Past Nursing and Chinese Medicine MCQs PDF

1. A patient is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which of the following medication is the first-line therapy for relief of an acute asthma attack? A. Cromolyn B. Fluticasone C. Ipratropium D. Salbutamol 2. During a severe acute asthma attack, which of the following procedures is...

1. A patient is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which of the following medication is the first-line therapy for relief of an acute asthma attack? A. Cromolyn B. Fluticasone C. Ipratropium D. Salbutamol 2. During a severe acute asthma attack, which of the following procedures is the first step? A. To protect the airways from inflammatory responses to allergens and to irritant stimuli B. To provide a bronchodilator effect to relieve airway obstruction C. To resolve the inflammatory process in the airways D. All of the above 3. A 52-year-old woman with asthma begins therapy with an antihypertensive drug. Two weeks later, she has marked worsening of dyspnea and clearly wheezing. Which of the following will have caused such adverse effects? A. Aspirin B. Chlorphenamine C. Propranolol D. Terbutaline 4. The mechanism of action of montelukast (Singulair) in the treatment of asthma is A. to inhibit 5-lipoxygenase B. to inhibit adenosine receptors C. to inhibit leukotriene C4 and D4 receptors D. to inhibit muscarinic receptors 5. Vinblastine is a member of which family of chemotherapy drugs? A. Alkylating agents B. Anti-metabolites C. Mitotic inhibitors D. Platinum salt 6. Tamoxifen is used to treat which type of breast cancer? A. ER and HER2 positive B. ER negative C. ER positive D. HER2 positive 7. Which of the following drugs is a calcineurin inhibitor? A. Methotrexate B. Muromonab-CD3 C. Mycophenolate mofetil D. Tacrolimus 1 8. Leucovorin is administered to rescue normal cells from the adverse effects of A. irinotecan B. 6-mercaptopurine C. methotrexate D. paclitaxel 9. Which of the following causes irreversible, dose-dependent cardiotoxicity? A. Cisplatin B. Doxorubicin C. Nitrosourea D. Tamoxifen 10. Which of the following drugs acts mainly in the M phase of the tumor cell cycle? A. Bleomycin B. Cisplatin C. Doxorubicin D. Vinblastine 11. Which of the following helps to reduce the toxicity of doxorubicin? A. Amifostine B. Carboplatin C. Dexrazoxane D. Flucytosine 12. Methotrexate inhibits A. dihydrofolate reductase B. DNA alkylation C. growth factor receptors D. hormone production 13. Muromonab-CD3 blocks the activation of A. calcineurin B. IL-2 receptor C. mTOR D. T-cell receptor complex 14. Chemotherapeutic drugs for cancer follow the principle of first-order kinetics. After one course of treatment, the remaining cancer mass would contain A. a constant number of cancer cells B. a constant number of cancer cells in S phase C. a constant proportion of cancer cells D. a constant proportion of cancer cells in S phase 15. The first-line therapy for treating estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer is A. cisplatin B. doxorubicin 2  C. tamoxifen D. transtuzumab 17. Which of the following has high emetogenic potential? A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. Cisplatin C. Methotrexate D. Tamoxifen 18. Vinca alkaloids exert antitumor activity by A. activating topoisomerase II. B. crosslinking DNA. C. depleting metabolites. D. inhibiting the polymerization of tubulins. 19. Etoposide acts as an inhibitor for A. Dihydrofolate reductase B. Topoisomerase-I C. Topoisomerase-II D. Xanthine oxidase 20. Which drug can cause hemorrhagic cystitis A. Cyclophosphamide B. Etoposide C. Mercaptopurine D. Paclitaxel 21. Due to the structural similarity with endogenous compounds, antimetabolites elicit cytotoxicity in cancer cells by blocking A. DNA relegation B. microtubular dimerization C. mRNA translation D. nucleotide synthesis 22. Cyclophosphamide is a nitrogen mustard alkylating agent and a pro-drug. After being enzymatically metbolized, the active compound reacts with A. the adenine base of DNA B. the cytosine base of DNA C. the guanine base of DNA D. the thymine base of DNA 23. The major toxicity of cisplatin is dose-related A. hemorrhagic cystitis B. hepatotoxicity C. nephrotoxicity D. peripheral neuropathy 3 24. Which of the