Engineering Management Objectives PDF

ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT 1. Management is: A. An art B. Both science and art C. A science D. Neither art nor science 2. Engineering is: A. An art B. Both science and art C. A science D. Neither art nor science 3. Engineers can become good managers only through __________. A. Experience B. Taking master degree in management C. Effective career planning D. Trainings 4. If you are an engineer wanting to become a manager, what will you do? A.Develop new talents B. Acquire new values C. Broaden your point of view D. All of the above 5. When engineer enters management, what is the most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire? A. Learning to trust others B. Learning how to work through others C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the work of others D. All of the above 6. What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead to the desired outcomes and goals? A. Planning B. Leading C. Controlling D. Organizing 7. What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company? A. Planning B. Leading C. Controlling D. Organizing 8. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel? A. Organizing B. Staffing C. Motivating D. Controlling 9. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way and channeling resources? A. Directing B. Planning C. Organizing D. Leading 10. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function? A. Organizing B. Planning C. Controlling D. Staffing 11. What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction? A. Staffing B. Motivating C. Controlling D. Leading 12. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization? A. Directing B. Motivating C. Staffing D. Controlling 13. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs? A. Project Management B. Engineering Management C. Management D. Planning 14. Which is NOT an element of project management process? A. Data and information B. Research and development C. Decision making D. Implementation and action 15. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager? A. Leadership B. Charisma C. Communication skill D. Knowledge 16. In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage of its development? A. R & D model B. Project feasibility C. Life cycle model D. All of the above 17. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project? A. Morris model B. Waterfall model C. Incremental release model D. Prototype model 18. In project management, “R & D” stands for: A. Retail Distribution B. Research and Development C. Repair and Develop D. Reduce and Deduce 19. In project management O & M stands for: A. Operation and Manpower B. Operation and Maintenance C. Operation and Management D. Operation and Mission 20. A project management must be very good in which of the following skills? A. Communication skills B. Human relationship skills C. Leadership skills D. All of the above 21. Project integration management involves which of the following processes? A. Project plan development B. Project plan execution C. Integrated change control D. Quality planning 22. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except: A. Quality planning B. Quality assurance C. Quality Control D. Quality feature 23. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-making? A. Electronic Data Processing Systems B. Management Information System C. Central Processing System D. Data Management System 24. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity? A. Intermediate planning B. Strategic planning C. Operational planning D. Direct planning 25. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level? A. Lower management level B. Middle management level C. Top management level D. Lowest management level 26. What is the advantage of free-rein style of leadership? A. Little managerial control and high degree of risk B. Time consuming and cost ineffective C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision- making D. D. All of the above 27. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to A. Set goals B. Determine the resources needed C. Set a standard D. Develop strategies and tactics 28. What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objective efficiently and effectively? A. General Management B. Engineering Management C. Production Management D. Operations Management 29. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good __________. A. Interpersonal skills B. Communication skills C. Leadership D. Decision- making skills 30. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden agenda? A. Technical opinion conflict B. Politics C. Ambiguous roles D. Managerial procedure conflict 31. The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as __________. A. Division of labor B. Segmentation C. Departmentalization D. Territorialization 32. By departmentalization of an organization, it decentralizes __________? A. Authority B. Responsibility C. Accountability D. All of the above 33. What type of committee companies or corporations created for a short term purpose only? A. Interim committee B. Temporary committee C. Standing committee D. Ad hoc committee 34. What refers to a description of whether the objectives are accomplished? A. Efficiency B. Effectiveness C. Ability to manage D. Decision- making ability 35. An engineering is required to finish a certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be __________ if he finished the job within the required period of 20 days A. Efficient B. Effective C. Reliable D. Qualified 36. If an engineer provides less input (labor and materials) to his project and still come out with the same output, he is said to be more __________. A. Managerial skill B. Economical C. Effective D. Efficient 37. To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer manager will subject the applicant to a test that is used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a subject? A. Interest test B. Aptitude test C. Performance test D. Personality test 38. What type of training is a combination of on-the-job training and experience with classroom instruction in particular subject? A. On-the-job training B. Vestibule school C. Apprenticeship program D. In-basket 39. What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in the project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in the organization? A. Top authority B. Line authority C. Staff authority D. Functional authority 40. When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his superior, he is using what type of authority? A. Top authority B. Line authority C. Staff authority D. Functional authority 41. When structuring an organization, the engineer manager must be concerned with the determining the scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This refers to __________. A. Division of labor B. Delegation of authority C. Departmentation D. Span of control 42. When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to: A. Division of labor B. Delegation of authority C. Departmentation D. Span of control 43. