REET 2022 Paper Code B PL-2 Shift 2 PDF
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2022
REET
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This is a REET 2022 past paper for teacher training. It includes 150 multiple-choice questions across four sections: Child Development and Pedagogy, Language-I, Language-II, and either Mathematics and Science or Social Studies. The paper is intended for candidates preparing for teaching positions.
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Question Booklet No. Series Code /grarµO H$moS> : PAPER CODE 1. Roll No. / PL-2 (SHIFT-2)...
Question Booklet No. Series Code /grarµO H$moS> : PAPER CODE 1. Roll No. / PL-2 (SHIFT-2) B Write this code in OMR Sheet. Bg H$moS> H$mo OMR erQ> ‘| A§{H$V H$a| 2. OMR Sheet No./ Amo.E‘.Ama. erQ> H«$‘m§H$ & * 3. Candidate’s name / * 4. Candidate’s Signature / narjmWu Ho$ hñVmja * As per Application Form / O¡gm AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V {H$¶m h¡ & Invigilator’s Signature / (i) (ii) drjH$m| Ho$ hñVmja S. No. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are to be filled by the Candidate himself. No. of Pages in Question Booklet H«$‘m§H$ 1, 2, 3 d 4 H$s ny{V© narjmWu Ûmam ñd¶§ H$s OmZr h¡ & àíZ nwpñVH$m ‘| Hw$b n¥îR> : 96 There are 150 objective multiple choice questions in this paper. This Question Booklet is made up of the following four Sections : Section-I, II & III of 30-30 questions each and Section-IV is of 60 questions. The candidate has to attempt all sections. Each question is of one mark. There is no negative marking for wrong answer. Bg àíZ-nÌ ‘| Hw$b 150 dñVw{ZîR>> ~hþM¶ZmË‘H$ àíZ h¢ & àíZ-nÌ Hw$b Mma IÊS>m| ‘| {d^m{OV h¡ VWm g^r IÊS> H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ & à˶oH$ IÊS>-I, II Ed§ III 30-30 àíZm| H$m h¡ VWm IÊS>-IV 60 àíZm| H$m h¡ & à˶oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & JbV CÎma Ho$ {bE Z¡Jo{Q>d ‘m{Hª$J Zht hmoJr & PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-2) Total Questions : 150 Time period : 2 Hours 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 150 No. of Question Nos. Page Nos. Section Contents Questions From To From To (I) Child Development and Pedagogy 30 1 30 3 9 (II) Language-I (Only One Language) 30 31 60 As selected by the candidate as medium of instruction in the Online Application Form as Language-I from the Languages given below : Hindi 30 31 60 10 13 PL-2/Sh-2 English 30 31 60 14 16 Sanskrit 30 31 60 17 20 Urdu 30 31 60 21 24 Sindhi 30 31 60 25 28 Punjabi 30 31 60 29 32 Gujarati 30 31 60 33 36 (III) Language-II (Only One Language) 30 61 90 As selected by the candidate as Language-II (other than the Language-I) in the Online Application Form from the Languages given below : Hindi 30 61 90 37 40 English 30 61 90 41 43 Sanskrit 30 61 90 44 47 Urdu 30 61 90 48 52 Sindhi 30 61 90 53 56 Punjabi 30 61 90 57 60 Gujarati 30 61 90 61 64 (IV) (IV a) Mathematics and Science 60 91 150 65 78 (For Mathematics and Science Teacher) OR (IV b) Social Studies 60 91 150 79 90 (For Social Studies Teacher) OR For any other Subject Teacher (Can choose either IV a or IV b) Note : 1.In Sections II and III, a candidate has to attempt the questions of Languages compulsorily, selected as Language-I and Language-II in the Online Application Form. 2.In Sections-IV, it is compulsory to attempt the questions of Section IV (a) or Section IV (b) as selected subject in Online Application Form. For Hindi version of the above Table & Note refer to Page No. 2. Read the instructions in English & Hindi at Page No. 96, last page of this booklet. PL-2 B B (2) PL-2 PAPER CODE-PL-2 (SHIFT-2) Hw$c àíZ : 150 g‘¶md{Y … 2 K§Q>o 30 {‘ZQ> nyUmªH$ : 150 Hw$b àíZ àíZ g§»¶m n¥îR g§»¶m IÊS> {df¶-gm‘J«r g§»¶m go VH$ go VH$ (I) 30 1 30 3 9 (II) ^mfm-I (Ho$db EH$ ^mfm) 30 31 60 narjmWu Ûmam M¶{ZV AZwXoeZ H$m ‘mܶ‘ H$s ^mfm Omo {ZåZ{cpIV ^mfmAm| ‘| go ^mfm-I Ho$ ê$n ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| A§{H$V H$s h¡ : {hÝXr 30 31 60 10 13 A§J«oOr 30 31 60 14 16 g§ñH¥$V 30 31 60 17 20 CXÿ© 30 31 60 21 24 {gÝYr 30 31 60 25 28 PL-2/Sh-2 n§Om~r 30 31 60 29 32 JwOamVr 30 31 60 33 36 (III) ^mfm -II ( Ho $ db EH$ ^mfm ) 30 61 90 narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| M¶{ZV ^mfm-II Omo ^mfm-I go {^ÝZ hmoJr VWm {OgH$m M¶Z {ZåZ{cpIV ^mfmAm| ‘| go {H$¶m J¶m h¡ : {hÝXr 30 61 90 37 40 A§J«oOr 30 61 90 41 43 g§ñH¥$V 30 61 90 44 47 CXÿ© 30 61 90 48 52 {gÝYr 30 61 90 53 56 n§Om~r 30 61 90 57 60 JwOamVr 30 61 90 61 64 (IV) (IV a) J{UV VWm {dkmZ 60 91 150 65 78 (J{UV VWm {dkmZ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE) AWdm (IV b) gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z 60 91 150 79 90 (gm‘m{OH$ Aܶ¶Z {ejH$ Ho$ {bE) AWdm {H$gr Aݶ Xÿgao {df¶ {ejH$ Ho$ {bE (IV a AWdm IV b MwZ gH$Vo h¢) ZmoQ> : (1) narjmWu Ûmam IÊS>-II Ed§ IÊS>-III ‘| Am°ZcmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| {Og ^mfm H$m M¶Z ^mfm-I Ed§ ^mfm-II Ho$ ê$n ‘| {H$¶m h¡ Cgr ^mfm Ho$ àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¢ & (2) IÊS> -IV ‘| narjmWu Ûmam Am°ZbmBZ AmdoXZ-nÌ ‘| IÊS> (IV a) ¶m IÊS> (IV b) Ho$ {Og {df¶ H$m M¶Z {H$¶m J¶m h¡ Cgr {df¶ H$m àíZ H$aZm A{Zdm¶© h¡ & àíZ-nwpñVH$m Ho$ A§{V‘ n¥ð> g§»¶m 96 na A§J«oOr VWm {hÝXr ‘| {X¶o hþE {ZX}e H$mo n‹‹T>o§ & PL-2 (3) B SECTION – I –I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY There are 30 questions in all in this section. All questions are compulsory. 30 1. Children who are deprived of minimum basic facilities are classified as _____. (A) Delinquent children (B) Special children (C) Disadvantaged children (D) Backward children : (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. Which of the following is a behavioural symptom of maladjustment ? (A) Aggression (B) Anxiety (C) Insecurity (D) Apathy ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. Which method is NOT directly related to children with special needs ? (A) Diversity of curriculum (B) Development of sports and extra curricular activities (C) Different teaching methods (D) Training for special activities ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 4. Learning disability related to reading is termed as _____. (A) Dyscalculia (B) Dyslexia (C) Dysgraphia (D) Dysthymia ____ (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 B (4) PL-2 5. Which of the following is NOT a process of learning for children ? (A) Reflection (B) Argument (C) Maturity (D) Imagination ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 6. The concept of reward and punishment in learning is introduced by whom ? (A) E.L. Thorndike (B) Kohler & Koffka (C) B.F. Skinner (D) Albert Bandura ? (A) .. (B) (C) .. (D) 7. Which statement is NOT true for the concept of learning ? (A) Learning is the change in behaviour. (B) There is a relatively permanent difference. (C) Learning is influenced by practice. (D) Learning is an innate mechanism. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 8. Classical conditioning theory propounded by Ivan Pavlov explains learning by _____. (A) reinforcement (B) association (C) imitation (D) insight : (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 PL-2 (5) B 9. Which type of teaching is NOT based upon objectives of teaching ? (A) Cognitive teaching (B) Descriptive teaching (C) Affective teaching (D) Psychomotor teaching ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 10. A group creativity method for solving specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously is known as - (A) Brain storming strategy (B) Mastery learning strategy (C) Problem solving strategy (D) Heuristic strategy (A) (B) (C) (D) 11. Which process is NOT directly related to role of motivation in classroom learning ? (A) Knowledge of progress and result (B) Interpersonal adjustment (C) Praise and criticism (D) Level of aspiration ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. Concept Mapping in Education was introduced by whom ? (A) Carl Jung (B) Martin E. Seligman (C) Noam J. Chomsky (D) Joseph D. Novak ? (A) (B) . (C) . (D) . Sh-2 B (6) PL-2 13. Which statement is NOT true for Right to Education Act – 2009 ? (A) Free and compulsory education for every child between 6 to 14 years. (B) Provision of School Management Committee. (C) Constitution of National Commission for Elementary Education. (D) Minimum 60 hours of work per week for a teacher. -2009 ? (A) : : (B) (C) (D) 60 14. Who has NOT contributed to the development of Action Research in Education ? (A) Kurt Lewin (B) B.R. Buckinghum (C) Stephen M. Covey (D) Stephen M. Corey ? (A) (B) .. (C) . (D) . 