Pathanatomy Translation Serbia 2018 PDF

TEST QUESTIONS OF MODULE 2 FROM PATHOLOGICAL ANATOMY, January exam period 2018. 1. Early atherosclerotic lesions of the intima - type I and II lesions include: ________________________________________________________________________ greasy stains and streaks *2. Atherosclerotic lesions characteriz...

TEST QUESTIONS OF MODULE 2 FROM PATHOLOGICAL ANATOMY, January exam period 2018. 1. Early atherosclerotic lesions of the intima - type I and II lesions include: ________________________________________________________________________ greasy stains and streaks *2. Atherosclerotic lesions characterized by the formation of a large lipid core, with a pronounced fibrous component, composed of connective fibers, represent: a) greasy spots and streaks b) fibroatheromas c) preatheromas d) atheroma 3. Aneurysms that are characterized by a primary rupture of the intima and media, the creation of a false lumen in the media, as well as a possible external rupture of the adventitia are: a) aneurysms of inflammatory origin b) dissecting aneurysms c) atherosclerotic aneurysms d) false aneurysms 4. Name the missing lesion that defines Tetralogia of Fallot: a) stenosis of the infundibulum of the right ventricle b) _______________________________ ventricular septal defect c) dextroposition of the aorta d) right ventricular hypertrophy 5. The most significant cause of ischemic heart disease is: a) coronary artery embolism b) coronary disease c) disease of the small arteries of the heart d) obstructive atherosclerosis of coronary arteries 6. What form of ischemic heart disease does the following statement refer to: "Local necrosis of the myocardium caused by acute ischemia, most often due to the obstruction of a coronary artery" a) Acute myocardial infarction b) Angina pectoris c) Chronic ischemic disease d) Sudden cardiac death 7. Myocardial infarction that involves the entire thickness of the myocardium, and the basis of which is usually atherosclerosis with thrombosis that completely closes the lumen of the artery is: ________________________________________________________________________tr ansmural myocardial infarction 8. The most common cause of infectious myocarditis are: a) bacteria b) rickettsiae c) protozoa d) viruses 9. Cardiac tamponade represents: a) slight outflow of fluid into the pericardial sac without effect on the systemic venous inflow b) a small amount of fluid in the pericardial sac that does not disturb the flow of venous blood to the heart c) the presence of adhesions between the pericardium and the epicardium d) rapid outflow of fluid into the pericardial sac, over 300 ml, followed by the cessation of systemic venous flow to the heart *10. Which disease does the following definition refer to: "Disease accompanied by coughing and expectoration of mucous secretions for three months of the year, for at least two consecutive years, and cannot be attributed to other pulmonary or cardiac causes" ________________________________________________________________________ chronic bronchitis 11. A disease that diffusely affects small bronchi with an internal diameter of 2 mm, terminal and respiratory bronchioles with a diameter of 0.5-0.8 mm is: a) disease of small airways b) bronchial asthma c) bronchostenosis g) acute catarrhal bronchitis 12. Chronic inflammatory disease of the airways in people hypersensitive to various known and unknown stimuli from the external and internal environment with a significant role of mast cells, eosinophils, T lymphocytes, macrophages, neutrophils and epithelial cells in the pathogenesis is: a) catarrhal bronchitis b) gangrenous bronchitis c) pseudomembranous bronchitis d) bronchial asthma 13. A decrease in the air content in the lungs that can be congenital or acquired is: a) pulmonary embolism b) lobar pneumonia c) lung atelectasis d) emphysema of the lungs 14. The stage of active hyperemia, red and gray hepatization and the stage of resolution are the basic stages of the disease: a) chronic bronchitis b) diseases of hyaline membranes c) lobar pneumonia d) lung infarction 15. Which form of bronchopneumonia occurs as a result of stagnation of venous blood in the lungs: a) hypostatic bronchopneumonia b) aspiration bronchopneumonia c) gangrenous bronchopneumonia d) chronic pneumonia (carnification of the lungs) 16. Which