue, heavy vehicle rescue, trench rescue and machinery rescue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the 'General Area' at a technical rescue incident, as defined in the guideline?

<p>An area surrounding the incident site where access is limited and controlled, proportional to the incident's size and nature. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of Confined Space Entry, which action constitutes the initiation of entry?

<p>When any part of the entrant’s body breaks the plane of an opening into the space. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario best exemplifies a situation requiring the application of 'Heavy/Technical Rescue' principles?

<p>Rescuing a worker trapped in a collapsed trench with unstable soil conditions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Incident Action Plan (IAP) is being developed for a complex technical rescue operation. What is the most accurate description of the IAP's function?

<p>A flexible document outlining operational period objectives, response strategy, general tactics, and incident parameters. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a trench rescue operation, access to the 'General Area' is strictly controlled. What is the primary reason for this access limitation?

<p>To maintain scene security and prevent unauthorized personnel from entering hazardous zones. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the 'Patient Survivability Profile' concept, although not explicitly defined in this guideline, likely influence Heavy Rescue Team operations?

<p>By providing a framework for assessing the likelihood of patient survival and guiding resource allocation during the rescue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration for the first-due Company Officer when splitting their crew at a technical rescue incident?

<p>Following the SLCFD HRT H.A.T.S. acronym to quickly address hazards and assess the situation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a technical rescue incident, why is securing a witness (calling party, site supervisor, etc.) a PRIORITY for the first-arriving officer?

<p>To gather crucial initial information about the incident and potential hazards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should Command conduct a remote assessment of the area/patient from a safe location or protected position?

<p>To avoid becoming a victim and to maintain an objective overview of the scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the primary assessment phase of a technical rescue incident, what is the PRIMARY purpose of determining how long the patient(s) has/have been down or trapped?

<p>To inform medical decisions and guide the urgency and type of rescue/medical intervention. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Command announcing the decision to operate in either 'Rescue Mode' or 'Recovery Mode'?

<p>It communicates the overall strategic objective, influencing operational tactics and resource allocation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Phase I operations at a technical rescue incident, what action should the Incident Commander take to ensure an appropriate response?

<p>Verify the dispatcher's pre-arrival information and amend the response as necessary. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a technical rescue scenario, how should the Incident Commander integrate the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) upon their arrival?

<p>Request a situation assessment from the HRT Officer to assist in developing an Incident Action Plan, while maintaining overall incident command. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is establishing communication with the patient and giving verbal guidance, from a safe position, beneficial?

<p>It helps maintain patient composure, provides reassurance, and gathers additional information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the operational phases of a technical/heavy rescue incident, what describes the relationship between these phases?

<p>Some phases can be compressed, extended, or performed simultaneously, depending on the incident's needs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the PRIMARY reason for establishing operational zones at a technical rescue scene?

<p>To manage hazards and control access, ensuring the safety of both rescuers and bystanders. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a technical rescue incident, what is the role of non-SLCFD Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) personnel regarding operational level?

<p>They are restricted to operating at the Awareness Level. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When updating the HRT (Heavy Rescue Team) via radio or cell phone, what specific information should the first-due company provide if not yet on the scene?

<p>The situation, patient condition, hazards, and any initial actions taken. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In Technical/Heavy Rescue operations, what is the relationship between personnel training and operational skills?

<p>All personnel must operate only within their specified/documented level of training, demonstrating 100% proficiency. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Incident Commander's responsibility regarding safety practices during SLCFD HRT operations?

<p>Ensure general safety practices are observed throughout the entire operation, in conjunction with the Safety Officer. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Phase I operations of a technical rescue incident, what is the first-arriving Company Officer's responsibility after establishing Command?

<p>Conduct an initial size-up and verify the dispatcher's pre-arrival information. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an HRT operation, what determines the specific level of PPE required?

<p>The required PPE level is determined based on the rescue situation and environment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a core objective of Phase I operations at a technical/heavy rescue incident?

<p>Establishing Command, implementing incident management systems and conducting a size-up of the situation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the progression through the four operational phases in technical/heavy rescue incidents, what indicates the transition from Phase I to Phase II?

<p>When the initial size-up has been completed, Command has been established, and the situation is understood. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should Operational Zones be utilized at a rescue scene to enhance safety?

<p>Operational Zones are established as needed, backing away all nonessential personnel from the rescue scene. Rescuers wear appropriate PPE for their zone. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main purpose of conducting a Patient Survivability Profile (PSP) and Risk/Benefit Analysis early in a HRT incident?

<p>To determine whether to run the incident in the Rescue Mode or Recovery Mode and define the overall operational strategy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of Phase I operations being designated as 'Awareness Level skills' for all SLCFD members?

<p>All SLCFD members should be capable of safely and efficiently conducting Phase I operations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should a Rapid Intervention Team (RIT) be in place during HRT operations?

<p>A RIT should be in place prior to any rescue attempt or as soon as is practically and logistically possible. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for the Safety Officer to ideally have HRT training during technical rescue incidents?

<p>To enable the Safety Officer to effectively identify and mitigate the specific hazards associated with technical rescue operations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the overarching goal that justifies the stringent safety measures in SLCFD HRT operations?

<p>To prioritize the preservation of life while minimizing errors during complex operations. (E)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary difference between Rescue Mode and Recovery Mode?

<p>Rescue Mode is characterized by a faster operational tempo aimed at saving lives, whereas Recovery Mode involves a slower tempo focused on retrieving remains or property. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important factor to consider during a risk/benefit analysis at a technical rescue incident?

<p>The potential risks to rescuers weighed against the potential benefits to be gained. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important that Heavy Rescue Team members hold a bid spot at the Heavy Rescue Station?

<p>To guarantee proximity to the required specialized equipment and ensure team readiness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a trench rescue incident, what is the primary purpose of establishing a 'rescue area'?

<p>To delineate a zone proportional to existing hazards, such as collapse potential, thereby protecting personnel. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios requires the MOST immediate consideration of a victim's survivability profile?

<p>A trench rescue with a prolonged extrication time and unstable trench conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the relationship between an Incident Action Plan (IAP) and the overall strategy at a heavy/technical rescue incident?

<p>The IAP contains general tactics that support the goals and objectives defined by the overall strategy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the guideline define the scope of 'Heavy/Technical Rescue'?

<p>Rescue situations that require specialized knowledge, skills, and equipment due to their unique or complex nature. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the FIRST tactical priority for the Salt Lake City Fire Department Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) during a technical rescue incident?

<p>Life safety of rescuers followed by the life safety of patients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which regulation or standard pertains to the safety of responders using respirators in hazardous atmospheres?

<p>29 CFR 1910.134 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is control of the 'General Area' important at a technical rescue incident?

<p>To limit and control access for personnel, machinery, and vehicles, ensuring scene safety and operational effectiveness. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Incident Commander (IC) fails to adhere to the established operational guidelines during a HRT response. What potential consequences might the IC face?

<p>Civil penalties as defined by law. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the first arriving unit utilize this guideline at the scene of a technical/heavy rescue incident?

<p>As a flexible reference for size-up, tactical assignments, and safety priorities, adaptable to the specific incident. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario would necessitate activating the Heavy Rescue Team?

<p>A person trapped inside a collapsed trench. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario BEST exemplifies a 'Recovery Mode' operation by the Heavy Rescue Team?

<p>The careful retrieval of human remains from a collapsed structure after all viable rescue efforts have been exhausted. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the 'Patient Survivability Profile' in the context of a heavy/technical rescue incident?

<p>It is a tool to assist in making critical decisions regarding rescue strategies based on the likelihood of the patient's survival. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the 'Confined Space Entry' definition?

<p>When any part of the entrant's body passes through the opening into the space. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following reflects the principle of 'multi-tasking' in heavy rescue operations for efficient time management?

<p>Having individuals or groups perform their tasks individually and simultaneously, where safe. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a heavy rescue scenario, what is the primary reason for the Rescue Operations Officer and Group/Division Supervisors to avoid becoming too involved in 'hands-on' tasks?

<p>To ensure they remain available for Group/Division control, supervision, and 'trouble shooting'. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most appropriate action for Command to take regarding team member tasks, to enhance time management and efficiency, once an assignment has been given?

<p>To step out of their way and allow them to complete the assignment, minimizing micromanagement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to identify and minimize all hazards prior to deploying rescue personnel at a heavy rescue incident?

<p>To maintain the safety and well-being of rescue personnel. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does assigning personnel to best utilize their strengths and abilities contribute to effective time management during a rescue operation?

<p>It maximizes the team's overall efficiency and effectiveness by leveraging individual expertise. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a technical rescue operation, what is the primary reason for implementing the Incident Management System (IMS)?

<p>To ensure a visible and strong Command presence for overall safety and coordination. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be taken if personnel are deemed inefficient, improperly trained, or inexperienced during a heavy rescue operation?

<p>Remove or reassign them to tasks that better suit their capabilities. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is establishing and communicating a personnel evacuation signal and plan important?

<p>To provide a clear procedure for personnel to follow in case of imminent danger. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In technical rescue operations, why is it crucial for the designated Safety Officer (SO) to ideally possess HRT (Heavy Rescue Team) training?

<p>HRT-trained SOs possess specialized knowledge of technical rescue hazards and safety protocols. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the selection of appropriate PPE crucial in rescue operations, and how should it be determined?

<p>PPE selection should be based on the specific rescue situation, environment, and potential hazards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should systems, rigging, shoring, and equipment be safety checked prior to usage?

<p>To ensure they are in optimal condition for safe and effective operation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the Incident Commander (IC) and/or Rescue Officer (RO) utilize the Patient Survivability Profile (PSP) and Risk/Benefit Analysis during a technical rescue incident?

<p>To determine whether the incident should be run in rescue mode or recovery mode, balancing potential risks and benefits. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to establish operational zones during a technical rescue operation, and what PPE considerations apply?

<p>Operational zones help control access and protect nonessential personnel; rescuers wear PPE based on their zone assignment and associated hazards. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of having a trained Rapid Intervention Team (RIT) in place during a technical rescue operation?

<p>The RIT provides immediate backup and rescue for rescuers in distress. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the requirement for HRT personnel to be '100% proficient' in their skills, processes, and evolutions emphasize?

<p>That personnel should perform flawlessly due to the high-risk nature and minimal margin for error in rescue operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In conjunction with Command, what is the Safety Officer's (SO) responsibility regarding general safety practices during all phases of a technical rescue operation?

<p>The Safety Officer is responsible for ensuring that general safety practices are observed throughout the operation and/or incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a crucial early decision that Command must make regarding the operation and announce accordingly?

<p>Whether the operation will be conducted in Rescue Mode or Recovery Mode. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to secure the calling party, site supervisor, job foreman, Competent Person, or witness to the accident?

<p>To gather detailed accounts of what occurred leading up to the incident. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When no witness of the incident is available on scene, what immediate action should rescuers undertake?

<p>Look for clues at the scene to determine what has happened. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should Command initially determine the scope of impact regarding potential victims?

<p>By making a remote assessment of the area/patient from a safe location or protected position. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key pieces of information should Command gather to conduct an effective Risk/Benefit Analysis and Patient Survivability Profile?

<p>The time the patient has been down/trapped, injury mechanism, and nature of the illness. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should first responders utilize co-workers at the incident scene?

<p>Utilize them as required to gather information, provide assistance, or perform support tasks. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should be relayed to the HRT via radio or cell phone if they are not yet on-scene?

<p>The situation, patient condition, hazards, and any initial actions taken by the first due companies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After the primary assessment, what should Command and the SLCFD HRT do?

<p>Follow appropriate Secondary Assessment procedures as outlined in the SLCFD HRT Initial Arriving Apparatus Command Checklist. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During Phase I operations at a technical rescue incident, what is the most critical action the first-in Company Officer should undertake immediately after establishing command?

<p>Conducting an initial size-up to verify the dispatcher's pre-arrival information. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At what point during a technical/heavy rescue incident should the Incident Commander (IC) request the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT), if they were not part of the initial dispatch?

<p>As soon as possible following the establishment of Command and an initial size-up. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the Incident Commander (IC) utilize the Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) Officer upon their arrival at a technical rescue incident?

<p>Have the HRT Officer report to Command to receive a situation assessment and assist in developing/implementing the Incident Action Plan. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the operational capabilities of non-SLCFD Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) personnel at a technical/heavy rescue incident within Salt Lake City?

<p>Non-SLCFD HRT personnel are restricted to Awareness Level skills as defined by the NFPA and the SLCFD. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between Phase I operations and Phases II-IV at a technical/heavy rescue incident, regarding the skills required?

<p>Phase I requires Awareness Level skills, while Phases II-IV require specialized, Technician Level skills/procedures. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a complex technical rescue incident, the initial size-up reveals a need for specialized equipment not immediately available. How should the Incident Commander (IC) proceed to balance completing Phase I tasks with addressing this resource gap?

<p>Delegate the task of securing specialized equipment to a subordinate, while continuing to oversee Phase I tasks like command establishment and scene stabilization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a technical rescue operation, fluctuating atmospheric conditions are identified during Phase I size-up. How do these changing conditions MOST directly influence the Incident Commander's (IC) tactical decision-making regarding operational phases?

<p>They dictate the Incident Commander compress or extend specific phases, or even conduct phases simultaneously, depending on their impact to the overall incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the actions is representative of proactively mitigating potential hazards during Phase I of a technical rescue incident?

<p>Establishing a perimeter around the incident site to control access and minimize the risk to civilians and responders. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes a confined space entry, according to the guideline?

<p>When any part of an entrant’s body breaks the plane of an opening into the space. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between the 'General Area' and the 'Rescue Area' at a technical rescue incident?

<p>The 'General Area' has limited and controlled access, while the 'Rescue Area' encompasses immediate hazards. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Heavy Rescue incident operating in 'Rescue Mode', what is the most critical aspect command should focus on regarding assigned tasks?

<p>Ensuring personnel possess required skills/equipment and allowing them to complete the assignment independently. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the term 'Excavation' as it pertains to heavy rescue operations?

<p>Any man-made cut, cavity, trench, or depression in an earth surface, formed by the removal of earth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should the Rescue Operations Officer and Group/Division Supervisors avoid participating in task-level assignments during a heavy rescue operation?

<p>To maintain a strategic overview of the entire operation and effectively manage resources. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Heavy/Technical Rescue operation, after ensuring the safety of the rescuers, what is the next incident priority?

<p>Stabilization of the scene and rescue of the patients (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which NFPA standard provides guidance on the minimum job performance requirements for technical rescue personnel?

<p>NFPA 1006 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During technical rescue operations, what is the immediate next step after establishing Command and implementing the Incident Management and Accountability Systems?

<p>Scene stabilization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the location of patients, what actions should be executed to facilitate their rescue?

<p>Stabilize and extricate the patients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following regulations would primarily govern safety procedures related to trenching and excavation operations at a technical rescue incident?

<p>29 CFR 1926.650 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In technical/heavy rescue incidents, how might the standard operational phases be adjusted based on the incident's characteristics?

<p>Certain phases can be compressed, extended, or performed concurrently. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a confined space rescue, what is the significance of 'breaking the plane of an opening' for an entrant?

<p>It denotes the commencement of confined space entry procedures and associated hazards. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which operational phase in a technical/heavy rescue incident is considered essential and consistent across all scenarios?

<p>Arrival, Establish Command, and Size-up (Phase I). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the incident priorities for SLCFD HRT operations, at what point should environmental protection efforts be implemented?

<p>As an integrated component throughout the incident, following stabilization and rescue, and alongside property conservation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What skill level is required for all members of the Salt Lake City Fire Department to effectively perform Phase I operations at a technical/heavy rescue incident?

<p>Awareness Level. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During HRT operations, what is the primary reason for Command to conduct a Patient Survivability Profile (PSP) and Risk/Benefit Analysis early in the incident?

<p>To decide whether to operate in Rescue Mode or Recovery Mode and define the operational strategy. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes Phases II-IV from Phase I in technical/heavy rescue operations regarding skill requirements and personnel?

<p>Phases II-IV necessitate specialty, Technician Level skills and are specific to the HRT. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical reason for establishing and maintaining an effective communication system/plan during HRT operations?

<p>To coordinate rescue efforts, relay critical information, and ensure responder safety. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of HRT operations, why is it essential to identify and minimize/control hazards before deploying rescue personnel?

<p>To prevent injuries to rescuers, improve operational efficiency, and maximize the chances of a successful rescue. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the guideline ensure that personnel are adequately prepared for the physical demands of HRT operations at an incident?

<p>By creating a rehab plan early and rotating personnel efficiently to prevent fatigue and overexertion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST crucial initial action for the first-due Company Officer when initiating a Heavy Rescue Team (HRT) operation, according to the SLCFD HRT H.A.T.S. acronym?

<p>Thorough hazard identification and control at the incident scene. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for ensuring systems, rigging, shoring, and equipment are safety-checked prior to usage in HRT scenarios?

<p>To prevent equipment failures, ensure operational safety, and minimize the risk of injury to rescuers and victims. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for a trained and designated Safety Officer to be assigned early in an HRT incident?

<p>To identify potential hazards, monitor safety practices, and advise Command on risk mitigation strategies. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a technical rescue incident, what is the primary reason for securing the calling party, site supervisor, job foreman, or a witness to the accident?

<p>To gather detailed information about the event and current situation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the initial phase of a technical rescue operation, what is the MOST important reason for conducting a remote assessment of the area/patient from a safe location?

<p>To ensure the safety of rescue personnel by identifying potential hazards before direct engagement. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it a guideline for rescuers to work in pairs, with qualified backup, where and whenever possible during HRT operations?

<p>To provide immediate assistance in case of injury or equipment failure, and enhance overall safety. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An Incident Commander (IC) is overseeing a complex trench rescue. The IC is balancing the urgent need to extricate a trapped victim with the inherent risks of a trench collapse. How should the Incident Commander use information from the Patient Survivability Profile (PSP) and Risk/Benefit Analysis to inform operational decisions specifically related to shoring?

<p>Use the Risk/Benefit Analysis and PSP to determine both the extent and speed of shoring needed to balance rescuer safety with victim survivability. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical factor that Command must determine early in a technical rescue operation that significantly influences the Incident Action Plan (IAP)?

<p>Whether the operation will be conducted in Rescue Mode or Recovery Mode. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a technical rescue incident, why is establishing communication with the patient as early as possible a priority?

<p>To reassure the patient, gather information about their condition, and understand the mechanism of injury. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should rescuers locate construction plans, blue prints, work permits, or similar documents during the initial phase of a technical rescue incident?

<p>To understand the structure's layout, potential hazards, and structural integrity, aiding in safe rescue operations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immediate action should the Incident Commander (IC) take regarding nonessential personnel during a technical rescue operation?

<p>Move them away from the immediate rescue scene to a safe perimeter. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of technical rescue incidents under SLCFD HRT guidelines, what BEST describes the 'Secondary Assessment' during Phase I operations?

<p>A situation-specific assessment tailored to the incident type (rope, confined space, trench, etc.). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which factor is considered first when offering wildland deployment opportunities?

<p>Whether the member meets the minimum requirements for the position. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rate at which deployment counts are added to a member's 'bucket' for wildland deployments?

<p>One count per day of a deployment, regardless of hours worked. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guidelines, when are the wildland deployment ‘buckets’ reset?

<p>Every fifth year, starting in 2018. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information must deploying personnel provide to the CRD Division Chief, according to the guidelines?

<p>Contact phone number and email for a significant other. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides having their Red Card, what additional documentation is required to be signed prior to deploying on a wildland assignment?

<p>A pay disclosure form outlining compensation details (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary criterion for a Captain to be administratively selected for a wildland deployment team?

<p>Possessing relevant experience in wildland operations and base camp procedures. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Salt Lake City Fire Department notify personnel about an upcoming wildland deployment?

<p>Via a text notification sent through Telestaff to all fire department personnel. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides Red Card certification, what additional qualification must members possess to be on the deployment roster?

<p>Wildland firefighting boots. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the time limit for responding to a Telestaff offer for inclusion on a wildland deployment team?

<p>5 minutes. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the Assistant Chief of Operations and the Assistant Chief of Administration (or their designees) in the deployment process?

<p>To select members administratively, ensuring at least one Captain with relevant wildland experience is on the team. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for personnel to ensure the Training Division/Special Operations Captain has a copy of their Red Card?

<p>To expedite the deployment process and ensure proper documentation of qualifications. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who makes the final decision to approve a request for wildland assistance, triggering the deployment process?

<p>The Fire Chief. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event that the Fire Department has the opportunity to send an IC trainee, from what pool of personnel will that individual be selected?

<p>Battalion Chiefs who are Red Card certified. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of having all deployment team members sign a payment agreement form before deployment?

<p>To verify that members understand the pay guidelines and calculation methods for the deployment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are deployment team members' hours tracked and paid during a wildland deployment?

<p>Members are converted to a Support Pay Rate based on a 40-hour work week for the duration of the deployment pay periods. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to scheduled vacation or holiday time for deployment team members?

<p>The time is credited back to them for use at a later date. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the SOP, how is weekly deployment pay calculated?

<p>The first 40 hours are paid at the support straight time, and additional hours are paid at 1.5 times the support rate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How are buy backs handled during deployment?

<p>Buy Backs are paid at 1.5 the combat rate. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a combat personnel works 50 hours in a week during deployment, how will their pay be calculated?

<p>The first 40 hours are paid at the support straight time, and the remaining 10 hours are at 1.5 times the support time. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For deployment purposes, what defines a work week?

<p>Sunday 1200 am (midnight) to Saturday 1200 pm (noon). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the payment agreement form, what acknowledgment is made regarding reimbursement amounts?

<p>The SLC FD will not pay more than the corresponding reimbursement amount SLC FD receives under the terms of the contract. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the 'Portal to Portal' compensation plan in the context of wildland deployments?

<p>Members are compensated continuously from the time they arrive at the designated SLCFD location until they return, encompassing the entire deployment duration. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When does the Salt Lake City Fire Department use 'Shift Ticket Pay' for wildland deployments?

<p>On a Utah Department of Natural Resources deployment, in base camp to track actual hours worked. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the '24 Day Cycle' definition provided in the SOP?

<p>It's the period used to calculate work and overtime hours under FLSA guidelines. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Salt Lake City Fire Department address compensation contracts that differ from the standard 'Portal to Portal' or 'Shift Ticket Pay'?

<p>It will be communicated to the members on the deployment team and the Local 81 board prior to deployment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why might the exact reimbursement type (Portal to Portal vs. Shift Ticket) NOT be included in the initial text notification for a wildland deployment opportunity?

<p>Time restraints and ongoing negotiations may prevent confirming the reimbursement type before the notification is sent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Support Pay Rate differ from the Operations Pay Rate for wildland deployments?

<p>Support Pay is computed based on a forty (40) hour work week, Operations Pay is computed based on a fifty-six (56) hour work week. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the over-arching financial principle guiding SLCFD's approach to wildland deployment pay?

<p>SLCFD will pay the deployment team members in accordance with this contract and will not incur additional costs for pay over and above what is reimbursed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for members accepting a wildland deployment opportunity to understand the reimbursement guidelines stated in a requesting agency's contract?

<p>To understand how their work hours will be accounted for and how they will compensated for the deployment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What poses the MOST significant risk when directly applying water streams onto energized electrical equipment?

