5 PREGUNTAS QATAR.pdf

RADIO NAVEGACION 1. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately: A 7 NM B 11 NM C 8 NM D 6 NM * 2. A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the s...

RADIO NAVEGACION 1. A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately: A 7 NM B 11 NM C 8 NM D 6 NM * 2. A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the: A VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch B DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once * C DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation D DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times 3. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates "TO". CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft? A 095 B 275 * C 085 D 265 4. The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be: A centred * B left of centre C right of centre D centred with the 'fail' flag showing 5. What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes? A 760 B 4096 * C 3600 D 1000 6. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? A 950 FT/MIN B 600 FT/MIN * C 550 FT/MIN D 800 FT/MIN 7. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM? A 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline B 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline * C 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline D 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline 8. What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix? A3 B5 C6 D4* 9. What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation? A4 B5 C2 D3* 10. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate: A increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN B decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN C increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN D decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN * 11. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: A entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required * B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight C an emergency D transponder malfunction 12. Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required? A 7000 B 0000 C 2000 * D 5000 13. The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: A radio communication failure B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight * C an emergency D transponder malfunction 14. The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains : A two modes, each of 4096 codes * B four modes, each 1024 codes C four modes, each 4096 codes D two modes, each 1024 codes 15. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? A A DME station sited on the flight route * B An ADF sited on the flight route C A VOR station sited on the flight route D A DME station sited across the flight route 16. When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is: A altitude based on regional QNH B aircraft height based on sub-scale setting C height based on QFE D flight level based on 1013.25 hPa * 17. Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? A A DME station sited on the flight route * B An ADF sited on the flight route C A VOR station sited on the flight route D A DME station sited across the flight route 18. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level that is accurate to within: A + or - 25 FT B + or - 50 FT * C + or - 75 FT D + or - 100 FT 19. Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate: A increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN B decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN C increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN D decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN * METEO 20. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation? A Solid direct to liquid B Liquid direct to solid C Liquid direct to vapour D Solid direct to vapour * 21. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it? A It decreases with increasing water vapour. B It is only influenced by temperature. C It increases with increasing water vapour. * D It is not influenced by changing water vapour. 22. Relative humidity A does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant. B changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant. * C is not affected when air is ascending or descending. D is not affected by temperature changes of the air. 23. What does dewpoint mean? A The freezing level (danger of icing). B The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same. C The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation. * D The temperature at which ice melts. 24. Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ? A Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100 B Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100 C Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100 * D Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100 25. Relative humidity A increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant * B is higher in warm air than in cool air C is higher in cool air than in warm air D decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant 26. During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ? A It is not possible to give a definitive answer B It will decrease * C It will increase D It will remain the same 27. You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ? A ISA -20°C * B ISA +/-0°C C ISA +20°C D ISA +12°C 28. The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is : A -273°C B -44.7°C C -100°C D -56.5°C * 29. Fallstreaks or virga are A strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation B water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground * C strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks D gusts associated with a well developed Bora 30. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the A development of thermal lows B presence of valley winds C presence of mountain waves * D risk of orographic thunderstorms 31. The QNH is equal to the QFE if A the elevation = 0 * B T actual = T standard C T actual > T standard D T actual < T standard 32. If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be? A FL 150 B FL 90 C FL 110 * D FL 130 33. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to A magnetic north B the 0-meridian C grid north D true north * 34. If CAVOK is reported then A low level windshear has not been reported B any CB's have a base above 5000 FT C no low drifting snow is present * D no clouds are present 35. What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called? A Tropopause. * B Ionosphere. C Stratosphere. D Atmosphere 36. Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause? A It is, by definition, an isothermal layer B It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate C It is, by definition, a temperature inversion D It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere * 37. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ? A Through water vapour released during fuel combustion * B Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air C Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases D In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases 38. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions? A SC, NS. B CI, SC. C CU, CB. * D ST, CS. 39. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere A has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT B varies with time * C has a fixed value of 1°C/100m D has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m 40. Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway? A HZ B +FZRA * C MIFG D FG 41. How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid? A 1 hour. B 30 minutes. C 2 hours. * D 9 hours 42. In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ? A 60 minutes. * B 120 minutes. C 10 minutes. D 20 minutes 43. Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean? A Vertical visibility 100 m. B Vertical visibility 100 FT. * C RVR less than 100 m. D RVR greater than 100 m. 44. Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC? A 500 m. * B 2000 m. C Between 500 m and 2000 m. D Between 0 m and 1000 m. 45. Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean? A 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m. B 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m. C 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT. * D 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT 46. What does the term SIGMET signify? A A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report B A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals C A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions * D A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily 47. In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ? A Marked mountain waves. * B Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome. C Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome. D A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR 48. Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ? A SIGMET. * B ATIS. C SPECI. D TAF. 49. Refer to TAF below. EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be : A more than 10 km B not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km. * C a maximum 5 km. D a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km. 50. What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean? A 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered * B 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered C 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered D Nil significant cloud cover 51. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts? A Anvil stage B Dissipating stage * C Cumulus stage D Mature stage 52. How long does a typical microburst last? A 1 to 2 hours. B About 30 minutes. C 1 to 5 minutes. * D Less than 1 minute. 53. What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ? A 20 km B 50 km C 4 km * D 400 m 54. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of A 8 km and 5-15 minutes B 12 km and 5-10 minutes C 4 km and 1-5 minutes * D 4 km and 30-40 minutes 55. Altostratus clouds are classified as A high level clouds B convective clouds C medium level clouds * D low level clouds 56. How does freezing rain develop? A Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C * B Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes C Through melting of sleet grains D Through melting of ice crystals 57. Freezing rain occurs when A snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air B rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C * C ice pellets melt D water vapour first turns into water droplets 58. Supercooled droplets are always A at a temperature below -60°C B at a temperature below freezing * C small and at a temperature below freezing D large and at a temperature below freezing 59. Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ? A 10 or more km B 8 km * C 8 NM D 10 NM 60. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate : A 1375 FT. * B 1200 FT. C 1105 FT. D 1280 FT. 61. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ? A ST B SC C AS * D CS 62. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is A 120 metres B 160 metres * C 600 metres D 540 metres 63. What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest? A Warm occlusion. B Cold front. * C Warm front. D Cold occlusion 64. The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6° C? A FL 80 * B FL 20 C FL 100 D FL 110 65. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ? A At sea level when the temperature is 0°C. B When the altimeter has no position error. C When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. D At standard temperature * 66. Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass? A It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass * B It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass C It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity D It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown 67. Dew point is defined as A the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat B the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure * C the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure D the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity 68. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between A water vapour weight and humid air volume B dew point and air temperature C actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content * D water vapour weight and dry air weight 69. A microburst A occurs only in tropical areas B has a diameter up to 4 km * C has a life time of more than 30 minutes D is always associated with thunderstorms 70. Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: A 6 km. * B 6 NM. C 4 km. D 10 km. 71. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the A development of thermal lows B presence of valley winds C presence of mountain waves * D risk of orographic thunderstorms 72. What is a trend forecast? A An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours B A route forecast valid for 24 hours C A routine report D A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours * 73. A super-cooled droplet is A a water droplet that is mainly frozen B a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C C a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent D a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing * 74. A super-cooled droplet is one that A is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air B remains liquid at a below freezing temperature * C has frozen to become an ice pellet D has a shell of ice with water inside it 75. The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? A +3°C B 0°C C -3°C D +7°C * 76. Vertical wind shear is A vertical variation in the horizontal wind * B vertical variation in the vertical wind C horizontal variation in the horizontal wind D horizontal variation in the vertical wind 77. Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ? A 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt * B 140° / 10 kt C 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt D 250° / 20 kt 78. What type of cloud can produce hail showers? A CS B AC C CB * D NS PRINCIPIOS DE VUELO 79. Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected? A Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG. B Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways. * C Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed. D Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground. 80. When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes: A CLmax of the polar curve is not affected. B they do not affect wheel braking action during landing. C at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected. D at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased. * 81. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature ? A increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force B increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases C decreases, because the engine thrust decreases. * D decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density 82. The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is: A 500 kts * B 320 kts C 480 kts D 600 kts 83. The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on: A TAS. * B weight. C load factor. D wind. 84. The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant) A spoilers are selected from OUT to IN. B pulling up from a dive. * C weight decreases. D minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft. 85. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ? A Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. B Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag. * C Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED. D Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation. 