Quizzes PDF

Group 1: 1. Which chromosome is primarily responsible for most sex-linked traits? a. Y chromosome b. X chromosome c. Both X and Y chromosomes equally d. Neither X nor Y chromosome 2. What is a characteristic of X-linked inheritance? a. Fathers can pass X-linked traits to their sons. b. Only...

Group 1: 1. Which chromosome is primarily responsible for most sex-linked traits? a. Y chromosome b. X chromosome c. Both X and Y chromosomes equally d. Neither X nor Y chromosome 2. What is a characteristic of X-linked inheritance? a. Fathers can pass X-linked traits to their sons. b. Only males can inherit X-linked traits. c. Females are typically carriers if they have one mutated X chromosome. d. X-linked traits only affect females. 3. What is the most common X-linked recessive disorder mentioned? a. Rett syndrome b. Hemophilia A c. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy d. Hypophosphatemia 4. Which gene is mutated in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)? a. F8 b. DMD c. MECP2 d. PHEX 5. Which of the following is a feature of Y-linked inheritance? a. Traits are passed exclusively from mothers to sons. b. Traits are passed exclusively from fathers to daughters. c. Traits are passed exclusively from fathers to sons. d. Traits are passed to both sons and daughters equally 6. What causes Rett syndrome? a. Mutation in the F8 gene b. Mutation in the SRY gene c. Mutation in the MECP2 gene d. Mutation in the DCX gene 7. What is the primary symptom of hemophilia? a. Muscle degeneration b. Inability to distinguish red from green c. Impaired blood clotting leading to excessive bleeding d. Developmental delay 8. What type of mutation leads to Double Cortex Syndrome? a. Mutation in the MECP2 gene b. Mutation in the DMD gene c. Mutation in the DCX gene d. Mutation in the OPN1MW gene 9. How is color blindness inherited? a. X-linked recessive b. X-linked dominant c. Y-linked d. Autosomal dominant 10. Swyer syndrome results from mutations in which gene? a. DMD b. MECP2 c. SRY d. F9 Group 2: 1. What is a karyogram? a) A visual representation of an individual's chromosome set b) A microscopic image of a single chromosome c) A diagram showing the location of genes on a chromosome d) A record of the results of a karyotyping test 2. What are the three phases of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)? a) Acute, chronic, and terminal b) Chronic, accelerated, and blast c) Early, middle, and late d) None of the above 3.Cri-du-chat syndrome is associated with which type of structural abnormality? a) Duplication b) Translocation c) Inversion d) Deletion 4. Which of the following is a type of numerical abnormality in karyotyping? a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Inversion d) Trisomy 5. What is the karyotype associated with Turner syndrome? a) 46, XY b) 46, XX c) 45, X d) 47, XXY 6. Which pair of chromosomes determines an individual's biological sex? A) The 22nd pair B) The 23rd pair C) The first pair D) The 10th pair 7. A genetic condition resulting from the presence of an extra chromosome is called ______, while a condition resulting from the absence of a chromosome is called ______. A) Monosomy; Trisomy B) Trisomy; Monosomy C) Aneuploidy; Polyploidy D) Polyploidy; Aneuploidy 8. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition that affects females. What is the primary cause of Turner syndrome? A) The presence of an extra X chromosome B) The complete or partial absence of one X chromosome C) A mutation on the Y chromosome D) A mutation on an autosomal chromosome 9. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is primarily characterized by: A) Rapidly progressing cancer of the lymph nodes. B) Slow-growing cancer originating in the bone marrow. C) A type of skin cancer affecting younger adults. D) A blood disorder not related to cancer. 10. Which phase of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is characterized by persistent splenomegaly and an increase in blood basophils? A) Chronic phase B) Accelerated phase C) Blast phase D) All of the above Group 3: 1. A population is best defined as: a) All organisms on Earth. b) A local group of organisms of the same species. c) All organisms of a single species. d) A group of organisms capable of interbreeding, regardless of location. 2. Which of the following is NOT a factor that can disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? a) Genetic drift b) Mutation c) Random mating d) Natural selection 3. The Hardy-Weinberg Law describes: a) The change in allele frequencies over time. b) The constant allele and genotype frequencies in a population under specific conditions. c) The mechanisms of mutation. d) The effects of genetic drift. 4. Assortative mating refers to: a) Random mating. b) Mating based on geographic proximity. c) Mating between individuals with similar phenotypes. d) Mating between close relatives. 5. What does "p" represent in the Hardy-Weinberg equation (p² + 2pq + q² = 1)? a) The frequency of the recessive allele. b) The frequency of the dominant allele. c) The frequency of heterozygotes. d) The frequency of homozygotes. 6. A founder effect is best described as: a) The loss of alleles due to random chance. b) The establishment of allele frequencies in a new population by a small number of individuals. c) The increase in homozygosity due to inbreeding. d) The introduction of new alleles through migration. 7. Which of the following is a type of genetic variation? a) Natural selection b) Microsatellites c) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium d) Genetic drift 8. In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of homozygous recessive individuals is represented by: a) p b) q c) p² d) q² 9. Natural selection acts upon: a) Genotypes only b) Phenotypes only c) Both genotypes and phenotypes d) Neither genotypes nor phenotypes 10. What is fitness, in the context of population genetics? a) The ability to survive. b) The ability to reproduce. c) The relative reproductive success of an individual or genotype. d) The number of offspring produced.