REET Pre Level 1 Previous Year Papers 2011-2023 PDF
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This document appears to be previous year question papers for the REET exam. It contains multiple choice questions from various sections, showing the format of the exam. The content includes sections on Child Development and Pedagogy, Language, Mathematics and Environmental Studies.
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Series Code : Question Booklet No. grarµO H$moS> … PAPER CODE A Write this code in OMR Sheet. Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| A§{H$V H$a| &...
Series Code : Question Booklet No. grarµO H$moS> … PAPER CODE A Write this code in OMR Sheet. Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| A§{H$V H$a| & PL-1 (SHIFT-1) 1. Roll No. / 2. OMR Sheet No./ Amo.E‘.Ama. erQ> H«$‘m§H$ * 3. Candidate’s Name / * 4. Candidate’s Signature / narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja * As per Application Form / O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V {H$¶m h¡ & Invigilators’ Signature / (i) (ii) drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet H«$‘m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© ñd¶§ narjmWu Ûmam H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m ‘| Hw$b n¥îR : 96 There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following five Sections : Section-I, II, III, IV & V of 30-30 questions each. The candidate has to attempt all sections. Each question is of one mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer. Bg àíZ-nÌ ‘| Hw$c 150 dñVw{Zð> ~hþM¶ZmË‘H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$c nm±M IÊS>m| ‘| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ & à˶oH$ IÊS>>-I, II, III, IV VWm V ‘| 30-30 àíZ h¢ VWm à˶oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JcV CÎma Ho$ {c¶o Z¡Jo{Q>d ‘m{Hª$J Zht hmoJr & PAPER CODE-PL-1 (SHIFT-1) Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150 No. of Question Nos. Page Nos. Section Contents Questions From To From To (I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 10 (II) Language-I (Only One Language) 30 31 60 As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the Online Application Form as Language-I from the Languages given below : Hindi 30 31 60 11 14 English 30 31 60 15 18 Sanskrit 30 31 60 19 22 Urdu 30 31 60 23 26 Sindhi 30 31 60 27 30 Punjabi 30 31 60 31 34 Gujarati 30 31 60 35 38 (III) Language-II (Only One Language) 30 61 90 As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other than the Language-I) in the Online Application Form from the Languages given below : Hindi 30 61 90 39 42 English 30 61 90 43 46 Sanskrit 30 61 90 47 50 Urdu 30 61 90 51 54 Sindhi 30 61 90 55 58 Punjabi 30 61 90 59 62 Gujarati 30 61 90 63 66 (IV) Mathematics 30 91 120 67 78 (V) Environmental Studies 30 121 150 79 90 Note : In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in the Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table & Note refer to Page No. 2 Read the instructions in English & Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this booklet. PL-1 A A (2) PL-1 PAPER CODE-PL-1 (SHIFT-1) Hw$c àíZ : 150 g‘¶md{Y : 2.30 KÊQ>o nyUmªH$ : 150 Hw$b àíZ àíZ g§»¶m n¥îR g§»¶m IÊS> {df¶-gm‘J«r g§»¶m go VH$ go VH$ (I) ~mc-{dH$mg Ed§ {ejU {d{Y¶m± ({ejmemñÌ) 30 1 30 3 10 (II) ^mfm-I (Ho$db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 31 60 narjmWu Ûmam M¶{ZV AZwXoeZ H$m ‘mܶ‘ H$s ^mfm Omo {ZåZ{cpIV ^mfmAm| ‘| go ^mfm-I Ho$ ê$n ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V H$s h¡ : {hÝXr 30 31 60 11 14 A§J«oOr 30 31 60 15 18 g§ñH¥$V 30 31 60 19 22 CXÿ© 30 31 60 23 26 {gÝYr 30 31 60 27 30 n§Om~r 30 31 60 31 34 JwOamVr 30 31 60 35 38 (III) ^mfm-II (Ho$db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 61 90 narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm-II Omo ^mfm-I go {^ÝZ hmoJr VWm {OgH$m M¶Z {ZåZ{cpIV ^mfmAm| ‘| go {H$¶m J¶m h¡ : {hÝXr 30 61 90 39 42 A§J«oOr 30 61 90 43 46 g§ñH¥$V 30 61 90 47 50 CXÿ© 30 61 90 51 54 {gÝYr 30 61 90 55 58 n§Om~r 30 61 90 59 62 JwOamVr 30 61 90 63 66 (IV) J{UV 30 91 120 67 78 (V) n¶m©daU Aܶ¶Z 30 121 150 79 90 ZmoQ> : narjmWu Ûmam IÊS> -II Ed§ III ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z ^mfm-I Ed§ ^mfm-II Ho$ ê$n ‘| {H$¶m h¡ Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¢ & àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V‘ n¥ð> g§»¶m 96 na A§J«oOr VWm {hÝXr ‘| {X¶o hþE {ZX}e H$mo n‹‹T>o§ & PL-1 (3) A SECTION – I –I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY There are 30 questions in all in this section. All questions are compulsory. 