Practice Test for Fourth Exam Fall 2024 PDF
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2024
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This is a practice test for a fourth exam, covering multiple-choice questions on topics such as brain anatomy, neurobiology, and physiology. The questions and answers are essential for students preparing for exams on human anatomy and physiology.
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Practice Test for fourth Exam fall 2024 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Two famously lateralized areas of the cerebral cortex a. primary auditory cortex b. auditory association cortex c. choi...
Practice Test for fourth Exam fall 2024 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Two famously lateralized areas of the cerebral cortex a. primary auditory cortex b. auditory association cortex c. choices (a) and (b) d. the pons e. Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area ____ 2. Glial cells that line the ventricular surfaces of the brain a. Microglial cells b. Schwann cell c. Oligodendrocyes d. Astrocytes e. None of the above ____ 3. Direct damage to this part of the brain could cause interference with a person’s ability to execute speech even though one could retain the ability to think and formulate the words one’s mind. a. prefrontal cortex b. right somatosensory cortex c. left primary motor cortex d. thalamus e. Broca’s area ____ 4. Region in which the decussation of the pyramids is found a. midbrain b. pons c. thalamus d. epithalamus e. None of the above ____ 5. Neurons whose cell bodies populate the dorsal root ganglion a. Rod cells b. Cohn cells c. Cone cells d. pseudo-unipolar neurons e. bipolar neurons ____ 6. Members of a triad that contain both calcium pumps and voltage activatable calcium channels a. terminal cisterns b. t-tubules c. transverse T-tubules and choice (b) as they both refer to the same structure and specify the correct answer d. z-disks e. None of the above ____ 7. A Sodium Potassium Pump a. is also known as sodium potassium ATPase b. pumps 3 sodium ions out of the cell per pump cycle c. pumps 2 potassium ions into the cell per pump cycle d. is electrogenic e. All of the above ____ 8. A toxin, that when pharmaceuticalized and marketed under the name BOTOX, can be used to treat spastic paralysis and diminish the presence of facial frown lines. a. sarin b. tetanus toxin c. Neostigmine d. Curare e. None of the above ____ 9. A mutation is discovered in the gene that encodes the central subunit of the troponin complex making it less able to bind calcium ion than normal. Which of the below is most plausibly an effect of this on a patient carrying the mutation, especially if a person is homozygous (contains two affected copies of the gene) for the mutation. a. deficiency in initiating initial twitch formation and subsequent summation of twitches b. physiological contractures, a rare event, would happen much more frequently c. deficiency in the ability to store creatine d. deficiency in the ability of creatine kinase to catalyze it reaction in both directions. e. None of the above ____ 10. Resting membrane voltage across a skeletal muscle cell or neuronal cell membrane is relative. Therefore, a cellular voltmeter is assigned a baseline voltage on one side of the membrane. This is done a. using the measurement electrode placed on the inside of the cell and assigning it a base line voltage of -85 mv b. using the reference electrode placed on the outside of the cell and assigning it a base line voltage of 0 mv c. using the reference electrode placed on the outside of the cell and assigning it a base line voltage of +70 mv d. Choice (a) for measuring the resting membrane voltage in a skeletal muscle cell and choice (c) for measuring the resting membrane voltage in a neuron e. using the measurement electrode placed on the inside of the cell and assigning it a base line voltage of -70 mv ____ 11. End-product of glycolysis taken up by mitochondria a. acetate b. pyruvate c. FADH2 d. NADH e. None of the above ____ 12. Fiber type(s) that is (are) relatively high in myoglobin a. Type I only b. Type IIA only c. choice (a) and (b) d. Type IIB only e. Type I and Type IIB ____ 13. Adenylate Kinase and creatine kinase a. are both enzymes that transfer a phosphate from one molecule to another molecule b. are both necessary during the first 9-10 seconds of crossbridge cycling c. choice (a) and (b) d. are both necessary enzymes in converting pyruvate to lactate in anaerobic glycolysis e. None of the above ____ 14. Outer most tunic of the eye a. retina b. ciliary body layer c. choroid d. sclera e. None of the above ____ 15. Below is a list of events you should be familiar with. These steps are listed out of order of occurrence 1. ATP induced crossbridge release 2. Exposure of active sites on actin via calcium binding to troponin 3. Crossbridge formation 4. Recovery Stroke 5. ATP hydrolysis by myosin head 6. Power Stroke Which of the below choices lists the numbered steps in the proper order they occur as listed from left to right? a. 1, 2, 6, 5, 4, 3 b. 1, 2, 3, 6, 5 4 c. 