following is primarily used for the treatment of brain tumors? A. Anthracyclines B. Nitrosoureas C. Taxanes D. Vinca alkaloids 25. Which of the following represents the major limitation to the use of most immunosuppressant drugs? A. Hepatic failure B. Infections C. Kidney failure D. Myelosuppression 26. Which of the following drugs for skin disease is based on its immunosuppressive effect? A. Clindamycin B. Corticosteroids C. Retinoic Acid D. Salicylic acid 27. Cyclosporine inhibits A. CD3 signaling B. cytokine production C. IL-2 receptor D. purine synthesis 28. The initial binding to T-cells by muromonab-CD3 can cause A. cell apoptosis B. cytokine release syndrome C. systemic anaphylaxis D. none of the above 29. Which of the following toxicity is resulted from over-dose of paracetamol? A. Asthmatic attack B. Circulatory shock C. Gastric ulcer D. Liver damage 30. Which one of the following non-steroidal analgesics has limited anti-inflammatory effect? E. aspirin F. celecoxib G. diflunisal H. paracetamol 4 31. What is the major advantage of using paracetamol compared to traditional non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs (tNSAIDs) for the relief of fever? A. Paracetamol has longer duration of action B. Paracetamol produces greater anti-inflammatory effects C. Paracetamol reduces the risk for gastrointestinal discomfort D. tNSAIDs causes cardiovascular thrombotic events 32. What is the major advantage of using selective cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitors compared to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in the treatment of inflammation? A. COX-2 inhibitors reduce cardiovascular thrombotic events B. COX-2 inhibitors reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects C. COX-2 inhibitors reduce the increase in body temperature D. COX-2 inhibitors reduce the risk for renal insufficiency 33. Which one of the following non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs should not be given to children with fever due to viral infection? A. Aspirin B. Celecoxib C. Ibuprofen D. Naproxen 34. Aspirin increases the risk of acute asthma attack because it A. blocks β2-adrenergic receptors B. increase production of leukotrienes C. irreversibly inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane A2 D. prevents the induction of cyclooxygenases 35. Which one of the following adverse effects is associated with the use of selective cyclooxygeanse-2 inhibitors? A. Gastric ulcer B. Hyperglycemia C. Liver damage D. Thrombosis 36. Which of the following analgesic agent works primarily by inhibiting cyclo-oxygenase enzyme? A. Aspirin B. Fentanyl C. Ketamine D. Tramadol 37. Which one of the following adverse effects is associated with the chronic administration of aspirin? A. circulatory shock B. gastric ulcer C. hyperlipidemia D. thrombosis 5 38. Which one of the following adverse effects is associated with chronic oral administration of anti-inflammatory steroids? A. bronchospasm B. heart failure C. osteoporosis D. renal insufficiency 39. Which one of the following corticosteroids is used orally for chronic treatment of inflammation? A. Betamethasone B. Dexamethasone C. Fludrocortisone D. Hydrocortisone 40. Dexamethasone is not recommended for chronic oral anti-inflammatory therapy because it A. causes salicylate intoxication at high dosage B. has a very short duration of action and so needs to be taken very frequently C. needs to be metabolized in the liver before it is active D. produces systemic adverse effects which are long-lasting 41. Which of the following is the adverse effect of hydrocortisone? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypotension C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sleeplessness 42. Which one of the following complications is the result of sudden withdrawal of glucocorticoids after chronic therapy? A. flushing B. hypoglycemia C. osteoporosis D. renal insufficiency 43. The main pharmacological action of cocaine is to: A. Act as a direct agonist at dopaminergic D2 receptors B. Act as a direct agonist at serotoninergic 5-HT2 receptors C. Block the reuptake of dopamine D. Inhibit monoamine oxidase (MAO) 44. Which of the following is a main excitatory amino acid neurotransmitter? A. Gamma-aminobutryic acid (GABA) B. Glutamate C. Progesterone D. Serotonin 6 45. What is the mode of action for serotonin antagonist-reuptake inhibitor in treating depression? A. It blocks the binding of serotonin to the serotonin-1A receptor on the post-synapse. B. It blocks the secrotonin reuptake transporter in the pre-synaptic neurons and serotonin-2A receptors in the post-synapse while activating serotonin-1A receptor. C. It enhances the half-life of serotonin. D. It prevents the reuptake of serotonin by the serotonin transporter in the presynaptic neurons thus maintains a high level of serotonin in the synapse. 