15. Which level of measurement is least used in educational psychology ? (A) Ordinal scale (B) Nominal scale (C) Ratio scale (D) Equal interval scale ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 16. Which is the main philosophy of National Curriculum Framework – 2005 ? (A) Learning vocational skills (B) Learning without burden (C) Learning co-curricular activities (D) Continuous and overall evaluation -2005 ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) Sh-2 PL-2 (7) B 17. Which method is NOT valid to study the role of heredity ? (A) Twin study (B) Parent-Child analysis (C) Adoption study (D) Peer group study ? (A) (B) - (C) - (D) 18. The observable physical and psychological characteristics of an individual is termed as _____. (A) Prototype (B) Karyotype (C) Phenotype (D) Genotype ____ (A) (B) (C) (D) 19. According to which perspective, child development reflects a specific and prearranged scheme within the body ? (A) Environmental (B) Social (C) Biological (D) Psychological ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 20. Which of the following psychologists is NOT related to theories of child development ? (A) Jean Piaget (B) Abraham Maslow (C) Albert Bandura (D) Lev Vygotsky ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 B (8) PL-2 21. Individual differences in temperament are basically _____. (A) Learned (B) Innate (C) Acquired (D) Cultural ____ (A) (B) (C) (D) 22. Who has NOT propounded any theory of personality ? (A) B.F. Skinner (B) Sigmund Freud (C) Gordon Allport (D) Ramond B. Cattell ? (A) .. (B) (C) (D) . 23. Which test was created by Henry A. Murray and Christiana D. Morgan ? (A) Sentence Completion Test (B) Sixteen Personality Factors (C) Thematic Apperception Test (D) Picture Frustration Test . . ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 24. Which factor is NOT related to growth of a child ? (A) Nutrition (B) Health (C) Sleep (D) Domicile ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 25. Which dimension of development is influenced by the theories of Noam Chomsky ? (A) Language development (B) Moral development (C) Emotional development (D) Cognitive development ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 PL-2 (9) B 26. Which intelligence is NOT included in Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences ? (A) Intrapersonal (B) Naturalistic (C) Emotional (D) Existential ? (A) : (B) (C) (D) 27. Creativity is associated with which kind of thinking ? (A) Overthinking (B) Meta thinking (C) Reflective thinking (D) Divergent thinking ? (A) (B) - (C) (D) 28. The term mental retardation is replaced with which term ? (A) Intellectual disability (B) Mental weakness (C) Intellectual backwardness (D) Intellectual disadvantage ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 29. Which of the following is NOT true for the theoretical concept of personality ? (A) Stable (B) Normal (C) Enduring (D) Unique ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 30. Which test is culture-free Non-verbal test of Intelligence ? (A) Group test of Intelligence (B) Weschler Adult Intelligence Scale (C) Bhatia Battery (D) Standard Progressive Matrices - - ? (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 B (10) PL-2 – II – I 30 31. (A) (B) (C) - (D) 32. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. - - – (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 37. ? (A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (D) 38. – (A) , : (B) (C) – , (D) Sh-2 PL-2 (11) B 39. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. : (A) () (B) (C) (D) , 41 50 : : , , , , , , : , , , , - , “ , ” , ‘’ 41. ‘’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. ‘’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 43. ‘ ’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 B (12) PL-2 44. ‘’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. ‘’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 46. ‘’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 47. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. ‘’ ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) 49. ‘’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. ‘’ ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 51 56 : , , , , , : ‘ ’ , - -, , - , -, , , ‘ ’ , Sh-2 PL-2 (13) B 51. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 52. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 53. “ ” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. ‘’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 56. ‘’ : (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. (A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (D) 58. , (A) (B) (C) (D) 59. ‘ ’ (A) (B) (C) (D) 60. ‘- ’ (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 B (14) PL-2 SECTION – II LANGUAGE – I ENGLISH There are 30 questions in all in this Section. All questions are compulsory. 31. The exercise of listening skill is (A) Sports commentary on a radio (B) Advertisement board (C) Pamphlet (D) Poster 32. Which one of the following is a measure to improve bad handwriting ? (A) Use of ball pens (B) Wrong habits (C) Proper posture (D) Writing carelessly 33. _____ is not a technical characteristics of a text book. (A) Proper spacing and margins (B) Good quality white paper (C) Lengthy texts (D) Readable size of the letters 34. ‘Blackboard’ is the _____ aids for teaching. (A) technical (B) cheapest (C) modern (D) physical 35. Audio-Visual aids save (A) money (B) interest (C) effort (D) verbal input 36. Students improve their critical thinking in (A) peer assessment (B) portfolio (C) cloze test (D) writing tests 37. CCE is _____ carried out in classroom. (A) strictly (B) formally (C) informally (D) timely 38. CCE is not successful in (A) private schools (B) crowded classrooms (C) small classrooms (D) government schools 39. For a good test in English (A) language must be lucid and clear (B) the text-books must not be used (C) the questions must be complex (D) the questions must be simple 40. ‘Matching Test’ is an example of (A) Short answer type (B) Long answer type (C) Essay type (D) Objective type Sh-2 PL-2 (15) B Read the passage and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 41 to 45) that follow : A marriage as early as that was the last thing on her mind. She threatened her parents that she would never marry if she did not get a proper education. She left home and got herself enrolled in a school in Delhi. When her parents refused to pay for her education, she politely informed them of her plans to earn money by working part-time to pay her school fees. Her parents then agreed to pay for her education. 41. The synonym of ‘refused’ is (A) granted (B) denied (C) permitted (D) allowed 42. The antonym of ‘politely’ is (A) courteously (B) humbly (C) rashly (D) angry 43. The correct spelling is (A) acadimision (B) academician (C) acedamician (D) academision 44. The verb form of ‘enrolled’ is (A) enrol (B) enroll (C) enrollment (D) enrolment 45. ‘Part-time’ stands for (A) working less than standard hours (B) working in parts (C) working in obligation (D) working for no remuneration Read the passage carefully and answer the questions (Q. Nos. 46 to 50) that follow : Friends had conjectured that the bear would not recognise her. I had thought so too. But while she was yet some yards away from his cage, Baba saw her and recognised her. He howled with happiness. She ran up to him and petted him through the bars, and he stood on his head in delight. 46. ‘He howled with happiness.’ The underlined verb is in _____ tense. (A) Present Simple (B) Present Perfect (C) Past Simple (D) Past Perfect 47. She ran up to him and petted him through the bars. The underlined word is – (A) interjection (B) conjunction (C) adverb (D) preposition 48. Choose the conjunction : (A) her (B) within (C) the (D) but 49. The determiner is (A) and (B) had (C) the (D) up Sh-2 B (16) PL-2 50. Choose the correct comparative degree of ‘happy’ (A) happier (B) happiest (C) more happy (D) most happy 51. Choose the right question for She sold all the articles for no profit. (A) Did she sell all the articles for no profit ? (B) Did she sold all the articles for no profit ? (C) Does she sell all the articles for no profit ? (D) Do she sells all the articles for no profit ? 