Quiz PDF

QUIZ 1 9. He stated based on his observation that those populations who can 1. Which of the following terms adapt within their environment refers to alt...

QUIZ 1 9. He stated based on his observation that those populations who can 1. Which of the following terms adapt within their environment refers to alternative forms of a have an increased likelihood to gene? survive. - Alleles - Charles Darwin 2. A team of biologists decided to 10. This geneticist coined the word make an experiment about “vital heat” that has the capacity fireflies. Using a special enzyme, to produce an offspring. they cut the DNA of fireflies and - Aristotle inserted it into a bacteria to make 11. Input in UPPERCASE the correct it glow in the dark, the next base pair: (options: A or G or C or generation of these bacterias are T). T=_ able to light up in the dark. The - A characteristics of glow in the dark 12. It is the observable traits that an in these next generation of bacteria individual inherited from their are made possible because they parent. contain what specific molecule? - phenotype - Recombinant DNA 13. This theory states that a sperm 3. what is the structure of a DNA? contains a miniature model that is - double helix perfectly in proportion and is fully 4. Which process involves using formed. mRNA to direct the synthesis of - Theory of Preformation proteins in the ribosome? 14. Who coined the term spontaneous - mRNA translation 5. Which of the following theories suggests generation? that an organism develops from a - Pasteur fertilized egg through a succession of 15. Microdeletion (a type of mutation) developmental events? in this chromosome would cause - Theory of Epigenesis azoospermia or the absence of 6. Normal sequence of the central sperm in semen. dogma. - Chromosome Y - replication, transcription, translation 16. Nucleotides of the DNA: 7. Came up with chromosomal - Guanine, Thymine, Adenine, Cytosine theory of inheritancewhich has 17. Which of the following is a first continued to serve as the generation model organism foundation of genetics. commonly used in genetic studies - Gregor Mendel due to its short life cycle and ease 8. On what organelle of the cell of genetic analysis? where the mRNA is transformed - Fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster) into amino acids? - Cytoplasm  18. Input in UPPERCASE the correct - 4 base pair for this nucleotide: 9. The process of genetic exchange (options: A or G or C or T) G = _ where there is an exchange of - C paternal and maternal chromatid, 19. Which of the following is correct happens at what specific about sex chromosomes or chromosome structure? gametes? - Chiasma - Haploid: 23 chromosomes 10. Long arm of a chromosome 20. Model organism used to study located below the centromere. colon cancer. - q arm - E coli 11. Choose the correct chromosome pairing respectively: Male, Female - XY, XX 12. How many gamete/s are formed QUIZ 2 after a one cycle of meiosis in females? 1. Studded with ribosomes where - 1 mRNA translation to proteins 13. Sex-determining chromosomes are occurs. homologous in size, centromere - Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum placement, arm ratio, or genetic 2. Holds together the sister content but NOT in genetic regions chromatids during prophase to - false metaphase 14. All of the following are needed for - Cohesin disjunction to occur, EXCEPT 3. Haploid number of Homo sapiens. - all of the above - 23 15. Why are chromosomes visible 4. ______ is the powerhouse of the through the light microscope cell during the different stages of - Mitochondria mitosis? 5. Phase where chromosomes move - The chromatin fibers coils and folds to the equatorial plane resulting in a condensed state - Prometaphase 16. Shortest phase in mitosis? 6. Centromere location is at the - anaphase middle. 17. Combination of two gametes to - Metacentric reestablish the diploid number. 7. ___________ placement - Fertilization determines the arm ratios and 18. A group of researchers are shape of the chromosomes. identifying a possible error in - Centromere meiosis wherein there is a 8. How many sperms are produced mutation in cohesins which after meiosis?  resulted in non-separation (nondisjunction) of the tetrad during anaphase. An example of a disease where there is an error in meiosis is? - Down Syndrome 19. - - Y-linked trait 4. Mary consulted with a geneticist to know what are the odds of her having a baby with the following characteristics “Maganda, matangkad at blue ang mata”. What method should the geneticist use to determine the percentage of her having that baby? - Trihybrid cross This is the anaphase shape of a 5. Expression of a trait is called chromosome with __________ metaphase - Phenotype shape in which the centromere is located 6. Mutation in this chromosome leads to at the end of the chromosome. the loss of activity of hexosaminidase A, a protein product that is defective - Telocentric in this genetic disease leading to 20. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis takes accumulation of GM2 gangliosides in place in the ________ & _______, respectively the lysosomes of nerve cells. - Testes; Ovaries - Chromosome 15 7. In blood typing, which of the following allele can present as QUIZ 3 codominance? - Allele A and B 1. Identify which of the following is an example of an allele? 8. - D 2. Unrelated parents and related (consanguineous) parents are connected by -ir and__ horizontal line in a pedigree respectively. - single; double 3.  - Autosomal recessive 9. Maintains the integrity of telomeres especially on cell types that would 9. Which of the following is the undergo many cell divisions. organism used by Gregor Mendel in - Telomerase performing his first set of 10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE. hybridization experiments? I. The code is degenerate - Pisum sativum II. Code contains 1 start and 3 possible stop 10. What is an example of a disorder signals which terminates and initiates caused by dominant lethal allele? transcription respectively - Huntington Disease III. Each group of 3 nucleotide is called a codon IV. Code is non-overlapping CENTRAL DOGMA QUIZ 4 - II (APS) 11. Non-coding internal sequences present in pre-mRNAs but are 1. All of the following are parts of removed during posttranscription to translation EXCEPT: produce mature mRNA. - All of the above are parts of translation - Introns 2. Transcription occurs where in 12. A myoglobin is an example of what eukaryotes? type of protein structure - Nulceus - Quaternary 3. Site where the tRNA carrying the 13. Creation of an RNA strand from a anticodon and its corresponding DNA template which will be later amino acid binds to the mRNA. translated into Proteins. - Acceptor/A site - Transcription 4. The building block of both DNA and 14. The building block of both DNA and RNA are RNA are - Nucleotides - Nucleotides 5. In sickle cell anemia, in what location 15. Product of translation: of the amino acid underwent point - Protein/polypeptide mutation (Glu -> Val) ? 16. Product of transcription EXCEPT: - 6th amino acid - DNA 6. Each 1 complete turn of the helix is 17. The building block of both DNA and equal to? RNA are - 3.4 nm long - Nucleotides 7. Affected individuals present with 18. AGGAGG is the ______________ darkened ears and nose due to the which facilitates initiation in bacterial accumulation of homogentisic acid in translation their system and its deposition on - Shine-Dalgarno sequence cartilaginous area. 19. Input in UPPERCASE the correct base - Alkaptonuria pair for this nucleotide during 8. Carries anticodon and corresponding replication amino acid during translation. G = __C__ - tRNA (options: A or G or C or T)  20. This is the part of the amino acid that white and black phenotype are an determines the type of amino acid example of what type of inheritance? bound to a carbon atom? - Novel Phenotypes - R group 6. A researcher is to plot a Punnett square to study the inheritance of two traits being blue eyes (dominant) and hazel QUIZ 4 ( CPS) eyes (recessive). Using the standard convention, what would represent the dominant allele? 1. Denotes dominant allele. - H - Uppercase of the initial letter of the 7. In a certain species of fly, a translocation recessive trait. 2. A cross between parents with occurred resulting in a different contrasting traits generating an phenotypic expression despite having offspring with an intermediate an unchanged genotype with the phenotype is caused by what mode of wild-type organism. Identify the factor inheritance? that leads to this modification in - Incomplete dominance expression of gene. 3. Hen feathering is due to a dominant - Position allele, H, but regardless of the 8. Mutation has resulted in a complete loss homozygous presence of the recessive of functionin a gene product. h allele, all females remain - Null Allele hen-feathered. Identify the pattern of 9. A patient needed a blood transfusion. inheritance. Blood typing was done and neither of - Sex-limited inheritance the blood samples clotted when mixed 4. with antiserum-A and antiserum-B. What is his blood type? - Blood Type O 10. A patient came to you with difficulty in hearing. On further probing, the geneticist found out that there is a problem in the step by step development from the outer ear, to middle ear, and finally the inner ear causing problems in hearing. Knowing that each step is controlled by each gene, this is an example of what 5. Two species of heterozygous cattles mutation in inheritance? - Epigenesis with a genotype of AaBb x AaBb with a phenotype of brown in color produces 11. Arbitrarily designated as normal for offsprings of 9 white: 6 brown: and 1 occuring more frequently within a black. If the brown gene is both population. dominant alleles, the presence of new - Wild-type Allele  12. Oncogenes regulate the cell cycle which - All organisms have no change in DNA can lead to uncontrolled growth of cells composition if converted to its mutated state. 4. Non-coding internal sequences - False present in pre-mRNAs but are 13. What antibody is present in the plasma removed during posttranscription to of an individual with Blood type A? produce mature mRNA. - Anti-B - Introns 5. A geneticist extracted a nucleotide on an unknown organism. In order to confirm if the extracted nucleotide is a DNA, he/she should look at the hydroxyl group at what carbon position? - C2 6. Enumerate the three (3) STOP codons: UAA, UAG, UGA 7. Strand that has the same 5' to 3' nucleotide sequence but with U substituted for T in the RNA - Coding strand 14. In temperature sensitive mutation, what 8. The building block of both DNA and will happen to the enzyme in higher RNA are temperature? - Nucleotides - Decreased function 9. Which of the following is NOT a 15. Denotes recessive allele. characteristic of DNA polymerase 1? - Lowercase of the initial letter of the - It is only seen in multicellular organisms recessive trait 10. Why is the mitochondria given the name "powerhouse of the cell"? QUIZ 5 - It produces ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) needed for cellular respiration 1. Codon that encodes methionine and is 11. Transcription occurs where in the start codon. eukaryotes? - AUG - Nucleus 2. Which of the following is NOT TRUE. 12. Enzyme used to prevent supercoiling? 