<p>The potential for the water stream to conduct electricity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action demonstrates understanding of 'reel memory' associated with downed power lines?

<p>Maintaining awareness that the wire may curl or roll back. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action BEST mitigates potential hazards associated with PCB-containing transformers during fire suppression?

<p>Wearing full PPE, including SCBA, and avoiding smoke inhalation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an electrical emergency, what BEST describes the relationship between protecting exposures and extinguishing burning wires?

<p>Protecting exposures is the primary responsibility, even if wires are burning. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important reason for establishing a safety perimeter during a downed power line incident?

<p>To prevent unauthorized personnel from entering the danger zone. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action demonstrates the BEST understanding of potential hazards at the scene of downed power lines?

<p>Treating the ground and nearby conductive objects as potentially energized. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Aside from downed power lines, what other electrical equipment poses an explosion risk that should be considered during size-up?

<p>Pad-mounted and overhead transformers. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes an indirect path to ground in the context of electrical safety?

<p>Contact with an energized source through an intermediary object. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During initial size-up of an electrical incident, what specific location information is MOST valuable to relay to dispatch if safe to obtain?

<p>The pole number or closest address. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of experiencing a tingling sensation in the feet near a downed power line?

<p>It serves as a warning of potential step potential and electrocution risk. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does moisture (wet or damp ground) impact the danger associated with ground gradient voltage?

<p>It increases the danger by enhancing the conductivity of the ground. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A firefighter is approaching a scene with downed power lines. While still at a distance, they observe that the lines are sparking intermittently. What should be their immediate course of action?

<p>Establish a wide perimeter and immediately contact the power company. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary assumption that should always be made regarding downed power lines, regardless of any perceived indications to the contrary?

<p>Downed power lines must always be considered energized with potentially lethal current. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario presents the highest risk of step potential?

<p>Walking through a puddle of water near a downed electrical wire. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it crucial to avoid touching any vehicles in the vicinity of downed power lines?

<p>Vehicles may become energized, providing an indirect path to ground. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At an incident involving downed power lines the power company states the lines have been de-energized. What action should the Incident Commander take?

<p>Request the power company provide visual confirmation the line is de-energized, and continue to treat the area as energized until confirmation is received. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event that vehicle occupants involved in an electrical emergency (power lines on the vehicle) must evacuate due to an immediate life threat, what specific instruction should they receive to minimize the risk of electrical shock?

<p>Open the door and jump clear of the vehicle, ensuring no simultaneous contact with the vehicle and the ground. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At the scene of a downed power line, what is the priority action regarding the public's safety while awaiting the arrival of the power company?

<p>Establish a perimeter and actively keep the public away until the power company confirms the line is de-energized. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When dealing with a fire originating from energized electrical equipment, what is the appropriate initial strategy?

<p>Direct fire suppression efforts towards protecting exposures outside of the hot zone. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should fire personnel take upon arriving at the scene of an incident involving a substation or transformer?

<p>Establish a safety perimeter outside the fence, secure the area, and deny entry, while awaiting the power company. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it critical to avoid opening the shutters on underground electrical vaults?

<p>Opening the shutters may ignite trapped flammable gases, potentially causing an explosion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In responding to an incident involving an underground electrical vault, what is the recommended course of action for fire personnel?

<p>Stand clear of manhole covers and await the power company to de-energize the equipment; heavy rescue team response should be considered. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary hazard associated with walking under transformers at a substation fire?

<p>The possibility of exposure to hazardous substances like PCBs or other oils. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At the scene of a vehicle accident involving downed power lines where the occupants are conscious and uninjured, what specific instruction should be given to the occupants?

<p>Instruct occupants to remain inside the vehicle until the power company arrives and confirms it is safe to exit. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At an automatic alarm activation with no visible hazards, what is the most suitable initial action for fire personnel?

<p>Locate the fire alarm control panel to determine the zone of origin. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance is forcible entry most justified when responding to an automatic alarm activation?

<p>When there is any indication of smoke, fire, or water flow. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After determining that no fire conditions or hazards exist during an automatic alarm activation, what is the next priority for the company officer?

<p>Locate a responsible party to manage the alarm system. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should the company officer include in the NFIR report after responding to an automatic alarm activation?

<p>Investigation findings, contact attempts, and panel condition. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A fire alarm activates in a commercial building, but the panel is behind a locked door. A small amount of smoke is seeping from under the door. What action should the Incident Commander take?

<p>Initiate forcible entry to access the panel to determine the zone of the smoke. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A crew responds to an alarm activation with no hazards present and is unable to contact a responsible party. After investigation, what action reflects acceptable discretion for the company officer?

<p>Silencing the alarm, resetting the system, and clearing the scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the company officer do immediately after silencing and/or resetting an automatic alarm system, when unable to locate a responsible party?

<p>Notify dispatch of the alarm status upon clearing the scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A fire crew responds to an automatic alarm system activation at a large office building during non-business hours. After a thorough investigation, they find no signs of fire or hazardous conditions. They cannot locate a responsible party for the building. What is the most appropriate action?

<p>Silence the alarm, reset the system (if possible), and clear the scene while making notes in the NFIR. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario exemplifies an 'Urban Interface' as defined in the wildland fire SOG?

<p>A residential neighborhood adjacent to a large, undeveloped grassy field. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of 'Structural Triage' in wildland fire response?

<p>To quickly assess and categorize threatened structures for efficient resource allocation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does establishing an 'Anchor Point' contribute to wildland fire suppression efforts?

<p>It provides a defensible location to begin fire attack or fireline construction. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a wildland fire, what does the acronym 'LCES' represent, and why is it essential?

<p>Lookouts, Communications, Escape Routes, Safety Zones; essential for firefighter safety. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of LCES, what is the most critical consideration when establishing a 'Safety Zone'?

<p>Ensuring that everyone is aware of the zone location and it's large enough for all users and survivable without a shelter. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following weather conditions, if forecasted, would alone meet one of the minimum criteria outlined in the guideline for a Red Flag Warning?

<p>Sustained winds of 20 mph. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it necessary to post lookouts in areas where Incident Commanders (ICs) and crew members have limited vantage points of the scene?

<p>To provide early warning of changing fire conditions or hazards. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should fire personnel respond if, during wildland firefighting operations, they determine their established escape route is compromised by rapidly changing fire behavior?

<p>Communicate the change immediately and relocate to a pre-identified alternate escape route or safety zone. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a rapidly escalating wildland fire threatening multiple structures, what is the most effective way for the Incident Commander (IC) to balance resource allocation across the incident priorities?

<p>Establish clear divisions of labor, assigning specific teams to life safety (search and rescue), others to structure protection, and others to containing the fire's spread. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a significant wildfire within Salt Lake City, after notifying the UFA on-duty wildland duty officer, what should be the next priority for notifications?

<p>Contact the Wasatch Front Fire Management Officer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the UFA on-duty wildland duty officer, Wasatch Front Fire Management Officer, and Salt Lake County Fire Warden cannot be reached during a wildfire incident, which entity should be contacted next?

<p>The northern Utah Interagency Fire Center (NUIFC). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following initial dispatch scenarios reflects the correct resource allocation for a reported grass/brush fire, according to the guideline?

<p>Closest wildland company (two Type VI engines <em>or</em> one Type III engine) and the closest Type I engine <em>not</em> part of the wildland company. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of monitoring the provided website (www.nifc.gov/nicc/sitreprt.pdf) for situational awareness?

<p>To monitor significant fire activity for potential local smoke impact and deployment needs. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the declaration of a working wildland incident, what combination of resources is added to the initial response, reflecting the need for increased support and command presence?

<p>One Utility/Air vehicle, one Water Tender, one B/C, and Command and Support personnel. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During wildfire incidents within Salt Lake City, what is the resource officer's role concerning tactical guidance?

<p>Providing tactical guidance and fire behavior recognition assistance to the Incident Commander (IC). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action demonstrates an Incident Commander (IC) effectively integrating the procedural requirements for wildland fires into their incident management?

<p>Completing a field fire report and submitting it to the Northern Utah Interagency Fire Council (NUIFC). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a major wildfire incident requiring inter-agency cooperation, what is a key responsibility of the designated resource officer?

<p>Serving as a liaison with the UFA, the State of Utah, and other involved entities or jurisdictions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a complex wildland-urban interface fire, what action reflects the Incident Commander's (IC) understanding of the relationship between incident stabilization and property conservation?

<p>Prioritizing structure triage to identify those that are defendable and focusing resources on creating defensible space around them, while simultaneously working to contain the fire's spread. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a fast-moving wildland-urban interface fire with limited resources, what is the primary rationale behind employing 'hit-and-run' tactics?

<p>To make initial knockdowns on multiple fires, maximizing property saved across a wider area. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific action should the resource officer take regarding mutual and automatic-aid requests for wildfire incidents outside Salt Lake City?

<p>Ensuring that only qualified, 'red-carded' units are deployed in response to the request. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When using aircraft for wildland fire suppression, what is the most crucial element for ensuring their effective and safe operation?

<p>Establishing clear communication channels between trained personnel and air assets to coordinate drops. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for using geographic "divisions" over task-based "groups" in initial action plans for wildland firefighting?

<p>To ensure each division independently manages fire attack, information assessment, water supply, LCES, and fire behavior within its designated area. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key responsibility of the Incident Commander (IC) concerning potential dangers on a wildland fire incident?

<p>Identifying and communicating special hazards to ALL personnel involved in the incident. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides assisting with tactical guidance, serving as a liaison, and ensuring wildland SOG compliance, what other support function does the designated resource officer provide during wildfire incidents?

<p>Assisting the SLCFD PIO with wildfire-related subject matter expertise. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the resource officer's responsibility regarding wildland training activities within Salt Lake City?

<p>Assisting with the coordination of any wildland training activities within Salt Lake City and/or with outside agencies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario best illustrates a situation where an indirect attack method would be most appropriate?

<p>A rapidly spreading wildfire with high intensity, presenting immediate safety risks to firefighters attempting direct engagement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During what period is the Wildland Duty Officer position typically filled each year at designated Wildland Type VI stations?

<p>Approximately May 1st through October 1st, the typical wildland fire season. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific training is required for an officer to qualify for the Wildland Duty Officer position?

<p>S-215 and S-290, along with a current Red Card (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During structure defense in a wildland-urban interface fire, what critical action should firefighters take if the fire situation escalates rapidly and becomes unsustainable?

<p>Retreat to a designated safety zone, abandoning hose lines if necessary. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a wildland-urban interface fire, your crew is assigned to structure defense. Upon arrival, you observe a home with significant defensible space and non-combustible roofing. How should you classify this structure during triage?

<p>&quot;Stand alone&quot;, indicating it is likely to survive without intervention. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the absence of a qualified on-duty Captain to serve as the Wildland Duty Officer, who is responsible for designating an alternate?

<p>The Operations Battalion Chief (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important for crews employing 'hit-and-run' tactics to return to previously addressed structures as soon as fire conditions allow?

<p>To complete extinguishment, conduct salvage, and prevent rekindling. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While engaged in a 'pump and roll' attack, what critical safety measure must be adhered to at all times?

<p>The vehicle operator must <em>not</em> simultaneously operate the vehicle and the nozzle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of wildland firefighting, what does 'LCES' encompass, and why is it a critical component of an initial action plan?

<p>Lookouts, Communications, Escape routes, and Safety zones; to mitigate the risk of entrapment and ensure firefighter safety. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the Incident Commander (IC) regarding accountability of personnel during a wildland fire incident?

<p>Maintaining PAR via the department’s Command Worksheet. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When employing a direct attack on a wildland fire, which tactic involves attacking the fire from multiple points, effectively 'squeezing' the fire?

<p>Pincer Attack (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the passage of the main fire front during structure defense, what immediate action should crews prioritize to prevent further loss?

<p>Begin overhaul operations, focusing on vulnerable points of the structure to extinguish any remaining fires. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon declaration of a second alarm for a wildland fire, what combination of engine resources would meet the minimum requirements outlined in the provided guidelines?

<p>Two Type VI engines staffed with two firefighters each and one Type I engine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During wildland firefighting operations, when is it mandatory for personnel to wear web gear with a fire shelter and water bottles?

<p>Whenever operating more than 200 feet from a paved roadway or at the Company Officer’s discretion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The first-arriving officer at a wildland fire assumes the role of Incident Commander (IC). Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive description of their initial responsibilities?

<p>Conducting a size-up, performing a risk assessment, and then transmitting an arrival report that includes a resource determination. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following descriptions included in the initial radio report best exemplifies clearly communicating 'obvious safety concerns'?

<p>&quot;Fire, Engine 1 on scene. We have power lines down across the access road and heavy smoke is impacting visibility.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the arrival report, declaring an initial strategy is crucial. Which of the following statements BEST illustrates a declaration of initial strategy?

<p>&quot;We will be making access off the frontage road for a mobile attack. This will be a direct fire attack.&quot; (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it critical for command to be retained by an officer in an 'unencumbered position' during wildland incidents?

<p>To ensure efficient management and accountability of all resources on scene while a higher-ranking officer arrives. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The initial report from the first-arriving officer indicates a rapidly spreading brush fire threatening multiple homes. What would be the MOST appropriate resource determination to include in the arrival report?

<p>&quot;Requesting two additional Type VI engines and making working wildfire notifications.&quot; (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A crew is operating 150 feet from a paved road on flat ground, directly attacking a slow-moving grass fire. According to guidelines, what equipment is required to be worn?

<p>Department-approved wildland shirt, Nomex pants, lightweight or structural helmet with shroud and eye protection, leather gloves. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST important reason for fire departments in a region to maintain consistency in their high-rise kits?

<p>To facilitate seamless collaboration and goal achievement among crews from different departments. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following items in the Command/Lobby Kit enhances the Incident Commander's ability to track resources and personnel effectively?

<p>Accountability boards. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is a vise grip or channel lock included in the Engine High-Rise Kit?

<p>To offer a secure grip on standpipe valves if the original wheel is missing or damaged. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An engine company encounters a situation where the 2½" to 1½" reducer cannot be removed from a standpipe outlet. Which item from the Engine High-Rise Kit would BEST address this issue?

<p>A 1½&quot; to 2½&quot; increaser. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a high-rise incident, Command identifies the need for enhanced communication capabilities within the fire control room. Which item from the Command/Lobby Kit would BEST support this requirement?

<p>Building phone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the initial phase of a high-rise incident where air support is used, why should Command delegate communication duties to a qualified deputy?

<p>Because the intense safety requirements demand focused attention that is best handled by a dedicated individual. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended minimum number of firefighters required to control a small, confirmed working fire in a high-rise building without a pre-plan in place, based on the information provided?

<p>At least 50 firefighters, to ensure sufficient resources for the complexities of a high-rise fire. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the dispatch of a helicopter to a high-rise incident, what organizational action must the Incident Commander (IC) be prepared to implement?

<p>Implement the Air Operations Branch under the Operations Section. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical action must the first arriving engine company perform upon entering the Fire Command Center (FCC) during a high-rise incident?

<p>Mark the panel, return elevators to the ground floor, and locate stairways. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is it most critical for fire departments within the AHJ to participate in regular training exercises that implement an Air Operations Branch?

<p>Prior to dispatching and using Air Support at any incident. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which task is the MOST essential for the engineer of the first-arriving engine company during a high-rise fire, after arriving at the standpipe connection?

<p>Establish a reverse lay to a hydrant at least 200 feet from the structure and prepare a second line to the standpipe. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most appropriate location for the Apparatus Base at a high-rise incident?

<p>A minimum of 200 feet from the incident, with the location announced to responding units. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the 2nd-arriving engine company's crew, excluding the engineer, during high-rise incidents?

<p>Check standpipe valves and serve as a backup to the fire attack team on the fire floor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary tactical objective of the 7th-arriving engine at a high-rise incident?

<p>To begin fire attack from the 2nd stairwell on fire floor (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a helicopter arrives on the scene of a high-rise fire before an expanded Incident Command System structure is implemented, what is Command's responsibility regarding the helicopter?

<p>To maintain communications with the helicopter pilot and manage it as a single resource. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main objective for the 3rd-arriving engine company during a high-rise fire incident?

<p>Prepare to replace the initial attack team on the fire floor. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should the 8th-arriving engine take to establish a secondary water supply at a high-rise incident?

<p>Reverse lay from the 2nd standpipe location to a hydrant at least 200 feet from the structure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When Command announces a 'working fire' in a high-rise building, what minimum response level should be requested, irrespective of the fire's apparent size?

<p>A Level III response, designed to cover the minimum required number of firefighters. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the Incident Commander (IC) assigns the 6th-arriving truck to aerial rescue operations, what becomes their subsequent primary responsibility?

<p>Supporting the 2nd fire attack stairwell with truck functions on the fire floor and forcible entry. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the request for a Level III High-Rise Response, where will the responding personnel initially report?

<p>To Apparatus Base, a minimum of 200 feet from the incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the designated location for the 2nd Heavy Rescue apparatus upon arrival at the incident?

<p>Apparatus Base, reporting to the 2nd stairwell RSA. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the 8th-arriving engine engineer remaining with the engine during a high-rise incident?

<p>To operate and maintain the water supply for the 2nd standpipe system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary action does the 4th-arriving engine company take upon arrival at a high-rise fire?

<p>Immediate set up in the stairwell to relieve fire floor division crews. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To whom should the crew of the 8th-arriving engine report upon reaching their assigned position at a high-rise incident?

<p>The 2nd stairwell Fire Attack Group supervisor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should the 6th-arriving truck take upon arrival if aerial rescue is NOT immediately necessary?

<p>Stage in the 2nd stairwell and support fire attack, perform truck functions, and prepare for forcible entry. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon arrival at a high-rise incident, what role does the 5th-arriving engine company initially fulfill?

<p>Serving as the initial Resource Staging Area (RSA) manager. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement accurately describes the tool staging procedure for the 6th-arriving truck?

<p>The truck kit and a fan, along with extra tools, are placed in the RSA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a high-rise incident, why is it important for arriving engine companies to drop extra equipment in the Resource Staging Area (RSA)?

<p>To quickly replenish supplies for crews operating on the fire floor and in the stairwell. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mission of the 6th-arriving engine at a high-rise incident, according to the guideline?

<p>Report to the RSA and prepare to relieve stairwell crews. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific information should the 6th-arriving engine crew provide to the RSA manager upon arrival?

<p>PAR#. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The 2nd Heavy Rescue is assigned as the '2nd Stairwell RIT.' What is their primary objective?

<p>To establish RIT on the 2nd stairwell RSA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should engine company crews do immediately after completing their assigned tasks during a high-rise incident?

<p>Report to the Fire Floor Division supervisor with a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After relieving the Truck Fire Attack Support Team, what action should the 6th-arriving truck take regarding the plenum space?

<p>Open up the plenum space after Fire Attack Teams enter. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the 2nd Truck's primary objective upon arrival, assuming aerial rescue is NOT immediately required?

<p>To position a fan in the stairwell one floor below the 2nd stairwell resource. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To whom does the 6th-arriving truck report and provide a PAR# after setting up in the designated area?

<p>The 2nd stairwell Fire Attack Group supervisor. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended configuration for a high-rise hose pack?

<p>A horseshoe load carried over the SCBA air cylinder, using a split hose pack (50 feet per firefighter). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the assembly of a high-rise hose pack, what is the purpose of marking the hose at the 32-inch point?

<p>To serve as a guide for creating uniform bends in the hose during the folding process. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When folding the high-rise hose pack, why should you avoid going past the male coupling?

<p>To maintain a compact and small-sized hose pack. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of staggering the folds in the high-rise hose pack near the male coupling?

<p>To keep the pack neat and compact and maximize space, similar to an accordion-type hose load. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where should the female coupling be placed when assembling the high-rise hose pack, and why?

<p>On the side of the horseshoe opposite the male coupling and just past the hose folds, to balance the pack and distribute weight evenly. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where one firefighter is tasked with carrying a high-rise pack up multiple flights of stairs, what aspect of the pack's construction is most critical to ease of use and reducing firefighter fatigue?

<p>The tightness and compactness of the pack, with no slack in the hose. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides the high-rise hose pack, which of the following items are included in the standard Nozzle firefighter kit?

<p>A spare SCBA cylinder and a door wedge/rubber strap assortment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which tool is specifically listed as part of the 'Truck Kit' for firefighting operations?

<p>A set of heavy irons with a shoulder sling. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an elevator emergency, what is the Engineer's initial action upon the Captain's instruction?

<p>Prepare to reboot the elevator by locating the main power switch. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the initial reboot of a stalled elevator fails and Phase 1 recall is unsuccessful, what is the Engineer's next responsibility?

<p>Lock out/tag out the main power switch or remain by it to prevent reactivation. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended time duration for powering down an elevator during a reboot attempt?

<p>A minimum of 30 seconds, potentially up to 5 minutes for a full reboot. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When responding to the floor where the stalled elevator is located, what initial action is directed by the Officer?

<p>Direct a firefighter to use the drop key to access the elevator, if available. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What safety precaution must be observed before opening an elevator door with a drop key?

<p>Verifying that the power to the elevator has been shut off. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After occupants are rescued from a stalled elevator, what action should be taken regarding the elevator's power?

<p>The elevator's power should remain locked out if possible. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information should be communicated to the arriving elevator mechanic?

<p>A detailed report of all actions taken during the rescue operation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Truck Captain expected to confirm during face-to-face interaction with the first-arriving officer at an elevator incident?

<p>That all steps for occupant rescue have been completed and lockout/tagout is in place. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In an elevator emergency, what is the primary factor that dictates whether rapid extrication is necessary?

<p>The presence of an actual emergency, as determined by the first arriving officer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the case of an elevator malfunction, when is it acceptable to force open the elevator doors?

<p>Only as a last resort, and in an emergency situation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended action for the officer of the first-arriving Engine Company at an elevator malfunction, especially when drop keys are unavailable?

<p>Request the dispatch of a Truck Company. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should Firefighter 1 take after determining the condition of the occupants inside the stalled elevator car?

<p>Report the occupants' conditions and whether a true emergency exists to the Captain. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What indicates that a hole for a drop key should be present to Firefighter 2 sizing up the hoistway/lobby door?

<p>A small opening, typically near the elevator door. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the Engineer's primary responsibility upon arrival at an elevator malfunction?

<p>Locate and secure power to the elevator in the machine room. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an elevator emergency, what is the primary objective of Firefighter 1 at the location of the stalled car?

<p>To communicate with the people inside, assess their condition, and relay information. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is confirming that an elevator maintenance company has been dispatched and requesting an ETA important during an elevator emergency?

<p>To leverage the maintenance company's expertise in resolving the malfunction and preventing further incidents. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a hydraulic elevator car is not within the landing zone and drifting is deemed necessary, what is the most critical action to perform immediately prior to initiating the drift?

<p>Ensuring lock out/tag out procedures are completed in the elevator mechanical room. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a traction elevator drift, why is it essential for firefighters to open the hoistway doors on both the floor above and the floor below the stalled elevator?

<p>To prepare for potential elevator movement in either direction when the brake is released. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where a hydraulic elevator car is stuck slightly above the landing zone, and 'poling' is chosen as the method to open the hoistway door, from where should the 'poling' ideally be performed?