52. Choose the active voice of Saina had been supported by her maternal aunt. (A) Saina supported her maternal aunt. (B) Saina’s maternal aunt supported Saina. (C) Saina’s maternal aunt had supported Saina. (D) Saina’s maternal aunt had been supported by Saina. 53. The saint chanted, “God is great.” The indirect speech of this sentence is (A) The saint said that God is great. (B) The saint told that God was great. (C) The saint said why God is great. (D) The saint said whether God is great. 54. The word for the phonetic transcription / I'mi:dIǝtli / is (A) emidiately (B) immediately (C) imitate (D) immediate 55. The number of vowel sounds is (A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) 24 56. ‘The knowledge can be stored in mind permanently.’ This principle is termed as (A) Aptitude (B) Gradation (C) Concreteness (D) Selection 57. Words that are understood and constantly used form (A) limited vocabulary (B) active vocabulary (C) passive vocabulary (D) constant vocabulary 58. Dr. West’s comprehension test was (A) non-linguistic (B) linguistic (C) comprehensive (D) structural 59. Variables can be interchanged in (A) Simple substitution (B) Compound substitution (C) Grammar (D) Phrases 60. ‘New words at early stages should refer to objects and actions which can be shown and demonstrated in the classroom’ is a precaution of (A) Structural Approach (B) Situational Approach (C) Bilingual Method (D) Direct Method Sh-2 PL-2 (17) B – II – I 31. “ ” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. “ ” ? (A) (B) (C) : (D) 33. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. : : ? (A) : (B) (C) : (D) -: 35. : : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. : – (A) : (B) : : (C) : : (D) : 37. : – (A) (B) (C) : (D) 38. : – (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 B (18) PL-2 39. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. ‘ ’ – (A) (B) (C) (D) (41-45) – : : : : : : : : : : : : 41. “” : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. “:” -: : (A) + : (B) + : (C) + : (D) + : 43. “” : : ? (A) : (B) : (C) : (D) : 44. “:” : : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. “:” : : ? (A) : (B) : (C) : (D) : Sh-2 PL-2 (19) B : : (46-50) : – : : : : , , - 46. “” : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 47. “” – (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. “ ” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 49. “ ” ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. ‘’ : : ? (A) : (B) : (C) : (D) : 51. : – (A) (B) (C) (D) 52. “:” ? (A) 85 (B) 96 (C) 78 (D) 65 Sh-2 B (20) PL-2 53. ‘’ ? (A) : (B) (C) (D) 54. : : : ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 55. : – (A) (B) : (C) : (D) : 56. “ ” – (A) : : (B) : (C) : (D) : 57. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. ‘ : ’ (A) : (B) : (C) : (D) : 59. : (A) (B) (C) (D) : 60. ___________ (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 PL-2 (21) B II I (30) .31 (D) (C) (B) (A) .32 (B) (A) (D) (C) .33 (B) (A) (D) (C) .34 (B) (A) (D) (C) .35 (B) (A) (D) (C) .36 (B) (A) (D) (C) .37 (B) (A) (D) (C) PL-2 (22) B .38 (A) (B) (C) (D) .39 (B) (A) (D) (C) .40 1963 (B) (A) 1964 (D) 1960 1965 (C) 45 41 .41 (D) (C) (B) (A) .42 (D) (C) (B) (A) .43 (B) (A) (D) (C) PL-2 (23) B .44 (D) (C) (B) (A) .45 (D) (C) (B) (A) .46 (D) (C) (B) (A) .47 (D) (C) (B) (A) .48 (D) (C) (B) (A) 53 49 .49 (D) (C) (B) (A) .50 (D) (C) (B) (A) .51 (D) (C) (B) (A) PL-2 (24) B .52 (D) (C) (B) (A) .53 (D) (C) (B) (A) .54 (D) (C) (B) (A) .55 (D) (C) (B) (A) .56 (A) (B) (C) (D) .57 (B) (A) (D) (C) .58 (D) (C) (B) (A) .59 (D) (C) (B) (A) ____ .60 (D) (C) (B) (A) PL-2 (25) B – II – I 30 ( 31 35) : , , , ? ? “ , ” 31. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 32. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. ? (?) (A) (B) (C) (D) Sh-2 B (26) PL-2 36. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 37. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 38. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 39. – (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. – (A) (B) (C) (D) ( 41 45) : “ , , ? ? , ? , ?” ?