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 1 d. 2, 3, 6, 1, 5, 4 e. None of the above are the correct order ____ 16. Below is a list of events you should be familiar with 1. exocytosis of acetylcholine from the axon terminal 2. acetylcholinesterase destruction of acetylcholine 3. binding of acetylcholine to acetylcholine gated ion channels of the motor endplate 4. opening of voltage gated calcium channels of the axon terminal List the correct order of the above events as they occur in time from left to right a. 1, 4, 3, 2 b. 4, 1, 3, 2 c. 3, 4, 1, 2 d. 2, 3, 1, 4 e. None of the above are the correct order of events ____ 17. Major surgery on organs of the thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavities was initially made possible by using the toxin______________as a drug administered by an anesthesiologist to relax muscles allowing intubation. a. Neostigmine b. Sarin c. Cortisol d. Curare e. Botox ____ 18. Event(s) caused by ATP levels dropping below threshold values such that myosin heads fuse to the active sites on actin. a. physiological contracture b. rigor mortis c. choices (a) and (b) d. summation of graded potentials on skeletal muscle cells e. None of the above ____ 19. In establishing most of a resting membrane potential for either skeletal muscle cells and or neurons a. sodium leak channels allow sodium to leak out of the cell down its concentration gradient b. potassium leak channels allow potassium to leak out of the cell down its concentration gradient c. potassium leak channels allow potassium to move back into the cell down its electrical gradient via its attraction to Pr- d. choices (a) and (c) e. choices (b) and (c) ____ 20. Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells a. require the coordinated action of voltage gated sodium channels and voltage gated potassium channels b. require voltage gated sodium channels to activate (open), then inactivate c. require voltage gated potassium channels to activate (open) just as voltage gated sodium channels inactivate d. All of the above e. None of the above ____ 21. The autopilot of consciously planned movement of the brain a. cerebellum b. pons c. midbrain d. thalamus e. None of the above ____ 22. Event(s) during the lag or latent period of a muscle fiber twitch that precede the first crossbridge formations a. conduction of action potentials down sarcolemma b. conduction of action potentials down t-tubules c. opening of voltage activatable calcium channels of terminal cisterns d. all of the above e. none of the above ____ 23. A type of myogram performed on human patients used to assess muscle performance/activity via recording the size and density of motor unit activity of a given skeletal muscle over time in milliseconds. a. electrosarcogram b. force tension myogram c. electromyogram d. electrocardiogram e. electrosonogram ____ 24. The central sulcus a. is the sulcus that separates the pre-central gyrus from the post central gyrus b. is the sulcus that separates the cerebral hemispheres c. is the sulcus that separates the temporal lobe from the frontal lobe d. is the sulcus that separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe e. choices (a) and (d) ____ 25. Brain region that is “in between” the cerebrum and the midbrain a. thalamus only b. hypothalamus only c. epithalamus only d. diencephalon e. pons ____ 26. Inhabits the subarachnoid space a. the pia matter b. the dura matter c. venous blood d. cerebral spinal fluid e. none of the above ____ 27. By far, most neurons are of the___________ type a. pseudo-unipolar type b. multipolar type c. bipolar type d. astrocyte type e. None of the above ____ 28. You are a neurologist and are about to meet a patient who has recently had trauma to the left parietal lobe and has since had marked diminishment in understanding what he is reading and understanding what is being said to him, though he has no problem executing speech, has normal hearing and normal vision. A reasonable first assumption you make based on this, is that this patient has some degree of damage to a. Broca’s area b. Wernicke’s area c. the hypothalamus d. the epithalamus e. None of the above ____ 29. A period of unstimulatable membrane that overlaps the middle and back end of an action potential and thus imparts directionality to an action potential and guarantees it will not split in two or reflect back on itself when it comes to the end of an axon a. the latent phase b. the lag phase c. the refractory period d. the mutant phase e. None of the above ____ 30. Inspection of the primary motor cortex homunculus reveals that a disproportionately large number of neurons of the primary motor cortex are dedicated to a. controlling muscles of the hands/fingers, face, tongue and throat b. controlling muscles of the torso c. controlling muscles of the lower limbs d. choice (a) and thus controlling muscles requiring the most precise movements e. None of the above ____ 31. You are a psychiatrist specializing in treating personality disorders. A patient has been referred to you from a physician colleague with notes that the personality disorder was manifested in the aftermath of the patient sustaining a traumatic brain injury. Based on this, of the below, which portion of the patient’s brain would it be reasonable for you to think sustained at least some damage a. pons b. precentral gyri c. prefrontal cortex d. hypothalamus e. None of the above ____ 32. Toughest, thickest, most durable meningeal layer a. dura mater b. arachnoid mater c. pia mater d. cerebral spinal mater e. None of the above ____ 33. Structure learned about in class that contains proprioceptive stretch receptors a. sutures b. fontanel c. joint capsules of synovial joints d. joint capsules of diarthrotic joints e. Choices (c) and (d) as they both refer to the same collection of joints and that contain stretch receptors ____ 34. Gomphoses and syndesmoses a. are both joints exclusively found in the skull b. are both joints held together by ligaments c. are both joints bound together with joint capsules d. are both diarthrotic e. None of the above ____ 35. Example(s) of (a) synchondrosis(ses) a. joint between the parietal bones and the occipital bone of an infant b. joint between the two pubic bones c. joint between the ischial, ileum and pubic contributions of the acetabulum of a 9 -year old d. joint between the manubrium and the first rib and between an epiphysis and a diaphysis via an epiphyseal plate in a juvenile bone e. choices (c) and (d) ____ 36. A joint held together with a network of partially calcified periodontal ligaments a. a gomphosis b. a synchondrosis c. a synostosis d. a symphysis e. a suture ____ 37. Skeletal muscle cells, in preparation for converting a large amount of chemical energy into kinetic energy, are capable of storing a. water b. oxygen c. glucose d. carbon dioxide e. Choices (b) and (c) ____ 38. Synovial fluid a. is secreted by the synovial membrane of synovial joints b. is very similar in composition to serous fluid c. is very slippery d. All of the above e. None of the above ____ 39. Archeologists find a human skull along with other bones in an ancient grave site. All of the cranial bones are fused together via synostoses. Based on this, the archaeologist can conclude that the skull was that of a__________________at the time of death a. a child (less than 13 years old) b. a teenager up to a young adult (14 -25 years old) c. a person who had to be at least 70 years old or more (i.e., in their 7th decade of life) d. a person who had to be at least 70 years old or more (i.e., in their 8th decade of life) e. They can make conclusions, but none of the above as stated are correct conclusions that can be made ____ 40. Sutures (beyond the fontanel stage), synchondroses, gomphoses and synostoses all have in common that they are always a. diarthrotic b. amphiarthrotic c. synarthrotic d. choice (c) and are all held together by dense irregular connective tissue e. choice (c) and are all held together by hyaline cartilage ____ 41. The occurrence of a “broken hip” in an elderly person a. is almost always a break in the pubis portion of the os coxa b. is almost always a break in the ileum portion of the os coxa c. is actually a rupture in the pubic symphysis d. is almost always a fracture of the proximal most portion of the femur (in the vicinity of the intertrochanteric line) and is made more probable by the occurrence of osteoporosis e. None of the above ____ 42. Based on your knowledge of joints, which of the below are amphiarthrotic for a limited period of time around the time of birth a. pubic symphysis of the mother and the lumbar symphyses of the baby about to be born b. pubic symphysis of the mother and the synostoses of the baby about to be born c. pubic symphysis of the mother and the lumbar symphyses of the mother d. pubic symphysis of the mother and the fontanel sutures of the baby about to be born e. All of the above ____ 43. Myoglobin a. can be expressed in skeletal muscle cells to bind and store oxygen b. is related to hemoglobin c. like hemoglobin, is red in color which can contribute to the reddish color of muscle d. All of the above e. None of the above ____ 44. The plural of amphiarthrosis is a. amphiarthroses b. amphiarthosi c. amphiarthotics d. amphiarthrosises e. None of the above ____ 45. Formation of the “bony callus” occurs a. as the second of the 4 stages of bone healing b. as the 3rd of the 4 stages of bone healing c. choice (b) and is comprised of compact bone d. choice (b) and is comprised of woven bone e. choice (a) and is comprised of compact bone ____ 46. Sutures a. are the joints that fasten a tooth to the maxilla or mandible b. contain fibrocartilage c. are only found between bones of the skull d. are the only type of synarthrotic joint found in the skull e. contain hyaline cartilage ____ 47. A joint held together by the interosseus membrane and the oblique chord a. the radioulnar syndesmosis joint b. the pubic symphysis joint c. the radioulnar synchondroses joint d. a lumbar symphyses joint e. None of the above ____ 48. A region of tooth that forms a layer between the enamel and the pulp a. the neck b. the crown c. the root d. the dentin e. None of the above Practice Test for fourth Exam fall 2024 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: E PTS: 1 2. ANS: E PTS: 1 3. ANS: E PTS: 1 4. ANS: E PTS: 1 5. ANS: D PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: E PTS: 1 8. ANS: E PTS: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 10. ANS: B PTS: 1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 13. ANS: C PTS: 1 14. ANS: D PTS: 1 15. ANS: D PTS: 1 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: E PTS: 1 20. ANS: D PTS: 1 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 23. ANS: C PTS: 1 24. ANS: E PTS: 1 25. ANS: D PTS: 1 26. ANS: D PTS: 1 27. ANS: B PTS: 1 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 30. ANS: D PTS: 1 31. ANS: C PTS: 1 32. ANS: A PTS: 1 33. ANS: E PTS: 1 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 35. ANS: E PTS: 1 36. ANS: A PTS: 1 37. ANS: E PTS: 1 38. ANS: D PTS: 1 39. ANS: E PTS: 1 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 41. ANS: D PTS: 1 42. ANS: D PTS: 1 43. ANS: D PTS: 1 44. ANS: A PTS: 1 45. ANS: D PTS: 1 46. ANS: C PTS: 1 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 48. ANS: D PTS: 1