of the listed lung tumors belongs to the group of neuroendocrine tumors: a) papillary adenocarcinoma b) small cell carcinoma c) acinar adenocarcinoma g) squamous cell carcinoma 17. Lung atelectasis caused by chest injuries, crash and blast syndrome, thoracic and abdominal surgery, diaphragm paralysis and bronchospasm, where air is forced out of the lungs and the tracheobronchial tree remains "bare" represents: a) Compression b) Obstructive-resorptive c) Collapse due to lack of surfactant d) Contractile collapse d) Mass collapse 18. Name TWO forms of bronchial asthma: ________________________________________ allergic (atopic)/extrinsic i ________________________________________non-atopic (autonomous)/ intrinsic 19. The three most important causes of anemia are: (Fill in the missing cause) 1) Disturbed production of erythrocytes 2) Increased destruction of erythrocytes 3) Increased blood loss 20. Bone marrow hypoplasia or aplasia with a defect at the pluripotent stem cell level leads to the appearance of: a) anemia b) pancytopenia c) leukopenia d) agranulocytosis 21. Which disease is most often associated with the appearance of pernicious anemia: a) chronic pancreatitis b) acute cholecystitis c) autoimmune atrophic gastritis d) acute appendicitis 22. The absence of white blood cell precursors in the bone marrow leads to findings in the peripheral blood in the form of: a) anemia b) thrombocytopenia c) agranulocytosis d) leukocytosis 23. Proliferated plasma cells in multiple myeloma secrete monoclonal Ig (well-differentiated) light or heavy Ig chains (poorly differentiated) which are demonstrated in the urine as: _______________________________________________________________________ paraproteins (Bence-Johns proteins) 24. Circle the statement related to the definition of leukemia: a) proliferation of a malignant clone of moderately differentiated hematopoietic cells, which invades the bone marrow and passes into the blood b) proliferation of a malignant clone of poorly differentiated hematopoietic cells, which affects the bone marrow, passes into the blood and infiltrates all organs c) proliferation of a malignant clone of well-differentiated hematopoietic cells, which invades the bone marrow, passes into the blood and infiltrates all organs g) proliferation of a malignant clone of poorly differentiated hematopoietic cells, affecting the bone marrow 25. Lymphatic tissue neoplasm, built from Reed-Stendberg cells, their variants and from the characteristic mixed inflammatory infiltrate, which makes up the largest part of the tumor, represents: a) not Hodgkin's lymphoma b) multiple myeloma c) Hodgkin's lymphoma d) plasmacytoma 26. The presence of the Philadelphia chromosome is characteristic: a) Acute leukemias b) Multiple myeloma c) Chronic myeloid leukemia d) Aplastic anemia 27. Malignant cells in leukemias (leukemic cells) are: a) retained the ability of metaplasia, but lost the ability of differentiation b) retained the ability to proliferate, but lost the ability to differentiate c) retained the ability to differentiate, but lost the ability to proliferate d) retained the ability to transform, but lost the ability to proliferate 28. The chronic, non-specific inflammatory process of the distal segment of the esophagus caused by gastro-esophageal and duodenal-gastro-esophageal reflux due to the incompetence of the lower sphincter represents: a) corrosive esophagitis b) viral esophagitis c) reflux esophagitis d) esophagitis caused by candida albicans 29. Chronic gastritis, which is morphologically characterized by the presence of numerous shallow ulcerations associated with reactive atypia and pronounced inflammatory infiltrate, represents: a) atrophic gastritis b) superficial gastritis c) erosive gastritis d) autoimmune A gastritis 30. Ulcer as the most common solitary lesion of size 0.5 to 3 cm, as a defect in the wall of the stomach (antrum, small curve, subcardiac region) or duodenum (bulbus, front or back wall) that arises due to an imbalance between the protective mechanisms of the mucosa and aggressive acidopeptic actions from of the lumen due to damage to the mucosal barrier represents: a) stress ulcers b) chronic peptic ulcer c) reflux occlusion d) Zollinger - Ellison syndrome 31. Ulcer complications are: (Name at least THREE) ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ bleeding, perforation, benign stenosis of the pyloric duct, penetration into the head of the pancreas (duodenal ulcer), transverse colon (gastric ulcer), malignant alteration 32. The most common histological type of stomach cancer is: a) adenocarcinoma b) diffuse carcinoma c) medullary carcinoma d) Oat cell carcinoma 33. The most common histological type of primary, malignant, epithelial tumor of the esophagus is: a) squamous cell carcinoma b) adenosquamous carcinoma c) carcinoid g) basal cell carcinoma *34. The most common infectious gastritis is: a) gastritis caused by candida albicans b) helicobacter pylori gastritis c) cytomegalovirus gastritis d) reflux gastritis 35. Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of the omphaloenteric duct in: a) sigmoid column b) transverse column v) ileum d) duodenum *36. Crohn's disease is: a) chronic, progressive, granulomatous inflammation of the intestinal wall b) acute, progressive, granulomatous inflammation of the terminal ileum v) acute, exudative inflammation of segments of the small and large intestine d) chronic interstitial colitis 37. The most common outcome of acute viral hepatitis is: a) recovery b) transition to chronic hepatitis c) liver cirrhosis d) death in hepatic coma 38. Which type of hepatitis virus can cause chronic hepatitis? a) virus A b) virus A and E c) virus B, D and C d) all hepatitis viruses 39. What does the assessment of chronic hepatitis activity depend on? a) from the degree of necrosis and inflammation b) from the degree of fibrosis c) from the degree of fibrosis and inflammation d) from the degree of inflammatory reaction 40. The color of the liver in alcoholic disease comes from: a) lipofuscinosis b) fatty changes c) bilirubinostasis d) hemosiderosis 41. Which of the following definitions of cirrhosis is complete? a) cirrhosis is a diffuse nodular regeneration of the liver b) cirrhosis is a diffuse irreversible transformation of the structure of the liver with nodular regeneration and fibrosis c cirrhosis is irreversible diffuse fibrosis of the liver d) cirrhosis is a diffuse transformation of the structure of the liver with fibrosis 42. Which of the following is true about cirrhosis of the liver? a) the liver in biliary cirrhosis has a yellow color b) portal-systemic anastomoses are a consequence of ascites c) cirrhosis is classified morphologically, etiologically and functionally d) the color of the cirrhotic liver depends on the degree of fatty change 43. Which of the listed primary liver tumors has the greatest tendency to grow into the veins of the liver? a) hepatoblastoma b) hepatocellular carcinoma c) cholangiocarcinoma d) hemangioendothelioma 44. State one localization of the porto-systemic shunt: ________________________________________________________________________ veins in and around the wall of the rectum, periumbilical veins, veins of the submucosa of the distal esophagus 45. Alcoholic liver disease manifests itself morphologically: a) fatty change, alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic cirrhosis b) bilirubin stasis, alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic cirrhosis c) fatty change, piecemeal necrosis and alcoholic cirrhosis d) fatty change, cholestasis and alcoholic cirrhosis 46. ​Which change in the liver parenchyma is not adaptive? a) fatty change b) atrophy c) hyperplasia d) induction of endoplasmic reticulum TEST QUESTIONS OF MODULE 3 FROM PATHOLOGICAL ANATOMY, January exam period 2018. 1. Complete lack of breasts is called: a) amastia b) athelia c) polymastia d) aplasia 2. Pathological disorders in the ductal epithelium (cysts) and stroma (fibrosis), which give clinical manifestations in the form of palpable masses localized in the breast, are: a) athelia b) inversio mammilae c) fibrocystic breast disease d) aplasia 3. The most common localization of breast tumors is in the area: a) lower outer quadrant b) inner upper quadrant c) inner lower quadrant d) central region d) upper outer quadrant 4. Inflammation of the breast, which most often has ragas on the nipple as an entry point, is: ________________________________________________________________________m astitis 5. Breast fibroadenoma is: a) benign tumor of epithelial origin b) benign tumor of mesenchymal origin c) benign tumor of mixed epithelial-mesenchymal origin d) malignant tumor of mixed