1. The code is degenerate. Il. - dna gyrase Code contains 1 start and 3 possible 13.. stop signals which terminates and 14. Also known as jumping genes initiates transcription respectively. - transposons Ill. group of 3 nucleotide is called a 15. Each 1 complete turn of the helix is codon. equal to? IV. Code is non-overlapping - 3.4m long - II 3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a genetic material? LONG QUIZ 1. Expression of a trait is called - Phenotype 2. Sequences retained in the mature DNA and are expressed - Exon 3. 9. How many chromosomes does an egg cell has? - 23 10. Unrelated parents and related (consanguineous) parents are connected by ________ and ________ horizontal line in a pedigree - Translation respectively. 4. These are considered as alternative - single; double forms of a gene 11. Who was the first to demonstrate that - Alleles infectious diseases are caused by 5. Linking of tRNA to their respective microbes which cannot arise from amino acid before translation can nonliving materials, disproving the proceed. This process is also known as concept of spontaneous generation. aminoacylation. - Louis Pasteur - Charging tRNA 12. Haploid number of Homo sapiens. 6. A helix is an example of what type of - 23 protein structure 13. What is the end result of - Secondary karyokinesis? 7. In blood typing, which of the - two daughter nuclei, each with a following allele can present as chromosome composition codominance? identical to the parent cell - Allele A and B 14. Which of the following is NOT Gregor 8. Mendel’s first three postulates? - Independent reassortment 15. Which chromosome is used for sex determination? - Y chromosome  16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE. 24. I. The code is nearly universal II. Code contains 1 start and 3 possible stop signals which initiates and terminates transcription respectively III. Each codon specifies >1 amino acid IV. Code is non-overlapping - III 17. Meiosis only produces gametes or spores that are characterized by one haploid : 23 set of chromosomes. - True 18. Codon that encodes methionine and is the start codon. - AUG 19. - Ala 25. In which phase does the cell is considered non dividing? - G0 26. What are the end products of a single oogenesis? - 1 ovum and 2 polar bodies - Sex-limited inheritance 27. White eyed fly was seen among red-eye 20. Transcription requires an RNA flies, the white eyed fly are brought about by? primer to initiate transcription of - Mutation DNA to RNA 28. Which is considered as the longest phase - False in cell cycle? 21. Who is the father of genetics? - interphase - Gregor Mendel 29. Incomplete or Partial dominance occurs 22. The mitochondria contains the paternal when: genetic DNA, which can be passed to the - Heterozygotes exhibit an intermediate offspring. phenotype between the two alleles - False 30. This postulate explains that during the 23. Denotes dominant allele. formation of gametes, the paired unit factors - Uppercase of the initial letter of the separate, or segregate, randomly so that each recessive trait. gamete receives one or the other with equal likelihood. - Segregation 31. Choose the correct base pair for this nucleotide during DNA transcription to RNA  - U 39. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the 32. Represents male sex in a pedigree. nucleus - Square - TRUE 33. Maintains the integrity of telomeres 40. In eukaryotes, translation of RNA to especially on cell types that would undergo proteins occurs in the cytoplasm, specifically many cell divisions. in the ribosomes - Telomerase - TRUE 34. A geneticist extracted a nucleotide on an 41. In rats, the presence of C (pigment) allele unknown organism. In order to confirm if the will determine whether the A (brown) or a extracted nucleotide is a DNA, he/she should (black) pigment will be expressed. This is an look at the hydroxyl group at what carbon example of what type of inheritance? position? - Epistasis - C2 42. A group of researchers want to identify 35. Mutation in this chromosome leads to the the dominant phenotype of an unknown loss of activity of hexosaminidase A, a protein genotype belonging in the parental product that is defective in this genetic generation. This unknown genotype should be disease leading to accumulation of GM2 crossed with a __________ organism. gangliosides in the lysosomes of nerve cells. - Homozygous recessive - Chromosome 15 43. The term "penetrance" refers to: 36. Mary consulted with a geneticist to know - The percentage of individuals with a what are the odds of her having a baby with particular genotype that actually show the following characteristics “Maganda, the expected phenotype matangkad at blue ang mata”. What method 44. During metaphase, where does spindle should the geneticist use to determine the fibers bind specifically for proper separation percentage of her having that baby? to opposite poles? - Trihybrid cross - Kinetochore 37. Sickle cell anemia is an example of what 45. All of the following are types of type of mutation? replication product EXCEPT - Point mutation - Alternative replication 38. 46. What antibody is present in the plasma of an individual with Blood type A? - Anti-B 47. TRUE OR FALSE: Sex-limited traits are expressed in both males and females, but the trait is more pronounced in one sex due to hormonal differences. - False - Autosomal Dominant (not sure) 48. - - site of ATP synthesis 49. 50. A patient needed a blood transfusion. Blood typing was done and neither of the blood samples clotted when mixed with antiserum-A and antiserum-B. What is his blood type? - Blood type O