46. Anyone taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors should stick to a low-tyramine diet. Which of the following food contains high content of tyramine? A. Cheese B. Coconut C. Fresh meat D. Rice 47. Which of the following is suitable for treating depression? A. Neuraminidase inhibitor B. Potassium channel openers C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor D. Virus entry inhibitor 48. Antidepressants such as fluoxetine increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in: A. Children, adolescents and young adults B. Elderly (above 65 years old) C. Female D. Male 49. What is the mode of action for melatonin receptor agonists for treating depression? A. It acts on melatonin receptor and serotonin receptor. It increases concentrations of dopamine and norepinephrine in the brain B. It degrades melatonin C. It enhances the half-life of melatonin D. It promotes the synthesis and release of melatonin 50. Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for treating depression? A. Agomelatine B. Dopamine C. Fluoxetine D. Phenytoin 51. Antidepressants such as fluoxetine increase the risk of suicidal thinking and behavior in: A. Children, adolescents and young adults B. Elderly (above 65 years old) C. Female D. Male 7 52. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are used to treat depression by A. increasing the level of norepinephrine only. B. increasing the level of serotonin only. C. increasing the levels of serotonin and norepinephrine. D. increasing the levels of serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine. 53. What is the mode of action for α2 adrenoceptor antagonist in treating depression? A. It blocks α2 presynaptic autoreceptor and enhances noradrenalin release B. It blocks the binding of serotonin to the serotonin-1A receptor on the post-synapse C. It blocks the noradrenaline reuptake transporter in the pre-synaptic neurons D. It prevents noradrenalin degradation 54. What is the hypothesis for the cause of psychosis? A. Dopamine hypothesis B. Lithium hypothesis C. Monoamine hypothesis D. Neurotrophic hypothesis 55. Typical antipsychotics have high affinity for: A. 5-HT2 receptors B. Cannabinoid receptors C. Dopamine D2 receptors D. Muscarinic receptors 56. The atypical antipsychotics aripiprazole have strong affinity towards the: A. 5HT2 receptor B. α2 adrenergic receptor C. Dopamine D5 receptor D. Muscarinic receptor 57. Epileptic seizures are caused by: A. Excessive electric discharges in the brain B. Excessive neuron growth C. Low levels of glucose in the brain D. Low levels of tyramine in the brain 58. A partial seizure means: A. It affects both side of the body. B. It affects both side of the brain. C. It only affects one side of the body. D. It only affects one side of the brain. 59. What is the mode of action for glutamate blocker Topiramate in treating epilepsy? A. It inhibits depolarization of the glutaminergic presynaptic membrane, thus inhibiting glutamate release B. It inhibits the AMPA and kainate subtype glutamate receptor and inhibits sodium conductance 8  C. It prevents sodium influx through sodium channels; inhibit calcium influx through channels, thus prevents voltage-dependent neurotransmission at the synapse. D. It reduces glutamate activity 60. Which of the following drugs controls epilepsy seizures? A. Ethosuximide B. Harvoni C. Paracetamol D. Tenofovir 61. Which of the following is an antiepileptic drug that blocks sodium channels? A. Amlodipine B. Glutamate C. Oseltamivir D. Phenytoin 62. What is the mode of action for sodium channel blocker phenytoin in treating epilepsy? A. It blocks sodium channels during rapid, repetitive, sustained neuronal firing. B. It inhibits depolarization of the glutaminergic presynaptic membrane, thus inhibiting glutamate release. C. It prevents sodium influx through sodium channels; inhibits calcium influx through channels, thus prevents voltage-dependent neurotransmission at the synapse. D. It reduces glutamate activity. 