epithelial-mesenchymal origin 6. Somatotropic adenomas lead to the occurrence of TWO diseases: ________________________________________________________________________ gigantism and acromegaly 7. Which two forms of manifestation of hypothyroidism exist: _________________________________________________________________________ _ Myxedema and cretinism 8. What is the most common histological type of thyroid cancer: a) follicular cancer b) papillary carcinoma c) medullary carcinoma d) anaplastic carcinoma 9. The most significant tumor of the adrenal medulla is: a) adenoma b) glioma c) medulla d) pheochromocytoma 10. Acute nephritic syndrome is manifested as: _______________________________________________________________________ acute hematuria, moderate or pronounced proteinuria, hypertension 11. According to the extent of changes in the glomerulus, glomerulonephritis can be: a) primary and secondary b) segmental and global c) interstitial and parenchymal d) acute chronic 12. State the definition of primary glomerulonephritis: _________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ Bilateral, segmental or global, focal or diffuse, non-purulent inflammation, immune in nature 13. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis belongs to the group of glomerulonephritis that manifest as: a) nephritic syndrome b) metabolic syndrome c) nephrotic syndrome d) blast syndrome 14. Which of the following tumors is the most common malignant kidney tumor: a) onococyte b) transitional cell carcinoma c) adenocarcinoma d) angiolipoma 15. The most common primary, malignant childhood tumor associated with developmental anomalies (abnormalities of the WT1 and WT2 genes on the short arm of chromosome 11) is: _______________________________________________________________________ Nephroblastoma - Wilms tumor *16. The most common bladder tumors are: a) squamous cell carcinomas b) transitional cell carcinomas c) basal cell carcinomas d) malignant melanomas 17. State TWO basic characteristics of transitional cell carcinomas of the urothelium of any location: Multicentricity and tendency to relapse 18. Add the name of the anomaly to which the specified characteristic refers; "The opening of the foreskin is so small that it makes it impossible to slide the foreskin back over the glans penis" _________________________________________________________________________ _Phimosis (phimosis) 19. The highest percentage of ectopic pregnancy is localized in: a) uterine isthmus b) cervix c) fallopian tube d) abdomen 20. Tumor cells of which of the mentioned tumors secrete chorionic gonadotropin? a) granulosa cell tumor b) Sertoli cell tumors c) choriocarcinoma d) Leydig cell tumors 21. The most common common inflammatory process of the fallopian tubes and ovaries is: ________________________________________________________________________ Tuboovarian abscess 22. Almost all cervical cancers are associated with: a) HPV infection b) Trichomonas vaginalis infection c) Infection with Helicobacter pylori g) HBV infection 23. What is the most common histological type of carcinoma of the uterine body? ________________________________________________________________________ Endometrioid carcinoma 24. Enlarged prostate, 2 to 4 times larger than normal, weighing up to 200 grams, medium firm, rubbery consistency, nodular and often microcystic and cystic changes, nodule size 0.5-1 cm in diameter, and they are clearly separated from each other the macroscopic feature is: a) Chronic prostatitis b) Adenocarcinoma of the prostate c) Acute bacterial prostatitis g) Hyperplasia adenostromalis prostatae 25. The presence of dysplastic changes in the secretory epithelium of the existing glands and ducts of the prostate, exists in the form of light and severe degrees, represents: a) Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN) b) Adenocarcinoma of the prostate c) Acute bacterial prostatitis g) Chronic prostatitis 26. The most common localization of prostate cancer is: a) central b) paraurethral c) peripheral d) the entire prostate equally 27. Which of the listed tumors is the most common testicular tumor a) seminoma b) embryonal carcinoma, c) yolk sac tumor, d) choriocarcinoma 28. Add the name of the pathological process of the CNS, to which the stated statement refers: "Compensatory enlargement of the brain ventricles