<p>From another elevator car positioned adjacent to the stalled one, or from the floor above. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon determining that a traction elevator car needs to be drifted, what is the primary role of the Engineer during the drifting procedure?

<p>Maintaining radio contact with the Officer to relay status updates and receive instructions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When executing a hydraulic elevator drift, why is it important for one firefighter to accompany the Engineer to the elevator mechanical room?

<p>To assist with opening the valve and precisely controlling the elevator's descent. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a traction elevator drift, after the Truck Officer gives the order, which of the following describes the coordinated actions of the two firefighters using Halligan tools on the brake?

<p>One firefighter completely releases the brake, while the other gently feathers it to control the elevator's speed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When a firefighter is placed inside an elevator car that is not within the landing zone prior to occupant removal, what is their most important task?

<p>Blocking any openings into the hoistway to prevent accidental falls. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to consider using a ground or tactical radio channel when performing elevator drifting operations?

<p>To keep the primary radio channels free for other emergency responses. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which task represents a primary responsibility for the first arriving truck company at a structure fire?

<p>Coordinating ventilation with fire attack to support interior operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The priority for positioning the first arriving truck company's apparatus is best described by which of the following?

<p>Strategic positioning based on the building's height, roof design, and incident conditions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary initial assignment for the second arriving engine company at a structure fire?

<p>Establishing water supply and initiating fire attack. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum requirement for a back-up line in relation to the initial attack line?

<p>It should be of the same diameter or larger and the same length or longer, advanced through the same entry portal. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides fire attack, what additional action does the second arriving engine company undertake to support Life Safety?

<p>Conducting a primary search in an assigned area. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon determination of a 'Working Incident' at a one- or two-family residential structure fire, which of the following resources are automatically added to the initial alarm response?

<p>One Operations Battalion Chief, one Support Engine, and one Utility/Air Vehicle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During firefighting operations, which of the following scenarios dictates that Fire Officers and/or support personnel within the hazard zone must be breathing supplied air (SCBA)?

<p>When the area may become Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action is essential for the third arriving engine company to perform related to exposure protection?

<p>Establishing an independent water supply and deploying lines to protect the most severe exposure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action is a critical responsibility for the third arriving engine company when assigned as the Rapid Intervention Company (RIC)?

<p>Securing a secondary means of egress for crews operating in the IDLH environment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the specific purpose of a 'Conditions, Actions, Air, and Needs (CAAN)' report in firefighting operations?

<p>To provide a standardized method for reporting on progress and requesting assistance. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum number of Engines required to be dispatched on the initial alarm to a reported structure fire in a one- or two-family residential occupancy?

<p>Three Engines. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following reflects the Incident Commander's (IC) responsibility regarding risk assessment and communication?

<p>Identifying and communicating any special hazards to all personnel on scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Incident Commander uses the department’s First Arriving / Command Worksheet. For what primary purpose does the Incident Commander (IC) utilize this tool?

<p>To ensure accountability of all personnel (PAR) and maintain a safe and effective operation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of structure firefighting regarding hoselines, what differentiates a 'back-up line' from a “secondary line'?

<p>A back-up line reinforces or protects personnel, while a secondary line supplies additional GPM through either the initial or a different portal. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Fire Officers and/or support personnel are operating on scene outside the established hazard zone during a residential structure fire incident. According to the guideline, what is the minimum PPE requirement for these individuals?

<p>Appropriate PPE/outerwear as determined by SLCFD policy or the Incident Commander. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After the initial dispatch to a residential structure fire, what is the minimum number of fire personnel that will be on scene?

<p>Sufficient personnel to operate three engines, one truck, one ambulance, and one Battalion Chief. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to exclude non-essential personnel from operational areas at an incident?

<p>To prevent injuries and conflicts within the operational environment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST critical reason for the first arriving officer to perform and communicate a thorough size-up and risk assessment?

<p>To establish a common operating picture and inform strategic and tactical decision-making. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions represents the MOST appropriate order of tactical considerations for the first arriving engine company?

<p>360° size-up, primary search, fire attack, water supply (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should crews prioritize actions to provide the greatest amount of protection at a structure fire?

<p>By prioritizing actions to protect the greatest number of threatened lives and property. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of achieving 'Primary All-Clear' and 'Under Control' benchmarks during initial fireground operations?

<p>They are verification points that signify completion of critical tactical objectives related to life safety and incident stabilization. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon arrival at a structure fire, the first arriving officer declares an offensive strategy and assumes the Fast Attack command option. Under what circumstance should the officer prioritize transferring command to an exterior officer?

<p>When the officer needs to directly participate in fire suppression activities, hindering their ability to effectively manage the overall incident. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the rationale behind retaining incident command by an officer in an 'unencumbered position'?

<p>To maintain accountability for all resources on scene and effectively manage the overall incident strategy. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a structure fire, the first-arriving engine officer is utilizing the fast attack command option. After making entry with their crew, they encounter heavy fire conditions and become disoriented. What action should the officer prioritize?

<p>Prioritizing crew safety and egress, then transferring command to an exterior officer upon exiting the structure. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum hose line diameter that should be stretched for fire attack, capable of flowing?

<p>1-3/4 inch diameter with a flow of 150 gpm (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During initial fireground operations, which action should the first arriving engine prioritize to protect the greatest number of people?

<p>Prioritizing actions to provide the greatest amount of protection to the greatest number of threatened persons or property. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should the first arriving officer consider when positioning the engine company apparatus at a structure fire?

<p>Positioning for best tactical advantage on side A, while not hindering truck company placement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following transmission of the arrival report and declaration of strategy, what action must the initial Incident Commander (IC) take if utilizing the 'Fast Attack' command option?

<p>Transfer command to an exterior officer at the first available opportunity. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical responsibility of the initial Incident Commander (IC) regarding resource management?

<p>To manage and account for all resources on scene until a higher-ranking officer assumes command. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action is most crucial for crews to consider during initial fire attack operations to ensure a sustainable attack?

<p>Securing their own water supply to ensure a sustainable attack. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a working structure fire, what must the first arriving officer include when transmitting the initial arrival report?

<p>Description of actions being taken, declaration of initial strategy, and location of command. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For long or complex hose stretches to areas above grade in a structure fire, what size hose line should be strongly considered, allowing for higher flows?

<p>2-1/2&quot; hose line (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In multi-family structure fires, what is the minimum level of personal protective equipment (PPE) required for personnel who are actively involved in firefighting operations?

<p>Full protective clothing, including SCBA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When must Fire Officers and/or support personnel present within the hazard zone, but not actively involved in firefighting, use supplied air, according to the guideline?

<p>When the area may become Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of a 'Conditions, Actions, Air, and Needs' (CAAN) report in the context of firefighting operations?

<p>To provide a standardized method for reporting and requesting progress updates. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a multi-family residential structure fire, what minimum action should the Incident Commander take upon determining it to be a 'Working Incident'?

<p>Add an Operations Battalion Chief, Support Engine, and Utility/Air Vehicle to the response. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the defining characteristic of a 'back-up line' as described in the guideline, and how does it differ from a secondary line?

<p>A back-up line reinforces initial attack and shares the entry point, while a secondary line provides additional GPM or enters through a separate portal. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the initial dispatch for a fire within a multi-family occupancy, what additional units/resources are automatically added to the response upon determination of a 'Working Incident' by the Incident Commander (IC)?

<p>An additional Operations Battalion Chief, a Support Engine, and a Utility/Air Vehicle. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering firefighter safety, why is it vital for a backup line at a multi-family structure fire to be 'one box back' from the initial attack line?

<p>To allow the backup line crew to rapidly assist or rescue the initial attack crew without being directly in the fire's path. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a multi-family residential structure fire, resources operating outside the hazard zone, what level of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered appropriate?

<p>Appropriate PPE/outerwear as determined by SLCFD policy or Incident Commander. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary tactical objective the First Arriving Truck aims to achieve alongside other operational tasks?

<p>Achieving 'Primary All Clear' and 'Under Control' benchmarks as quickly as possible. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action represents a key responsibility of the Second Arriving Engine company that directly supports fire suppression efforts?

<p>Ensuring a continuous water supply is established, separate from handlines, for FDC if present. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most likely initial action the Third Arriving Engine should undertake, assuming no specific orders are given by command?

<p>Completing a size-up of the 'Charlie' side of the building. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the First Arriving Truck prioritize its apparatus placement to optimize operational effectiveness?

<p>Position apparatus for tactical advantage based upon height of structure, roof design, conditions and/or command directive. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During fire operations, how does the First Arriving Truck's ventilation efforts contribute to the safety and efficiency of interior operations?

<p>By coordinating ventilation with fire attack to improve search, hose stream advancement, and fire confinement/extinguishment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What crucial consideration should guide the Second Arriving Engine's apparatus placement upon arrival at a structure fire?

<p>Positioning to allow the aerial apparatus to be placed without hinderance. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the Third Arriving Engine's officer integrate their size-up on the 'Charlie' side with overall incident management?

<p>By providing a brief radio report to Command if a size-up hasn't been completed yet. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What flow rate and hose line size is the Third Arriving Engine expected to utilize for fire attack, unless command provides alternate directions?

<p>A large diameter hose line of sufficient GPM flow (normally 200 or greater) and length to cover any building location. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a structure fire, the fourth-arriving engine is assigned as the Rapid Intervention Company (RIC). Considering the role of RIC, which of the following actions demonstrates a proactive approach to firefighter safety?

<p>Establishing a RIC cache and proactively ensuring a secondary means of egress for crews working in the IDLH environment. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The second-arriving truck company is assigned to forcible entry and ventilation. To ensure coordinated fireground operations, which action should they prioritize upon arrival?

<p>Coordinate ventilation efforts with fire attack to support search and rescue and hose stream advancement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The first-arriving engine establishes water supply from a hydrant. What action should the fourth arriving engine do to support water supply?

<p>Establish a secondary water supply from a different source than the first arriving engine. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a working structure fire, the Incident Commander (IC) declares a defensive strategy due to structural instability,. How should the IC's resource allocation best reflect this change in strategy?

<p>Re-allocate resources to focus on exterior operations, exposure protection, and establishing collapse zones. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Incident Commander is developing an Incident Action Plan (IAP) for a commercial structure fire. Which action best demonstrates the IC's responsibility to identify and communicate special hazards?

<p>Identifying and communicating special hazards, such as hazardous materials or structural concerns, to <em>all</em> personnel on scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A fire incident involves a building with a known, compromised structural element. Which action demonstrates the Incident Commander's (IC) proactive responsibility to maintain personnel safety?

<p>Adhering to the department's First Arriving/Command Worksheet and ensuring all personnel operate safely throughout the incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The second-arriving truck is assigned to ventilation and observes heavy smoke issuing from a specific section of the building. To best support interior operations, what action should they take?

<p>Coordinate with the fire attack team to determine the <em>most effective</em> ventilation strategy. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The fourth-arriving engine is assigned as RIC. Upon arrival, the RIC officer notices a significant delay in establishing a secondary means of egress. What action should the RIC officer take first?

<p>Communicate the concern to the Incident Commander and proactively establish a secondary egress route. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the typical role of the fourth-arriving engine at a structure fire?

<p>Serving as the Rapid Intervention Company (RIC). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a critical action the RIC Officer should consider to enhance team readiness and effectiveness?

<p>Establishing a separate hose line dedicated for the RIC team's potential deployment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should the second-arriving truck typically position itself at a structure fire?

<p>On an alternate (Charlie) side of the fire building for tactical advantage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key responsibility of the second-arriving truck company regarding fireground operations?

<p>Coordinating ventilation with fire attack to support search and rescue and fire extinguishment. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the initial attack hose line?

<p>To confine, control, and/or extinguish fire extension in the most probable area. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Beyond declaring an incident strategy, what is another critical communication responsibility of the Incident Commander (IC)?

<p>Identifying and communicating special hazards to all personnel. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides the First Arriving / Command Worksheet, what procedural action should the Incident Commander maintain to ensure responder safety?

<p>Personnel Accountability Report (PAR). (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What supporting action should the first arriving engine establish when initiating fire attack if needed?

<p>A different water supply from the first arriving engine. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What constitutes an 'obvious condition' that the first arriving officer should communicate in the initial radio report?

<p>Visible signs such as a 'working fire', 'hazmat spill', or 'multiple patients'. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is declaring an initial strategy a crucial element of the first-arriving officer's arrival report?

<p>To immediately inform responding units of the planned operational approach. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What size hose line should be prioritized by the first arriving engine for fire attack and rescue/evacuation?

<p>A minimum of 1-3/4&quot; diameter, capable of flowing at least 150 gpm. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under conditions of advanced fire spread upon arrival, what action regarding water supply is highly encouraged for the first arriving engine?

<p>Secure a water supply (Drop LDH at a minimum) upon arrival. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for excluding non-essential personnel and bystanders from operational areas?

<p>To prevent injury or conflict and reduce potential distractions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should the initial Incident Commander (IC) pass command, if utilizing the 'Fast Attack' command option?

<p>At the first opportunity, to an exterior officer on scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential for Incident Command to be retained by an officer in an 'unencumbered position'?

<p>To enable the officer to manage and account for all resources on scene effectively. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary objective of the first-arriving engine company, upon arrival at a structure fire, regarding the positioning of their apparatus?

<p>To position for tactical advantage on the 'Alpha' side, while allowing optimal truck placement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a structure fire, the first arriving truck is assigned ventilation, rescue, and utility control. What is a key consideration when coordinating ventilation efforts?

<p>Ventilation should be coordinated with fire attack to support search, rescue, and hose stream advancement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Beyond fire attack, what are optional assignments for the first arriving engine company?

<p>Water supply and investigation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The second-arriving engine company is assigned to fire attack and search & rescue. What action should they take regarding water supply?

<p>Ensure adequate and continuous water supply, possibly establishing an independent supply to standpipe connections. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The third-arriving engine company is assigned to complete a size-up of the 'Charlie' side, what information should be included in their radio report?

<p>Size up of the Charlie side and occupants who may be on that side of the building. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary tactical objective that both the first-arriving engine and truck companies should focus on at the beginning of a structure fire?

<p>Accomplishing the 'Primary All-Clear' and 'Under Control' benchmarks as soon as possible. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The second arriving engine is responsible for advancing a secondary or backup hoseline, in what situation would they do so?

<p>To assist with fire attack and/or search operations as needed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The third arriving engine typically has the option of being assigned Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC). What is required to establish an effective RIC?

<p>Adequate personnel, appropriate equipment, and a dedicated focus on firefighter safety. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What operational actions are support operations for accomplishing tactical benchmarks.

<p>Water supply, ventilation, rescue, and fire attack. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During offensive operations in a commercial structure fire, what is the primary purpose of a back-up line?

<p>To serve as a means of protection and egress for personnel if the initial attack line fails or conditions worsen. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the minimum level of PPE required for firefighters actively engaged in fighting a commercial structure fire?

<p>Full protective clothing, including SCBA. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between a 'back-up line' and a 'secondary line' in commercial structure firefighting?

<p>A back-up line protects egress via the initial entry, while a secondary line targets a different area through a separate entry. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When should fire officers and support personnel within the hazard zone of a commercial structure fire be required to breathe supplied air via SCBA?

<p>When the area may become Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the Conditions, Actions, Air, and Needs (CAAN) report in commercial structure firefighting?

<p>It is a specialized communication used to report or request updates on the progress of the incident. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of commercial structure fires, why is it important for the responding units to include a Support Engine in their resources?

<p>To provide Incident Safety Officer and Staging Area Manager, plus other assistance to Command. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following should the Incident Commander (IC) consider to determine if an incident is a 'Working Incident' and requires additional dispatched units?

<p>Factors like fire size/spread, resource needs and potential for escalation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What minimum alarm response should be dispatched to all calls for fires within or threatening commercial structures?

<p>4 Engines, 2 Trucks, 1 Ambulance, and 1 Operations Battalion Chief (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of establishing a common SCBA Air Management Standard across fire departments in the Salt Lake Valley?

<p>To establish uniform Rules of Air Management (ROAM) for firefighters operating in IDLH environments. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Before entering an IDLH atmosphere, what is the purpose of completing 'READY' checks?

<p>To verify that each firefighter's equipment, air supply, and understanding of duties are satisfactory for safe entry. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guideline, what is the expected action of firefighters regarding their air supply while operating in an IDLH atmosphere?

<p>Firefighters must exit the IDLH atmosphere before the emergency low-air warning activates. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the '75% Rule' contribute to firefighter safety in an IDLH environment?

<p>It requires firefighters to exit the IDLH before they have used 75% of their air supply, reserving the remaining 25% for emergencies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of the 'CAAN' format used during progress reports to the Incident Commander (IC)?

<p>To standardize the format of progress reports, ensuring the IC receives consistent updates on Conditions, Actions, Air, and Needs. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the ROAM guidelines, what action is required for a firefighter who breathes into their emergency air reserve?

<p>The firefighter must report to rehab for medical evaluation and clearance before returning to action. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the combined responsibility of individual firefighters and officers, related to air management in an IDLH environment?

<p>To monitor available air and ensure timely exit of themselves and team members before the low-air alarm. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a structure fire, a firefighter reports a 'Change in Division' using the CAAN format. What type of information should they communicate to the IC?

<p>Updates on current Conditions, Actions taken, Air status, and any emerging Needs within the new division. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the critical distinction between a 'Withdraw' and an 'Abandon Building' order during an incident?

<p>'Withdraw' is a planned relocation, while 'Abandon Building' is an immediate escape from imminent danger. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an 'Abandon Building' order, what is the expected action regarding equipment such as tools and hose lines?

<p>Leave all tools, nozzles, and hose lines behind. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a firefighter observes a condition that necessitates an immediate 'Abandon Building' order, what action should they take, assuming communication with the IC is impossible?

<p>Initiate the 'Abandon Building' announcement themselves, repeating it three times over all fire ground radio channels. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the 'Abandon Building' announcement, what specific role do apparatus operators fulfill in ensuring the evacuation is executed?

<p>Give three distinct blasts of the air horn, repeated three times. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After the Incident Commander (IC) orders 'Abandon Building,' what is the immediate next step regarding personnel accountability?

<p>The IC will call for a personnel accountability report (PAR) from all personnel. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary responsibility of the company officer during an 'Abandon Building' order?

<p>To ensure crew integrity and evacuate all fire personnel from the building and collapse zone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of an 'Abandon Building' order, what is the role of the dispatch center?

<p>To clear the channel and announce 'Abandon Building' with 'high-low' alert tones, repeating the announcement three times. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is repeating the 'Abandon Building' message three times crucial during an emergency?

<p>To ensure the message is clearly a directive, not routine traffic. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon arrival of a Chief Officer at a Branch location during a major incident, what role does the Company Officer initially holding the Branch Director position assume?

<p>Branch Assistant, supporting the Chief Officer. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following initial contact with the Branch Director, what action should a company prioritize regarding district reconnaissance?

<p>Prioritizing reconnaissance focused on Critical Infrastructures and Key Resources (CIKR). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which radio frequencies are primarily designated for communication with the East X (10) Branch during a major incident?

<p>SLCi E, City Repeater 1 or 2, and City Ground 2 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of branch operations, what specific information should a company officer communicate while en route to the designated branch station?

<p>En route status, Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) status, and condition of station and apparatus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the tactical priorities outlined, which action takes precedence during incident operations?

<p>Treating the sick and injured. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the established tactical priorities, what is the immediate next step after addressing firefighter safety and initiating life-saving measures?

<p>Focus on incident stabilization through search and rescue and hazard mitigation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When operating under Branch Operations, which of the following actions would be considered outside the scope of a company's responsibilities after initiating contact with the Branch Director?

<p>Establishing a long-term operational plan for the entire affected area. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a large-scale disaster, what is the primary purpose of establishing branch locations as outlined in SOG 04-34A?

<p>To decentralize command and control, improving response times across a wide geographical area. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the incident priorities, which of the following actions should be prioritized after completing primary search and rescue operations at a structure fire?

<p>Focusing on containing, controlling, and mitigating the fire to prevent further spread. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a major disaster, an off-duty firefighter wants to assist. According to SOG 04-34A, what is their first action?

<p>Report to their assigned branch location or the nearest branch location they can safely reach. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should station members take first concerning their station immediately following a major disaster, according to SOG 04-34A?

<p>Treat/transport injured members as appropriate and determine the operational status of apparatus and the station. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After assessing injuries and apparatus status, what key action should station members prioritize if their apparatus is not operational, per SOG 04-34A?

<p>Move critical tools to other apparatus, auxiliaries, or POVs and determine the status of the station. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Engine 4 is assigned to the North II (2) Branch. According to SOG 04-34A, which radio channels could Engine 4 use to contact their Branch Director?

<p>SLCi N, City Repeater 1 or 2, and City Ground 2 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Medic Engine 8 is assigned to the South III (3) Branch. Which combination of resources are also assigned to that same branch, according to SOG 04-34A?

<p>Battalion 4 and Truck 8 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Company 12 is assigned to the Airport XII (12) Branch. What other resource is assigned to this branch?

<p>Red Company (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a major earthquake, Battalion 3 is responding from their station. Which branch are they assigned, and with which Medic Engine will they likely be working?

<p>North II (2) Branch and Medic Engine 7 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At a designated branch station following a major incident, what is the initial responsibility of the Company Officer?

<p>To assume the Branch Director position and begin developing an ICS structure with available personnel. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which resource is primarily responsible for establishing and maintaining communication between a branch and the Emergency Communications Center (ECC)?

<p>Communications/Documentation Unit (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which action falls under the responsibilities of the Operations Unit within a branch during a large-scale incident?

<p>Coordinating street clearance, field security, and public utilities/services to support incident operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary focus of the Logistics Unit within a branch during a large-scale emergency?

<p>Establishing a rehabilitation unit with food, water, shelter, and medical supplies for branch personnel, and securing alternate fuel/water. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following tasks would be handled by the Welfare Unit at a branch location during a significant event?

<p>Managing volunteer resources like the Medical Reserve Corps (MRC). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How should a branch director utilize the Disaster Guide Book during an incident?

<p>To provide information to personnel filling key positions within the Incident Command System (ICS) structure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event that primary and alternate communication methods with the ECC fail at a branch location, what is the contingent method for maintaining communication?

<p>Employing the SAT phone located in the disaster pod. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following a significant event, what is the expectation regarding the number of city personnel and volunteers each branch should be prepared to accommodate?

<p>Each branch should accommodate approximately 50 people, blending city personnel and volunteers. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a large-scale disaster, if the North II Branch experiences radio communication failure on SLCi N, what is the Branch Director's next action, according to the guideline?

<p>Immediately switch to Ground 2 for continued communications within the branch. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A Branch Director is responding to a disaster and has located the Disaster Guide Book. What is the most critical next step for the Branch Director?

<p>To establish command and begin assessing the situation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a multi-incident disaster, the East X Branch Director is overwhelmed with communications. Which of the following actions would most effectively alleviate the communication burden, while adhering to the guideline?

<p>Delegate a communications officer within the X East Branch to manage radio traffic and prioritize information flow. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The West XIV Branch Director is coordinating resources but having difficulty tracking the location of Quint 9. According to the guideline, what communication channel would best facilitate locating this resource?