63. Which of the following is a neuronal potassium channel opener for the treatment of epilepsy? A. Fluoxetine B. Indinavir C. Levetriacetam D. Retigabine 64. Stimulation therapy is considered for those with drug-resistant epilepsy. The stimulator is connected to the: A. Brainstem B. Hypothalamus C. Trigeminal Nerve D. Vagus nerve 65. Benzodiazepines produce all of the following effects EXCEPT: A. Analgesic B. Anticonvulsant effect C. Anxiolytic action D. Sedation 66. Which one of the following best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines? A. They act as GABA receptor agonist in the CNS. 9  B. They block glutamate receptors in the CNS. C. They facilitate GABA-mediated increases in chloride ion conductance. D. They inhibit GABA transaminase leading to increased levels of GABA. 67. Benzodiazepines produce all of the following effects EXCEPT: A. Analgesic B. Anticonvulsant effect C. Anxiolytic action D. Sedation 68. A 21-year-old female college student complains of difficulty falling asleep at night. She asks if there is anything “mild” she can take to help her get to sleep. Which of the following hypnotics mimics an endogenous hormone to induce sleep? A. Diazepam B. Phenobarbital C. Ramelteon D. Zolpidem 69. Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines? A. Benzodiazepines activate GABAB-receptors in the spinal cord. B. Benzodiazepines block excitatory glutamate AMPA receptors in the brain. C. Benzodiazepines facilitate GABA-mediated increase via GABAA receptors in frequency of Cl- ion channel opening. D. Benzodiazepines inhibit GABA transaminase leading to increased levels of GABA in the brain. 70. Which of the following drugs stimulates melatonin receptors A. Alprazolam B. Chloral hydrate C. Hydroxyzine D. Ramelteon 71. A 71-year-old man with gradual impairment in short-term memory and speech is thought to have Alzheimer’s disease. His doctor begins him on rivastigmine. What is the mechanism of action? A. Acetylchinesterase inhibitor B. Increase dopamine release C. NMDA receptor antagonist D. Stimulation of acetylcholine release 72. Which of the following is a noncompetitive NMDA receptor antagonist that can be used to treat Alzheimer disease? A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Donepezil 10  D. Memantine 73. The blockade of dopamine D2 receptors in the nigrostriatal dopaminergic tracts increases the chance of: A. Addiction B. Extrapyramidal symptoms C. Galactorrhea D. Hallucinations 74. A 78-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease is currently being treated with carbidopa/levodopa, but his Parkinson’s symptoms are worsening. Selegiline is added to his regimen. How does selegiline help in Parkinson’s disease? A. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase B. Inhibition of COMT C. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase D. Inhibition of MAO-B 75. A 64-year-old man presents with a shuffling gait, cogwheel rigidity, and a resting tremor. His doctor prescribes levodopa and his symptoms greatly improve, supporting a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease. How does levodopa help this patient’s symptom? A. Increase dopamine production B. Inhibit acetylcholinesterase C. Selectively inhibits MAO-B D. Stimulate acetylcholine receptors 76. and very painful. You could clear up these symptoms within a few days if you told him to stop taking B. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine C. Chlorphenamine D. Donepezil 77. Which one of the following reasons that dopamine itself is not used to treat in Parkinson’s disease? A. Dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier B. Dopamine is rapidly breakdown C. Levodopa has a higher affinity for the D2 receptor D. The problem is cholinergic in nature 78. Mr. Simon Wong aged 68 with Parkinson’s disease visit his doctor for a follow-up. Over the past 6 months, his tremor has worsened and his gait has become more unstable. His symptoms are progressively worsening, and he wants a medication that could stabilize his condition. He is already taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following medications is a suitable MAO inhibitor to add to his regimen? A. Amantadine B. Bromocriptine 11  C. Selegiline D. Zolpidem 79. Which of the following muscle relaxant is more suitable for patients with liver dysfunction? A. Atracurium B. Pancuronium C. Rocuronium D. Vecuronium 80. An example of a peripherally acting spasmolytic is A. Baclofen B. Botulinum Toxin C. Dantrolene D. Diazepam 81. Which of the following agents undergo organ independent elimination? A. Cis-atracurium B. Pancuronium C. Rocuronium D. Vecuronium 82. Which of the following is a cholinesterase inhibitor used in the diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis (a muscle weakness disease)? A. Atropine B. Carbachol C. Edrophonium D. Propanolol 83. Which of the following statement of Cisatracurium is NOT true? A. It increases histamine release. B. It is a 1R-cis 10R-cis isomer of atracurium. C. It is more potent than atracurium. D. It mainly undergoes (organ independent) Hoffman degradation. 84. Sugammadex directly reverses the neuromuscular blocking effects of which of the following neuromuscular blocking agents? A. Atracurium B. Cis-atracurium C. Rocuronium D. Succinylcholine 85. The intensive care doctor is in need of a neuromuscular blocker to paralyse a patient who is in need to be place on a ventilator to assist with his breathing. Which of the following agents is not an appropriate choice for this indication? A. Atracurium 12  B. Cis-atracurium C. Rocuronium D. Succinylcholine 86. Which of the following statement is NOT true regarding the addition of a vasoconstrictor to local anesthetic? A. Adrenaline is commonly used a vasoconstrictor to local anesthetic (LA) B. LA nerves system toxicity may present as either excitatory or depressant C. The addition of adrenaline to a LA solution at the concentration of 1:200,000 indicates 1 µg/ml D. The addition of a vasoconstrictor to LA can reduce surgical bleeding 87. A man with a body weight of 50 kg will need infiltration LA for a limb surgery. The available local anesthetic is: 0.5 % Lignocaine solution. Question: What is the largest possible volume (dose limit) of that can be used for this patient? A. 20 ml B. 30 ml C. 40 ml D. 45 ml 88. Which of the following inhalational anesthetics is most suitable for anesthesia induction in kids? A. Desflurance B. Isoflurane C. Nitrous oxide D. Sevoflurance 89. For anesthetic induction in senior patients with cardiac functional impairment, which drug will be the first of choice? A. Desflurane B. Etomidate C. Isoflurane D. Propofol 90. When adding a vasoconstrictor (e.g. adrenaline) to a local anesthetic, which of following about the description of “the addition of Adrenaline to a LA solution at the concentration of 1:200,000 “ is NOT correct? A. It equals to 1000 mg in 200,000 ml B. It equals 1000 µg in 200 ml C. It means 1 gm (vasoconstrictor) in 200,000 ml D. The final concentration is marked as 1 µg/ml 91. Which of the following describes the major difference/advantage between soveflurane and isoflurane when you decide to choose one of the drugs anesthesia induction (e.g., for children)? A. The drugs’ effects on heart rate, blood pressure B. The drugs’ effects on respiratory rate 13  C. The drugs’ effects on respiratory volume D. Whether or not the drug has respiratory irritant effect 92. The pharmacological action of which of the following anaesthetic agent does not necessarily involve in the loss of consciousness? A. Etomidate B. Ketamine C. Propofol D. Sodium Thiopental 93. Which of the following opioid agents require reconstitution before using it as an infusion in the operative setting? A. Fentanyl B. Morphine C. Pethidine D. Remifentanil 94. Which of the following general anesthetic is water soluble and allows painless injection? A. Desflurance B. Midazolam (Benzodiazepam) C. Propofol D. Sevoflurane 95. Which of the following general anesthetic has less cardiovascular depression? A. Etomidate B. Midazolam C. Propofol D. Sodium Thiopental 96. Lipid emulsion therapy is effective in treating toxicity from which of the following drug? A. Bupivacaine B. Ketamine C. Morphine D. Sevoflurane 97. Which of the following agents have pharmacological properties best suited for total intravenous anaesthesia? A. Etimodate B. Ketamine C. Propofol D. Thiopental 98. Which of the following local anaesthetic preparation is most appropriate to be used for pain relief prior to insertion of an intravenous cannula? A. Bupivacaine B. Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic 14  C. Ropivacaine D. Tetracaine 99. Which of the following drugs is an example of an intravenous anaesthetic drug? A. Etomidate B. Midazolam C. Rocuronium D. Tramadol 100. Nausea and vomiting are side effects that are most commonly associated with which of the follow drug? A. Diclofenac B. Ketamine C. Morphine D. Paracetamol 101. Which of the following drug has a consistent half life that is independent of the dose or duration of use? A. Fentanyl B. Morphine C. Pethidine D. Remifentanil 102. Which of the following characteristics can differentiate chronic pain from acute pain? A. Pain that may be present in the absence of any ongoing injury B. Pain that occurs more commonly in females C. Pain that occurs more commonly in the extremities D. Pain that responds only to opioid analgesia 103. Which of the following opioid is best avoid in patients who indicate that they are on antidepressants? A. Fentanyl B. Morphine C. Pethidine D. Remifentanil 104. Which of the statement about local anesthetic (LA) systemic toxicity is INCORRECT? A. Direct Low dose lidocaine intravenous injection can cause cardiac arrhythmia B. It can cause cardiovascular system toxicity C. It can cause central nervous system toxicity D. It is because of LA absorbed into systemic circulation 105. Which of the following statement about local anesthetic (LA) systemic toxicity is NOT true? A. LA may cause cardiovascular depression. B. LA mediates either excitatory and depressive central nervous system toxicity. C. LA systemic toxicity symptoms can be specifically reversed by Dantrolene. 15  D. Most adverse effects of LA are dose dependent. 106. Which of the following disease can be treated with topical salicylic acid? A. Acne B. Corn C. Eczema D. Psoriasis 107. Which of the following therapies for acne is contraindicated for pregnant women? A. Benzoyl peroxide B. Camphor and menthol C. Clindamycin D. Retinoids 108. Which of the following non-drug therapies is good for treating eczema? A. Avoid oily or spicy food B. Menthol cream to relieve itchiness C. Moisturizer to relieve dryness D. Shower frequently to keep clean 109. Which of the following therapies for acne is contraindicated for pregnant women? A. Benzoyl peroxide B. Camphor and menthol C. Clindamycin D. Retinoids 110. What is the pharmacological mechanism of clomiphene for treating infertility? A. As an antagonist block the effect of testosterone B. As an estrogen mimetic to stimulate ovulation C. As a partial estrogen agonist to inhibit negative feedback of estrogen on ovulation D. As a partial progesterone agonist to inhibit negative feedback of estrogen on ovulation 111. Which of the following regarding the mini-pill is correct? A. It is an oral contraceptive that contains both estrogen and progestine but in very small amount. B. It is an oral contraceptive that contains estrogen only. C. It is an oral contraceptive that contains progestin only. D. It is an oral contraceptive that produce irreversible infertility. 112. For the treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women which of the following drug is appropriate? A. Clomiphene B. Raloxifene C. Tamoxifen D. Testosterone 16 113. What is the pharmacological mechanism of Clomiphene for treating infertility? A. As a partial estrogen agonist to inhibit negative feedback of estrogen on ovulation B. As a partial progesterone agonist to inhibit negative feedback of estrogen on ovulation C. As an estrogen mimetic to stimulate ovulation D. As an progesterone mimetic to stimulate ovulation 114. Which of the following hormones is used as a drug to induce labor? A. Estrogen B. Oxybutynin C. Oxytocin D. Progesterone 115. One of the followings regarding oxytocin is CORRECT: A. Oxytocin is used to assists labor. B. Oxytocin may increase the chance of bleeding of the uterus. C. Oxytocin reduces contraction of the uterus. D. The uterus is sensitive to oxytocin throughout pregnancy. 