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation? A. Comparison technique B. Intuition and subjective judgment C. Rational technique D. Analytical technique 44. Which technique will the manager use when evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation? A. Rational and analytical techniques B. Intuition and subjective judgment C. Comparison in number technique D. Cost analysis 45. What refers to the strategic statement that identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of management, and its purpose as distinguished from other similar organizations in terms of products, services and markets? A. Corporate mission B. Corporate vision C. Corporate character D. Corporate identity 46. What refers to a process of influencing and supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives? A. Power B. Leadership C. Teamwork D. Charisma 47. What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer’s waiting time and cost of service? A. Queuing theory B. Network model C. Sampling theory D. Simulation 48. What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited or partial information about the decision environment? A. Sampling theory B. Linear programming C. Decision theory D. Simulation 49. What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and marketing research? A. Sampling theory B. Linear programming C. Statistical decision theory D. Simulation 50. The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest? A. Physiological need B. Security need C. Esteem need D. Self - actualization need 51. What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job? A. Training B. Development C. Vestibule D. Specialized courses 52. What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities? A. Benchmark job technique B. Parametric technique C. Modular technique D. Non- modular technique 53. What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise? A. Functional organization B. Territorial organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 54. What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit? A. Functional organization B. Territorial organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 55. What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 56. In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Process organization D. Product organization 57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix organization? A. Rapid reaction organization B. Adaptation to changing environment C. State-of-the-art technology D. Better utilization of resources 58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix organization? A. Dual accountability of personnel B. Conflicts between project and functional managers C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult D. Inefficient use of specialist 59. Which one is an advantage projectized organization? A. Efficient use of technical personnel B. Good project schedule and cost control C. Single point for customer contact D. Rapid reaction time possible 60. Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized organization? A. Uncertain technical direction B. Inefficient use of specialist C. Insecurity regarding future job assignments D. Slower work flow 61. Which one is an advantage of a functional organization? A. Efficient use of technical personnel B. Rapid reaction time possible C. Career continuity and growth of technical personnel D. Good technology transfer between projects 62. Which one is disadvantage of a functional organization? A. Weak customer interface B. Weak project authority C. Inefficient use of specialist D. Slower work flow 63. In what type of organization where a project manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget? A. Functional organization B. Matrix organization C. Projectized organization D. Project coordinated organization 64. In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion? A. Finance and accounting B. Customer relation C. Location D. Technology 65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects? A. Overhead cost B. Type of technology used C. Location of the project D. Level of uncertainty in projects 66. If a project have multidimensional goals, the project manager often use his __________ to reach a compromise solution. A. Leadership B. Tradeoff analysis skill C. Authority D. Decision-making skill 67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction? A. Functional manager B. Project manager C. Chief engineer D. Department supervisor 68. Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively? A. Area manager B. Sales manager C. Functional manager D. Project manager 69. What is the major activity of the project support office? A. Administrative support for projects B. Support for tools and techniques C. Overall project management support D. Project management via the internet 70. What is the major activity of the project office? A. Administrative support for projects B. Support for tools and techniques C. Overall project management support D. Project management via internet 71. What is an important tool for the design and implementation of the project’s work content? A. Linear responsibility chart B. Gantt chart C. Life cycle model D. Project design chart 72. What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each project element? A. Linear responsibility chart B. Matrix responsibility chart C. Responsibility interface matrix D. All of the above 73. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity? A. Forecasting B. Critical path method C. Program evaluation review technique D. Simulation 74. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by employing three time estimate for each activity? A. Forecasting B. Critical path method C. Program evaluation review technique D. Simulation 75. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for? A. Critical plan method B. Critical path method C. Critical project method D. Coordinated plan method 76. For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for? A. Project evaluation review technique B. Program evaluation review technique C. Path evaluation review technique D. Program execution review technique 77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management? A. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling project. B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks C. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dares as well as the probability that the project will be completed by a specific date D. All of the above 78. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in what year? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960 79. In what year was PERT developed? A. 1957 B. 1958 C. 1959 D. 1960 80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence? A........................................................... 1 B........................................................... 2 C........................................................... 4 D........................................................... 5 81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model? A. Planning and design B. Feasibility C. Production D. Turnover and startup 82. Risk management is: A. Risk avoidance B. Controlling risk C. To gain opportunities D. All of the above 83. What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project? A. Create buffer in the form of management reserve or extra time in schedule B. Use a different technology C. Use a different supplier D. Buying insurance 84. Buying insurance is a form of: A. Risk elimination B. Risk reduction C. Risk sharing D. Risk absorption 85. What refers to any technique used either to minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences? A. Reliability management B. Risk management C. Quality assurance management D. Project assurance management 86. What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies? A. Risk management B. Risk-benefit analysis C. Benefit management D. Uncertainty analysis 87. What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an approval from his or her manager? A. Responsibility B. Leadership C. Authority D. Tradeoff skill 88. What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives? A. Goal B. Strategy C. Program D. Plan 89. When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge: A. Lacks leadership skill B. Has inadequate control C. Has poor organization D. Has no proper planning 90. What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand? A. Statistical confidence B. Tolerance C. Incompleteness of the data D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem 91. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for? A. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication C. Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication D. Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication 92. In the management tools, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which is the appropriate question will the manager ask? A. What do we need to get it done? B. What are we aiming to do? C. How are we going to do it? D. What is the operation environment? 