30 1. Which of the following statement or statements is/are false ? (a) It is not necessary to understand that each child is unique. (b) The child develops as unified whole. (c) Any problem in one aspect of development is likely to affect the others. (d) Development is a sequential process. (A) (a), (b) and (c) (B) (b) and (c) (C) (c) and (d) (D) Only (a) / ? (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (a), (b) (c) (B) (b) (c) (C) (c) (d) (D) (a) 2. ________ occurs when there are orderly and progressive changes in a human being due to maturation and experience. (A) Growth (B) Development (C) Physical changes (D) Mental changes ________ , (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of early childhood ? (A) Pre-Gang age (B) Imitative age (C) Questioning age (D) Toy age ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) 4. The Nature and Nurture debates refer to (A) Genetic and Environment (B) Behaviour and Environment (C) Environment and Biology (D) Environment and Upbringing ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - P.T.O. A (4) PL-1 5. I.Q. of a talented child is (A) 130 (B) 140 (C) 55 (D) 120 (A) 130 (B) 140 (C) 55 (D) 120 6. Schools should cater for individual differences to (A) Make individual students feel exclusive. (B) Narrow the gap between individual students. (C) Not to assess the abilities and performance of students. (D) Understand why students are able or unable to learn. (A) (B) (C) (D) 7. A child of 16 years age, scores 75 in I.Q. test. His mental age will be ________ years. (A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 16 75 , _______ (A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 12 8. Each person’s work is a reflection of certain abilities, in performing any particular task, a person selects some of his mental abilities as a model. This principle was given by (A) Thorndike (B) Thurstone (C) Gilford (D) Thomson , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 9. Which of the following is projective technique of personality measurement ? (A) Rating scale (B) Observation (C) Interview (D) Thematic appreciation test ? (A) (B) (C) (D) PL-1 (5) A 10. Creativity is usually associated with (A) Hyperactivity (B) Low comprehension (C) Convergent thinking (D) Divergent thinking ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 11. Which of the following condition promotes adjustment ? (A) Acute anxiety (B) Obsessive thought of guilt (C) Fear of illness (D) Free from neurotic fears and anxiety ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. Signs of gifted child are : (i) Novelty in expression (ii) Curiosity (iii) Talkativeness (iv) Hyper-activeness (A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (iv) ? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (i) (iv) (B) (i) (ii) (C) (ii) (iv) (D) (iii) (iv) 13. Who gave the formula of I.Q. written below ? Mental age Intelligence Quotient = Chronological age 100 (A) William Stern (B) Terman (C) Binet (D) Galton ? = 100 (A) (B) (C) (D) P.T.O. A (6) PL-1 14. Ravi’s intelligence test indicates that he is in category average to above-average of intelligence. However, his grades in reading, spelling, social sciences and science are very low. His Math’s grades are quite high and writing skills are adequate. Ravi most likely has (A) Dyscalculia (Maths Disorder) (B) Dysgraphia (Writing Disorder) (C) Dyslexia (Reading Disorder) (D) Dysphasia (Language Disorder) , , , (A) ( ) (B) ( ) (C) ( ) (D) ( ) 15. “Learning is a process of progressive behaviour adaptation.” This statement was given by which educationist ? (A) Skinner (B) Woodworth (C) Crow and Crow (D) Gates and others “ ” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 16. Srishti is the student of class two. She was taught basic mathematics by the teacher. Next day while shopping she pointed out the mistake in total done by shopkeeper. Which type of learning is this ? (A) Negative transfer (B) Positive transfer (C) Bilateral transfer (D) Zero transfer – 2 , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 17. Two opposite desires present in an individual at the same time is called (A) Conflict (B) Frustration (C) Anxiety (D) Pressure (A) (B) (C) (D) PL-1 (7) A 18. Which of the following theory is also known as theory of reinforcement ? (A) Operant conditioning theory (B) Stimulus response theory (C) Classical conditioning theory (D) Theory of insight ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 19. Choose the example that illustrates intrinsic motivation. (A) Vandana is working hard to score well in exams as she wants a gift from her parents. (B) Urmila is completing her homework so that she can watch TV after completing her homework. (C) Ila is reading more books so that she can secure first rank in District and her school get fame at District level. (D) Megha is exploring various resources for her project because she loves learning new things. : (A) - (B) .. (C) (D) 20. Who among the following has not propounded the learning theory ? (A) Thorndike (B) Skinner (C) Kohler (D) B.S. Bloom ? (A) (B) (C) (D) .. P.T.O. A (8) PL-1 21. Repeatedly asking children to engage in learning activities either to avoid punishment or to gain a reward will (A) Decrease extrinsic motivation (B) Increase intrinsic motivation (C) Would encourage children to focus on mastery rather than performance goals. (D) Decrease children’s natural interest and curiosity involved in learning. - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 22. According to RTE Act, 2009 working hours per week for teachers are (A) 40 hours (B) 42 hours (C) 45 hours (D) 48 hours ... , 2009 (A) 40 (B) 42 (C) 45 (D) 48 23. Which among the following is different from the characteristics of a Good test ? (A) Reliability (B) Validity (C) Objectivity (D) Aptitude ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 24. Which of the following is most important in learner centered curriculum ? (A) Teacher (B) Child (C) Contents (D) Environment ? (A) (B) (C) (D) PL-1 (9) A 25. A Reflective teacher creates classroom situations for students to (A) Listening the lecture. (B) Taking notes from the lecture of the teacher. (C) Maintaining classroom discipline. (D) Promoting interaction between students and the teacher. - (A) (B) - (C) - (D) 26. Action research means (A) A longitude research. (B) An applied research. (C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem. (D) A research with socio-economic objective. (A) (B) (C) (D) - 27. According to NCF 2005, the role of a teacher has to be (A) Permissive (B) Facilitator (C) Authoritative (D) Dictatorial NCF 2005 , (A) (B) (C) (D) 28. The purpose of evaluation is (A) To label children as slow learner and gifted children. (B) To identify children who need remedial measures. (C) To diagnose learning difficulties and problem areas. (D) To provide feedback on the extent to which we have been successful in imparting education for a productive life. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) P.T.O. A (10) PL-1 29. Match the following Principles of Development with their correct description : Name of Principle of Development Description of Principle (1) Proximodistal trend (a) Head to Toe Sequence (2) Cephalo-caudal trend (b) Different children develop at different rates (3) Inter-individual Differences (c) In a single child, the rate of development can vary from one domain of development to the other (4) Intra-individual Differences (d) Growth from the Centre of body to outwards (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (d) (a) (b) (c) (B) (a) (b) (c) (d) (C) (c) (d) (b) (a) (D) (d) (b) (a) (c) : (1) – (a) (2) – (b) - (3) (c) , (4) (d) (1) (2) (3) (4) (A) (d) (a) (b) (c) (B) (a) (b) (c) (d) (C) (c) (d) (b) (a) (D) (d) (b) (a) (c) 30. Development proceeds from ________ to ________. (A) General – Specific (B) Complex – Hard (C) Specific – General (D) Simple – Easy ________ ________ (A) – (B) – (C) – (D) – PL-1 (11) A – II – I 30 31. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) 33. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. ‘ ’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. ‘ ’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. - : (A) (B) (C) (D) 37. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) A (12) PL-1 38. ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) 39. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 41. : (A) (B) , (C) (D) 42. “ ” ? (A) (B) .. (C) (D) 43. (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. : (A) (B) (C) (D) - 45. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) PL-1 (13) A 46 50 : , , , , , ‘ ?’ 46. ‘’ - : (A) + (B) + (C) + (D) + 47. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 49. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 51 55 : , – , , , , A (14) PL-1 51. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 52. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 53. “ ” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 56. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 59. ‘ ’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 60. ‘ ’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) PL-1 (15) A SECTION – II LANGUAGE – I ENGLISH There are 30 questions in all in this section. All questions are compulsory. 31. To free the slave, the chains _______. (A) being removed (B) had been removed (C) is removed (D) was being removed 32. The convict _____ by the neck till death, was the verdict. (A) is to hanged (B) is being hung (C) is to be hanged (D) is to being hang 33. ‘She said to her son, “What do you like ?” The indirect speech of the sentence is (A) She asked her son to like. (B) She asked her son what will he like. (C) She ask her son what he liked. (D) She asked her son what he liked. 34. The phonetic sound of the letters underlined in the word ‘together’ is represented by the symbol (A) d (B) (C) ǝ (D) dʒ 35. Which is the correct transcription of ‘question’ ? (A) 'ku:sǝn (B) 'kwestǝn (C) 'kwu:n (D) 'kwuschn 36. ‘Learning is made stable and everlasting’ is a merit of (A) Bilingual Method (B) Structural Approach (C) Direct Method (D) Communicative Approach 37. ‘Priority of Reading’ is a principle of (A) Translation cum Grammar Method (B) Dr. West’s Method (C) Structural Approach (D) Communicative Approach P.T.O. A (16) PL-1 38. ‘It stops power of thinking freely’ is a demerit of (A) Bilingual Method (B) Direct Method (C) Translation cum Grammar Method (D) Substitutional Table Method 39. Bilingual method includes (A) Translation by teachers only to explain the matter. (B) Insistence upon reading only. (C) Insistence upon writing only. (D) Optimum exposure for discussion. 40. The receptive skills comprise (A) Listening and Reading (B) Listening and Speaking (C) Reading and Writing (D) Reading and Speaking 41. Writing is more complicated skill because of (A) its variety of fields. (B) its last position. (C) its inclusion of other subjects. (D) graphic representation and presentation of structured thoughts. 42. Language games help (A) to improve speech (B) to build structures (C) to build vocabulary (D) to learn grammar 43. Assessment of broad learning behavioural outcomes is a feature of (A) CCE (B) Peer Evaluation (C) Formative Assessment (D) Summative Assessment 44. Which one is not a characteristic of Peer Evaluation ? (A) Effective monitoring (B) Metacognition (C) Saves teacher’s time (D) Faster feedback 45. Cloze Test Evaluation was described by (A) C.J. Dodson (B) Woods (C) W.L. Taylor (D) Roberts Paul PL-1 (17) A Passage (For Q. Nos. 46 to 52) : The messenger had no idea what all this was about. If King Avinash meant to attack his king’s fort then all was lost. For King Bahadur was old and weak. These days he spent most of his time in prayer. After much thought the messenger decided on a plan. “Sir, I do not know why are you so angry,” he said. “All I know is that King Bahadur has gone mad. I cannot work for him anymore. I had decided to the court and work elsewhere. If you will take me in I will gladly work for you, my lord.” 46. The synonym of ‘attack’ is (A) war (B) dispute (C) invade (D) conflict 47. The synonym of ‘mad’ is (A) sick (B) insane (C) nervous (D) sensible 48. The antonym of ‘angry’ is (A) sharp (B) infuriated (C) calm (D) peace 49. The one word substitution for ‘old and weak’ is (A) infirm (B) sick (C) humble (D) polite 50. The correct noun form of ‘decide’ is (A) decade (B) decided (C) decision (D) deceive 51. The correct verb form of ‘lost’ is (A) loose (B) lose (C) loss (D) lest 52. The correct spelling is (A) patiritism (B) partritism (C) patriotism (D) potriotism P.T.O. A (18) PL-1 Passage (For Q. Nos. 53 to 59) : Being free filled me with happiness. Now that my chains had been removed, I could see the capital city. Everyone was ordered to stay indoors in case I stepped on them and they got crushed. The first building I saw as I stepped over the city wall was the Emperor’s palace. It was charming just like a big doll’s house. I had to lie down to look inside and as the Empress came to the window smiling at me, she gave me her hand to kiss. 53. Which part of speech is ‘Happiness’ ? (A) Adjective (B) Noun (C) Verb (D) Adverb 54. ‘The Empress came to the window smiling at me.’ Here ‘smiling’ is (A) Noun (B) Verb (C) Adjective (D) Adverb 55. ‘Being free filled me with happiness.’ The sentence is in (A) Present perfect (B) Past perfect (C) Past simple (D) Present simple 56. ‘I had to lie down ….’ The sentence is in (A) Past simple (B) Present simple (C) Past perfect (D) Present perfect 57. ‘……. she gave me her hand to kiss.’ In this sentence the determiner used is (A) she (B) her (C) to (D) me 58. ‘It was charming just like a big doll’s house.’ In this sentence the determiner used is (A) just (B) like (C) a (D) big 59. ‘Freest’ is the superlative degree of (A) fire (B) freer (C) firer (D) free 60. The farmer fastened the bull tightly to the stake. The correct question for this is (A) What did the farmer do ? (B) What does the farmer did ? (C) Why did the farmer did ? (D) Why does the farmer did ? PL-1 (19) A – II – I 31. - “ ” (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. “ ” - (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. - (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. “ ” - (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. ‘ _______ ’ - (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 37. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) A (20) PL-1 38. ‘ ’ ‘ ’ - (A) (B) (C) (D) 39. - - (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. - (A) (B) (C) (D) 41. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. --- - (A) (B) (C) (D) 43. , , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. - (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. - (A) (B) (C) (D) PL-1 (21) A : (46-50) – , 46. “” ? (A) – (B) - (C) - (D) - 47. “” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. “” - (A) (B) (C) (D) 49. “” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. ‘ ’ - (A) (B) (C) (D) (51-55) - “” 51. “” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) A (22) PL-1 52. “” - (A) + (B) + (C) + (D) + 53. “” - (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. “ ” - (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. - (A) – (B) - (C) - (D) - 56. “ ” - - (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. “44” - (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. “” – (A) , , , (B) , , , (C) , , , (D) , , , 59. – “ ” (A) (B) (C) (D) 60. – “ ” (A) (B) (C) (D) PL-1 (23) A II I 30 34 31 .31 (A) (B) (C) (D) .32 (D) (C) (B) (A) .33 (D) (C) (B) (A) .34 (D) (C) (B) (A) PL-1 (24) A .35 (A) (B) (C) (D) .36 (A) (B) (C) (D) .37 (D) (C) (B) (A) .38 (B) (A) (D) (C) .39 (D) (C) (B) (A) .40 (D) (C) (B) (A) .41 (B) (A) (D) (C) .42 (D) (C) (B) (A) .43 (B) (A) (D) (C) PL-1 (25) A .44 (D) (C) (B) (A) .45 (B) (A) (D) (C) 50 46 .46 (D) (C) (B) (A) .47 (D) (C) (B) (A) .48 (D) (C) (B) (A) .49 (D) (C) (B) (A) .50 (D) (C) (B) (A) PL-1 (26) A .51 (D) (C) (B) (A) .52 (B) (A) (D) (C) .53 (D) (C) (B) (A) .54 (D) (C) (B) (A) .55 (B) (A) (D) (C) .56 (D) (C) (B) (A) .57 (D) (C) (B) (A) .58 (D) (C) (B) (A) .59 (D) (C) (B) (A) .60 (D) (C) (B) (A) PL-1 (27) A – II – I 30 31. (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. ‘ ’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. : _____ (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. “ ” – (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 37. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 38. – (A) (B) (C) (D) A (28) PL-1 39. _______ _____ – (A) 90 110 (B) 90 99 (C) 90 140 (D) 90 166 40. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 41. () _____ (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 43. _______ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. _______ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. _______ – (A) (B) (C) (D) ( 46 50) : , “ , , , , , “ ” ?