86. At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): A increases * B decreases C remains the same D decreases until the tropopause 87. The stall speed : A does not depend on weight B increases with the length of the wingspan C increases with an increased weight * D decreases with an increased weight 88. The following factors increase stall speed : A a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting. B an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust. * C a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c.g. shift. D increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extensión 89. A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to: A increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged. B increase thrust and angle of attack. * C increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged. D increase thrust and decrease angle of attack 90. The centre of gravity moving aft will: A increase the elevator up effectiveness. * B decrease the elevator up effectiveness. C not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness. D increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location 91. Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which: A shockstall occurs. B the critical angle of attack is reached. C somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally. * D Mach buffet occurs 92. When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of : A Increased longitudinal stability B Lower stalling speed C Higher critical Mach number * D Greater strength 93. What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence : A winglets B swept wings * C straight wings D wing dihedral 94. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the stall : A wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment B tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment C leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nosedown moment D tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment * 95. Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur : A when a higher than normal angle of attack is used B at a speed approaching the stall C when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface * D when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface 96. What will happen in ground effect ? A a significant increase in thrust required B the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases * C the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases D an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices 97. If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect A the lift is increased and the drag is decreased. * B the effective angle of attack is decreased. C the induced angle of attack is increased. D drag and lift are reduced. 98. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance : A decreases. B does not change. C increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended. D increases. * 99. The centre of gravity moving aft will: A increase the elevator up effectiveness. * B decrease the elevator up effectiveness. C not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness. D increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location. 100. Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? A Pitching and adverse yaw. B Rolling and yawing. * C Pitching and yawing. D Pitching and rolling. 101. Rotation about the lateral axis is called : A yawing. B slipping. C pitching. * D rolling. PROCEDIMIENTOS OPERACIONALES 102. The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is : A 3 hours B 24 hours * C 12 hours D 6 hours 103. Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when penetrating a windshear ? A Pitch angle. B Vertical speed. C Groundspeed. D Indicated airspeed. * 104. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened: A from take off to landing. B while at their station. * C only during take off and landing. D only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. 105. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ? A 3.7 km (2 NM) B 7.4 km (4 NM) * C 9.3 km (5 NM) D 11.1 km (6 NM) 106. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft. What is the initial action by the operating crew ? A transmit a MAYDAY message B place the seat belts sign to ON C to put on oxygen masks * D disconnect the autopilot 107. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : A 75 m * B 150 m C 250 m D 200 m 108. A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is : A unreliable B medium C good D poor * 109. A category I precision approach (CAT I) has : A a decision height equal to at least 100 ft. B a decision height equal to at least 50 ft. C no decision height. D a decision height equal to at least 200 ft. * 110. A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have : A increased Mach number stability B reduced range * C increased manoeuvring limits D increased flight envelope 111. According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twinengined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must be planned in such a way that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within : A 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. B 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. C 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. * D 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. 112. When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be : A 1 MIN B 2 MIN C 4 MIN D 3 MIN * 113. The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is: A 1 minute. B 5 minutes. C 12 seconds. * D 30 seconds 114. The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels: A 280 and 400. B 280 and 390. C 275 and 400. D 285 and 420. * 115. In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of : A 4 NM B 3 NM C 2 NM D 5 NM * 116. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ? A 3 minutes * B 4 minutes C 5 minutes D 2 minutes 117. When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is : A 600 m (2000 ft) B 300 m (1000 ft) * C 450 m (1500 ft) D 150 m (500 ft) 118. A class B fire is a fire of: A electrical source fire B special fire: metal, gas, chemical product C liquid or liquefiable solid * D solid material usually of organic nature 119. One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it : A occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane B can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane C can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes * D occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane 120. According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching : A 1 500 ft B 3 000 ft C 1 000 ft * D 500 ft 121. To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: A useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions. B possible and recommended. C useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen. * D useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions. 122. During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure: A the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot. * B the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot. C the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold. D the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot 123. A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : A 200 m * B 100 m C 250 m D 50 m 124. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ? A 4 minutes B 5 minutess C 2 minutes D 3 minutes * 125. A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with : A a decision height of at least 100 ft * B a decision height of at least 200 ft C a decision height of at least 50 ft D no decision height 126. At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region? A Below FL290. B Between FL290 and FL410. * C Between FL275 and FL400. D Between FL245 and FL410 127. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least : A 500 m B 550 m * C 350 m D 800 m 128. According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to: A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft B MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft * C MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760m D LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway 129. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied : A to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less 760 m * B to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold C to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross D Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off 130. According to the recommended "noise abatement takeoff and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches : A 3 000 ft B 2 000 ft C 1 000 ft D 1 500 ft * 131. Wind shear is: A a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance B a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance * C a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance D a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance 132. According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence nonradar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to: A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft * B LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway) C LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway D MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft 133. When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate : A a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure B a rate of climb * C a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm D zero 134. The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on : A The aircraft front areas. * B The upper and lower wingsurfaces. C The upper and lower rudder surfaces. D Only the pitot and static probes. 135. For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ? A 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes B 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes * C 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes D 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes 136. In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: A surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance. B it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm. C it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm. D its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance. * 137 In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations: A you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization. B you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach. C you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration. * D you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety Altitude 138. During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be : A to warn the ATC B to comfort your passengers C to put on the oxygen mask * D to set the transponder to 7700 139. An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of : A 80 kt. * B 40 kt. C 60 kt. D 20 kt. 140. For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in : A 60 seconds B 90 seconds * C 132 seconds D 120 seconds INSTRUMENTOS 141. The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: A 644 kt. B 332 kt. C 661 kt. * D 1059 kt. 142. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as: A position pressure error. * B barometric error. C instrument error. D hysteresis effect 143. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from : A the ground to 500 ft B 50 ft to 2 500 ft * C the ground to 1 000 ft D 30 ft to 5 000 ft 144. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: A continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred * B gradually indicate zero C under-read D indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar Subscale 145. The GPWS calculator receives the following signals : 1 - vertical speed 2 - radio altimeter height 3 - pressure altitude 4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps position 6 - angle of attack The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : A 2,3,4,6 B 1,2,4,5 * C 1,3,4,5,6 D 1,2,5,6 146. A stall warning system is based on a measure of : A airspeed. B attitude. C groundspeed. D aerodynamic incidente * 147. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: A continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage B under-read C over-read * D read zero 148. A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a : A red full circle. B red full square. * C blue or white full lozenge. D blue or white empty lozenge. 149. The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of : A air traffic control radar systems B transponders fitted in the aircraft * C airborne weather radar system D F.M.S. (Flight Management System) 150. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will : A underread. B be just as correct as before. C show the actual height above ground. D overread. * 151. The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are: 1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter 3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope) 4- NAV/VOR 5- Flap (position) 6- Angle of Attack 7- Landing Gear (position) The combination of correct statement is: A 1,2,5,6,7 B 1,2,5,6,7 C 1,2,3,5,7 * D 2,3,4,5,7 152. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true: A height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. B altitude of the aircraft. C height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. * D height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. 153. The stall warning system receives information about the : 1- airplane angle of attack 2- airplane speed 3- airplane bank angle 4- airplane configuration 5- load factor on the airplane The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B 2, 3, 4, 5 C 1, 3, 5 D 1, 4 * 154. VLO is the maximum : A flight speed with landing gear down. B speed with flaps extended in a given position. C cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution. D speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. * 155. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to : A freeze at zero. B react like an altimeter. * C read a little high. D read a little low. 156. The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation : A the replies from the transponders of other aircraft * B the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system C the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board D both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes 157. The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: A systems. B piloting.* C weather situation. D engines and alarms. 158. A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of : 1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS. 2 - dangerous ground proximity. 3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach. 4 - wrong landing configuration. 5 - descent below glidepath, within limits. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : A 1,3,4 B 2,5 C 2,3,4,5 * D2 159. The rate-of-turn is the: A aircraft speed in a turn B pitch rate in a turn C change-of-heading rate of the aircraft * D yaw rate in a turn 160. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a : A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory". B "traffic advisory" only. C "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory". D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory". * 161. A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a nonpressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to: A under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent. B under-read. * C over-read. D over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent. 162. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s) : A airspeed indicator only. * B altimeter only. C vertical speed indicator only. D airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator. 163. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a : A decreasing speed. * B constant speed. C increasing speed. D fluctuating Speedy 164. A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: A a simple intruding airplane proximity warning. B the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes. C the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only. D the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only. * 165. The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes: 1- an angle of attack sensor 2- a computer 3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer 4- an independent pitot probe 5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 1, 2, 4, 5. B 1, 2, 5. * C 1, 2, 4. D 1, 4. 166. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from: A 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter. B 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter. C 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. * D 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter 167. The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases : 1- excessive rate of descent 2- excessive ground proximity rate 3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around 4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 5- excessive deviation under the glidepath 6- abnormal airbrakes configuration The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B 3, 4, 5, 6 C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 * D 2, 4, 5, 6 168. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed : A +/-70 feet B +/-60 feet * C +/-75 feet D +/-30 feet 169. A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: A Only works of there is a complete electrical failure B Contains its own separate gyro * C Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails D Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation 170. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed : A increases steadily * B increases abruptly towards VNE C decreases stadily D decreases abruptly towards zero 171. A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of: 1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain 2- a dangerous proximity to the ground 3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around 4- an abnormal flight attitude 5- an abnormal landing configuration 6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 1,2 and 4. B 3, 4, 5 and 6. C 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6. * D 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. 172. The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes : 1- excessive descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure 3- excessive angle of attack 4- too high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off 6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 7- excessive glidepath deviation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A 2,3,5,7 B 1,2,5,6,7 * C 1,2,4,6,7 D 3,4,5,6 173. When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a : A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory". B "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory". C "traffic advisory" only. * D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory" 174. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will: A gradually return to zero B continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred * C under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blocked D over-read 175. VNO is the maximum speed : A at which the flight controls can be fully deflected. B with flaps extended in landing position. C not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution. * D which must never be exceded 176. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed : A increases abruptly towards VNE B increases steadily C decreases abruptly towards zero D decreases steadily * 177. The density altitude is : A the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point B the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point C the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere * D the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard temperature SISTEMAS 178. The "cabin differential pressure" is: A approximately 5 psi at maximum. B approximately 15 psi at maximum. C the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin. D cabin pressure minus ambient pressure. * 179. On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: A will wear at the shoulders * B it's tread will deteriorate faster C will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed D will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway 180. If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure: A decreases * B increases C remains constant D may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken. 181. In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to: A 100% * B normal. C emergency. D on demand 182. In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is: A rotor - rotor - stator B stator - stator - rotor C rotor – stator * D stator – rotor PERFORMANCE 183. Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : A VR and VMCG * B V2 and VMCA C VR and VMCA D V2 and VMCG 184. With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct? A Screen height cannot be reduced. B The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties. * C When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length. D In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used 185. The first segment of the take-off flight path ends A at completion of gear retraction. * B at completion of flap retraction. C at reaching V2. D at 35 ft above the runway. 186. Balanced V1 is selected A for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass. B if it is equal to V2. C if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance. * D for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass. 187. ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of A 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed. B 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed. * C 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed. D 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed. 188. If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is A unchanged. B only affected by the aeroplane gross mass. C lower. * D higher. 189. How is V2 if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°? A V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set. B V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only. C V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. * D V2 has the same value in both cases 190. Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Downslope... A increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). B reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). C increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR). D reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR). * 191. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as A take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. * B lift off speed. C take-off decision speed. D critical engine failure speed. 192. How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere? A TAS increases. B TAS is constant. C TAS is not related to Mach Number. D TAS decreases. * 193. A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: A The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available. * (ASD=TOD) B The clearway does not equal the stopway. C The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine takeoff distance. D The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. 194. The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: A 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes. B 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes. C 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes. * D 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes 194. What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? A Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases. B Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases. C Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant. * D Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases. 195. The speed V2 is A that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure. B the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems. C the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure. D the take-off safety speed. * 196. Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct? A The field length limited take-off mass will increase. * B The usable length of the clearway is not limited. C V1 is increased. D V1 remains constant 197. Given that: VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed V1= Take-off decision speed VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed The correct formula is: A 1.05 VMCA