caused by brain diseases characterized by brain atrophy (degenerative diseases) or loss of brain mass (post-infarction pseudocyst) _______________________________________________________________________Hy drocephalus ex vacuo 29. To which disease of the CNS does the following statement refer: Macroscopically, the brain shows a large atrophy of the cerebral cortex, especially of the frontal and temporal lobes with Hydrocephalus ex vacuo. Microscopic changes are diverse and include neurofibrillary degeneration, senile plaques, amyloid angiopathy, granulovacuolar degeneration, and Hirano bodies: a) Huntington's disease (Chorea) b) Pick's disease c) Alzheimer's disease d) Friedreich's ataxia 30. Parkinson's disease belongs to which group of the mentioned degenerative diseases a) Diseases with a predominant affection of the cerebral cortex, b) Diseases with a predominant affection of the extrapyramidal system c) Diseases with predominant affection of the cerebellum and spinal cord (spinocerebral degeneration) g) Diseases with predominant motor neuron affection 31. Which of the listed types of intracranial hemorrhage corresponds to the following statement: During a pressure crisis, there is a rupture of blood vessels and penetration of blood under increased pressure into the brain tissue a) Hypertensive massive cerebral hemorrhage b) Peripheral (lobar) type of massive cerebral hemorrhage c) Subarachnoid hemorrhage d) Subdural bleeding 32. To which type of the listed diseases does Multiple Sclerosis belong. a) Diseases caused by slow viruses b) Demyelinating diseases c) Degenerative diseases g) Parasitic diseases 33. Add the missing CNS tumor type 1. _______________________________________________ NEUROEPHITELIAL TUMORS (GLIOMS) 2. Brain tumors 3. Malignant lymphomas and hematopoietic neoplasms 4. Tumors of germ cells 5. Tumors of the sellar region 6. Metastatic tumors *34. Meningeoma belongs to which of the mentioned groups of tumors a) Neuroepithelial tumors b) Brain tumors c) Primitive neuroectodermal tumors - PNET (embryonic tumors) g) Tumors of the sellar region 35. Hypertensive massive cerebral hemorrhage represents: a) the most destructive lesion of the brain, occurs in younger people who develop cerebral hypertensive microangiopathy with the appearance of hypertensive bleeding b) the most destructive lesion of the brain, occurs in people who suffer from arterial hypertension for a long time, which causes cerebral hypertensive microangiopathy with the appearance of hypertensive bleeding c) the mildest brain lesion, occurs in people who suffer from arterial hypertension for a long time, which causes cerebral hypertensive microangiopathy with the appearance of hypertensive bleeding d) the most destructive brain lesion, occurs in persons suffering from congenital cerebral microangiopathy with bleeding 36. Circulation in the brain depends on: a) the transverse diameter of the blood vessel lumen b) high blood pressure c) blood oxygen saturation d) all of the above is true 37. Central keratin eosinophilic masses (armoring beads - cancer beads) are characteristic of the histological picture: a) Melanoma b) Squamous cell carcinoma c) Seborrheic dermatoses d) Basal cell carcinoma 38. A tumor that develops from the basal cells of the epidermis or from the stem epithelial cells of the skin that differentiate into hair cells, sebaceous and apocrine glands is called: a) Basocellular carcinoma b) Carcinoma squamocellulare c) Basocellular adenocarcinoma g) Melanoma 39. Which of the above statements refers to squamous cell carcinoma? a) never metastasizes, but has infiltrative-destructive growth b) it is more common in elderly people in the head and neck region c) usually occurs on hairy skin d) quickly produces hematogenous metastases 40. Bowen's disease is: _______________________________________________________________________Sq uamous cell carcinoma "in situ" 41. The most common localization of malignant soft tissue tumors is: a) on the upper extremities b) on the lower extremities c) on the head and neck d) on the hull 42. The most common malignant soft tissue tumors are: a) lymphoma and angiosarcoma b) liposarcoma and fibrosarcoma c) liposarcoma and malignant fibrous histiocytoma d) angiosarcoma and fibrosarcoma 43. Dupuytren's contracture is: a) tumor-like joint lesion b) palmar fibromatosis