<p>SLCi W to directly contact Quint 9. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a large-scale incident, the South III Branch needs to communicate an urgent request for additional resources directly to the Emergency Communication Center (ECC). Which radio channel should the Branch Director utilize, according to the guideline?

<p>Command 1 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Airport XII Branch Director is coordinating activities at a mass casualty incident at the airport. Considering the unique resources assigned to this branch, what is most likely a key operational focus for this branch compared to other branches during the initial phase of the incident?

<p>Specialized rescue capabilities and coordination with airport authority resources. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The North II Branch Director has Engine 4, Medic Engine 2, and Truck 2 assigned to the branch under their command. Given this resource allocation, what type of incident is the North II Branch likely most prepared to handle initially?

<p>A structure fire with potential for victim rescue and fire suppression. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The East X Branch Director is coordinating efforts at the scene of a widespread power outage affecting multiple critical facilities. What resource from the East X Branch would likely be the most valuable for addressing this specific challenge?

<p>Engine/HazMat 10 to assess and mitigate any potential hazardous material releases due to power loss. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an EOC activation, which position is most appropriately assigned to the Planning Section?

<p>Fire Marshall (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the Emergency Operations Center (EOC), which role aligns with the responsibilities of the Chief Financial Officer and Payroll Specialist?

<p>Finance Section (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following EOC assignments would best utilize the expertise of the 911 Manager and IT Specialist?

<p>ESF 2 Communications (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a large-scale incident requires activation of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC), which fire department positions are most likely to be assigned to the Operations Section Chief role?

<p>Battalion 5 and 6, Division Chief Facilities (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an extended incident requiring EOC activation, which personnel would most likely be assigned to the Logistics Section?

<p>Apparatus Captain, Apparatus Engineer, Facilities Captain (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an extended incident, how does the Logistics Section support the operational tempo?

<p>By tracking resources in staging and anticipating future needs in Operations. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What key responsibility does the ESF 2 Communications group fulfill during an incident?

<p>Ensuring seamless communication through various applicable means. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the ESF 6 Sheltering group prepare for potential sheltering needs during an emergency?

<p>By identifying shelter locations and coordinating resources for medical/pet shelters. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely necessitate a Level I activation of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?

<p>A city-wide power outage affecting multiple critical facilities. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of EOC operations, what is the PRIMARY function of the Policy Group?

<p>Making public policy decisions, including disaster declarations. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of ESF 8 Health during a large-scale emergency?

<p>Coordinating patient care, hospital surge capacity, and mass fatality management. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between the Coordination Group and the Incident Action Plan (IAP) within the EOC structure?

<p>The Coordination Group contributes to the IAP's development and implementation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a Hazmat incident, beyond coordinating resources, what specific operational task does ESF 10 handle?

<p>Coordinating decontamination operations for affected personnel and equipment. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During EOC activation, how does the Incident Management Team (IMT) support the Incident Commander (IC) in managing a large-scale incident?

<p>By implementing all General Staff Functions necessary for incident mitigation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to assign multiple personnel to each EOC position?

<p>To ensure continuous coverage and redundancy during extended operations. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What distinguishes an Essential Support Function (ESF) from a Section within the EOC's organizational structure?

<p>An ESF represents a federal designation of positions providing specific support, while a Section is part of the ICS Command Staff. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a Level I Activation, which unassigned personnel are expected to report to the EOC?

<p>Unassigned day staff members, including clerical positions, to provide administrative support. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions represents a key responsibility of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) Incident Manager?

<p>Managing the EOC and prioritizing resource requests until assigned to operations. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario would most likely prompt activation of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?

<p>A large-scale natural disaster causing widespread property and infrastructure damage. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the EOC, what role does the Planning Section Chief fulfill?

<p>Developing the Incident Action Plan and organizing planning meetings. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following resources would be MOST relevant for the Logistics Section to coordinate during a Level I EOC activation following a major earthquake?

<p>Coordinating mass sheltering and distribution of essential supplies. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the EOC Safety Officer regarding responders at the incident scene?

<p>To coordinate with site safety officers to minimize risks to responders. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Joint Information Committee (JIC) contribute to the overall effectiveness of the EOC during a large-scale emergency?

<p>By ensuring timely and accurate communication with the public and media. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance would the Incident Commander (IC) most likely request activation of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?

<p>When the incident requires resources and coordination from multiple external agencies. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the EOC Public Information Officer (PIO) support situational awareness during an incident?

<p>By monitoring media and social media for relevant information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the initial action EOC members should take when notified of an EOC activation, excluding automatic activations?

<p>Immediately report to the EOC assuming a Level I activation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way might the Incident Action Plan (IAP) be MOST critical to the EOC's operational effectiveness during a prolonged city-wide emergency?

<p>It provides a singular operational blueprint, guaranteeing consistency and synchronization between all involved sections and ESFs. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the EOC Operations Section Chief play in resource management at the incident?

<p>To coordinate with the IM or IC to ensure that the scene has the needed resources. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions falls under the purview of the EOC Finance Section Chief?

<p>Coordinating with the IM to ensure costs are accurately tracked. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios would automatically trigger a full EOC activation, requiring all members to respond without waiting for notification?

<p>A widespread earthquake causing significant structural damage across the city. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what instance would Level II EOC activation be initiated?

<p>Through phone calls to specific essential personnel, such as the Emergency Preparedness Coordinator and the Logistics Division Chief. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the EOC Logistics Section Chief during an incident?

<p>To request and track resources from County, State, and Federal governments. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the EOC Incident Manager support the planning process during an incident?

<p>By directing the writing of the Incident Action Plan (IAP) and approving the IAP when completed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For which of the following incidents would activating the Planning, Logistics, and Financial Sections of ICS most likely lead to requesting activation of the EOC?

<p>A city-wide blackout necessitating resource procurement and cost tracking. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key interaction that the EOC Operations Section Chief has regarding incident objectives?

<p>Ensuring objectives are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound (SMART). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best differentiates the roles of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) and the Incident Command Post?

<p>The EOC is a coordination and support center, while the Command Post manages tactical operations at the incident scene. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what specific scenario might the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) serve as the best physical location for the Incident Command Post?

<p>During a city-wide earthquake impacting a large geographical area. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an Alert 1 or Alert 2 response for the East Runways (17/35 and 14/32), what is the designated staging area and initial action for Red 4?

<p>Stage on the south end across from Kilo 1. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of an Alert 1 or Alert 2 for the Center Runway (16L/34R), which fire unit assumes command, and where do they initially respond?

<p>Fire West assumes command and responds to the area of the Delta Hanger. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When responding to an Alert 1 or Alert 2 situation on the West Runway (16R/34L), what is the designated staging area for Red 6 and Medic Engine 12?

<p>Area short of the Alpha Taxiway between Taxiways Echo and Foxtrot. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where minimum staffing impacts response to the Center Runway (16L/34R), what adaptation in staging might occur according to the guideline?

<p>Fire West covers the north and center positions, with one apparatus from Fire East covering the south. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Referring to responses on the Airfield, which resource is classified as a mutual aid that may not always be depended on and does not contribute to meeting the FAA's Index Requirements?

<p>The Air National Guard (Air Guard). (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the designated location for Fire East to initially stage during an Alert 1 or 2 response involving the Center Runway (16L/34R)?

<p>Area south of the South Cargo area. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In responding to emergencies at the airport, what overarching principle guides the Salt Lake City Fire Department's actions, as implied by the guideline?

<p>Following procedures tailored to the specific type of alarm. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an Alert 1 or 2 response on the West Runway (16R/34L), where is Red 7 designated to stage?

<p>The North end of the runway. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an Alert 3 response at the airport, what is the expected action of all ARFF personnel?

<p>Respond directly to the incident location. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the event of a confirmed fire during an ARFF response at a terminal, which additional alarm assignment is required?

<p>A Commercial/Industrial Structure Fire assignment per SOG 04-30C. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For a report of carbon monoxide or other suspicious smell at the airport, which apparatus is dispatched to establish command?

<p>The closest command vehicle (Red 1 or 2). (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Upon arrival at the scene of a fuel spill at the airport, what is the primary task of the closest ARFF vehicle with 3000 gallons?

<p>To protect egress routes with water or foam application. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a response to alarms at the airport with minimum staffing, what area of the runway is the fire east apparatus covering?

<p>Center (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is 'Ground Stop' and when should it be requested from Air Traffic Control (ATC)?

<p>A request to cease all aircraft takeoffs and landings, employed during Alert 3 incidents or other extreme needs. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

For downtown assignments at the airport, where do units initially stage?

<p>At Gate 7G (at the west end of North Temple) or as identified by command. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After the first two ARFF vehicles have positioned to provide agent to the plane as needed, what is the initial action expected of the remaining ARFF vehicles during an ARFF response at the terminals?

<p>Stage near the incident location, awaiting specific assignments. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During fire operations in a wood-frame building under construction, which factor most significantly dictates the initial strategic approach?

<p>The possibility of a rapid fire attack that can halt fire spread or the presence of a known, savable life. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what scenario should an offensive strategy be considered in a vacant building fire, as opposed to immediately adopting a defensive approach?

<p>If there's a reasonable chance of saving the structure while minimizing risks and/or a known, savable life exists (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In determining the appropriate strategy for a structure fire, what is the relationship between firefighter safety, victim rescue, and property conservation?

<p>Command must consider all three factors equally, balancing risks and benefits. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most critical safety measure to implement when transitioning from a defensive to an offensive strategy during the overhaul phase of a structure fire in a building under construction?

<p>Gaining explicit approval from Command and proceeding with extreme caution. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What dictates the level of risk that should be assumed when fighting fires in abandoned or unsafe structures?

<p>Likely absence of occupants combined with the safety of firefighters and the condition of the structure. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following factors presents the most significant challenge when combating fires in wood-frame buildings under construction, impacting strategic and tactical decisions?

<p>Rapid fire spread and increased potential for structural collapse. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of abandoned, vacant, or under-construction buildings, what is the primary method for conducting a search for victims, if any?

<p>Exterior search using visible observation and a thermal imaging camera (TIC). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the Incident Commander's (IC) strategic decision-making differ between a fire in a vacant building and one in a similar building actively undergoing construction?

<p>The IC must assess for potential occupants versus a building known to be unoccupied, and in buildings under construction collapse potential will be the driving factor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what condition is an offensive fire attack permissible in abandoned, vacant, or under-construction buildings?

<p>When there exists a known, savable life that can be rescued, and the hazards can be mitigated. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What tactical considerations are most important for Command when dealing with abandoned buildings?

<p>Implementing a defensive strategy with defined collapse zones. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is approval from Command NOT required for making entry into an abandoned structure?

<p>During a line-of-sight rescue for a savable life. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical piece of information must be communicated to Command before commencing a rescue plan in an abandoned, vacant, or under-construction building?

<p>The rescue plan itself and the plan's approval. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does strategy implemented by Command need to take into account firefighter safety, victims, and property conservation

<p>The safety of firefighters, the amount of victims needing rescue, and the amount of property needing to be conserved. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should a fire company Captain take upon identifying an abandoned structure in their response area before an incident occurs?

<p>Complete the Abandoned, Vacant, and Under-Construction form on Firehome for CAD entry. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the key distinction between an 'abandoned structure' and a 'vacant structure'?

<p>Abandoned structures show obvious disrepair and neglect, while vacant structures have owners making efforts to preserve them. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

At an under-construction building where no construction workers are present, what may be assumed about the building's occupancy status and standpipe system?

<p>The building is not intended for occupancy, and the standpipe system may or may not be working. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the en route phase to a reported structure fire, what action should the first-arriving company officer prioritize in addition to standard protocols?

<p>Evaluating dispatch information for flagged details and pre-plans related to the building. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What critical information regarding the building type must be relayed clearly during the initial size-up report at an incident involving an abandoned, vacant, or under-construction structure?

<p>Confirmation that the building is abandoned, vacant, or under-construction and any specific hazards. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should an Incident Commander do after an incident in a previously unidentified abandoned structure?

<p>Complete the Abandoned, Vacant and Under-Construction form on Firehome so dispatch can add the address and details to CAD. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While fighting a fire in an under-construction building after hours, crews encounter open and unsecured utilities, missing stairs, and unstable walls. How should this impact interior operations?

<p>The IC should revise the Incident Action Plan (IAP) and consider defensive operations due to structural instability and hazards. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A fire occurs at a vacant business transitioning between owners. While there's an owner, the building is currently unoccupied. What should the strategy emphasize, given the building classification?

<p>A cautious approach, recognizing potential structural issues from vacancy but balancing with property conservation efforts. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While refilling an ARFF truck's foam tank, an accidental splash of AFFF concentrate gets on your skin. After washing the affected area with soap and water, you notice a persistent irritation. What is the most appropriate next step?

<p>Seek medical attention for the persistent irritation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

You are tasked with checking the foam fill level of an ARFF vehicle and will be opening the foam hatch on the roof. Which combination of PPE is minimally required for this task?

<p>Mask, eye protection, and appropriate gloves. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an incident, a firefighter inhales AFFF vapors and begins experiencing breathing difficulties. While oxygen is administered, their condition does not improve. What is the most appropriate next action?

<p>Request Advanced Life Support (ALS) and transport to a medical facility. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A firefighter accidentally ingests a small amount of AFFF. After rinsing their mouth, what is the most appropriate next step according to the SOP?

<p>Immediately call a poison control center or physician. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a minor AFFF spill is cleaned up, a firefighter believes they may have been exposed despite wearing PPE. What is the immediate requirement, aligning with SLCFD Policy 06-36C and the Use of AFFF SOP?

<p>Immediately report the incident to a supervisor. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the Salt Lake City Fire Department to limit the use of Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)?

<p>To minimize environmental impact and potential health risks associated with AFFF. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which of the following scenarios would the use of AFFF be considered appropriate according to Salt Lake City Fire Department guidelines?

<p>Suppressing a fire involving flammable liquids at a fuel storage facility. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If AFFF is accidentally discharged onto the Airport Operations Area (AOA), what immediate action(s) should be prioritized?

<p>Initiating efforts to contain the product and prevent it from entering drains or seeping into the ground. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When AFFF is used off airport property, what procedural step is essential for fire personnel to implement?

<p>Remaining on scene until proper mitigation steps have been taken after notifying appropriate environmental agencies through the chain of command. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific requirement does the FAA mandate regarding AFFF discharge, and how does the guideline address it?

<p>Annual discharge for ARFF vehicle performance testing, directing discharge into a retention pond or similar containment. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is AFFF prohibited from being used for training purposes, according to the guideline?

<p>Because the environmental and health risks of AFFF exposure outweigh the training benefits. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions should be considered to minimize environmental impact if AFFF is discharged during an incident?

<p>Implementing containment strategies to prevent AFFF from entering drains or seeping into soil. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should fire personnel do after using AFFF off airport property and notifying environmental agencies?

<p>Remain on scene until proper mitigation steps have been taken. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best exemplifies 'Eliciting Information' as it pertains to suspicious activity reporting?

<p>Extensively questioning a security guard about the facility's emergency evacuation protocols and security vulnerabilities. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person is observed taking detailed photographs of a fire station's security cameras and access points, while appearing to avoid being seen. Which category of suspicious activity does this most closely align with?

<p>Potential Criminal or Non-Criminal Activity Requiring Additional Fact Information During Investigation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary method for reporting suspicious activity according to Salt Lake City Fire Department's SOG?

<p>Utilizing a SAR shortcut on the apparatus table, through Firehome, or the iwatchsaltlake.org website. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary factor that distinguishes 'Suspicious Activity' from ordinary or harmless behavior, according to the guideline?

<p>The activity is reasonably indicative of pre-operational planning related to terrorism or other criminal activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what specific circumstance should Salt Lake City Fire Department personnel immediately contact local law enforcement agencies regarding suspicious activity?

<p>When the suspicious activity poses an immediate threat to life safety or property. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios most clearly constitutes 'Misrepresentation' as defined in the guideline?

<p>An individual claiming to be a building inspector presents a forged identification badge to gain access to a restricted area. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the observation of suspicious activity that does not pose an immediate threat, when is it appropriate to submit a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)?

<p>As soon as reasonably possible but after the conclusion of the incident and upon return to the fire station. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which activity, if observed and deemed suspicious by a reasonable person, would fall under the category of 'Testing or Probing of Security' according to the provided guidelines?

<p>Attempting to bypass a security checkpoint to assess response capabilities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person is observed removing several boxes of unopened medical supplies from ambulance and placing them in their personal vehicle. Which category of suspicious activity does this action fall under?

<p>Theft/Loss/Diversion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person is observed taking detailed photos of security cameras and access control systems around a government building. According to the suspicious activity reporting guidelines, which category does this fall under?

<p>Photography (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should Salt Lake City Fire Department personnel take if they encounter an Improvised Explosive Device (IED) in a late stage of development at an incident scene?

<p>Safely maintain or secure the scene, if reasonable, until law enforcement arrives. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following actions would least likely be considered 'Sabotage/Tampering/Vandalism'?

<p>Leaving a threatening note on a fire fighter's personal vehicle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What criteria most directly indicates that an observed activity should be reported as 'Suspicious Activity'?

<p>The behavior is reasonably indicative of pre-operational planning related to terrorism or other criminal activity. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What specific information should members of the Salt Lake City Fire Department be prepared to provide when reporting suspicious activity?

<p>As much detail as possible about the observed behavior, categorized according to established definitions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual is seen repeatedly driving past a critical infrastructure site, making notes and using binoculars to observe the facility over several days. This behavior would be categorized as:

<p>Observation/Surveillance (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A witness reports seeing a low-flying aircraft circling repeatedly over a critical infrastructure site. This observation would most likely fall under which category of suspicious activity?

<p>Aviation Activity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which scenario would be classified as 'Materials Acquisition / Storage' warranting further attention, assuming a reasonable person would suspect possible criminal/terrorist activity?

<p>An individual purchasing several phones, timers, and large quantities of fertilizer. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the purpose of vetting and sharing all suspicious activity reports (SARs) with area law enforcement agencies?

<p>To facilitate follow-up investigations by jurisdictional law enforcement, SIAC, and federal partners, if needed. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to Salt Lake City Fire Department's SOG regarding suspicious activity reporting, what specific training is required for all department members?

<p>Privacy training, threat identification, reporting procedures, and in-app navigation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual enrolls in courses on explosives handling and surveillance techniques, despite having no apparent professional need for such knowledge. This activity falls under which category?

<p>Acquisition of Expertise (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

While cleaning out an abandoned storage unit, a large cache of unregistered firearms and homemade explosives is discovered. This find should be reported under which category?

<p>Weapons Discovery (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Who within the Salt Lake City Fire Department should be notified via the chain of command when reporting suspicious activity?

<p>The on-duty Battalion Chief, shift Fire Investigators, Emergency Management LEO / Planning Coordinator, or Captain overseeing intel. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A series of unauthorized intrusions into a hospital's pharmacy, coupled with attempts to access patient records, would be categorized as:

<p>Sector-Specific Incident(s) (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the guidelines, which of the following factors should NOT be used as a basis for arousing suspicion, unless there are articulable facts and circumstances that support the suspicion of criminal activity?

<p>Race, ethnicity, national origin, or religious affiliation (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A fire involving an EV charging station should be managed by first completing what action?

<p>Securing power to the EV chargers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is early identification of specific vehicle types (EV, HV, LPG, CNG) considered critical at vehicle fire incidents?

<p>Because these vehicles present unique hazards that influence strategic and tactical decision-making. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST critical action to take related to vehicle stabilization at a vehicle fire scene?

<p>Chocking the wheels to prevent unintended movement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a vehicle fire in a parking garage, which of the following would be the MOST important consideration regarding the building's fire suppression system?

<p>Supporting the sprinkler system to limit fire spread. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a parking garage fire involving an EV, what is a critical consideration for protecting exposures, especially if the garage is attached to an occupied structure?

<p>Evaluating smoke spread and evacuating occupants from affected areas. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MINIMUM level of personal protective equipment (PPE) required for firefighters actively engaged in extinguishing a vehicle fire?

<p>Full protective clothing and breathing air from their SCBA. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should flares be used with caution at vehicle fire incidents?

<p>They may ignite flammable liquids or vapors present at the scene. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following extinguishment of an EV fire at a charging station, what guidance should be provided to towing companies and storage facilities?

<p>Provide a 50-foot clear space around the EV once stored and never store inside a building. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a vehicle fire on an elevated freeway, what tactic might ladder companies employ as an improvised solution?

<p>Utilizing the ladder truck's waterway to operate as a standpipe. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides water, which extinguishing agent is acceptable for use on a vehicle fire when water is not immediately available?

<p>Dry chemical, CO2, or foam. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the MOST appropriate apparatus placement for a structure fire?

<p>Upwind and uphill, if possible, to minimize exposure to smoke and fumes. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of addressing vehicle fires, what does 'addressing the factory labeled cable cut points' involve?

<p>Consulting the vehicle's manual for designated safe locations to cut cables, primarily in electric or hybrid vehicles, to disable the high-voltage system. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the immediate next step after recognizing life safety concerns are addressed? (Once scene safety has been established, the vehicle is immobilized and a fire is still present.)

<p>Disable the vehicle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for initially directing water onto the passenger compartment of a vehicle fire?

<p>To extinguish or protect the passenger compartment and confirm that no occupants are trapped. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why should firefighters approach vehicle fires from a 90-degree angle?

<p>To maximize the reach and effectiveness of the hose stream while minimizing exposure to potential hazards. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the potential danger associated with energy-absorbing bumpers during a vehicle fire?

<p>They can explode and cause injury due to high pressure buildup from heated gas and fluid. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an electric vehicle fire, after the interior and contents are extinguished, what additional action might be necessary to ensure complete suppression?

<p>Sustained suppression on the battery pack due to potential reignition. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it essential to use caution when opening doors or breaking windows on modern vehicles during a fire?

<p>Well-sealed interiors can create vent-limited conditions, leading to a rapid fire increase when fresh air is introduced. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to monitor the temperature trends of an EV battery casing after a fire has been extinguished?

<p>To determine if heat is building or decreasing, indicating reignition potential. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should firefighters expect when dealing with fires involving a vehicle's trunk or cargo area?

<p>The contents may include toxic, flammable or other hazardous materials. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should firefighters take regarding the vehicle's gas cap during a vehicle fire?

<p>Do not remove the gas cap, as the tank may be pressurized. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When can the Incident Action Plan (IAP) allow the battery pack of an electric vehicle to burn out on its own?

<p>When there is no life hazard or exposure risk present. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Considering the battery hazards presented during a vehicle, what is a vital safety measure to consider?

<p>Approach the battery with caution to avoid explosion/flammability/toxicity and electrical shock hazards. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What immediate safety concern should responders recognize regarding off-gassing from an EV battery, even after the fire is extinguished?

<p>The visible vapor cloud is toxic and flammable. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When attacking a fire in an electric vehicle, what is the minimum amount of water needed to extinguish and cool down the batteries?

<p>3,000 gallons (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an electric vehicle fire, if initial fire attack with water is unsuccessful, what alternative suppression method should be considered for initial suppression?

<p>Using dry chemical extinguishers. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Prior to turning over an electric vehicle involved in a fire to a tow company, what condition should be present regarding battery temperatures?

<p>Temperatures are stable or reducing to avoid reignition during transport. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended approach when dealing with tires or split rims exposed to fire on a vehicle?

