Study Guide for Test 2 Chapter 1 PDF

Summary

This study guide covers chapters 4, 5, and 6, containing multiple-choice questions on cell theory, viruses, and cellular processes. It includes questions and answers for study.

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Study guide for the Test # 2 Covers ( Ch 4, 5, 6) Chapter # 4 1. Which of the following is/are part of accepted cell theory? a. Every living organism is composed of one or more cells, and all living cells have membrane-enclosed organelles. b. All living cells arise from...

Study guide for the Test # 2 Covers ( Ch 4, 5, 6) Chapter # 4 1. Which of the following is/are part of accepted cell theory? a. Every living organism is composed of one or more cells, and all living cells have membrane-enclosed organelles. b. All living cells arise from preexisting cells, and all living cells have membrane-enclosed organelles. c. All living cells have membrane-enclosed organelles. d. Every living organism is composed of one or more cells, and all living cells arise from preexisting cells. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: LifeRewritten OBJ: 3.1 MSC: Remembering 2. Which of the following types of organisms are commonly single-celled (unicellular)? a. bacteria, some fungi (yeast), and many protozoans b. many fungi, some protozoans, and plants c. plants and animals d. many fungi, plants, and animals ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: LifeRewritten OBJ: 3.1 MSC: Understanding 3. Adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) are the building blocks for DNA; they are organized in different combinations to code for all of the proteins needed to accomplish everything the cell does. a. carbohydrate c. protein b. nucleotide d. lipid ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: StartingSmall OBJ: 3.1 MSC: Remembering 4. Which of the following can be used to accurately describe viruses? a. They are small, cellular infectious agents that are only capable of reproducing when inside a living cell, and they can attack plants as well as animals. b. Each is typically a piece of genetic material encased in proteins, and they can reproduce on their own. c. They can attack plants, animals, and protozoans, and each is typically a piece of self- replicating genetic material encased in proteins. d. Typically just a piece of genetic material encased in proteins, viruses are small, non- cellular infectious agents that are only capable of reproducing when inside a living cell such as those of plants, animals, fungi, protozoans, or bacteria. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: StartingSmall OBJ: 3.2 MSC: Remembering 5. Some antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections kill the bacteria by chemically punching holes in the cell wall of the bacteria, by preventing the bacteria from replicating their DNA, or by many other actions that ultimately cause cell death. Why do these antibiotics not work to kill viruses and cure people of viral infections? a. Antibiotics cannot kill a virus because viruses are not living cells with cell walls to puncture, nor do they have their own organelles to replicate DNA. b. Viruses are just too virulent to be killed by those antibiotics. c. Viruses are too quick for the antibiotics to work. d. Viruses mutate at a rate faster than the rate at which antibiotics can work to kill them. ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: StartingSmall OBJ: 3.2 MSC: Understanding 6. Why do scientists repeat their experiments over and over again? a. They never get it right the first time. b. They can never be sure what procedural steps they followed the first few times. c. They must make sure the results were not an accident and that they are repeatable. d. They simply have extra time and resources that must be used. ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: CongratsItsaCell OBJ: 3.1 MSC: Understanding 7. Living cells have an intact phospholipid bilayer that separates the cell from its external environment; this structure is commonly referred to as the a. nucleus. c. endoplasmic reticulum. b. mitochondria. d. plasma membrane. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: ADifferentApproach OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Remembering 8. From what substance do liposomes spontaneously form and why are they important? a. Liposomes spontaneously form from DNA and proteins and provide a rigid structure to support the cell. b. They are formed from phospholipid monolayers. These phospholipid monolayers provide a stable barrier between the internal and external environments. c. Liposomes were the first rigid cell walls providing support for the living cell and a barrier between the external and internal environments. d. Liposomes form from phospholipid bilayers and provide a barrier between an external environment and an internal environment; this creates an internal environment where specific chemical reactions needed to establish a living cell can occur separately from the external environment. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: ADifferentApproach OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Analyzing 9. An experiment mixed together oil (lipids), organophosphate-containing detergent in water, and copper ions to act as a catalyst for a chemical reaction. Membranes budded off of the oil in this mixture. Which of the following is a reasonable and possible explanation of the experimental results? a. The chemical reaction caused the organophosphates from the detergent to chemically combine with lipids from the oil to form phospholipids. The hydrophilic tails lined up towards each other with their hydrophobic heads pointing out towards the water; this configuration formed a phospholipid bilayer that pulled into a liposome. b. The chemical reaction caused the organophosphates from the detergent to chemically combine with lipids from the oil to form phospholipids with hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. The hydrophobic tails lined up towards each other with their hydrophilic heads pointing out towards the water; this configuration formed a phospholipid bilayer that pulled into a spherical liposome. c. The copper ions permanently, chemically combined with the lipids to form phospholipids. The hydrophilic tails lined up towards each other with their hydrophobic heads pointing out towards the water; this configuration formed a phospholipid bilayer that pulled into a liposome. d. The copper ions permanently, chemically combined with the lipids and phosphates to form phospholipids. The hydrophilic tails lined up towards each other with their hydrophobic heads pointing out towards the water; this configuration formed a phospholipid bilayer that pulled into a liposome. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: ADifferentApproach OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Analyzing 10. Phospholipids are large organic molecules with a , polar phosphate head connected to , nonpolar fatty acid tails. How do these molecules arrange themselves to form a mostly impermeable barrier between a liposome and its environment? a. hydrophilic; hydrophobic; They line up hydrophilic head to hydrophilic head with the tails all facing outward from the center line of the membrane. b. hydrophilic; hydrophobic; They line up hydrophobic tails facing each other at the center line of the membrane with the hydrophilic heads facing outward, away from the center line of the membrane. c. hydrophobic; hydrophilic; They line up hydrophobic tails facing each other with the hydrophilic heads facing outward, away from the center line of the membrane. d. hydrophobic; hydrophilic; They line up hydrophilic head to hydrophilic head with the tails all facing outward from the center line of the membrane. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: ADifferentApproach OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Understanding 11. Compare and contrast the nuclear envelope and the plasma membrane. a. The nuclear envelope consists of two concentric phospholipid bilayers while the plasma membrane is only one phospholipid bilayer. Both membranes are selectively permeable and have pores. b. The nuclear envelope consists of two concentric phospholipid bilayers while the plasma membrane is only one phospholipid bilayer. Neither membrane is selectively permeable or has pores. c. Both membranes consist of two concentric phospholipid bilayers, are selectively permeable, and have pores. d. Both membranes consist of two concentric phospholipid bilayers and neither is selectively permeable or has pores. ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: ADifferentApproach | WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Understanding 12. Which of the following help increase the selective permeability of a phospholipid bilayer membrane? a. transport proteins b. channel proteins c. passive carrier proteins d. Transport proteins, channel proteins, and passive carrier proteins all help increase the selective permeability of a phospholipid bilayer membrane. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Understanding 13. During the process of , water diffuses across a semipermeable membrane from an area where water is more concentrated to an area where water is less concentrated (it moves along the water concentration gradient). a. osmosis c. facilitated diffusion b. simple diffusion d. pinocytosis ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Remembering 14. Cells naturally, without using energy, respond to changes in water concentration through the process of a. facilitated diffusion. c. phagocytosis. b. osmosis. d. active transport. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Understanding 15. The plasma membrane of some white blood cells contain that bind with proteins of cells such as bacteria that have invaded the human body. These special proteins tell the white blood cells those bacterial cells do not belong to that particular human and to phagocytize (eat) them. a. channel proteins c. diffusion proteins b. receptor proteins d. carrier proteins ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Understanding 16. If the concentration of sugar molecules in water on side “A” of a selectively permeable membrane is 5 percent, and the concentration of sugar molecules in water on side “B” of a selectively permeable membrane is 15 percent, which way will the water move and why? a. The water will mostly move from side “B” to side “A” because the water concentration is higher on side “B.” b. The water will mostly move from side “A” to side “B” because the water concentration is higher on side “A.” c. The water will mostly move from side “A” to side “B” because the water concentration is higher on side “B.” d. The water will not move at all because the water concentrations are isotonic. ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Understanding 17. A screen door allows breezes to enter and aromas to exit but keeps out insects. Its function most resembles a. the cytosol. c. the ER lumen. b. the plasma membrane. d. a ribosome. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Applying 18. You are in lab attempting to prepare a slide of cow blood for observation in a wet mount. You place a small drop of the blood on a slide, add a drop of strong saline (salt) solution, and then cover all of it with a coverslip. After returning to your desk, you observe the slide with your microscope and notice that all of the red blood cells (RBCs) do not look like the nice round donut shaped cells in your lab manual. Instead, the RBCs look very shriveled up. Your lab partner has also made a slide, but the RBCs on their slide do look like the ones in the lab manual; your lab partner used a more dilute solution of saline but the same vial of blood. What is the most plausible explanation for the appearance of the blood cells on your slide? a. The saline you used was hypotonic to the RBCs; this resulted in water osmosing through the RBC plasma membrane mostly into the cells. b. The saline you used was isotonic to the RBCs; this resulted in water osmosing through the RBC plasma membrane into and out of the cells at an equal rate. c. The saline you used was hypertonic to the RBCs; this resulted in water osmosing through the RBC plasma membrane mostly out of the cell. d. The RBCs were hypertonic to the saline; this resulted in water osmosing through the RBC plasma membrane mostly into the cells. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Applying 19. Dialysis tubing is a selectively permeable membrane that can be filled with a solution to simulate a cell. A piece of dialysis tubing has been filled with a cloudy white solution of 5 percent starch, 5 percent egg albumin (protein), and 5 percent glucose (a small sugar) dissolved in water to simulate a cell. This cell is weighed and then placed in a beaker of 3 percent iodine dissolved in water. When iodine and starch are mixed together, they form a bluish-black compound that is easily seen. After soaking in the yellow iodine-water solution for one hour, the cell is once again weighed. You also notice that the solution inside of the cell is now a dark blue color while the solution in the beaker is still a light yellow color from the iodine. What do you expect to happen to the weight of the cell over time and what can you deduce from the color change? a. The cell should lose weight over time because it is hypotonic to the beaker environment and water will enter the cell through osmosis. The color change indicates that the iodine molecules were small enough to diffuse across the membrane and react with the starch inside the cell. b. The cell should lose weight over time because it is hypertonic to the beaker environment and water will leave the cell through osmosis. There is nothing that the color change can tell us. c. The cell should gain weight over time because it is hypertonic to the beaker environment and water will enter the cell through osmosis. The color change indicates that the iodine molecules were small enough to diffuse across the membrane and react with the starch inside the cell. No color change in the beaker tells us that the starch was too large to cross the membrane from the cell and into the beaker. d. The cell should gain weight over time because it is isotonic to the beaker environment and water will be drawn into the cell because of the albumin. The color change does not really tell us anything about the experiment. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Analyzing 20. Examine the figure below. If each sugar molecule represents a percentage point of sugar dissolved in the solution, what change would you expect to see in the solution level over time and why? a. The solution level on the left side of the figure would rise while the solution level on the right side of the figure would decrease. This is because the solution on the left side of the figure is hypertonic while the solution on the right side of the figure is hypotonic. b. The solution level on the left side of the figure would decrease while the solution level on the right side of the figure would rise. This is because the solution on the left side of the figure is hypertonic while the solution on the right side of the figure is hypotonic. c. The solution level on the left side of the figure would decrease while the solution level on the right side of the figure would rise. This is because the solution on the left side of the figure is hypotonic while the solution on the right side of the figure is hypertonic. d. There will be no net movement of water because the solutions are isotonic. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 | 3.4 MSC: Evaluating 21. Examine the figure below. If each sugar molecule represents a percentage point of sugar dissolved in the solution, what change would you expect to see in the solution level over time and why? a. The solution level on the left side of the figure would rise while the solution level on the right side of the figure would decrease. This is because the solution on the left side of the figure is hypertonic while the solution on the right side of the figure is hypotonic. b. The solution level on the left side of the figure would decrease while the solution level on the right side of the figure would rise. This is because the solution on the left side of the figure is hypertonic while the solution on the right side of the figure is hypotonic. c. The solution level on the left side of the figure would decrease while the solution level on the right side of the figure would rise. This is because the solution on the left side of the figure is hypotonic while the solution on the right side of the figure is hypertonic. d. There will be no net movement of water because the solutions are isotonic. ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.3 | 3.4 MSC: Evaluating 22. Which of the following statements most accurately describes a selectively permeable membrane? a. Solutes are never able to cross the membrane. b. Large molecules are always excluded from crossing the membrane. c. Substances can only pass through the membrane with the help of either active or passive transport proteins. d. Certain solutes move freely across the membrane by simple diffusion while others must be helped across by active or passive transport proteins; some substances are completely excluded from crossing the membrane. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Remembering 23. If a bottle of perfume were spilled in the corner of a large lecture hall, the students sitting near that corner of the room would very quickly smell the perfume. Over time, the students sitting in the far corner of the room would smell the perfume. What phenomenon has occurred to the perfume molecules that have entered the air? a. osmosis c. active transport b. facilitated diffusion d. simple diffusion ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Understanding 24. You are a scientist observing a membrane through which water and some small hydrophobic molecules can freely pass along a concentration gradient from high to low. However, some sugar molecules are too large to pass through the membrane either way without the assistance of passive transport proteins. Additionally, small Na+ ions and some proteins can pass through the membrane against the concentration gradient, but both require the assistance of active transport proteins. What general type of membrane are you observing? a. impermeable c. semipermeable b. inpenetrable d. completely permeable ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Understanding 25. Which of the following would be likely to require facilitated diffusion to move across the plasma membrane? a. water (H2O) b. sodium ions (Na+), hydrogen ions (H+), sugars, and amino acids c. oxygen (O2) d. carbon dioxide (CO2) ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Understanding 26. You buy a bunch of small, round, red radishes at the grocery store; they are on sale because they have been sitting in the produce aisle for a while. When you get home you remove the stems and clean them. With the first bite, you notice their texture is not as crisp and crunchy as you like. Your friend says you should refrigerate them in a bowl of water overnight. The next day the radishes are crisp and crunchy again. What is the most likely explanation of why they became crunchy again after soaking in water? a. The radish cells were hypertonic to the water in which they were soaking. So, the water moved by osmosis across the plasma membranes into the radish cells increasing the turgor pressure inside of the cells and making them crunchier. b. The radish cells were hypotonic to the water in which they were soaking. So, the water osmosed across the plasma membranes out of the radish cells decreasing the turgor pressure inside of the cells and making them crunchier. c. The radish cells were hypertonic to the water in which they were soaking. So, the water osmosed across the plasma membranes into the radish cells decreasing the turgor pressure inside of the cells. d. The radish cells were hypotonic to the water in which they were soaking. So, the water osmosed across the plasma membranes into the radish cells decreasing the turgor pressure inside of the cells. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Applying 27. Why would hydrophilic substances such as sodium ions (Na+), hydrogen ions (H+), sugars, and amino acids be unable to simply diffuse across a plasma membrane? a. They readily mix with the hydrophobic tails forming the core of the phospholipid bilayer. b. They are repelled by the hydrophilic heads of the phospholipids that form the phospholipid bilayer. c. They do not readily mix with the hydrophobic tails forming the core of the phospholipid bilayer; therefore, they must move across by facilitated diffusion. d. They do not readily mix with the hydrophobic tails forming the core of the phospholipid bilayer; therefore, the only way they can move into the cell is by endocytosis. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: ThroughtheBarrier OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Analyzing 28. An amoeba, a protozoan that moves by pseudopodia, approaches a smaller protozoan and extends its pseudopodia (extensions of cytoplasm in plasma membrane) around the smaller protozoan. Once the amoeba’s pseudopodia completely surrounds the other protozoan, the amoeba’s plasma membrane pinches off by folding back into the amoeba and creating a vesicle containing the smaller protozoan. This vesicle is now within the amoeba itself and will soon fuse with other vesicles containing digestive enzymes. This is an example of a. pinocytosis. c. osmosis. b. exocytosis. d. phagocytosis. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: AnotherWayThrough OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Applying 29. A white blood cell (WBC) encounters bacteria in a scrape on the knee of a child who has fallen off of his bicycle. The WBC’s job is to take the bacteria inside of itself and destroy the bacteria. If the bacteria cannot be moved across the WBC membrane, how will the WBC most likely take it in? a. exocytosis c. facilitated diffusion b. pinocytosis d. phagocytosis ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: AnotherWayThrough OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Understanding 30. A protein molecule, transferrin, embedded in the plasma membrane recognizes iron molecules and causes the plasma membrane to fold in around the iron and take it into the cell. This is an example of a. osmosis. c. receptor-mediated endocytosis. b. diffusion. d. pinocytosis. ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: AnotherWayThrough OBJ: 3.3 MSC: Applying 31. Which of the following would be likely to move through a plasma membrane by simple diffusion? a. water (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), oxygen (O2) b. polysaccharides, large protein molecules, low-density lipoprotein particles c. bacteria and yeast d. sodium ions (Na+), hydrogen ions (H+), sugars, and amino acids ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: AnotherWayThrough OBJ: 3.4 MSC: Understanding 32. A factory with an office that controls the information sent to separate rooms for each of the manufacturing and shipping processes would be analogous to a. a virus. c. a prokaryotic cell without a nucleus. b. a prokaryotic cell with a nucleus. d. a eukaryotic cell with a nucleus. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: ProkaryotesVsEukaryotes OBJ: 3.2 MSC: Applying 33. You are a microbiologist working with a species of bacteria that can perform photosynthesis. You know that the enzymes needed to perform photosynthesis in plant cells are closely associated with the membranes in chloroplasts. Where in the bacteria would you expect to find the enzymes needed to perform photosynthesis? a. I would expect to find the photosynthetic enzymes in the chloroplasts of the bacteria. b. I would expect to find the photosynthetic enzymes associated with the plasma membrane of the bacteria. c. I would expect to find the photosynthetic enzymes associated with the mitochondria of the bacteria. d. I would expect to find the photosynthetic enzymes associated with the ER of the bacteria. ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: ProkaryotesVsEukaryotes OBJ: 3.2 MSC: Applying 34. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes are primarily distinguished by the absence or presence of internal membrane- enclosed organelles. Are prokaryotic cells at an evolutionary disadvantage because they lack organelles? a. Yes; without organelles, prokaryotic cells cannot photosynthesize or respire. b. Yes; without organelles, prokaryotes are unable to bring together the reactants needed for biological reactions. c. No; although prokaryotic cells are comparatively less efficient than eukaryotic cells, they are still able to carry out the processes necessary for survival and reproduction. d. No; eukaryotic organelles are expelled each time the cell divides. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: ProkaryoteVsEukaryotes OBJ: 3.2 MSC: Analyzing 35. Many important cellular functions in eukaryotic cells occur within membrane-enclosed organelles, such as cellular respiration occurring within the mitochondria. The membranes of the mitochondria provide a place for enzymes needed for cellular respiration to anchor and function. Prokaryotic cells must also carry out respiration but do not have mitochondria. Where is the most likely place that enzymes needed for cellular respiration are anchored and functioning? a. the cell wall c. the cytosol b. the chromosome d. the plasma membrane ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: ProkaryotesVsEukaryotes OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Analyzing 36. Using the compound light microscope in the lab room, you observe a wet mount slide preparation. You observe layers of cells that have a definite, rigid, rectangular shape; there appears to be a nucleus in all of the cells and there are many oval-shaped green structures that seem to be moving around inside of the cells in an orderly fashion. What general cell type are you most likely observing? a. prokaryotic and plant c. eukaryotic and plant b. prokaryotic and animal d. eukaryotic and animal ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: ProkaryotesVsEukaryotes | WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.6 MSC: Applying 37. Ribosomes are very small nonmembranous organelles that can either exist freely in the cytoplasm or be embedded in the endoplasmic reticulum of a cell; they are associated with the synthesis of a. lipids. c. nucleic acids. b. proteins. d. carbohydrates. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Remembering 38. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum a. is the site where lipids destined for other cellular compartments are manufactured. b. produces the energy needed to run chemical reactions in the cell. c. converts sunlight into chemical energy. d. stores water, nutrients, and enzymes. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Remembering 39. The Golgi apparatus a. is the place where a cell’s genetic material is stored. b. sorts proteins and lipids and sends them to their final destination. c. captures energy from sunlight and sends it to the mitochondria. d. creates energy by converting ribosomes to proteins. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Remembering 40. The boundary that surrounds the contents of the nucleus is the a. plasma membrane. c. nuclear pore. b. nuclear envelope. d. cytosol. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Remembering 41. Which of the following statements is true of chloroplasts? a. They produce proteins used by other parts of the cell. b. They capture energy from sunlight. c. They give an animal cell its shape. d. They contain an entire copy of a cell’s genetic material. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Remembering 42. Your muscle cells need large amounts of ATP to function in the movement of your body. Which of the following organelles would you expect to be especially abundant in muscle cells? a. mitochondria c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. ribosomes d. lysosomes ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Applying 43. The leaves of a plant typically have different tissue layers that function in different ways. The epidermis layer functions like a covering of skin to protect the leaf while vascular bundles carry water and nutrients through the leaf. The palisade mesophyll layer is responsible for most of the photosynthesis that occurs while the spongy mesophyll layer underneath it aids in the exchange of gases (CO2 and O2) and water vapor. In which leaf tissues would you expect to find the highest density of chloroplasts? a. epidermis c. spongy mesophyll b. vascular bundles d. palisade mesophyll ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Understanding 44. Which of the following would be the best analogy for the function of the Golgi apparatus? a. the machine that assembles a product b. a worker in a factory who places labels on products and then packs them into a shipping box c. the garbage truck that hauls away the wastes produced as a product is made d. the blueprints for making the product ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Applying 45. A long piece of ribbon wired along both long edges is twisted into a helix and wrapped around individual pipe cleaners that have been rolled into spools; this grouping is then twisted (super coiled) again to condense it. This could be best used as a simple model for a. a plasma membrane, where the pipe cleaners represent the phospholipid bilayer and the ribbon represents proteins embedded in the membrane. b. a cell wall. c. a mitochondrion. d. a chromosome, where the pipe cleaners represent bundles of proteins around which the DNA double helix (wired ribbon) is wrapped. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Applying 46. A solid waste (garbage) transfer facility that sorts and breaks down garbage into recyclables and waste to be thrown away in the landfill would be a suitable analogy for which cellular organelle? a. smooth ER c. lysosome b. rough ER d. nucleus ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: WhatsinaCell OBJ: 3.5 MSC: Applying Chapter 5 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The energy required for life processes must be extracted from an organism’s a. nucleus. c. predators. b. environment. d. biosynthesis. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.1 MSC: Remembering 2. The illustration below indicates that photosynthesis and cellular respiration are both complementary and balanced. An excess of sugars produced fossil fuels like coal and petroleum; this suggest that in the past, a. the amount of photosynthesis occurring exceeded the amount of cellular respiration. b. sugars were only one of several products of photosynthesis. c. reduced carbon-rich molecules could be produced independently from the photosynthetic process. d. the energy release from respiration must have exceeded energy use in photosynthesis. ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.1 MSC: Analyzing 3. What is the importance of photosynthesis to organisms other than plants? a. All other organisms require carbon dioxide for life processes. b. The sugars made during photosynthesis are building blocks of DNA. c. All cells must have chloroplasts in order to survive. d. Photosynthesis captures energy that other organisms access when they eat either plants or organisms that eat plants. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.1 MSC: Understanding 4. Photosynthetic organisms capture energy from sunlight and convert it into chemical bonds by forming a. sugars. c. work. b. enzymes. d. substrates. ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.1 MSC: Understanding 5. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration are both complementary and relatively balanced, but early history of life on Earth showed increasing oxygen concentrations. This indicates that a. both photosynthesis and respiration were occurring at approximately the same levels. b. neither photosynthesis nor respiration were occurring. c. the amount of photosynthesis occurring exceeded the amount of cellular respiration. d. the amount of cellular respiration occurring exceeded the amount of photosynthesis. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.1 MSC: Applying 6. The first law of thermodynamics states that a. metabolic reactions must be balanced. b. the flow of energy connects living things to their environments. c. energy cannot be created nor destroyed. d. systems tend to become more disorderly. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 7. What should the arrow in the following equation be labeled? Sugar + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + ATP. a. photosynthesis c. Krebs cycle b. cellular respiration d. Calvin cycle ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.5 MSC: Remembering 8. Which of the following is a similarity between photosynthesis and respiration? a. Neither is a metabolic process. b. They are both metabolic processes. c. Neither is an anabolic process. d. They are both mainly anabolic processes. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.5 MSC: Remembering 9. Carbon dioxide is one product of a metabolic process, which occurs in both plants and animals. This process is called a. catalysis. c. respiration. b. glycolysis. d. photosynthesis. ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: ItStartsWithSunlight OBJ: 4.5 MSC: Understanding 10. In a human cell, a. one enzyme usually catalyzes no more than five different chemical reactions. b. nearly all chemical reactions are catalyzed by enzymes. c. enzymes have to be constantly replaced as they are used up in the reactions that they catalyze. d. some enzymes are specialized to store activation energy. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.2 MSC: Understanding 11. Enzymes can catalyze a reaction only if a. they encounter a molecule of ATP. b. their active site is sufficiently oxidized. c. they have both products in their active site at the same time. d. they encounter a substrate that fits their active site. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.2 MSC: Applying 12. A given enzyme a. can be used for many different kinds of chemical reactions. b. is permanently changed during a chemical reaction. c. has a special site where the products bind before the reaction begins. d. increases the rate of a particular reaction. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.2 MSC: Applying 13. In the reaction C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O, the 6 CO2 molecules are some of the a. substrates. c. enzymes. b. products. d. reactants ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.2 MSC: Applying 14. In many organelles, groups of different enzymes are located on membranes in close proximity to each other because a. attaching enzymes to the membrane prevents the cell from losing them to the surrounding environment. b. when enzymes are in close proximity, each one can catalyze more than one type of reaction. c. these enzymes are involved in the same metabolic pathway and keeping them closer together increases the efficiency of the pathway. d. all enzymes must act in groups to position substrates in the proper orientation to produce the product. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.2 MSC: Understanding 15. The image below diagrams the action of an enzyme. Notice that the enzyme is depicted as being more tightly wrapped around the substrates in step 2 than it is in step 1. Why is this? a. When a substrate locks into the active site of an enzyme, the enzyme changes shape to mold itself around the substrates. b. Generally, the size of a substrate is larger than the size of the active site into which it must fit. When the substrate enters the active site, the active site must stretch to fit. c. Before catalysis can occur, a substrate must change its shape so that it fits into the active site of the enzyme more precisely. d. Most active sites are only designed to hold one substrate. In this image, two substrates enter the active site, creating a tighter fit. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.2 MSC: Understanding 16. In the reaction H2O + CO2 + carbonic anhydrase → H+ + HCO 3−+ carbonic anhydrase, carbonic anhydrase is a(n) a. reactant. c. enzyme. b. product. d. active site. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.2 MSC: Analyzing 17. reactions release energy by breaking down complex molecules. a. Catabolic c. Photosynthetic b. Anabolic d. Respiration ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.3 MSC: Remembering 18. A chemical reaction that uses ATP to build cellular components is a. catabolic. c. photosynthetic. b. anabolic. d. respiration. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.3 MSC: Understanding 19. The capture and use of energy by living organisms involves numerous chemical reactions. Collectively these processes are known as a. metabolism. c. anabolic reactions. b. respiration. d. catabolic reactions. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.3 MSC: Remembering 20. Chemical reactions that break down lipids are a. catabolic. c. metabolic. b. anabolic. d. respiration. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.3 MSC: Understanding 21. Some kinds of drain cleaners use enzymes rather than strong, more dangerous chemicals. These enzymes must be able to a. catalyze a catabolic reaction. b. raise the energy of the reaction that clears the clog. c. create energy that can be used to break up the clog. d. catalyze an anabolic reaction. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.3 MSC: Applying 22. Plants and animals use different energy storage molecules, yet they both use the same mechanism to “burn” their stored energy. How can plants and animals both be successful, even though they “burn” different energy storage molecules? a. The internal components of plant and animal cells are identical. b. The second law of thermodynamics says that all cells have the same energy transfer system. c. The breaking of the chemical bonds of a storage molecule transfers energy, no matter what molecule is stored. d. All organisms have the same enzymes to catalyze their energy-producing reactions. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.3 MSC: Analyzing 23. Which of these carries the most energy? a. ADP c. NADH b. ATP d. NAD+ ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Understanding 24. Which of the following is either consumed or synthesized in virtually every cellular reaction? a. sugars c. DNA b. enzymes d. ATP ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Applying 25. When ATP breaks down into ADP and a phosphate group, a. energy is absorbed by ADP and transferred to enzymes. b. energy is released and can power cellular activities. c. ADP becomes the active site in an enzyme. d. the energy in the broken bond is transferred to the phosphate group. ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Understanding 26. As an energy carrier, ATP differs from NADPH in that a. ATP transfers energy through phosphorylation, whereas NADPH donates electrons and hydrogen ions. b. ATP transfers energy through redox reactions, whereas NADPH uses phosphorylation. c. NADPH is involved in a larger variety of chemical reactions than ATP. d. NADPH is made by Photosystem I, whereas ATP is made by Photosystem II. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Remembering 27. Cells contain the molecule GTP (guanosine triphosphate). Would this molecule be useful as an energy carrier (similar to ATP)? a. No, because it does not contain the adenosine necessary for storing energy. b. No, because it contains fewer phosphates than ATP. c. Yes, because it contains a nitrogenous base just like ATP. d. Yes, because it contains the same number of phosphates as does ATP. ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: EnergizedAlgae OBJ: 4.4 MSC: Applying 28. The enzyme rubisco is important to the process of a. catabolism. c. glycolysis. b. fermentation. d. carbon fixation. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: GreenSlime OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Remembering 29. What best summarizes the events of the Calvin cycle? a. The cycle uses ATP and NADPH to produce sugars. b. The cycle moves electrons from Photosystem II to Photosystem I. c. The cycle moves light-energized electrons to Photosystem II. d. The cycle absorbs light from the light reactions. ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: GreenSlime OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Remembering 30. What is the role of water in photosynthesis? a. Water provides a phosphate group to ATP. b. Water captures light energy and transfers it to the electron transport chain. c. Water provides electrons to the chlorophyll. d. Water combines with carbon dioxide (CO2) to make glucose. ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: GreenSlime OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Understanding 31. Which of the following statements describe the function of the light reaction in photosynthesis? a. As electrons move through the light reaction, they release energy that is used to concentrate protons in the thylakoid. b. As electrons move through the light reaction, they catalyze the formation of ATP. c. The light reaction releases CO2 from glucose. d. The light reaction captures and stores the electrons given off by NADPH. ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: GreenSlime OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Understanding 32. In photosynthesis, the carbon used to make sugars is a. provided by enzymes. c. extracted from DNA. b. provided by carbon dioxide. d. oxidized to make sugars. ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: GreenSlime OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Applying 33. The chemical 3-(3,4-dichloro-phenyl)-1,1-dimethylurea (DCMU) blocks the movement of electrons at the point indicated by the black, downward-pointing arrow in the figure below. Which of the following would be an immediate effect of treating a chloroplast with this drug? a. Water molecules would be split at a faster rate than when the drug is not present. b. The amount of NADPH produced by the light reactions would increase. c. A proton gradient would not be created, so ATP could not be made. d. The production of water would increase. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: GreenSlime OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Applying 34. Examine the illustration below. Which statement best summarizes the contribution of Photosystem I (PSI) during photosynthesis? a. PSI provides the initial energy boost to the electrons on their way to Photosystem II (PSII). b. PSI generates the excited electrons that initially accumulate within the thylakoid space and eventually drive ATP synthesis. c. PSI generates the high-energy electrons that are transported by NADPH to the Calvin cycle and will eventually reduce the carbon in CO2. d. PSI regulates the transmembrane passage of protons through the thylakoid membrane. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: GreenSlime OBJ: 4.6 MSC: Applying 35. Each time you take a breath you are bringing in the oxygen you need to stay alive. The ultimate source of the oxygen used by all aerobic organisms comes from a reaction that breaks down a. carbon dioxide. c. water. b. ATP. d. NADPH. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.1 MSC: Applying 36. Which of the following statements comparing photosynthesis and cellular respiration is accurate? a. Photosynthesis is a catabolic pathway whereas cellular respiration is an anabolic pathway. b. Water is formed during photosynthesis but broken apart during cellular respiration. c. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration require electron transport chains. d. Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration produce CO2 as metabolic end products. ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.5 MSC: Understanding 37. A plant cell is mutated so ATP synthase no longer functions. Which process will be affected? a. photosynthesis only b. respiration only c. both photosynthesis and respiration d. neither photosynthesis nor respiration ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.5 MSC: Applying 38. The energy carriers NADPH and NADH differ structurally. Functionally they a. are quite similar; each is produced in catabolic pathways and is used in anabolic pathways. b. are quite similar; each is produced in anabolic pathways and is used in catabolic pathways. c. are somewhat different; NADPH is produced from catabolic processes, whereas NADH is used in anabolic processes. d. are somewhat different; NADH is produced from catabolic processes, whereas NADPH is used in anabolic processes. ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.5 MSC: Analyzing 39. The three stages of cellular respiration (in order) are a. photosynthesis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation. b. glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. c. glycolysis, fermentation, and the Krebs cycle. d. photosynthesis, the Krebs cycle, and fermentation. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.7 MSC: Understanding 40. Glycolysis is an anaerobic process, indicating that the glycolytic reactions a. require no oxygen. c. produce ATP. b. produce molecular oxygen. d. produce citric acid. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.7 MSC: Understanding 41. The Krebs cycle produces a. NADH, ATP, and FADH2. c. ADP and NADP+. b. water and carbon dioxide. d. acetyl CoA and sugars. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.7 MSC: Remembering 42. Which step of cellular respiration occurs outside the mitochondria? a. glycolysis c. Calvin cycle b. Krebs cycle d. electron transport chain ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.7 MSC: Understanding 43. Which of the following molecules carries electrons to the electron transport chain of oxidative phosphorylation? a. ATP c. CO2 b. NADH d. ADP ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.7 MSC: Remembering 44. What would occur if the mitochondria of a cell did not produce an inner membrane? a. The mitochondria would be unable to maintain the proton gradient required for ATP production. b. The mitochondria would be unable to capture ATP from the sun. c. The mitochondria would be unable to perform the Krebs cycle. d. The mitochondria would be unable to perform glycolysis. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.7 MSC: Analyzing 45. During exercise, the increase in respiration rate and heartbeat speed are driven by the need to replenish the oxygen used to support a. lactic acid fermentation. b. carbon dioxide synthesis in the lungs. c. oxidative phosphorylation in muscle cell mitochondria. d. the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: MakingEnergyTheCellCanUse OBJ: 4.7 MSC: Applying Chapter # 6 MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following pairs of processes encompasses the entire cell cycle? a. G1 phase and mitosis c. interphase and metaphase b. G1 phase and G2 phase d. cell division and interphase ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.1 MSC: Remembering 2. A pool of cells is treated with a chemical that halts progress through the cell cycle. In which stage of the cell cycle would most cells be found? a. metaphase c. anaphase b. interphase d. cytokinesis ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.1 MSC: Applying 3. The G0 phase of the cell cycle is distinguished by a. the failure of cells to divide following telophase. b. a doubling of chromosomes. c. an absence of preparation for DNA synthesis. d. the appearance of a metaphase plate. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.1 MSC: Remembering 4. According to the image below, during which phase of the cell cycle is the genetic material duplicated? a. Region 1 c. Region 4 b. Region 3 d. Region 5 ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.1 MSC: Understanding 5. According to the image below, during which phase of the cell cycle does the cell increase in size in preparation for division? a. Region 1 c. Region 3 b. Region 2 d. Region 4 ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.1 MSC: Understanding 6. According to the image below, during which phase of the cell cycle is the genetic material evenly partitioned between daughter cells? a. Region 1 c. Region 5 b. Region 2 d. Region 6 ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.1 MSC: Understanding 7. What are the stages of interphase? a. G0, G1, and G2 c. G0, G1, and S b. S1, S2, and G0 d. S, G1, and G2 ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.1 MSC: Remembering 8. Which of the following statements about cell division is correct? a. It is the process by which organisms grow and maintain their tissues. b. It is no longer necessary once an organism reaches maturity. c. It occurs in two sequential stages in all cells: mitosis and meiosis. d. It is the process by which fertilization occurs. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Remembering 9. The goal of meiosis is to a. create genetically identical offspring. b. protect cells from getting cancer. c. produce eggs and sperm. d. regulate progression through the cell cycle. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Remembering 10. Which of the following choices states a correct reason why the process of cell division is different for prokaryotic than for eukaryotic cells? a. Prokaryotes have a circular DNA molecule. b. Prokaryotic cells do not undergo cell division. c. Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells. d. Prokaryotic DNA contains different bases from those in eukaryotic DNA. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Remembering 11. Which of the following accurately describes the similarities between mitosis, meiosis, and binary fission? a. All three of the processes generate haploid gametes. b. All three of the processes occur in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells. c. All three of the processes are used to produce daughter cells. d. All three of the processes generate clones. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Analyzing 12. A researcher is recording the process of bacteria cell division using time-lapse microscopy. Which of the following processes would she be observing? a. meiosis b. mitosis c. binary fission d. She may be observing either A or B depending on the growth conditions. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Analyzing 13. Which of the following is associated with mitosis? a. independent assortment c. crossing over b. maintenance of chromosome number d. reductional division ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Understanding 14. Some daughter cells are described as clones. For this description to be appropriate, the daughter cells must a. show the same differentiation characteristics as the parent cell. b. separate from one another and experience an independent existence. c. contain a set of DNA that is identical to that of the parent cell. d. have been produced by meiotic cell division. ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Applying 15. Which of the following differentiates meiosis from mitosis? a. Mitosis is used for the repair of cells, whereas meiosis creates cells for sexual reproduction. b. In mitosis four identical daughter cells are produced, whereas two genetically different cells are produced in meiosis. c. Meiosis is a form of asexual division, whereas mitosis is a form of sexual division. d. Mitosis occurs in prokaryotic cells, whereas meiosis occurs in eukaryotic cells. ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Remembering 16. Which of the following is a difference between binary fission and mitosis? a. replication of the genetic material c. cell growth and expansion b. breakdown of the nuclear envelope d. increase in cytoplasmic factors ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Understanding 17. The process shown in the figure could produce a. two identical skin cells. c. two cloned red blood cells. b. two genetically unique sperm cells. d. two identical prokaryotic cells. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Understanding 18. The process of mitosis is thought to have evolved from binary fission. What similarities exist between these processes? a. The DNA being separated is attached to a membrane during both processes. b. Both processes involve the separation of more than one piece of DNA. c. Both processes include DNA segregation. d. Both process occur in bacterial cells. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: DivideandConquer OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Understanding 19. The circle near the center of this structure represents a a. chromatid. c. centriole. b. centromere. d. homologous chromosome. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.3 MSC: Understanding 20. A duplicated chromosome consists of sister chromatid(s). a. 1 c. 4 b. 2 d. 6 ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.3 MSC: Understanding 21. Which of the following is true of the chromosomes in a homologous pair? a. They both came from the organism’s mother. b. They both came from the organism’s father. c. They do not join together during meiosis. d. They carry the same genes. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.3 MSC: Remembering 22. Which of the following best exemplifies homologous chromosomes? a. a pair of sister chromatids attached at the centromere b. unpackaged DNA c. a tetrad d. the mitotic spindle ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.3 MSC: Understanding 23. Homologous chromosomes a. are only found in bacterial cells. b. are only in the cell during S phase. c. consist of a maternal and paternal copy of each chromosome. d. consist of six sister chromatids that are held together at the centrosome. ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.3 MSC: Remembering 24. An actively dividing cell has six chromosomes. How many sister chromatids are present within this cell at the end of G2 phase? a. 0 c. 6 b. 3 d. 12 ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.3 MSC: Applying 25. Chromosomes are lined up at the middle of the cell during the portion of cell division. a. metaphase c. interphase b. anaphase d. telophase ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.4 MSC: Remembering 26. When examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo, you notice a cell that seems to contain two nuclei. The middle of the cell is pinched inward. This cell must be in of mitosis. a. prophase c. metaphase b. telophase d. anaphase ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: TradeSecret OBJ: 5.4 MSC: Applying 27. Which of the following would promote a cell to move through the G2 checkpoint? a. the cell lacks necessary nutrients b. the genetic information has been duplicated c. the cell is too small in size d. a chromosome has been damaged ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: GoodCellsGoneBad OBJ: 5.5 MSC: Remembering 28. Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences a cell’s progression through the cell cycle? a. gametes c. hormones b. cell cycle regulatory molecules d. growth factors ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: GoodCellsGoneBad OBJ: 5.5 MSC: Remembering 29. Cells that demonstrate anchorage independence a. exist in G0. b. are primed to become metastatic. c. closely monitor their progression through the cell cycle. d. are benign tumors that are of little concern. ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: GoodCellsGoneBad OBJ: 5.5 MSC: Understanding 30. Cancers are groups of cells that divide rapidly and uncontrollably. Thus, cancer cells a. are always in the G0 phase. b. never enter the cell cycle. c. have a relatively short G1 phase. d. are stuck at the metaphase plate. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: GoodCellsGoneBad OBJ: 5.5 MSC: Applying 31. Which of the following cell types is produced by meiosis? a. skin cells c. pancreatic cells b. muscle cells d. sperm cells ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: UnequalDivision OBJ: 5.2 MSC: Applying 32. The successful union of one male and one female gamete forms a new single cell known as a a. chromatid. c. zygote. b. spindle. d. gametocyte. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: UnequalDivision OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Remembering 33. Which of the following foods is most likely to contain haploid cells? a. a sirloin steak c. a stalk of celery b. an apple d. an egg ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: UnequalDivision OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Applying 34. If a plant has a total of 18 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would be present in each of its gametes? a. 36 c. 9 b. 18 d. 6 ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: UnequalDivision OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Applying 35. Gametes are produced by meiosis rather than mitosis because a. mitosis would produce too many sister cells. b. meiosis reduces the chromosome number so that zygotes produced will have one full genome. c. meiosis doubles the chromosome number so that each gamete has twice the usual number of genes. d. meiosis ensures that the gametes are identical to the cell that produced them. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: UnequalDivision OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Understanding 36. When appropriately prompted, diploid individuals of Ulva prolifera form spores that germinate to become haploid individuals. How might diploid individuals be created to complete the life cycle? a. Haploid individuals meiotically produce egg and sperm cells, which subsequently fuse. b. Some haploid individuals experience mitosis without cytokinesis followed by nuclear fusion. c. Some individuals differentiate to become haploid gametes and then fuse to produce a diploid zygote. d. Haploid individuals experience two sequential S phases in their cell cycle to reestablish the diploid state. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: UnequalDivision OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Applying 37. All of the following contribute to genetic uniqueness EXCEPT a. binary fission. c. crossing over. b. independent assortment. d. random fertilization. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: ShufflingtheDNA OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Remembering 38. Which two processes work in conjunction to create genetic diversity and maintain chromosome number? a. mitosis and meiosis c. binary fission and mitosis b. meiosis and independent assortment d. fertilization and meiosis ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: ShufflingtheDNA OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Remembering 39. The possible combinations of alleles in gametes due to independent assortment and crossing over. a. increases b. decreases c. stays the same d. increases or decreases depending on the cell type ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: ShufflingtheDNA OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Remembering 40. Which of the following accurately describes crossing over? a. Sister chromatids of maternal chromosome 1 exchange segments of genetic information with one another. b. Maternal chromosome 3 exchanges segments of DNA with paternal chromosome 21. c. Sister chromatids of paternal chromosome 1 exchange segments of genetic information with one another. d. Paternal chromosome 7 exchanges segments of DNA with maternal chromosome 7. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: ShufflingtheDNA OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Understanding 41. In genetic engineering, molecular biologists often combine segments of DNA from two separate organisms. This is an example of genetic recombination that occurs in a laboratory setting. Which of the following is a form of genetic recombination that occurs naturally within cells? a. mitosis c. crossing over b. independent assortment d. asexual reproduction ANS: C DIF: Medium REF: ShufflingtheDNA OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Understanding 42. What is the significance of crossing over? a. Two copies of the same chromosome are allowed to become part of the same gamete. b. The resulting gametes will have different gene combinations than their parent cells’ gene combinations. c. The bivalent chromosomes are able to exchange genetic material with other pairs of chromosomes. d. The gametes that are produced will have twice as many chromosomes as the parent cells had. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: ShufflingtheDNA OBJ: 5.6 MSC: Understanding 43. Which of the following is known to result from the disruption of mitosis and meiosis? a. Alzheimer’s disease c. autism b. prostate cancer d. heart disease ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: TenYearsLater OBJ: 5.5 MSC: Remembering 44. A scientist wishing to generate cancerous cells in vitro could subject the cells to which of the following procedures? a. immerse the cells in water for extended periods of time b. starve the cells of nutrients c. expose cells to chemicals that disrupt mitosis d. overfeed the cells by frequently feeding them ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: TenYearsLater OBJ: 5.5 MSC: Remembering 45. Model organisms (like mice) used in the study of genetic disease a. are selected strictly for ethical reasons. b. cannot be trusted since they are very different from human cells. c. should either be mice or bacteria. d. may accurately reflect how diseases like cancer occur in humans. ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: TenYearsLater OBJ: 5.5 MSC: Understanding Some practice questions: 1. Which of the following is an important difference between the rough endoplasmic reticulum and the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? a) The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of much protein folding and packaging, while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of lipid synthesis. b) The rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with chloroplasts, while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is not. c) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is covered in ribosomes while the rough endoplasmic reticulum is not. d) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the site of protein synthesis, folding, and packaging, while the rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of lipid synthesis. 2. Life gains most of its energy from: a) water. b) sunlight. c) sugar molecules. d) oxygen. e) carbohydrate molecules. 3. The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the Calvin cycle with: a) ATP, NADPH and H+. b) CO2 and ATP. c) free electrons. d) sugar and O2. e) light energy. 4. Which of the following is a polysaccharide? a) glucose, the chief cellular energy source b) cellulose, the primary component of plant cell walls c) insulin, the chief blood sugar regulator d) All of the above are polysaccharides. 5. Phospholipids assemble spontaneously into bilayers driven by the attraction of their “tail” portions to each other and of their “head” portions to each other. The tail regions are: a) hydrophilic. b) cohesive. c) hydrophobic. d) molecularly charged. e) adhesive. 6. DNA is now often used as evidence in criminal trials. It is particularly useful because it can be found in: a) hair. b) saliva. c) blood. d) dead skin cells. e) All of the above are correct. 7. Your cells take in many molecules, including hormones, antibodies, and blood proteins. This process is best described as: a) photosynthesis b) active transport. c) exocytosis. d) endocytosis. e) pinocytosis. 8. The largest structure in a eukaryotic cell is the. a) mitochondrion b) nucleus c) rough endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus e) smooth endoplasmic reticulum 9. Which of the following organelles is responsible for degrading waste within the cell? a) lysosome b) ribosome c) chloroplast d) endoplasmic reticulum e) Golgi apparatus 10. In order for a person’s DNA to be used for his or her identification, which of the following tools/techniques must also be used in the process? a) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) b) gel electrophoresis c) restriction enzymes d) All of the above tools/techniques must be used. 11. Which of the following BEST defines diffusion? a) net movement of particles between cells b) net movement of fluids from the environment into and out of an organism c) net movement of particles from a cell into the extracellular matrix d) net movement of particles from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration e) net movement of particles from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration 12. In any DNA molecule, the number of guanine bases is: a) always equal to the number of thymine bases. b) always equal to the number of cytosine bases. c) equal to the total number of cytosine and adenine bases. d) sometimes equal to the number of thymine bases and sometimes equal to the number of adenine bases. e) always equal to the number of adenine bases. 13. According to the theory of endosymbiosis, the origin of chloroplasts probably involved: a) the formation of cell walls around the photosynthetic pigments. b) the formation of colonies of cyanobacteria. c) the engulfing of small photosynthetic prokaryotes by larger cells. d) the accumulation of free oxygen in ocean waters. e) All of the above are correct. 14. You measure the concentration of a polar molecule inside and outside of a cell. You find that the concentration is high and gradually increasing inside the cell. You also measure the ATP concentration inside the cell and find that it is dropping. What would be your best hypothesis for the process that is occurring? a) facilitated diffusion b) active transport c) passive transport d) simple diffusion 15. When ATP is hydrolyzed (converted) to ADP, what happens? a) Ribose is removed. b) Two phosphates are removed. c) Adenine is removed. d) Three phosphates are removed. e) One phosphate is removed. 16. Which of the following are required to turn sugar (glucose) into ATP molecules? a) photosynthesis, glycolysis, and Kreb’s cycle b) glycolysis, Kreb’s cycle, and electron transport chain c) Calvin cycle, Kreb’s cycle, and glycolysis 17. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is constant; it can , but not. a) be transferred and transformed; created or destroyed b) be produced and generated; moved or relocated c) hustle; flow d) be increased and decreased; eliminated e) hussle; flow 18. Which of the following is NOT a product of photosynthesis? a) glucose b) oxygen c) sugars d) carbon dioxide e) None of the above; all are products of photosynthesis. 19. An inherited disease results from abnormal mitochondria passed from mother to child. Using your knowledge of the function of mitochondria within human cells, which of the following is the most likely description of the symptoms of this disease? a) extreme sensitivity to UV light, resulting in skin cancer at a very young age b) fragile bones and arthritis c) extreme muscle weakness d) color blindness e) inability to absorb iron, resulting in extreme anemia 20. Which of the following is NOT a form of kinetic energy? a) a ball rolling down a hill b) flowing water turning a turbine c) a chameleon tongue catching a bug d) a bond linking phosphate molecules in ATP e) a pitcher throwing a baseball 21. Tomato plants that have pest-resistance genes inserted into the genome can be called: a) cloned organisms. b) genetically engineered organisms. c) transgenic organisms. d) Only b) and c) are correct. e) All of the above are correct. 22. During eukaryotic translation, mRNA carries genetic information from the to the , where amino acids are assembled into proteins. a) nucleolus; smooth endoplasmic reticulum b) nucleus; Golgi apparatus c) cytosol; nucleus d) nucleolus; cytosol e) nucleus; ribosome 23. Which of the following is NOT true of ALL cells? a) They eliminate wastes. b) They assimilate nutrients. c) They move by means of flagella or cilia. d) They have DNA as their genetic material. e) They synthesize new cellular material. 24. Cellular respiration is the process by which: a) energy from the chemical bonds of food molecules is captured by an organism. b) oxygen is produced during metabolic activity. c) light energy is converted into kinetic energy. d) oxygen is used to transport chemical energy throughout the body. e) ATP molecules are converted into water and sugar. 25. Most genes come in alternative forms called: a) chromosomes. b) gametes. c) dominants. d) alleles. e) recessives.

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