116. Which of the following selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) is used for treating osteoporosis? A. Estrogen B. Progestin C. Raloxifene D. Tamoxifen 117. What does the contraceptive, “Mini-pill” contain? A. Adapalene B. Estrogen C. Phytosterol D. Progestin 118. To reduce the recurrence of breast cancer which of the following drug is appropriate? A. Clomiphene B. Estrogen C. Oxytocin D. Tamoxifen 119. Antihistamines are ineffective in treating A. allergic symptoms B. bronchial asthma C. insomnia D. motion sickness 120. Antihistamines are ineffective in the treatment of A. asthma B. cough 17  C. hay fever D. insomnia 121. Which of the following is a first generation antihistamine? A. Acrivastine B. Cyclizine C. Fexofenadine D. Loratadine 122. Compared to the first generation antihistamines, second generation antihistamines A. are more lipophilic B. are specific for H2 receptors C. have shorter duration D. show poor penetration into the CNS system 123. Which one of the following statements for the treatment of nasal allergy is correct? A. Antihistamines block the synthesis of mediators of allergic responses B. Cromolyn sodium blocks the effects of histamine which is a major mediator released in allergy C. Oral corticosteroids are effective with little systemic side effect D. Phenylephdrine should be used with caution in patients with prostate problem 124. In nasal allergy, chemical mediators are released in the presence of allergens. One of the following statements for the treatment of nasal allergy is CORRECT: A. Antihistamines block the effect of histamine which is a major mediator released in allergy. B. Cromolyn sodium blocks the synthesis of mediators. C. Oral corticosteroid is effective with little systemic side effect. D. Phenylephrine reduces release of mediators. 125. Mr. Chan suffers from seasonal rhinitis with a runny nose. He is taking a medication before going to bed. His doctor tells Mr. Chan that he should not drive his car after taking this medication. Which of the following medications he is most likely taking? A. Chlorpheniramine (a first generation antihistamine) B. Cromolyn sodium (a mast cell stabilizer) C. Fexofenadine (a second generation antihistamine) D. Phenylephrine (alpha receptor agonist) 126. Mrs. Wong has seasonal rhinitis. Her pharmacist told her that the medication works best by taking it before exposure to the allergen and it will become less effective if her seasonal rhinitis symptoms has already commenced. Which of the following medication she is most likely taking? A. Chlorpheniramine (a first generation antihistamine) B. Cromolyn sodium (a mast cell stabilizer) C. Fexofenadine (a second generation antihistamine) D. Phenylephrine (alpha receptor agonist) 18 127. Nasal allergy is caused by the release of chemical mediators and the inflammatory process in the presence of allergens. One of the following statements for the treatment of nasal allergy is CORRECT: A. Antihistamines block the effect of histamine which is a major mediator released in allergy. B. Cromolyn sodium blocks the synthesis of mediators. C. Oral corticosteroid is effective with little system side effect. D. Phenylephrine reduces release of mediators. 128. Which of the following can be used as a decongestant? A. Amphetamine B. Cocaine C. Phenylephrine D. Propranolol 129. What is the medical use of chlorhexidine solution? A. Anti-allergic agent B. Antiseptic mouthwash C. Nasal decongestant D. Reducing the dryness of eye 130. Which one of the following ear problems is treated with olive oil? A. Allergy B. Bacterial infection C. Ear pain D. Ear wax 131. Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of glaucoma? A. α receptor agonist B. α receptor blocker C. β receptor agonist D. β receptor blocker 132. What is the effect of muscarinic receptor blocker on eyes? A. It decreases ocular pressure. B. It dilates blood vessels. C. It dilates pupil. D. It increases tear production. 133. The following group of medications are suitable for the treatment of glaucoma EXCEPT A. α (alpha) receptor blockers B. β (beta) receptor blockers C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors D. Prostaglandin analogs 19 20