<p>Approach from the front or rear of the vehicle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

To potentially disable the high voltage system in an electric vehicle, what action involving the low voltage system is typically necessary?

<p>Locating and cutting the negative terminal on the low voltage side. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What precaution should be taken regarding contact with an electric or hybrid vehicle after the batteries have suffered thermal or mechanical insult during a fire?

<p>Limit contact to avoid potential electrocution hazards. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of vehicle fires involving trapped patients, what is the initial priority intervention?

<p>Apply water to protect the patients and facilitate rescue. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the recommended course of action if vapors escaping from an LPG/CNG storage tank relief valve have ignited?

<p>Allow the LPG/CNG to burn while protecting exposures and cooling the tank. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an EV/HV incident, after Life Safety has been addressed, what is a key consideration for fire companies?

<p>Determine whether to suppress the fire or allow the vehicle to burn. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When combating EV battery fires, where are initial signs of the fire likely to be observed?

<p>From under the vehicle where the batteries are located. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What actions should be taken to ensure safety when dealing with an EV fire?

<p>Chock the wheels and secure a water supply. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What action should be taken if there is flame impingement on a visible LPG/CNG storage tank?

<p>Take action to control the fire and cool the tank. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a key consideration when dealing with larger vehicles using air suspension systems that are exposed to heat or flame?

<p>The potential for the vehicle to suddenly drop. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Assume Command

The IC takes charge, sets up a base, and informs everyone of their location.

Rapidly Evaluate

Quickly size up the situation or get a report from the previous IC before taking over.

Control Communications

Start, keep up, and manage how everyone talks to each other.

Incident Action Plan (IAP)

Figure out what needs to be done, how to do it, and get the resources to make it happen. Document in IAP.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Track Assignments

Keep track of who's doing what using tools like the Command Worksheet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Mode (Initial IC)

The first officer on scene conducts a size-up, transmits an arrival report, assesses hazards, and assigns resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Post

A fixed location outside the hazard zone where the Incident Commander manages the incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Worksheet

A document used by the Incident Commander to track resources and incident progress.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transfer of Command

Occurs when an officer in an unencumbered position takes over incident command from the initial IC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Option Communication

Unless unclear, assumed based on initial actions (e.g., patient care implies Fast Action).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Investigation (Command Option)

Used when visible indicators are insufficient to determine the emergency's nature and extent.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Investigation Duties

Officer conducts a size-up, transmits a brief arrival report, and performs a hazard assessment while gathering information.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fast Action (Command Option)

The first-arriving officer assumes a tactical or task position, possibly becoming physically involved.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fast Action Duties

Officer conducts size-up, transmits arrival report, hazard assessment, and assigns resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transition from Fast Action

Incident is stabilized, command is passed/transferred, or continued involvement is no longer effective.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command (Command Option)

Situation requires a strong strategic-level command presence from the beginning.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IC#1 Responsibilities

First arriving officer (IC#1) conducts a size up of the incident based upon available information.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Passing Incident Command

Command is passed/transferred to another officer in an unencumbered position, i.e. the next arriving Engine officer or first-arriving Battalion Chief (IC #2)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Radio Report

The first radio transmission from the Incident Commander upon arrival.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Elements of Initial Report

Unit designation, incident description, conditions, actions, safety concerns, strategy, resources, and Command location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IC's First Actions

Size-up, risk assessment, and communication of findings and plan.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Strategy

Declaring whether the attack will be inside (Offensive) or outside (Defensive).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Resource Determination

Stating the need for additional resources (engines, trucks, ambulances, etc.).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Identification

Clearly stating your role (Command), your title (IC), and where you are located.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Example: Offensive

Fire, Medic Engine 2 arrived; small two-story single-family dwelling with a working fire. Smoke and flames showing from the first floor on the Bravo side. We will be stretching a 1 ¾” line through the Alpha side for primary search and fire attack.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Example: Defensive

Huge one-story commercial occupancy with obvious defensive fire conditions. We will be taking our own water supply and setting up for aerial operations on the Alpha-Bravo corner.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transfer of Command Definition

Shifting control of an incident from one Incident Commander (IC) to another.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reasons for Transferring Command

To improve the command structure or transition across operational periods.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Common Transfer Scenarios

From a quick initial attack to a more structured command setup, or between operational periods.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initiation of Command

The first arriving firefighter on scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First steps in assuming command

Notify dispatch of arrival and make contact with the current IC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Preferred method of contact

Face-to-face communication with the current Incident Commander.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Briefing from Current IC

Current resource positions, incident conditions, progress toward objectives, and resource needs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Notification

After assuming command, notify the initial officer and dispatch.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Conditions

Size, extent, and nature of the event.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acknowledge Transfer

The relieved member and dispatch acknowledge the transfer of command over the radio.

Signup and view all the flashcards

New Assignment

Command provides the relieved officer with a new assignment (e.g., return to crew, maintain tactical worksheet).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Purpose of Command Transfer

Transferring Command should improve the incident's overall structure and management.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unencumbered Command

The process should maintain Command in an unencumbered position allowing for the management and accountability of all resources on scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chief Officer Arrival

Chief officer arrival doesn't automatically mean command transfer; depends on incident type, resources, and progress.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Worksheet Utilization

Utilize department's First Arriving and/or Command worksheets.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Resource Accountability

Maintaining accountability of all resources on scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Property Conservation

Halting further loss and protecting property from damage after stabilization.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Loss Stopped

All actions to protect property are complete; no additional risk remains.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Property Damage Examples

Damage from the incident or actions taken during the incident (such as putting out the fire).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Overlapping Priorities

Assign crews for simultaneous impact on multiple priorities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Resource Assignment

Prioritize resources to complete the highest tactical priority fastest.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Life Safety

Protecting lives (including firefighters), removing, sheltering, and treating people in danger.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Stabilization

Isolating the incident problems such as fire or hazmat spills.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Search

A fast search in high-probability areas for savable victims.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Search

A methodical search for all victims after the fire is under control.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary All Clear

No savable victims found during the primary search phase.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary All Clear

No victims found, dead or alive, after a complete search.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reporting Search Results

Communicate search results to the Incident Commander.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Conditional All Clear

A declaration indicating some areas within a search zone could not be fully assessed (e.g., due to collapse or hazardous atmospheres)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reporting Conditions of a Conditional All Clear

Communicate specific limitations impacting search efforts to command and dispatch (e.g., 'unable to search room due to active fire').

Signup and view all the flashcards

Not Reporting All Clear

A broadcast message indicating that a primary or secondary search will NOT be reported due to extreme risk to personnel based on incident conditions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IAP Reevaluation

An Incident Action Plan should be constantly reevaluated to maintain its effectiveness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Under Control

All threats to people, animals, structures, and property have been neutralized by control measures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Broadcasting 'Under Control'

Command and Dispatch broadcast and record this term once control is achieved.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Impact Prevention

Control measures are in place to prevent hazards from impacting people, animals, and property in/near the incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Engine

A fire apparatus with a pump, dispatched to supplement Command and/or support staff at a working incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Engine Dispatch

Confirm a 'Working Incident' to trigger dispatch.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Engine Arrival Report

State unit designation, arrival as Support Engine, direction of travel, and personnel count.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Engine Staging

Confirm the designated staging area with Command or identify and propose a suitable location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Support Engine Officer Assignment

Incident Safety Officer

Signup and view all the flashcards

Optional Support Engine Officer Roles

Deputy Incident Commander or Division/Group Supervisor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ISO Briefing

Report to the Command Post for briefings on incident strategy and resource allocation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ISO 360° Size-Up

Conducts a 360° size-up to confirm resource locations and operational effectiveness; match observations to strategy .

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Safety Officer (ISO)

Ensures RIC is ready and assigned. Identifies collapse potential and advises Command. Ensures personnel have proper PPE and operate safely. Monitors radio, requests Assistant ISOs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Staging Area Manager (SAM)

Manages the staging area. Tracks resources, manages logistics, and communicates with Command about resource needs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Welfare Unit Responsibilities

Establishes and maintains a Rehab/Welfare unit for crews. Tracks resources, determines logistical needs, assists with deployment of aid.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rehab Area Equipment

Basic medical assessment tools must be available in the welfare/rehab area for crew assessments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rehab Resource Tracking

Tracks all resources that are arriving and leaving the Welfare/Rehab area to maintain accountability.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Logistical Needs (Rehab)

Determine what's needed for the safety and comfort of personnel in the rehab area.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Engine Tactical Use

The Incident Commander can temporarily use the Support Engine for a tactical purpose but should request a replacement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Maintaining a Unit Log

Keeps a record of resources, tracks arrival/departure, notes logistical needs, etc.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Commander (IC)

Ultimately responsible for all responders at an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ISO's Task

Monitors incident operations and advises the IC on safety matters.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Staff

Group reporting to the IC, supporting the Command function.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Engine's initial role

Called upon declaration of a 'working incident'; officer acts as ISO.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ISO Qualifications

NIMS, ISO certification, officer rank, knowledge of hazards, building construction, accountability, and rehab.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ISO's Initial Action

Conducts a 360-degree assessment to identify hazards and reports them to IC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Staff Roles

Includes Public Information Officer, Safety Officer, & Liaison Officer

Signup and view all the flashcards

Proper PPE Usage

Ensuring personnel use appropriate safety gear for expected hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mitigating Serious Risks

Identifying and acting on risks/hazards that could cause serious harm during an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Personnel Welfare

The ISO ensures the well-being and safety of all assigned personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emergency Authority

Stopping any unsafe activity immediately.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ISO Responsibilities

Monitor radio communications, set up and communicate collapse zones, evaluate traffic hazards and apparatus placement, and monitor fire conditions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ensuring RIC Availability

Confirming the existence of a ready and available Rapid Intervention Crew.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Need for Specialists

Determining if experts are needed for unique safety issues.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IC Designation of ISO

The IC can designate an Incident Safety Officer whenever needed during the emergency.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Usage Intent

Official communication using the public safety radio system.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emergency Traffic

Limiting radio communication to urgent messages only.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Plain Communication

Using easily understood language during radio communications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Riding Position Assignments

Radio assignments based on the location of each member on the fire apparatus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Inventory

An annual check of radio equipment, completed by a qualified technician.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Antenna Evaluation

Evaluation of the external component used to transmit and receive radio signals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Check

Checking radio functionality by communicating with dispatch.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Tuning/Testing

Ensuring radios function within the manufacturer's intended parameters.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Visual Inspection

Check radios for cleanliness, housing damage, and cracks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Failed Radio Outcome

Report to officer or division manager.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Missing Radio Notification

Chiefs and supervisors are notified.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deactivate Missing Radio

Radio is deactivated to prevent unauthorized access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Report Missing Radio

Notify ASAP via Firehome Technology Request Form.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Missing Radio Police Report

File a report with Serial number, make, model, and color.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Call Format

Unit being called, then your unit (e.g., Engine 1 from Medic Engine 2).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emergency Radio Term

Emergency Traffic.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Activation Assumption

Activation should not be presumed as accidental; it must be investigated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Policy Dissemination

Dissemination may be limited to SLC Fire Department members with operational need.

Signup and view all the flashcards

External Information Request

Requests from outside the department must be approved by the SLC Fire Technology Director.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prohibited Radio Communication

Prohibited activities include illegal activities, indecency, interference, and false communication.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio Misuse Examples

Prohibited uses include advertising, entertainment, political messaging and attention seeking sounds.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Requesting Police Support

When requesting police support, provide a clear description of the problem.

Signup and view all the flashcards

10-33 Code Meaning

Code used to indicate a firefighter is in immediate danger, warranting priority police response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Radio System Failure Indicator

Continuous tone instead of “chirp” when keying up the radio.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Partial Radio System Failure

Dispatch is unable to transmit via radio consoles, but portable radios may still work.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Who to Notify: Dispatch Radio Failure

Director of Technology and the Radio Technician.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dispatch Radio Check

Conduct a radio system check using two portable radios.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Backup Radio Channel

Switch to “Backup 1” (4D) for routine operations after a system failure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

System-Wide Failure Notifications

Notify Battalion Chiefs, Technology Director, and Deputy Chief over Operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Backup Channels 3 & 4

Backup channels to use if Backup 1 and 2 are unavailable (channels 6D and 7D).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ground Channels 1 & 2

If backup channels 1-4 are unavailable, these channels may be used.

Signup and view all the flashcards

UCAN Event Channels

Contact VECC to request two or more UCAN Event channels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dispatching via Telephone

Dispatching will occur via telephone; use cellular phones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Channel 2 Assignment

East Side (Battalion 1), take calls as able.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Channel 3 Assignment

West Side (Battalion 2), take calls as able.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Channel Switching Protocol

Units stay on Channel 1 until dispatched, then switch to the appropriate channel based on location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unintentional Duress Activation

The person responsible should immediately contact Dispatch to indicate the notification was an accident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Standard Operating Guideline (SOG)

A guideline outlining departmental procedures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday

To report members in imminent danger.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Member

A person performing fire department duties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Personal Accountability Report (PAR)

A report to the Incident Commander on crew location and status.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC)

A crew dedicated to rescuing lost or trapped members.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH)

An environment posing immediate threat to life or health.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Firefighter Safety

Using precautions to protect themselves and their crew members during operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Request Higher Alarm

Request the next level of alarm to bring more resources to the scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Apparatus to Staging

Bring all available units to a designated staging area for assignment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ground/Air Ambulance Standby

Ensure enough ambulances are ready and consider air transport for critical patients.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Conduct a PAR

Conduct a Personnel Accountability Report to confirm the safety and location of all teams.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Termination

The Mayday/rescue operation is officially over, as directed by Command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Situation

Lost, trapped, injured, low on air, or any emergency in IDLH.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Member Survival Steps

Recognize the problem, self-rescue if possible, move to safety if possible, assume survival position if immobile, Mayday call, PASS, lights, air management.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initiating a Mayday

By member in distress, officer unable to account for a member, or member witnessing another in trouble.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command-Initiated Mayday

When receiving face-to-face report, alerted by dispatch of Mayday on another channel, or confirmed Emergency Alert Button activation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Communication

Repeat 'Mayday' three times, then provide location, unit, situation, and assistance needed (LUNAR).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Communication Importance

Clear communication is crucial for effective Mayday responses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Report Content

After acknowledging the Mayday, state current location, unit, situation, and assistance needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Purpose

Life-threatening situations during operations or training.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dispatch Channel Monitoring

Monitor primary operational, Channels 1 and 16.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dispatch Mayday Alert

Activates alert tone 2 and repeats the Mayday on all fire ground channels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Priority

Give Mayday calls priority over other tasks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Resource Dispatch

Dispatch additional resources (alarm and ambulance).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command: Multi-Channel Mayday

Transmit the Emergency Traffic declaration on all channels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command: Mayday Confirmation

Confirm the Mayday report and get more information if needed

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command: Direct trapped member

Direct the member to activate their PASS and flashlight. Direct them to a doorway, window, or wall.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command: Rescue Evaluation

Determine if nearby units can initiate a rescue attempt.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Report

A report used by a firefighter in distress. Prioritize Who, What, Where, and Air.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday - Who

The first piece of information in a Mayday report: Engine/Truck number and seat position.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday - What

The second piece of information in a Mayday report: Situation and conditions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday - Where

The third piece of information in a Mayday report: Current location and position.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday - Air

The fourth piece of information in a Mayday report: SCBA air supply status.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mayday Follow-Up

Command will ask for missing information.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unacknowledged Mayday

Retransmit the Mayday call a second time.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unknown Radio Frequency

Turn the channel selector knob to Channel 1 or 16.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command's First Mayday Action

Declare "Emergency Traffic" and communicate with the Mayday member.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Verify Crew Status

Verify the status of the Mayday member’s crew.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deploy RIC

Deploy the RIC (Rapid Intervention Crew) to the Mayday member's location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Request Next Higher Alarm

Request the next higher alarm to get more resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LAST Acronym

L = Locate, A = Access, S = Stabilize, T = Transport

Signup and view all the flashcards

Locate (Mayday)

Find the Mayday member. If the location is unknown, start a search right away.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Access (Mayday)

Get direct access to the Mayday member.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stabilize (Mayday)

Stabilize the Mayday member and get ready to move them to safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum RIC Staffing

One (1) officer and three (3) members.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Understaffed Protocol

The RIC Officer must inform Command to re-assign personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Staffing and Alarms

Each additional alarm requires a minimum of one additional company for RIC needs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Requesting Specialty Units

Request through Command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Staging Area

Area with equipment to support firefighter rescue operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Staging Location

View of two sides of the structure, near the Command Post.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Member Gear

Full PPE including SCBA and a portable radio.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)

A written set of instructions to standardize a routine task or operation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Cache

Designated tools for the RIC, staged at a specific location for quick access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Size

At least four firefighters designated and equipped for immediate search and rescue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ground Ladders

Ground ladders carried on apparatus, typically a 12’ Roof and a 24’ extension ladder.

Signup and view all the flashcards

BLS Medical Equipment

Basic Life Support medical equipment, including an Automated External Defibrillator.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Officer Responsibilities

Officer responsible for ensuring the RIC has the necessary tools, resources, and expertise assigned to handle potential situations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command's RIC Responsibility

Assigning a Rapid Intervention Crew company as early as possible during a working fire. May assign more than one.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Exception: Life Hazard

When there is a reported or suspected life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Exception: Incipient Fire

When the fire is in an incipient stage that could be controlled by a portable fire extinguisher.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Pre-Deployment Responsibilities

Monitor radio traffic, assemble tool cache, perform RIC size-up, support egress, establish water.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Size-Up

A 360-degree walk-around of the structure and operational area to assess the situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emergency Traffic Declaration

Broadcast to halt all non-essential radio traffic during a Mayday situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command's Information Gathering

The IC's duty to gather as much information as possible about the Mayday situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command's Communication Plan

Determining the best way to communicate during a Mayday event, possibly using different channels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unit Responsibility During Mayday

Cease all non-emergency radio communication and await instructions from Command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC's Mayday Response

RIC confirms readiness and prepares to deploy for rescue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Communication Strategy

RIC communicates face-to-face with Command to avoid clogging radio channels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue SOG Purpose

A guideline establishing a consistent response for the Salt Lake City Fire Department Water Rescue Team.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue SOG Responsibility

All Fire Department personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue Team Apparatus

Medic Engine 7, Water Rescue 7, and Water Rescue Boat with Trailer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum WRT Staffing

At least two (2) trained and certified Water Rescue Technicians.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-Water Rescue Response

Respond in the Medic Engine unless otherwise requested.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Traveling outside medical district

Notify the Dispatch Center and Battalion 2.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue Response Option

The WRT Officer can leave the Medic Engine in quarters and respond in the Water Rescue Apparatus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Additional support

Request the Heavy Rescue Team to respond.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SOG Purpose. 04-12 A

A set of rules to ensure Water Rescue Team (WRT) responds consistently.

Signup and view all the flashcards

WRT Responsibility

All fire department personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

WRT Minimum Staffing

At least two (2) currently trained and certified Water Rescue Technicians.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-rescue response

Medic Engine responds only in the engine unless otherwise requested.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Traveling Outside District

The WRT Officer notifies Dispatch and Battalion 2 when traveling outside medic district in Water Rescue 7.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue Incident Response

The WRT Officer can leave the Medic Engine and respond in the Water Rescue Apparatus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Requesting WRT Boat

The WRT boat and trailer can be requested from Logistics.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Downstream Safety

A trained rescuer downstream, ready to rescue victims/rescuers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Flotation Aids

Devices that provide supplemental flotation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

General Area

Area around the incident site with limited access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ice Rescue

Rescue in ice-covered bodies of water.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Patient Survivability Profile (PSP)

Assesses a patient's chances of survival.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Point Last Seen (PLS)

Last known location of a missing person in the water.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reach/Extension Device

Device extended to a person in the water for rescue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reach, Throw, Row, Go

Sequential steps in water rescue: Reach, Throw, Row, Go.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Recovery Mode

Non-emergency ops to retrieve property/remains.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue Area

Area around incident site with existing hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue Mode

Locating, removing, and treating endangered people.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Risk/Benefit Analysis

Weighing potential risks against possible benefits.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Shore-Based Rescue

Extracting a person from the water without entering it.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sub-Surface Water Rescue

Rescue of a victim beneath the water's surface.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Surface Water Rescue

Rescue of a victim floating on the water's surface.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Swiftwater

Water moving faster than 1.15 mph (one knot).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Upstream Spotter

Individual alerting of hazards/changes upstream.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water-based

Environments in and around water.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water-Bound Victim

A person in the water needing help.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue

Applying special skills to resolve water emergencies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue Team (WRT)

Firefighters trained to NFPA standards in water/ice rescue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Rescue Incident Priorities

Life safety, scene stabilization, property & environment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

General Safety

Water Rescue requires skills and involves risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Management System

Ensure strong command presence is visible.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Appropriate PPE

Personnel wear appropriate PPE for the enviornment

Signup and view all the flashcards

PSP/Risk assessment early

Evaluates survivability and risks

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rapid Intervention Team (RIT)

Backup plan in cases of emergency

Signup and view all the flashcards

Establish command, locate victims, provide care

Operational Goals

Signup and view all the flashcards

Responsible party for Hazmat Response

The Salt Lake City Fire Department

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Team Locations

Two stations house the HazMat Team

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum HazMat Staffing

At least 7 HazMat Technicians must be available daily.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Response Modification

Altering the standard HazMat team response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Engine Designations

Engine 10 or Engine 14.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Unit Designations

HazMat 10 or HazMat 14.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Special Operations Unit Designation

Special Ops 14.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Unit Response

HazMat units from designated stations respond directly from quarters in their HazMat apparatus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Delayed Response Protocol

If a HazMat crew is on an engine, they must retrieve their HazMat apparatus before responding.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Captain's Discretion

The HazMat Captain can proceed directly if they have necessary equipment or another unit is en-route.

Signup and view all the flashcards

City Limits HazMat Response

All HazMat responses within Salt Lake City limits trigger response of one or both HazMat Companies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Structure

Engine/Truck companies retain command even with HazMat on scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

County HazMat Response

In Salt Lake County (outside SLC), HazMat responds and notifies the District Battalion Chief.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Outside County Assistance

Outside Salt Lake County, permission from the Mayor's Office is needed unless a mutual-aid agreement exists.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Leaving County Protocol

When HazMat leaves the County, both District Battalion Chiefs are notified, and a Battalion Chief shall respond with the HazMat Team.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SOG Purpose

A guideline establishing consistent response configurations for the Hazardous Materials Team.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat SOG Responsibility

All Fire Department personnel are responsible for adhering to the HazMat SOG.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Team Minimum Staffing

At least seven HazMat Technicians. Minimum staffing on the HazMat team daily.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Special Ops Unit Designation

The Special Operations unit is designated as Special Ops 14.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Company

Any combination of Engines, HazMat units, and Special Ops units is known as the HazMat Company.