c) degenerative joint disease d) changes in arthritis 44. Osteomyelitis is: ________________________________________________________________________ inflammation of bone tissue and bone marrow 45. Reduction of bone mass, with a preserved ratio of mineralized and non-mineralized bone matrix, which occurs as a result of the inability of osteoblasts to regenerate bone during the bone remodeling process is: a) osteomalacia b) osteolysis c) osteoporosis d) osteosynthesis 46. ​According to localization, osteosarcomas are divided into: a) intraosseous, extraosseous, periosteal and paraosteal b) central and juxtacortical c) medullary and extramedullary d) juxtacortical and medullary 5eme annee 15. According to the primary localization of the cause, cholestasis is divided into: a) confluent and zonal -b) intrahepatic and extrahepatic c) centroacinus and intrahepatie d) port and periport 16. A combined mammary tumor of glandular and epithelial origin built from a loose fibrous stroma containing duetal spaces lined with epithelium is: a) papilloma b) fibroadenoma c) adenoma d) polyp 17. Myxedema is a clinical manifestation: a) hyperthyroidism in adults - b) hypothyroidism in adults c) hyperthyroidism in children d) hypothyroidism in children 18. Meningeoma belongs to which of the mentioned groups of tumors a) Neuroepithelial tumors b) Tumors of the meninges c) Primitive neuroectodermal tumors - PNETs (embryonic tumors) d) Tumors of the sellar region 19. The most common cause of osteomyelitis is: a) klebsiella - b) staphylococcus c) streptococcus d) pseudomonas 20. Tumor cells of which of the mentioned tumors secrete chorionic gonadotropin? a) granulosa cell tumor b) Sertoli cell tumors c) choriocarcinoma d) Yolck salk tumor 8. The following statement refers to which form of ischemic heart discase: "Local necrosis of the myocardium caused by acute ischemia, most often due to the obstruction of a coronary artery" a) Acute myocardial infarction b) Angina pectoris c) Chronic ischemic disease d) Sudden cardiac death 9. Which disease does the following definition refer to: "Disease accompanied by coughing and expectoration of mucous secretions for three months of the year, for at least two consecutive years, and cannot be attributed to other pulmonary or cardiac causes" a) acute catarrhal bronchitis b) gigantocellular bronchitis c) chronic bronchitis d) acute purulent bronchitis 10. The presence of liquid in the interstitium of the lungs and alveoli, caused by transudation from the pulmonary capillaries, represents: a) lung hemorrhage - b) pulmonary edema c) lung infarction d) emphysema of the lungs 11. A reduction in the mass of erythrocytes in the circulation below normal values or a lack of functionally capable hemoglobin in a unit of blood volume is called: 12. The most common bladder tumors are: a) squamous cell carcinomas - b) transitional cell carcinomas c) basal cell carcinomas d) malignant melanomas 13. The most common infectious gastritis is: a) gastritis caused by candida albicans - b) Helicobacter pylori gastritis c) cytomegalovirus gastritis d) reflux gastritis 14. Crohn's disease is: a) chronic, progressive, granulomatous inflammation of the intestinal wall b) acute, progressive, granulomatous inflammation of the terminal ileum c) acute, exudative inflammation of segments of the small and large intestine d) chronic interstitial colitis 1. The adaptation process in which tissue and organ size decreases is: a) atrophy b) Hypertrophy c) Hyperplasia d) Metaplasia 2. A field of tissue or organ ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of arterial inflow or ocelusion of venous drainage is the appropriate definition for a) Infarctus b) Thrombosis c) Shock d) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) 3. What is tissue regeneration? 4. "PUS" is a feature of which inflammation: a) serous -b） purulent c) fibrinous d) catarrhal 5. A benign tumor of blood vessels is: a) lipoma b) adenoma e) hemangioma d) angiosarcoma 6. Benign tumors are characterized by: a) Tissue atypia b) Tissue and cellular atypia c) Cellular and nuclear atypia d) High degree of dedifferentiation 7. Atherosclerotic lesions characterized by a formed large lipid core, with a pronounced fibr component, composed of connective fibers, represent: a) fatty spots and streaks b) fibroatheromas c) preatheromas d) atheroma