Signup and view all the flashcards

City HazMat Response Policy

All HazMat responses within Salt Lake City limits require response of one or both HazMat companies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Command Authority

Engine/Truck company officer retains initial command until transfer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

County HazMat Notification

HazMat responses outside Salt Lake City but within Salt Lake County require notifying the District Battalion Chief.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Out-of-County Approval

For HazMat assistance outside Salt Lake County, permission from the Mayor’s Office is required.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Battalion Chief Outside County

When HazMat teams leave the County, both district Battalion Chiefs respond with the HazMat Team

Signup and view all the flashcards

APIE-T

A risk-based response model adapting to the evolving hazmat scene, guiding actions from start to finish.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cold Zone

The area free from contamination, used for planning and staging during a hazmat incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Decontamination (Decon)

Removing or neutralizing contaminants from personnel and equipment to prevent further spread.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazardous Materials (Hazmat)

Materials classified as explosive, flammable, toxic, or corrosive, posing physical or health hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazardous Materials Incident

The release (or imminent release) of hazardous materials from their container.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazardous Materials Team

Members trained to NFPA Technician Level, specializing in hazmat response and mitigation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hot Zone

The area with actual or potential contamination, posing the highest risk of exposure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Management System (IMS)

A structured approach to manage emergency incidents effectively.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Officer (SO) Role

Ensuring safety protocols are followed throughout the operation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operational Zones

Areas with defined access based on hazards and required PPE.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rehab Plan

A plan for resting, rehydrating, and providing medical attention to responders.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Warm Zone

Transition area between Hot and Cold Zones for decontamination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazmat Operations Guideline Purpose

To ensure safety and efficiency during Hazmat responses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Key Compliance Standards

NFPA 470, NFPA 1500, and OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Consequences of Not Observing Guidelines

Death, actions from Salt Lake City Corp., the SLCFD, and/or OSHA. Also civil and criminal penalties as defined by law.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazmat Incident Priorities

Life safety, scene stabilization/rescue, property conservation, environmental protection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Skills

Technician Level skills, safeguard themselves, their team members, and the public/patients.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazmat Team Expectations

Operate within documented training level, perform skills proficiently, prioritize life.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operational Phases

Sequential steps in managing hazardous materials incidents, each needing specific actions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase I: Initial Actions

Arriving, establishing command, and assessing the situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase II: Pre-Entry Ops

Preparing for entry, including planning and resource allocation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase III: Entry Operations

Conducting operations within the hazardous area.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase IV: Termination

Concluding the incident, including decontamination and debriefing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase I: Establish Command

First on scene establishes control and assesses hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase I: Size-up

Quick evaluation of the scene to understand the situation's scope.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ops Level Responder Rule

Don't over commit; act defensively.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazmat Training

Hazmat Operations, Group Supervisors, and Safety Officers need specific training.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazmat Approach

Approach from uphill and upwind; note wind indicators like flags.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Isolate and Deny Entry

Establish boundaries to prevent unauthorized entry, even for fellow firefighters.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Establish Initial Isolation Zone

Use on-scene info (labels, containers), research (ERG), and experience.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Isolation Distances

Solids: 75', Liquids: 150', Gases: 300'. Minimum distance in all directions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Primary Assessment

Identify the product by placards, phase, container type, preplans and dispatch info.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immediate Rescue Protocol

Rescue quickly, minimize time, provide emergency decon before treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hospital Notification Info

Chemical, exposure amount/duration, condition, antidotes given, and decon level.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Assessment

Assess need to evacuate or protect in place; confirm evacuation completeness; account for evacuees.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Additional Notifications

Contact Health Department, Law Enforcement (with SLCFD investigators), and OSHA (for workplace issues).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase II Operations

Analyze & Plan; performed under SLCFD Hazmat Team Technicians' direction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Analyze (Phase II)

Collect info from dispatch, callers, witnesses, & facility reps; assess container damage; find chemical names.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chemical Information

Communicate chemical data to Hazmat Team.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Investigation Priority

Locate caller/responsible party from a safe location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Monitoring Tools Use

Extent of contamination, safe exposure concentrations, operation zones, duration, egress routes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Planning Factors

Immediate/long-term safety, exposure details, harm extent, available resources, weather/environment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood Wash

A procedure for removing blood contamination in public areas at medical or crime scenes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Private Property Blood Cleanup

Direct property owners to contact a cleanup company for blood removal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bru Tabs

Dry tablets used to disinfect hard surfaces.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sprayer (Blood Wash)

A garden-type pump sprayer with a ½ gallon capacity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Blood Wash: Captain's Discretion

Captains can move to another call after assessing the scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bru Tab Concentration

Use 2 tablets per ½ gallon of water in the sprayer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bru Tab Dissolving Time

Allow the Bru Tabs to dissolve for approximately 5 minutes before use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bru Tab Solution Shelf Life

The Bru Tab solution is effective for approximately 8 hours after mixing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suspicious Packages

Avoid touching or opening suspicious packages.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sample Collection

The Hazardous Material Response Team should collect samples.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Threat Scene Protocol

Treat the threat area as a crime scene and preserve evidence.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Decontamination Priority

All personnel exposed to hazardous chemicals need decontamination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Follow-Up

Cooperate with the specified agencies in the SOG, identify a single responsible party for incident follow-up

Signup and view all the flashcards

CBRNE

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, Explosive.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HMRT

Hazardous Materials Response Team.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Responder Caution

Do not attempt to contain or investigate unknown hazardous materials.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Actions: Package

Isolate the area, deny entry.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Priority Actions

Safety of endangered persons, decontamination, treatment, and transport of contaminated persons.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Standard Notifications

HazMat, Battalion Chief, Police, Bomb Squad (if needed), Health Department, FBI, DEQ, DEA (for chemical suicide), Other Law Enforcement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HazMat Company Mobile Phone

Primary contact for SLCFD personnel in the field.

Signup and view all the flashcards

DEA Notification

For chemical suicide incidents only.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unified Command

Manage incidents with law enforcement using Unified Command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazard Assessment

Coordinate with law enforcement for hazard assessment and subsequent actions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Field Testing Actions

Actions may include field testing, photography, and sample collection in support of law enforcement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Priority

Ensure actions don't increase public or personnel threat.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Field Screening

Field screening prioritizes ruling out explosives, radiological, corrosive, WMD, biological threats, and VOCs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Evidence Collection

After public safety, further actions may include photographing and sampling for evidence.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sampling Standards

Adhere to standard sampling and packaging techniques.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazmat IC Responsibility

Ensure standard notifications, field testing, and sampling are completed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Earthquake Response SOG

A guide for Salt Lake City Fire Department on how to respond effectively to earthquakes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Major Earthquake

Earth tremor causing collapse of buildings, structures, roadways, bridges, dams, etc. with life loss, injury, fires, floods etc.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Earthquake Tactics

Tactics for operations after an earthquake that limits normal operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Response Levels (Earthquake)

Response levels detailed in the Salt Lake City Emergency Operations Plan (EOP).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dispatch Callbacks

Implementing callbacks as set forth in Policy 04-10 Notifications and Callbacks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mutual Aid Activation

Activating all mutual response and mutual aid agreements.

Signup and view all the flashcards

UASI MITS Vehicles

UASI MITS vehicles used to establish communication among emergency responders.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Personnel Duty

All on-duty personnel stay until relieved by off-duty personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Off-Duty Personnel

Off-duty personnel should return to duty ASAP. Monitor local radio/TV for instructions. Without communication, report to assigned Task Force Stations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Specialized Personnel

Department Communication Technicians go to their shop and await instructions. Fire Prevention personnel report to the Public Safety Building.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Companies in Service

Companies in service should clear the station and patrol their district, prioritizing hospitals, rest homes, and schools.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Patrol Reporting

Transmit a brief description of conditions ASAP, but avoid committing to incidents until the patrol is complete.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Earthquake Response Objective

Systematic and coordinated operation to stabilize and mitigate a major earthquake situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Priorities

During a major earthquake, command tactics should prioritize the protection of life, then property.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Evacuation Coordination

Request police assistance for large evacuation efforts. On-scene evacuation is the responsibility of the assigned Police Sector Officer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Ops Responsibility

On-scene medical operations are the responsibility of the Task Force Operations Officer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)

A situation where the number of victims exceeds available resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Group Supervisor

Individual responsible for medical control at the scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Officer Role

Ensuring the well-being of all personnel at the incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Triage

Process of quickly assessing and prioritizing patients based on injury severity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

S.T.A.R.T. Triage

Simple Triage and Rapid Transport

Signup and view all the flashcards

Priority I (Red)

Immediate, highest priority patients needing rapid treatment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Priority II (Yellow)

Serious injuries requiring attention, but treatment can be delayed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Priority III (Green)

Third priority; 'walking wounded' with minor injuries. Examples: minor fractures, lacerations, minor burns.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Priority IV (Grey/Black)

Lowest priority; deceased or injuries are incompatible with survival. Examples: traumatic cardiac arrest, massive head injuries.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Treatment Priorities

Treat immediate priorities first, then delayed, etc. Stabilize life-threatening injuries before transport if possible.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Requesting Resources

Request extra personnel and equipment through the Incident Commander.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hospital Notification

Notify hospitals with patient details: priority, injuries (head, abdomen, etc.)

Signup and view all the flashcards

START Triage

Triage system to quickly identify victims at risk of early death, used by first responders.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Casualty Collection Point

A secure area where SLCFD and LE integrate operations and receive casualties without the threat of violence.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Concealment

Hides from view, but doesn't protect from gunfire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Contact Team(s)

LE team making initial contact to stop an active shooter.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cover

Stops or redirects hostile fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dynamic Risk Assessment

Continual assessment of hazards and risks during an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Extraction Team(s)

Teams extracting casualties to the Casualty Collection Point.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Force Protection

LE officers providing security to the Rescue Task Force.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Extraction Team

Combination of SLCFD and LE personnel who extract casualties to the Casualty Collection Point.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IARD (Immediate Action Rapid Deployment)

Swift deployment to life-threatening situations where delay could cause death or serious injury.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IED (Improvised Explosive Device)

A device made in an improvised way with destructive materials, designed to harm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Inner Perimeter

Area where subjects are contained; entrance/exit controlled by law enforcement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LE Rescue Team

Team extracting casualties from the Hot Zone, becoming a Contact Team if they meet the shooter.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Rally Point (MRP)

Area within the Inner Perimeter (Warm Zone) where casualties are gathered temporarily.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Rally Point (MRP)

An area within the Inner Perimeter where casualties are collected temporarily only if they cannot be immediately transported directly to the Casualty Collection Point.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LE Rescue Team

LE officers that come together at the scene of an active shooter event and deploy behind contact teams.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Outer Perimeter

Controlled area outside the Inner Perimeter, excluding the public.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue Group Supervisor (RGS)

Supervises resources, Rescue Task Forces (RTF), directs rescue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue Task Force (RTF)

SLCFD and LE team providing point-of-wound care in the Warm Zone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Outer Perimeter Definition

Larger area containing inner perimeter controlled by law enforcement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RTF Actions

Treat, stabilize, and prepare casualties for removal from the Warm Zone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

Determine the location for treating and staging casualties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Requesting Additional Resources

Request extra help for treating/moving casualties, suppressing fires, handling hazardous materials, and explosive threats.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Utilizing Tac Channels

Talking to each other during an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue Group Task

Moving viable casualties from danger to the CCP.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue Task Force Medical Cache

Medical supplies are strategically placed for quick access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Warm Zone Medical Rally Points

Safe spots near the warm zone where casualties can be gathered before transport.

Signup and view all the flashcards

MCI Policy Implementation

Implement SLCFD Mass Casualty policy (SOG 06-05A), District 2B Protocol, and Triage and Treatment Protocol.

Signup and view all the flashcards

MCI Officer Assignments

Assign officers to manage Triage, Treatment, Transfer, and Transport of casualties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EMS Access Routes

Confirm clear routes for EMS vehicles to access the Casualty Collection Point and hospitals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aero-Medical Coordination

Establish landing zones, controllers, and radio channels for aero-medical assets.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Casualty Documentation

Ensure complete documentation for all casualties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Establish Fire Group

Establish a Fire Group to handle fire suppression and coordinate non-EMS operational needs if a fire threat exists.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fire Suppression Deployment

Only deploy fire suppression teams after receiving the 'Green Light' from Command and never enter 'Red Light' areas.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RTF/Extraction Team Actions

During hostile contact, prioritize Force Protection actions to engage threats or retreat to safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Force Protection Priority

Force Protection officers must always protect and never abandon RTF or Extraction Team medical personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RTF Equipment Focus

RTFs should be equipped for mobility, enhanced hemorrhage control, and airway management.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RTF Mindset

Maintain alertness and situational awareness while moving quickly and deliberately.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LCES

Lookout, Communications, Escape Routes, and Safe Refuge. Maintained by RTFs when searching for casualties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Warm Zone Control

The Force Protection component has tactical control within the Warm Zone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

RTF Treatment Focus

Focus on rapid, TECC-based lifesaving interventions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Managing Ambulatory Individuals

Direct walking casualties to shelter, self-evacuate, or escort to safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Barricaded Subject

An event in which a suspect is believed to be armed, involved in a crime or threat, and refuses to surrender.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Containment

Isolating an area to prevent escape or entry.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Explosive Breach

Using explosives to create an opening for entry or access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SLCFD Standby

Units from SLCFD may be called to standby during LE tactical team operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pre-staging Benefits

Minimize response time and improve outcomes during high-risk LE incidents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Casualty Care

A shared responsibility between the SLCFD and LE during hostage/barricade events.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operational Zone Shapes

Operational zones are not always circular; they can be irregular and change based on the threat.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Noise Flash Diversionary Device (NFDD)

A non-lethal device that creates a bright flash and loud sound to distract individuals, giving tactical teams an advantage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SWAT Team

Special Weapons and Tactics team; handles high-risk incidents beyond regular law enforcement capabilities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Command

Command that directs and coordinates law enforcement within the inner perimeter of an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Operations Center (TOC)

Location where law enforcement tactical operations are coordinated, led by the LE Tactical Commander.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC) Guidelines

Civilian version of military combat medical guidelines (TCCC).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Medics (TMs)

Tactical Medics are SLCFD personnel assigned to the SLCPD SWAT Team, trained in TECC/TCCC and tactical operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Emergency Medical Support (TEMS)

TEMS provides medical support during high-risk law enforcement operations to reduce injury, illness, disability, and death.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Containment

Initial patrol officers establish containment to isolate the area and prevent escape during barricade situations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LE Emergency Action Team

An LE Emergency Action Team is formed to address hostage situations by the first responding officers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Specialty Unit Response

Specialty units like SWAT, negotiators, and TEMS are called to barricade and hostage scenes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fire Suppression Standby

Fire suppression resources may be requested to standby due to the potential use of fire or explosives by subjects.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Subject's Potential Weapons

Barricaded subjects may use IEDs or fire as tools of violence.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SWAT Tactics Fire Risk

NFDDs and explosive breaching charges used by SWAT may cause a fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Nature

Confirm the event type (hostage, barricade, etc.).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Staging

Position units near, but safely away from, the incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Scene Size-Up

Give Dispatch and other units a summary of the scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Establish Fire Command

The first SLCFD unit establishes fire command of SLCFD resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Designate Staging Area

Set up an area for incoming units, away from the immediate danger zone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Identify Operational Zones

Work with law enforcement to define safe and restricted areas.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Briefing On Scene

Give a short overview to everyone on scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fire Group

Designated to manage fire suppression and related operational needs at an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Staging Area

A safe location for incoming units awaiting assignment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Medic Role

Providing on-scene medical support to tactical teams, hostages, and bystanders.

Signup and view all the flashcards

TM Advisor Role

Providing advice on medical considerations during hostage or barricade situations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Officer Advocate Role

Supporting officers after injuries during an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Medic (TM) Role

Tactical medics provide care within the hot or warm zones during a barricade or hostage situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Outer Perimeter Cold Zone

The area outside the hot/warm zone; where casualties are moved and transferred to staged medical providers.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Active Shooter Event Assignment

Request this SLCFD assignment for potential multiple hostages/casualties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Body Search at CCP

Ensuring all patients are checked for weapons before entering the CCP.

Signup and view all the flashcards

No Self-Dispatch

SLCFD personnel should not respond unless formally requested by the dispatch center.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SOG Overview

A guideline to better prepare Salt Lake City Fire Department personnel for responding to a coordinated terrorist attack within the City.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Terrorism Definition

Premeditated, politically-motivated violence against non-combatants by sub-national groups or agents, intended to influence an audience.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Terrorist Attack Examples

Attacks involving multiple active shooters, IEDs, fire, high-powered weapons, or hostage situations planning to use deadly force.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Shared Responsibility

While Law Enforcement (LE) holds primary response, care of casualties and incident stabilization is a shared responsibility between the SLCFD and law enforcement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Area Command

An organization established to oversee the management of multiple incidents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Complex Coordinated Attack (CCA)

Synchronized hostile attack/killing of multiple individuals by two or more teams using firearms, explosives, and/or fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LE and SLCFD Coordination

Close coordination between LE officers and SLCFD responders at all levels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Importance of Communication

Clear communication between all agencies before and during the event.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emergency Operations Center (EOC)

The physical location where coordination of information and resources for incident management takes place.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immediate Action Rapid Deployment (IARD)

Swift deployment of law enforcement to ongoing, life-threatening situations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Improvised Explosive Device (IED)

A device fabricated in an improvised manner using destructive, lethal, or incendiary chemicals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Joint Information Center (JIC)

A facility coordinating all incident-related public information; central point of contact for news media.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Multi-Assault, Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC)

An expansion of IARD tactics providing officers options to respond to extreme violence events.

Signup and view all the flashcards

MACTAC Event

An extraordinary incident involving extreme violence that exceeds conventional law enforcement tactics and resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Terrorism

The calculated use of violence to create fear and coerce governments or societies for political, religious, or ideological goals.

Signup and view all the flashcards

CCA Command Structure

Law enforcement (likely SLCPD) initially leads, fire command established for SLCFD/EMS units.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unified Command Goal in CCAs

Aim to merge commands with law enforcement at a shared Command Post.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial CCA Chaos

Early on, multiple independent commands and command posts may exist.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SLCFD Response to Tactical Incidents

Follow existing SOGs for assigned events, aware of city-wide simultaneous events.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reporting CCA Suspicion

Inform dispatch and on-scene personnel immediately of CCA suspicion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Declaring a MACTAC Event

Declare "MACTAC Event in progress" via dispatch when a CCA is confirmed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Notifications

Ensuring that the appropriate state and federal resources are informed and involved in the incident response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Unified/Area Command

Establishing a structure where different agencies and departments can work together effectively.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC/JIC Activation

Activating these centers as per standard operating procedures to manage the flow of information and resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Facility Security

Ensuring that fire stations and support facilities are secure, including locking doors and controlling access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Operations

A pre-planned response strategy for handling large-scale incidents across multiple operational branches.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operational Adjustments

Delaying shift changes or limiting responses to non-emergency calls based on the situation's demands.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Scene Awareness

Being cautious, minimizing risk, and understanding bystanders' behavior on scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazardous Devices Unit (HDU)

Law enforcement specialists trained in handling explosives; also known as Bomb Squad.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incendiary Device

A device designed to cause harm using fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operational Zone Definition

Zone where individuals can no longer use cover/distance to avoid incoming hostile fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suicide Bomber

Individual who carries out a bomb/explosive attack, knowing they will die in the explosion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suicide Belt/Vest

An improvised explosive device (IED) worn on the body, packed with explosives and shrapnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Staging Area

The initial safe area where responding units gather while awaiting further instructions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Confirm Incident Nature

Confirm the type of incident from dispatch (e.g., bomb, fire) for appropriate response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Approach Route

Designate a safe route for responding units to access the scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Assume SLCFD Command

Take control of SLCFD resources and work with law enforcement to form a Unified Command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suicide Bomber Surrender

Even if a suicide bomber wants to surrender, a handler might detonate the bomb remotely.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Standoff Distance

Maintain a safe distance from a potential suicide bomber, even if they want to surrender.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HDU Responsibility

Bomb disposal unit (HDU) handles clothing and devices remotely after the bomber removes them.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Aid Delay

Medics (SLCFD) only approach after HDU clears the suspect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Post-Detonation Scene

Be prepared for a chaotic situation with many casualties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Device Search

Look for potential IEDs on people or in the area after the initial blast.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vehicle Preservation

Vehicles inside the blast zone should stay put until HDU says it's safe to move them.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Responder Targeting

Be aware of secondary devices and potential shooters.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fire Group Supervisor Duties

The Fire Group Supervisor determines needed resources, requests force protection, maintains a separate radio channel, and ensures safe travel routes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hot Zone Restrictions

In active violence incidents, do not enter hot zones to deploy equipment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Special Assignment Requests

In active shooter/mass casualty events, request specific SLCFD assignments for active shooter and/or MCI events.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suicide Bombing Injuries

Expect numerous traumatic injuries from blast pressure, burns, and shrapnel in suicide bombings.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Group

Command establishes a Medical Group to manage triage, treatment, transfer, and transport of casualties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Casualty Collection Point Security

The Medical Group Supervisor ensures body searches for weapons on all persons entering the Casualty Collection Point.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Defensive Firefighting

Consider allowing active fire to burn in active violence incidents until law enforcement confirms the safety of fire suppression personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cautious Approach

Approach cautiously, minimizing personnel exposure by using cover and distance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimize Warning Devices

Turn off lights/sirens when approaching to remain discreet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hostile Bystanders

Remove yourself from danger, then report the issue to Command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Multiple Points

Use multiple Staging Areas and Casualty Collection Points.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Team Up

Always work with at least one other person.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Team Spotter

Observe, identify, and avoid any threats.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Evidence Preservation

Preserve items for evidentiary value, and inform the hospital.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SOG

Standard Operating Guideline

Signup and view all the flashcards

CO Alarm Response Policy

Investigation into the causes of CO alarm activation

Signup and view all the flashcards

CO

Carbon Monoxide

Signup and view all the flashcards

TWA (Time Weighted Average)

Continuous exposure over 8 hours

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPM

Parts Per Million

Signup and view all the flashcards

CO Poisoning Symptoms

Check for symptoms of CO poisoning

Signup and view all the flashcards

CO Hazard Precautions

Use SCBA and protective clothing due to hazardous atmosphere

Signup and view all the flashcards

High CO Actions

Disconnect fuel source and ventilate

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy Rescue Team (HRT)

A pre-determined set of resources dispatched for technical rescue incidents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Apparatus

Medic Engine 1, Truck 1, Heavy Rescue 1, and Heavy Rescue Support Trailer

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medic Engine & Truck Designation

Medic Engine 1 and Truck 1 keep their station identities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy Rescue Designation

Heavy Rescue 1 or just Heavy Rescue

Signup and view all the flashcards

Combined HRT Units

Known collectively as the Heavy Rescue Company.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Off-District Travel Notification

Officer notifies dispatch and Battalion Chief.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Non-Heavy Rescue Response

Responding to emergencies outside of heavy rescue incidents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy Rescue Incident

Heavy Rescue Company responds to these incidents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Response Option

HRT officers can choose to respond in the Heavy Rescue, leaving the Truck at the station.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Truck 1 Status

If Truck 1 is left in quarters, dispatch will mark it out of service.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Staffing Heavy Rescue

Crew from Medic Engine 1 staffs the Heavy Rescue while Truck 1 remains on air.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Direct Response option

HRT officers can proceed directly to the scene without the Heavy Rescue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Support Trailer

HRT officers can request this unit via Logistics personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Command Structure

The officer of the first Engine/Truck on scene retains overall command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Option A

Medic engine crew can staff the heavy rescue apparatus, medic engine goes out of service.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Option B

Truck responds, announces delay for apparatus exchange.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Option C

HRT officers can go directly if they have the gear or mutual aid is coming.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Response Area Mandate

All heavy rescue responses within Salt Lake City limits will result in the response of the Heavy Rescue Team.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Outside City Protocol

Notify both battalion chiefs when the HRT goes outside the City but within the County.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy Rescue SOP Overview

A consistent plan for the Salt Lake City Fire Department's Heavy Rescue Team responses.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medic Engine and Truck Designation

Medic Engine and Ladder Truck keep their normal designations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy Rescue Support Designation

Designated individually as HRT Support.

Signup and view all the flashcards

“Heavy Rescue Company”

Any combination of the HRT units together.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy/Technical Rescue

The use of specialized skills and equipment to safely resolve complex rescue situations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Excavation

Any human-made cut in the earth's surface created by removing soil.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Confined Space Entry

Entering a space with limited entry/exit, not designed for continuous occupancy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Confined Space

A space large enough for entry, with limited access, and not for continuous human occupancy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Patient Survivability Profile

Describes the likelihood of a patient surviving based on their injuries and the circumstances.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Survivability Potential

Assessing a patient's likelihood of survival in an emergency, considering factors like injury type, downtime, and access difficulty.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Trench (Excavation)

A narrow excavation below ground, relative to its length.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Incident Priorities

Prioritizing life safety, stabilizing the scene, conserving property, and protecting the environment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Life Safety Priority

Maintaining the safety of rescuers and patients as the number one priority.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue Operation Safety

Technical/Heavy Rescue requires specific skills and awareness of risks to protect personnel and the public.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Proficiency Requirement

All personnel must operate within their training and be proficient in required skills.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command's Safety Role

Command and the Safety Officer ensure general safety practices are followed throughout the operation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Officer Assignment

A trained Safety Officer should be assigned early in the incident, ideally with HRT training (TSO).

Signup and view all the flashcards

PSP and Risk/Benefit

Command should conduct a Patient Survivability Profile (PSP) and Risk/Benefit Analysis early in the incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescuer Pairing

Work in pairs with a qualified backup person.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazard Mitigation

Find and reduce dangers before rescue teams go in.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Communication System

Set up and use a way for everyone to talk to each other effectively.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Equipment Safety Check

Check all tools and gear before using to ensure safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rehab Plan & Rotation

Plan for and rotate personnel to avoid exhaustion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Equipment Cache/Staging

Identify an area for keeping equipment organized and ready.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Decontamination Plan

Set up a plan for cleaning up contaminants, if needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Key Actions During Phase I

Establish command, size-up, hazard mitigation and patient access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Establishing Command

Implement Incident Management and Accountability (PAR) systems.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Scene Stabilization

Stabilizing the general area and rescue area.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Patient Location and Access

Finding and getting access to the patient or patients.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Patient Stabilization and Extrication

Stabilizing the patient and removing them from danger.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Medical Care and Transport

Providing medical care and transport to a medical facility.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Technicians

Highly trained technicians who handle rescue operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT H.A.T.S.

Hazards, Assessment, Traffic, Safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazard Identification

Identify and control dangers at the scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Situation Assessment

Figure out the situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Traffic Control

Control vehicle and people movement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Safety Officer

Assess hazards and ensure safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rescue vs. Recovery Mode

Decide if it's a rescue or recovery.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Technical/Heavy Rescue

Operations requiring advanced skills and involving various risks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Training Limits

SLCFD personnel must operate within their documented training level.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Skill Proficiency

Ensuring proficiency in skills as per approved texts and training.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IMS Implementation

Incident Management System must be implemented with visible command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Officer (SO)

Assigned early in the incident, ideally with HRT training.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Establish Command

Take control, set up incident management, and ensure everyone is accounted for.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stabilize the Scene

Make the scene safe in the general area and where the rescue is happening.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Mitigate Hazards

Find dangers and reduce their impact.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Locate and Access Patients

Find and get to the person or people who need help.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Stabilize and Extricate

Make sure the patient(s) are stable and then get them out.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Provide Medical Care

Give medical care and get the patients to a hospital.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Terminate the Incident

End the incident and return resources to service.

Signup and view all the flashcards

General Area (Rescue)

The area around the incident, where access is controlled, and heavy machinery/vehicles are restricted.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Expedient Task Completion

Individuals/Groups should work as rapidly as safely possible.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Personnel Assignment Optimization

Assign personnel based on strengths; reassign if needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazard Identification and Control

Identifying and controlling immediate dangers at the scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Assessment of the Situation

Evaluating the overall situation to understand what happened.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Officer (Initial)

Ensuring the safety of all personnel on scene.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Trench (Trench Excavation)

An excavation that's narrow compared to its length, dug below the earth's surface.

Signup and view all the flashcards

System Restoration

Restoring systems to normal operation after an incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Technical Rescue Risks

High-risk operations needing specialized skills; prioritize safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Training Level Limits

SLCFD members must operate within their documented level of training.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Evacuation Signal

Notifying everyone of an evacuation plan and signal.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rapid Task Completion

Groups should work rapidly and safely to complete tasks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Simultaneous Tasks

Groups complete tasks individually and at the same time.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dispatch Notifications

Use notifications from dispatch when in rescue mode.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase I Actions

Arrive, establish command, and perform a size-up of the situation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

HRT Supervision

All personnel not part of the SLCFD HRT operate under the guidance of the SLCFD Incident Commander.

Signup and view all the flashcards

H.A.T.S. Acronym

Hazard identification, Assessment, Traffic control, and Safety officer (initial).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secure Witnesses

Secure individuals, like the calling party or site supervisor, to gather details.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hazard Control

Identify and control threats like electrical, chemical, collapse, or water hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Remote Assessment

Assess the scene from a safe distance or protected position.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Patient Count

Determine the number of patients affected by the incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deployment Requirement #1

Meeting minimum job prerequisites is the first requirement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deployment Requirement #2

Seniority is considered for deployment opportunities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deployment Requirement #3

Members with fewer deployments are offered work first.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Turning Down Deployment

Turning down work doesn't incur penalties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Contact Info for Deployment

Contact info is shared with significant others.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deployment Roster

A list in Telestaff where members can voluntarily add their names if they meet minimum wildland requirements.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Red Card

An interagency certification that qualifies personnel for wildland incident jobs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deployment Roster Requirements

Possession of a Red Card, Wildland Firefighting Boots and submit email to Telestaff working group

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deployment Notification

Notification sent via Telestaff to all personnel about an upcoming deployment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Administratively Chosen Deployment Members

Selecting a Captain with wildland experience and an IC trainee (if available) from Battalion Chiefs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Telestaff Out-bounding

Filling deployment positions by sending out Telestaff working opportunities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Deployment Guideline

Process that must be followed when staffing wildland teams.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum Wildland Expertise Requirement

Ensures one member possesses relevant experience in wildland operations and base camp procedures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Deployment Pay Acknowledgment

Form signed by deployment team members acknowledging pay guidelines and calculation methods before deployment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Pay Rate

All deployment team members are paid using a 40-hour work week rate for tracking and paying hours.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Support Personnel Pay

Support Personnel will be paid using the Support Pay Rate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Combat Personnel Pay

Combat Personnel will be converted to the Support Pay Rate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vacation/Holiday Time

Scheduled vacation or holiday time is credited back for later use.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Weekly Pay Calculation

Calculated from Sunday 12:00 am to Saturday 12:00 pm. Overtime is paid at 1.5 times the support rate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Buy Back Pay

Buy Backs worked during deployment are paid at 1.5 times the combat rate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pay Rate Basis

Pay is based on the Salt Lake City Fire Department contract and reimbursement amount.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Deployment SOP

A set procedure to standardize work hours and pay for wildland deployment teams.

Signup and view all the flashcards

24 Day Cycle

An FLSA-defined period used to calculate work and overtime hours.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Two Week Pay Period

A bi-weekly pay period consisting of 14 days; 26 periods per year.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Portal to Portal Pay

Continuous compensation from arrival at SLCFD to return, often for EMAC requests.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Shift Ticket

Used to track hours for pay and department reimbursement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operations Pay Rate

Pay rate based on a 56-hour work week.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Payment Guidelines

Members are paid according to the requesting agency’s contract; SLCFD does not incur extra costs beyond reimbursement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Electrical Emergency SOG

Adapting normal procedures for electrical emergencies; addressing downed wires and energized equipment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Direct Path to Ground

Electricity seeks the easiest path to ground; direct contact with an energized source.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Indirect Path to Ground

Touching something that is in contact with an energized source.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Gradient Voltage

Voltage difference created when electricity spreads through the ground from a contact point.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Step Potential

Voltage difference between two points on the ground that can cause electrocution.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Step Potential Warning Sign

Tingling sensation in the feet caused be voltage differences in the ground

Signup and view all the flashcards

Downed Power Line Danger

All downed lines must be considered dangerous due to possible lethal currents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Power Line Lockout

Lines can re-energize after attempts to lock out, so never assume they're de-energized.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Downed Power Line Assumption

Treat all downed power lines as if they are energized.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vehicle with Power Lines Response

Establish a safety perimeter and deny entry to the area around the vehicle.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Exiting Vehicle Near Power Lines

Instruct them to jump free, avoiding simultaneous contact with the vehicle and ground.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Substation Safety Perimeter

Stay outside the fence and protect exposures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transformer Oil Hazard

Transformers may contain hazardous oils like PCBs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Underground Vaults: No Entry

Do not enter due to confined space and potential hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vault Shutters: Explosion Risk

Opening shutters may cause an explosion due to trapped flammable gases.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Electrical Fires: Wait for Confirmation

A fire attack should not begin until the power company confirms de-energization.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Re-energized Lines

Lines can become energized through switch operation, auto re-closing, induction, or back feed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reel Memory

Downed power lines may roll back on themselves.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Conductivity

Be cautious when applying water to energized electrical equipment; hose streams can conduct current.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Priority: Exposures

Protect exposures, not extinguishing burning wires or electrical equipment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Transformer Hazards

Transformers can explode and may contain PCB hazards. Smoke can be fatal and pools of oil can accumulate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ground Voltage Travel

Voltage can travel through both dry and wet ground for considerable distances.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Residual Charge

Electrical equipment can hold a charge until properly grounded.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Downed Wire Perimeter

Set up a safety perimeter equal to one span of wires on either side of fallen wires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Alarm System Management

Property owners are primarily responsible for managing automatic fire alarm systems.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Alarm Response

Locate the fire alarm control panel to determine the zone of origin.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Forcible Entry Justification

If smoke/fire is evident, forcible entry is justified.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Alarm Silencing Discretion

If no hazards exist, the officer can silence the alarm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Responsible Party Notification

Contact a responsible party to reset the alarm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

No Contact Procedure

If unable to locate responsible party, officer has the discretion to silence/reset.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NFIR Report Details

Document investigation findings and actions in the NFIR report.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Priority: Life Safety

Protecting firefighters and the public is the top priority at any incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Priority: Stabilization

Preventing the incident from escalating further.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Priority: Property Conservation

Taking actions to minimize damage to buildings and belongings.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Priority: Natural Resource Protection

Mitigating potential harm to watersheds and other natural resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Wildland Dispatch

Two Type VI engines or one Type III engine, plus one Type 1 engine.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Urban Interface

Areas where buildings and human development mix with wildland vegetation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Defensible Space

Buffer zone around a structure for fire protection; operational area for fire services.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fireline

Natural or man-made barrier that stops or slows the spread of fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Structural Triage

Categorizing structures threatened by wildfire to prioritize resource allocation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Anchor Point

Safe starting point for attacking a fire or building a fireline.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Red Flag Warning

Weather alert for critical fire conditions; high winds, low humidity, high temperatures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

L.C.E.S.

Lookouts, Communications, Escape Routes, Safety Zones - key elements for firefighter safety.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Zones

Areas large enough to protect personnel without needing a fire shelter.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Second Alarm

On second alarm, add 2 Type VI or 1 Type III engine, 1 Type I engine, and the Wildland duty officer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Engine Staffing Minimums

Type VI engines require a minimum of two firefighters; Type III require three.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum Wildland PPE

Department-approved shirt or brush jacket, Nomex pants, helmet with shroud, eye protection, gloves, and boots.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Optional Wildland Gear

Optional respirator mask and web gear with fire shelter and water bottles.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Extra Wildland Gear Location

Found on Type VI (2 extra sets) and Type III (4 extra sets) engines and worn when operating >200’ from a paved road or at the CO’s discretion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arrival Report Elements

Unit designation, incident description, actions taken, safety concerns, initial strategy, and resource determination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Description Details

Fuel type, fire size, flame length, and rate of spread.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Retention

Officer retains command until relieved by a higher-ranking officer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Geographic Divisions

Focuses on geographic areas, assigning fire attack, information assessment, water supply, LCES, and fire behavior duties within each.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Direct Attack

An attack close to the fire's edge, best for small or low-intensity fires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Direct Attack Methods

Flank, Pincer, and Frontal attacks fall under this broader strategy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Pump and Roll Attack

One firefighter drives and another walks alongside, attacking the fire with a nozzle at walking speed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Indirect Attack

Sacrificing vegetation/property when intensity is too high for direct attack; uses roads or fuel breaks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Structure Defense

Resources mobile and self-reliant to protect structures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hardening Structures

Strengthening structures against fire. Includes clearing vegetation, covering windows.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hit-and-Run Tactics

Quickly knocking down fire and moving on without full overhaul.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Return for Extinguishment

After initial knockdown, crews return to finish extinguishing the fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Aircraft Support

Water, foam, or retardant drops from aircraft on hot spots near crews/structures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Trained Air Comms

Trained personnel are required for air asset communications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IC Accountability

The Incident Commander maintains personnel accountability.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Duty Officer Qualifications

Must have a Red Card, S-215, and S-290 certifications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Duty Officer

Captain at a Type VI station, or designated officer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Notification #1

UFA on-duty wildland duty officer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Notification #2

The management officer for the Wasatch Front.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Notification #3

Salt Lake County Fire Warden.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Watershed Wildfire Contact

Contact for incidents in Salt Lake City's watershed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

National Forest Wildfire Contact

Contact agency for fires near National Forest Service lands.

Signup and view all the flashcards

NUIFC Contact

The 'fail-safe' contact when others are unreachable.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildfire Resource Officer

Serve as a resource officer for any wildfire event and assist the IC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wildland Safety Compliance

Compliance with SLCFD wildland SOGs and nationally accepted safety practices during wildfire incidents.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Objective (High-Rise)

Located in the Fire Command Center (FCC), includes marking the panel and returning elevators to the ground floor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Safety Procedure (High-Rise)

Ensuring all members have full PPE, radios, and cell phones, along with necessary tools like the Engine High-Rise Kit.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fire Assessment (High-Rise)

Includes determining the fire's location, size, and extent, and initiating the fire attack if appropriate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Supply Group Role

Oversees water supply to standpipe/sprinkler system and communicates with the 1st engine officer about water supply completion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Reverse Lay (High Rise)

Performs a reverse lay from the standpipe to a hydrant at least 200′ from the structure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Backup Team Objective

Prepares to replace the attack team on the fire floor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Equipment Staging

Drop extra equipment in the Resource Staging Area (RSA).

Signup and view all the flashcards

5th-Arriving Engine

Places engine at Apparatus Base. Crew manages the Resource Staging Area (RSA) and prepare to relieve stairwell crews.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rooftop Helicopter Use

Using helicopters for rescues from building roofs, and potentially deploying fire crews.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Chief Officer with Helicopter Crew

It is highly recommended that the department chief officer accompanies the helicopter crew.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Air Operations Branch

A functional area activated when a helicopter is used, under the Operations Section.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command & Helicopter Comms

Command manages helicopter communication until an expanded organizational structure is in place.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Delegate Air Support Comms

Initial High-Rise incidents need intense safety, command should delegate communication to an assigned, qualified deputy.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Firefighter Numbers

A working fire in a high-rise needing a minimum of 50 firefighters; however, 98% can be controlled with 24 if a pre-plan is in effect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Level III Response

Minimum fire fighter number to respond to a working fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Apparatus Base

Location to assemble equipment, minimum of 200 feet from the incident, announced over the air.

Signup and view all the flashcards

10th Arriving Engine

Positions in resource, backs up fire attack in 2nd stairwell.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Resource Staging Area (RSA)

Location where incoming resources check in, get tracked, and await assignment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PAR (Personnel Accountability Report)

Personal Accountability Report - roll call of personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command/Lobby Kit

A standardized kit carried on all chief officer vehicles or in a department support vehicle, containing essential command and communication tools for incident management.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command/Lobby Kit Contents

Used to manage the incident effectively. Contains notepads, markers, vest, ICS forms etc.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Engine High-Rise Kit

A bag containing essential tools for augmenting a standpipe on the fire floor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

2½" Gated Valve

A lightweight valve used to control water flow from standpipes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Spanner

Used to tighten or loosen fire hose couplings.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Procedure (Truck)

Full personal protective equipment, radios, and a cell phone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Truck Kit

A collection of tools specific to truck company operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Truck Company Objective

To take a fan to the base of the second fire attack stairwell.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Opening Up Plenum Space

Opening up walls/ceilings to check for fire spread.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IRIT (Truck Role)

Initial search and rescue team for firefighters.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Apparatus Placement (6th Arriving Truck)

Out of the 200' perimeter and easily movable.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy Rescue RIT Objective

Establishing a RIT on the RSA floor.

Signup and view all the flashcards

2nd Heavy Rescue RIT Objective

Establishing a RIT on the 2nd stairwell RSA.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Solid Stream Nozzle

A 2½" nozzle that delivers a concentrated stream of water.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Door Wedge/Rubber Strap

Used to prevent doors from closing, maintaining access and egress.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dog Bone Knox Cap Remover

Device used to remove Knox box caps.

Signup and view all the flashcards

TIC (Thermal Imaging Camera)

A thermal imaging camera used to see heat signatures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rotary Saw

Tool for forcible entry and ventilation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Trash Hook

Tool with hooked end used for pulling debris.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Heavy Irons

A set of tools used for forcible entry, usually an axe and a Halligan bar.

Signup and view all the flashcards

High-Rise Hose Pack

A hose pack for high-rise operations containing 50ft section of hose.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Elevator Main Power Switch

The main switch that controls power supply to the entire elevator system.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Lock Out / Tag Out

Cutting off and securing the power supply to prevent accidental reactivation during maintenance or emergencies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Occupant Actions

Instructing passengers to activate the emergency stop button and ensure doors are properly closed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Elevator Reboot

The process of cycling the elevator's power to reset its system.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Phase 1 Recall

An attempt to return the elevator to the lobby using a special key or switch.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Power Switch Security

Ensuring the main power switch remains off via physical lock or constant monitoring.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Elevator Drop Key

A tool used to access the elevator car from outside when it's stuck between floors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Informing Elevator Mechanic

Advising them of actions taken and current status, before they begin working.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Elevator Response Nature

Most responses are due to malfunctions, not actual emergencies requiring rapid extrication.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Forcing Elevator Doors

Forcing doors should be a last resort, only used in true emergencies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Captain's Role (Elevator)

Confirms elevator company dispatched and obtains ETA; retrieves elevator keys.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Firefighter 1's Role (Elevator)

Communicates with people in the car, assesses their condition, and relays info to the Captain.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Firefighter 2's Role (Elevator)

Look for drop key access in the lobby; responds to stalled floor if needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Engineer's Role (Elevator)

Locate the machine room (bottom for hydraulic, top for traction) and proceed there.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Arriving Officer Assessment

Determining if rapid extrication is needed due to an actual emergency.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Top/Side Picking, Paddling, or Poling

Opening a hoistway door when the elevator is within 18 inches of the landing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Poling or Picking

Opening a hoistway door when the elevator is NOT within the landing zone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Drifting (Hydraulic)

A technique to move a hydraulic elevator car by manually operating the valve in the mechanical room.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Lock Out/Tag Out (Elevator)

The crucial step of de-energizing the elevator system before any work begins.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Drifting (Traction Sheave)

A technique to move a traction elevator by carefully releasing the brake in the mechanical room.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hoisting Door Monitoring

Opening the hoistway door one floor above and below the stalled elevator during traction sheave drifting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Passenger Notification

Advising occupants of an elevator that the car will begin to move.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Feathering the Brake

Using Halligans to incrementally release the brake during a traction sheave drift.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Back-Up Line

Hoseline to protect egress, same size/longer than initial line.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Line

Attack line providing extra GPM through initial entry or separate entry.

Signup and view all the flashcards

CAAN Report

Reporting on Conditions, Actions, Air, and Needs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Alarm Response

Minimum units dispatched to structure fires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Working Incident Resources

Units added when incident escalates.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum PPE: Firefighting

Full protective clothing and SCBA required.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPE for Hazard Zone (Non-Firefighting)

Full protective clothing with SCBA (air optional).

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPE: Outside Hazard Zone

Appropriate outerwear as determined by policy/IC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operational Area Access

Only essential personnel are allowed in operational areas.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Incident Commander (IC)

The first officer on scene becomes the Incident Commander (IC).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arrival Report Contents

Unit designation, incident description, obvious conditions, actions taken, safety concerns, strategy, and resource needs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Location

The command must be held so command can manage and account for resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Arriving Engine Assignment

Rescue/Fire Attack

Signup and view all the flashcards

Size-Up Priorities

Quickly assess and locate the fire, understand flow paths, and control the fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum Hoseline Size

Use a 1-3/4" hoseline as a minimum; adjust as needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Benchmarks

The primary benchmarks are 'Primary All-Clear' and 'Under Control'.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Arriving Truck Responsibilities

Positions for tactical advantage, coordinates ventilation, and supports other functions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Second Arriving Engine Responsibilities

Establishes water supply, initiates fire attack, and assists with primary search.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third Arriving Engine Responsibilities

Assists with primary search, establishes independent water supply, provides exposure protection, and establishes RIC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Commander Responsibilities

Declare strategy, develop IAP, allocate resources, identify hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Arriving Truck - Group Assignment

Ventilation, rescue, utility control, salvage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Second Arriving Engine - Group Assignment

Water supply, fire attack, search and rescue.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third Arriving Engine - Group Assignment

Search, rescue, exposure protection.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Strategy

Offensive or Defensive

Signup and view all the flashcards

Alarm Response (Multi-Family)

Minimum units dispatched to multi-family fires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

"Working Incident" Additions

Added units for a confirmed fire incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum PPE for firefighting

Full protective clothing including SCBA.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPE in Hazard Zone

Full PPE with SCBA, but not breathing air.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operational Area Exclusion

Keeping non-essential people out of operational areas to prevent harm or interference.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Size-Up/Risk Assessment

The initial assessment of the situation and risks by the first arriving officer.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Arrival Report

A report given by the first arriving officer, including unit, situation, conditions, actions, safety, strategy, and command location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Declaration of Strategy

Declaring whether the attack will be inside or outside.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Arriving Engine Tasks

The initial engine company's primary task: attack the fire, rescue, and evacuate.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prioritized Actions

Prioritizing actions to protect the most lives and property possible.

Signup and view all the flashcards

2nd Engine: Water Supply

Securing a continuous water supply if not already done by the first unit.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Truck Positioning

The first arriving truck positions for height, roof design, and conditions to maximize tactical advantage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Truck: Coordinate Ventilation

Coordinating with fire attack to improve search/rescue, hose stream advancement, and confinement/extinguishment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Truck: Laddering

Ladders the building for rescue, firefighter safety and roof access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

2nd Engine: Backup Hoseline

Selects and advances secondary or backup hoselines to assist with fire attack.

Signup and view all the flashcards

2nd Engine: Water to FDC

Providing water to the structure via sprinkler/standpipe connections.

Signup and view all the flashcards

3rd Engine: Charlie Side Size-Up

Completing a size-up of the 'Charlie' side of the building.

Signup and view all the flashcards

3rd Engine: Attack Line

Advancing an attack hose line of sufficient GPM and length.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Attack Hose Line

Advances from access point; confines fire; protects exposures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fourth Engine (RIC)

Secures secondary egress, proactive RIC functions, RIC hose line (if needed).

Signup and view all the flashcards

RIC Responsibilities

Establish RIC cache; secure secondary egress for IDLH environments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Second Truck Duties

Forcible entry, ventilation, laddering, utility control, salvage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ventilation Coordination

Supports rescues and coordinates ventilation with fire attack.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Laddering Objectives

Ladders for rescue, personnel safety, roof access.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Secondary Attack Line

Additional hose lines to provide more water, entering through the same or different entry points.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Commercial Fire Alarm Response

Minimum dispatched units for commercial structure fires: 1 BC, 4 Engines, 2 Trucks, 1 Ambulance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPE for Fire Officers/Support

Full protective clothing with SCBA, but not actively breathing it unless the area may become IDLH.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Arriving Engine Placement

First arriving engine should position for tactical advantage on the 'Alpha' side, avoiding obstruction of truck placement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Engine Benchmarks

First arriving engine benchmarks are to achieve 'Primary All-Clear' and 'Under Control' ASAP.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Truck Responsibilities

Ventilation, Rescue, and Utility Control.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Second Engine Actions

Second-arriving engine ensures continuous water supply and advances secondary hoselines.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Independent Water Supply

The second engine finds an independent water supply to any sprinkler/standpipe connection(s).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third Engine Size-Up

Complete size-up of the 'Charlie' side and provide a brief radio report.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third Engine Attack Line

Advance an attack hoseline (200 GPM+).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Third Engine Responsibilities

RIC (Rapid Intervention Crew) / Search & Rescue / Fire Attack.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Attack Hose Line Objective

Confine, control, or extinguish fire spread, focusing on likely areas of extension.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Water Supply Protocol

Establish a separate water supply from the initial engine's source.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sprinkler/Standpipe Support

Ensure proper water supply to sprinklers/standpipes.

Signup and view all the flashcards

IC Primary Duty

Declares strategy and develops a written Incident Action Plan (IAP).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Personnel Accountability

Maintains PAR via the department’s First Arriving / Command Worksheet.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bystander Exclusion

Ensuring non-essential people are away from operation areas.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial IC Duties

The first officer takes charge, assesses risks, and shares key details with dispatch.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fast Attack Mode

Quick initial action where the first officer gets directly involved in tactical operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Engine Priorities

Prioritize fire attack/rescue, size-up, locating the fire, and identify flow paths.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Action Priority

Provide max protection to the largest number of people.

Signup and view all the flashcards

2 ½” Hose Line Use

Use for long or complex stretches, or advanced fire scenarios.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rules of Air Management (ROAM)

A standard set of guidelines and procedures for managing air supply when using SCBA in hazardous environments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

READY Checks

Ensures that firefighters check their equipment, air supply, and understand their assignments before entering a hazardous environment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

READY Acronym

Radio on correct channel, Equipment (PPE and tools), Air in SCBA checked, Duties clearly understood, Yes, you are ready to enter.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emergency Low-Air Warning Protocol

Firefighters should exit the IDLH environment before the low-air alarm activates, maintaining a safety reserve.

Signup and view all the flashcards

75% Rule

Seventy-five percent of SCBA air is for entry, work, and exit; 25% is reserved for emergencies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

CAAN Format

Conditions, Actions, Air, Needs: A standard format for progress reports to the Incident Commander.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Components of CAAN Reports

Describes current situation, actions taken, air status, and any resources needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Rehabilitation Protocol

Firefighters who use their emergency air reserve must go to rehab and be medically cleared before returning to duty.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Withdraw from the Building

An immediate and orderly retreat from a building with equipment, often due to changing from offensive to defensive firefighting.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Abandon Building

An emergency evacuation of a building due to an immediate threat to firefighter safety; tools are left behind.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initiating 'Abandon Building'

Any member can initiate it by announcing 'Emergency Traffic' and repeating 'Abandon Building' three times on all radio channels.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Air Horn Signal

Apparatus operator(s) give three distinct blasts of the air horn, repeated 3 times.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Dispatch's Role

Dispatch clears the channel, announces 'Abandon Building' (repeated three times), and sounds the 'high-low' alert tones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Company Officer Responsibility

Maintain crew integrity and ensure all personnel exit the building and collapse zone.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Accountability

The IC will call for an accountability check from all personnel assigned to individual companies and/or groups, sectors and divisions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Operations Role

Directs operations for multiple incidents within a large geographical area after a significant event.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Member Accountability

Ensures all station members are accounted for after a disaster.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Injured Member Protocol

Treat and transport injured firefighters, ensuring the apparatus is operational or tools are salvaged.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Station Status Check

Check the condition of the fire station after a disaster.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Director Contact

Contact your assigned Branch Director to report station status and needs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Off-Duty Reporting

Off-duty personnel should report to their assigned branch or closest safe location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Check-In Purpose

Checking in with the Branch Director to receive assignment for duty.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Locations

Designated locations for companies to report and receive orders during a large-scale incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Contact

Report to the Command Post

Signup and view all the flashcards

Company Officer Report

Communicate en route status, PAR status, and the condition of the station and apparatus.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Director

The company officer at designated branch stations shall assume initial Branch Director Position.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Priority #1

Personnel will follow the tactical priorities of firefighter safety, health, welfare, and security.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Priority #2

Personnel will follow the tactical priorities of life safety by treating the sick/injured, preventing the spread of fire, managing fatalities and evacuating and caring for the displaced.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Priority #3

Personnel will follow the tactical priorities of incident stabilization to provide search and rescue as well as contain, control and mitigate fires and hazardous materials.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tactical Priority #4

Personnel will follow the tactical priorities of property conservation to restore vital infrastructure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Director's First Steps

To take control of the assigned branch location, consult the Disaster Guide Book, and establish communication protocols.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Communication Channels

Specific radio channels for communication between the branch, ECC (Emergency Command Center), and EOC (Emergency Operations Center).

Signup and view all the flashcards

North II Branch Channels

Specific radio channels (SLCi N, City Repeater, Ground 2) used by the North II branch for internal and external communications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

South III Branch Channels

Specific radio channels (SLCi S, City Repeater, Ground 2) used by the South III branch for internal and external communications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

East X Branch Channels

Specific radio channels (SLCi E, City Repeater, Ground 2) used by the East X branch for communications.

Signup and view all the flashcards

West XIV Branch Channels

Specific radio channels (SLCi W, City Repeater) used by the West XIV branch for communications

Signup and view all the flashcards

Accountability Report Actions

Report personnel injuries, inform dispatch/ECC of the situation. Ensure apparatus status; move if possible.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Director Initial Role

At a designated branch station, the officer assumes control until the Chief arrives, then becomes assistant.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Branch Personnel Capacity

Approximately 50 people accommodated between city and volunteers at Branch stations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Communications Unit Role

Maintains comms with Branch and ECC (Command 1 primary, Command 3 alternate)

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operations Unit Responsibilities

Facilitates fire, medical, rescue, HazMat operations; may also oversee street clearance, security, utilities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Personnel Rehabilitation

Provides food, water, shelter, medical supplies, reasonable work cycles.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Equipment Rehabilitation

Ensure alternate fuel and water supplies are established.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Welfare Unit Role

Manages Medical Reserve Corps, CERT, and other volunteers; assists with evacuations/sheltering.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Public Information Officer (PIO)

Manages internal and external incident communication.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operations Section Chief

Oversees incident operations, including managing resources.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Logistics Section

Manages resources (personnel, equipment) for the incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Finance Section

Handles financial aspects, procurement, and payroll.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Planning Section

Develops and documents the incident action plan.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Essential Support Function (ESF)

Federal roles that support major disasters, like transport, fire, or media.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sections

Portions of ICS command staff: Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Management Team (IMT)

Team set up to handle all ICS general staff jobs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Coordination Group

Team in the Ops Center with Incident Manager and ESF positions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Policy Group

Decision-makers in an Ops Center, create public disaster policies

Signup and view all the flashcards

Joint Information Committee (JIC)

Part of the Ops Center, handles media and public info.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC Activation Authority

Department or officials who can activate the EOC.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Automatic EOC Activation

Triggers automatic EOC activation; includes property damage or terrorism.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC Activation Guidelines

Extended operation needing coordinated support.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC Activation (Resources)

Disasters needing many resources from different levels of government.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC Activation Notification

SLC911 notifies EOC members, often via PIER system.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC Activation Levels

Report to EOC. Level II involves phone calls to key personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Automatic Activation Response

Applies to automatic activation events; respond without waiting for notification.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC's Primary Role

A coordination and support center, not incident command post (usually).

Signup and view all the flashcards

EOC Incident Manager Role

Manages the EOC, prioritizes resources, approves the IAP, and liaises with policy groups, the JIC, and external agencies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safety Officer Duties

Ensures safety of all activities, completes ICS 215A, and coordinates with site safety officers to minimize risks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Public Information Officer Role

Coordinates messaging with the JIC and monitors media/social media for situational awareness.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Operations Section Chief Role

Ensures the scene has needed resources and collaborates with the IM to set SMART objectives.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Finance Section Chief Role

Accurately tracks costs, completes documentation for reimbursement, and ensures correct employee payments.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Logistics Section Chief Role

Requests and tracks resources from various government levels and private vendors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Action Plan (IAP) at the EOC

A document directing incident response, it is written and approved by the EOC Incident Manager.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SMART Objectives

Objectives that are specific, measurable, actionable, reasonable, and timely.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Resource Tracking

Tracks resources in staging areas and camps; works with planning to identify needs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Planning Section Chief

Writes the Incident Action Plan (IAP) and organizes planning meetings.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ESF 2 Communications Role

Ensures reliable communication using radios, phones, and email; completes ICS forms 205/205A.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ESF 4 Fire Coordination

Coordinates fire resources at the county and state levels to support operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ESF 6 Sheltering Role

Coordinates shelter needs with the Red Cross, Agriculture (pets), and Health (medical).

Signup and view all the flashcards

ESF 8 Health Responsibilities

Coordinates patient care with hospitals and health departments; manages patient surge and fatalities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ESF 9 Search and Rescue

Partners with various agencies to handle search and rescue operations.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ESF 10 Hazmat Role

Coordinates responses to hazardous material incidents; includes decontamination.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Command Post Location

First-arriving officer establishes command outside the immediate incident area.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ground Stop

Used on Alert 3 or extreme needs to halt air traffic.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial ARFF Vehicle Placement

First two ARFF vehicles position to deliver extinguishing agent.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Subsequent ARFF Vehicle Staging

Remaining ARFF vehicles stage, prepared for interior attacks.

Signup and view all the flashcards

First Engine's Role (ARFF)

Engine company addresses interior tactics for aircraft/terminal fires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suspicious Smell Response

Command vehicle responds to investigate CO or other odors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ARFF Role (Fuel Spills)

ARFF vehicle protects egress during refueling incidents or fuel spill.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SOG: Airport Alarms

A guide outlining procedures for Salt Lake City Fire Department employees responding to alarms at the airport.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Alarm Response Focus

Responses to the airfield and airport require an assignment appropriate to the type of alarm.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ARFF: Fire West

Fire West (Red 1, Red 5, Red 6, Red 7, Medic Engine 12).

Signup and view all the flashcards

ARFF: Fire East

Fire East (Red 2, Red 3, Red 4, Medic Engine 11).

Signup and view all the flashcards

Air Guard Staging

Air Guard is staged at the Air Base for all airfield alerts unless otherwise requested.

Signup and view all the flashcards

East Runways Staging

Runway 17/35 and Runway 14/32. Fire East assumes command, Red 3 at Kilo 4. Red 4 stages south of Kilo 1. Fire West initially at Delta Hanger.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Center Runway Staging

Runway 16L/34R. Fire West assumes command, staging at the Delta Hanger. Red 6, Medic Engine 12 at Delta Hanger. Red 7 stages North, Red 5 stages South. Fire East stages South Cargo.

Signup and view all the flashcards

West Runway Staging

Runway 16R/34L. Fire West assumes command near Alpha Taxiway (between Echo and Foxtrot). Red 6 & Medic Engine 12 stage short of Alpha Taxiway between Taxiways Echo and Foxtrot. Red 7 to North, Red 5 to South.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Abandoned Structure

A structure with no occupants or apparent use, showing disrepair/neglect.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vacant Structure

A structure with an owner but no permanent occupants, being maintained.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Under-Construction

Structure with construction hazards like open utilities, shafts, and unstable structures.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Structure Identification

Complete the Abandoned, Vacant, and Under-Construction form on Firehome.

Signup and view all the flashcards

CAD Notification

Dispatch adds the address and details to the CAD system.

Signup and view all the flashcards

En-route Evaluation

Evaluate dispatch info, pre-plans, and flagged data en route.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Size-Up Communication

Communicate if the structure is abandoned, vacant, or under construction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Construction Site Collapse

Under construction, collapse potential increases due to systems being in various stages, speeding up fire spread.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Wood-Frame Fire Growth

Fires spread rapidly in wood-frame buildings under construction; likely fully involved and structurally unsound on arrival.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Offensive Strategy

Use only when a rapid fire attack could stop fire spread or if there is a known, savable life. Otherwise, a defensive strategy should be declared with operations conducted outside the structure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vacant Buildings

Structures are maintained and ready for occupancy, but unlikely to have occupants.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vacant Building Tactics

Use if a known, savable life exists, and/or if the structure is savable and tactics can be deployed in a safe manner, while taking minimal risk. Otherwise, a defensive strategy should be declared with defined collapse zones identified and enforced

Signup and view all the flashcards

Incident Priorities

Firefighter safety, victim rescue, and property conservation.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Search in Abandoned Buildings

Exterior observation and TIC use through windows/doors.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Strategy for Abandoned Buildings

Declared with enforced collapse zones.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Offensive Strategy Justification

Only if a savable life exists and hazards are mitigated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Risk Level in Vacant Structures

The level of assumed risk should be reduced.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vacant Building Search

Exterior search, unless viable victim known.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Strategy: Vacant/Abandoned Structures

Defensive operations are typical.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPE for Small AFFF Spills

Personal Protective Equipment, including gloves and eye protection, is required when cleaning small AFFF spills.

Signup and view all the flashcards

PPE for Large AFFF Quantities

For larger AFFF quantities, consider additional PPE like a face mask and protective suit.

Signup and view all the flashcards

ARFF Hatch PPE

Opening the ARFF roof hatch requires a mask, eye protection, and gloves.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AFFF Eye Exposure

Flush eyes for 15 minutes after AFFF exposure; remove contacts if possible.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AFFF Ingestion

If AFFF is ingested, rinse mouth and immediately contact a poison control center; do not induce vomiting without professional direction.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What is AFFF?

Aqueous Film Forming Foam; used to extinguish Class B flammable liquid fires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

What are PFAS?

Substances in AFFF that can negatively impact the environment and human health.

Signup and view all the flashcards

When to Use AFFF

To protect against or suppress Class B fuel fires only.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AFFF on the AOA

Try to contain the AFFF and prevent it from entering drains or the ground.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AFFF off Airport Property

Notify environmental agencies through the chain of command.

Signup and view all the flashcards

AFFF Disposal Location

Capturing and containing AFFF in a retention pond or similar location.

Signup and view all the flashcards

When NOT to use AFFF

Do not use for brush or structural fires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Legal AFFF Discharge

Annually, as directed by the FAA, for ARFF vehicle performance testing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR)

A Salt Lake City Fire Department guideline outlining procedures for reporting potentially terroristic or criminal behavior observed during normal duties.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suspicious Activity Definition

Behavior indicating pre-operational planning related to terrorism or other criminal actions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Breach/Attempted Intrusion

Unauthorized entry or attempted entry into a restricted area.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Misrepresentation

Providing false credentials to hide illicit activity.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Theft/Loss/Diversion

Stealing items linked to a facility or infrastructure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sabotage/Tampering/Vandalism

Damaging or altering a facility or protected site.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Cyber Attack

Compromising an organization's IT system.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Spoken or Written Threat

Communicating a threat to damage a facility.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Testing/Probing Security

Interacting with or challenging security to reveal capabilities.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Suspicious Photography

Taking suspicious photos or videos of secure areas or personnel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Observation/Surveillance

Showing unusual interest in facilities, buildings, or infrastructure.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Materials Acquisition / Storage

Acquiring or storing unusual amounts of materials.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Acquisition of Expertise

Seeking training in security, weapons, or military tactics.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Weapons Discovery

Finding unusual amounts of weapons or explosives.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sector-Specific Incident

Unusual Actions related to a specific industry that causes concern.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Basis for Suspicion

Indicators warranting suspicion should be reasonably associated with terrorism, not based on race, ethnicity, national origin, or religion.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Priority of Emergency Response

Do not let reporting delay emergency response.

Signup and view all the flashcards

TrapWire Repository

The system used to document and share suspicious activity reports

Signup and view all the flashcards

SAR Reporting Avenues

Primary and secondary methods for submitting SARs.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Immediate Threat Action

Contact law enforcement immediately.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Securing the Scene

Maintaining scene safety while waiting for law enforcement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vetting and Sharing Reports

Sharing SAR information with law enforcement agencies.

Signup and view all the flashcards

SAR Training Components

Training required for all department members.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV/HV Clear Space

Clear a wide perimeter around EVs once stored post-incident.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV Charging Station Fires

Secure power and treat as any other electrical equipment fire.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Parking Garage Size-Up

Assess vehicle location, exposures, life hazards, and smoke travel in parking garages.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Sprinkler System Priority

Essential to limit fire spread.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Ladder Companies

Used as an improvised standpipe on elevated freeways or parking garages.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hose Line Size

Apply at least 1 ¾ inch hose line to vehicle fires.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vehicle Fire Approach

Approach from a 90-degree angle, using full stream reach.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Initial Water Application

First water should be applied to extinguish or protect the passenger compartment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Bumper Hazard

Energy-absorbing bumpers can become projectiles when heated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Battery Hazards

Batteries present explosion, flammability, toxicity, and electrical shock hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Hold-Open Device Hazard

Springs or gas cylinders fail explosively when heated.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vent-Limited Fire Risk

Modern vehicles, when opened, can lead to rapid fire growth inside.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Fuel Tank Hazard

Sheet metal or plastic tanks can rupture and cause flash fire of the fuel.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Emerging Vehicle Technology

Vehicles with new technologies such as electric, hybrid, LPG, CNG, Hydrogen and Autonomous Driving

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vehicle Fire Visual Signs

Visual cues like vehicle markings, smoke color/location, that indicate potential hazards.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Vehicle Immobilization & Disable

Stabilize, shut off ignition, remove key/fob and cut labeled cables.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Minimum Protection Level

Full protective clothing with SCBA is required; Captains need full protective clothing.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Apparatus Placement

Position uphill/upwind to stay safe; protect scene with apparatus & warning lights.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV/HV Fire Extinguishment

Use water to cool batteries if they are on fire, exposed to heat, or generating gas

Signup and view all the flashcards

Traffic Cones

Use traffic cones to manage vehicle flow around the accident and apparatus placement.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Tire/Rim Explosion Hazard

Tires or split rims exposed to fire can explode with great force, causing potential injury or equipment damage.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Safe Approach to Vehicle Fires

Approach vehicle fires from the front or rear to minimize exposure to potential tire or rim explosions.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Air Suspension Failure

Air suspension systems on large vehicles can suddenly deflate when exposed to heat/flames, causing the vehicle to drop.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Prioritizing Water Application

When patients are trapped, apply water to protect them and permit rescue; otherwise, cool fuel tanks first.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LPG/CNG Vehicle Hazards

LPG and CNG fueled vehicles may explode (BLEVE) if pressure relief devices fail.

Signup and view all the flashcards

LPG/CNG Fire Tactics

For LPG/CNG fires, control the fire, cool the tank, and shut off the valve if possible. Adding hazmat to the assignment.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV Battery Fire Hazard

EV fires pose additional hazards due to battery systems which create thermal runaway.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Controlling EV Battery Fires

The best method for controlling EV battery fires involves applying large amounts of water directly to the battery pack, which is usually located under the vehicle.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV Fire: Post-Extinguishment

After extinguishing an EV fire, ensure the interior is out. Sustained battery pack suppression may be needed.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Class A Foam on EV Fires

Class A foam reduces water's cooling effect on EV batteries. Consider letting the batteries burn out if safe.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV Battery Hazards

Be cautious of EV batteries venting/exploding. Never cut into or puncture the battery pack.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV Fire Runoff

Implement measures to protect storm drains from hazardous runoff during EV fires. Contact hazmat/health officials for assistance.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV Battery Off-Gassing

Even after the fire is out, EV batteries are energized. Off-gassing (white smoke) indicates ongoing battery degradation and is toxic/flammable.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Disabling EV Systems

Disable both high and low voltage systems if possible, by cutting the negative terminal on the low voltage side. Capacitors may take 10 minutes to discharge.

Signup and view all the flashcards

EV Fire: Ineffective Water

Use dry chemical extinguishers for initial EV fire suppression if water is ineffective. Monitor battery temperatures with a TIC; increasing temps indicate reignition risk.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Damaged EV Battery Risk

If EV batteries suffer thermal/mechanical damage, electrocution is possible. Limit contact with the vehicle until temperatures are stable/decreasing before turning it over.

Signup and view all the flashcards

Study Notes

I still require the text to update the existing study notes to reflect the updated information. Once you provide the text, I will follow the instructions to only update the provided study notes with any new information, and keep all existing information in place.

Studying That Suits You

Use AI to generate personalized quizzes and flashcards to suit your learning preferences.

Quiz Team

Related Documents

Radio Procedure Guideline (PDF)
Mayday Procedures PDF
Blood Wash Procedure PDF
Wildland Deployment SOG PDF
Wildland Deployment Pay SOP PDF
High-Rise Operations SOG PDF
Structure Fire Guidelines PDF
Fire Operations Guidelines PDF
Structure Fire Guidelines PDF
Use of AFFF SOP PDF

Description

Incident Commanders take command and set up a Command Post. They quickly assess the situation, create an Incident Action Plan (IAP), and manage communication. The Incident Commander also requests resources, maintains incident organization and oversees command transfers.

More Like This

Emergency Management Incident Commander
40 questions
Gestión de Incidentes
5 questions

Gestión de Incidentes

ExpansiveJacksonville avatar
ExpansiveJacksonville
Use Quizgecko on...
Browser
Browser