93. In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a project? A. Select appropriate performance measures B. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance C. Identify a need for a product or service D. Develop a technological concept 94. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the next step? A. Define the goals of the project and their relative importance B. Develop a budget C. Develop a schedule D. Develop the technological concept 95. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project? A. Select appropriate performance measures B. Implement a plan C. Monitor and control the project D. Evaluate project success 96. To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will take __________ times longer to complete than expected”. A. Three B. Four C. Two D. Two and a half 97. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the __________. A. Finance manager B. Manufacturing manager C. General manager D. Marketing manager 98. What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority called? A. Organization chart B. Authority chart C. Policy chart D. Control chart 99. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations? A. Sampling theory B. Alternative-analysis C. Problem-solving D. Decision-making 100. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money? A. Engineering management B. Engineering technology C. Technical manger D. General management 101. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives. A. Management B. Planning C. Organizing D. Supervision 102. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.” A. Engineering Management B. Engineering Materials C. Engineering Organization D. Engineering Club 103. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except A. Testing B. Construction C. Sales D. Physical Education 104. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories. A. Research B. Design and Development C. Testing D. Manufacturing 105. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a finished physical term. A. Research B. Manufacturing C. Testing D. Design and Development 106. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for workability. A. Research B. Design and Development C. Testing D. Manufacturing 107. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product. A. Research B. Design and Development C. Testing D. Manufacturing 108. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction process. A. Construction B. Sales C. Consulting D. Government 109. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs, especially those that require technical expertise. A. Construction B. Government C. Consulting D. Sales 110. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization requiring his services. A. Construction B. Sales C. Consulting D. Government 111. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the activities of various institutions, public or private. A. Construction B. Sales C. Government D. Consulting 112. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses. A. Teaching B. Government C. Management D. Consulting 113. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific tasks. A. Teaching B. Government C. Management D. Consulting 114. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation. A. Decision Making B. Engineering Management C. Initiative D. Problem solving 115. The first step in Decision making process is to A. Analyze environment B. Diagnose problem C. Make a choice D. Articulate problem or opportunity 116. The last step in decision making process is to A. Analyze environment B. Make a choice C. Diagnose problem D. Evaluate and adapt decision results 117. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment. A. Quantitative evaluation B. Qualitative evaluation C. Relative evaluation D. Subjective evaluation 118. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational and analytical. A. Quantitative evaluation B. Qualitative evaluation C. Relative evaluation D. Subjective evaluation 119. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives. A. Management B. Planning C. Organizing D. Supervision 120. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning 121. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning 122. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning 123. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning 124. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning 125. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management. A. Operational Planning B. Intermediate Planning C. Strategic planning D. Secondary Planning 126. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Short-range plans 127. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by product family. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Short-range plans 128. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Short-range plans 129. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan. A. Marketing Plan B. Financial Plan C. Production Plan D. Human Resource Management Plan 130. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these planes. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans 131. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top management. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans 132. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans 133. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or function. A. Policies B. Procedures C. Guidelines D. Rules 134. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation. A. Policies B. Procedures C. Guidelines D. Rules 135. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action. A. Policies B. Procedures C. Guidelines D. Rules 136. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated. A. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans C. Standing Plans D. Single-Use Plans 137. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from. A. Project B. Budget C. Program D. Financial Statement 138. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities. A. Project B. Budget C. Program D. Financial Statement 139. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program. A. Project B. Budget C. Program D. Financial Statement 140. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner. A. Organizing B. Planning C. Supervising D. Structure 141. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization. A. Organizing B. Planning C. Supervising D. Structure 142. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization 143. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization 144. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with a certain type of product or customer. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization 145. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization 146. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division manager and to a project or group manager. A. Functional Organization B. Product or Market Organization C. Matrix Organization D. Divisible Organization 147. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it. A. Line authority B. Staff authority C. Functional authority D. Head authority 148. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior. A. Line authority B. Staff authority C. Functional authority D. Head authority 149. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization. A. Line authority B. Staff authority C. Functional authority D. Head authority 150. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life. A. Ad hoc committee B. Standing committee C. Sinking committee D. Midget committee 151. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis. A. Ad hoc committee B. Standing committee C. Sinking committee D. Midget committee 152. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization. A. Resourcing B. Recruitment C. Hiring D. Staffing 153. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization. A. Forecasting B. Control C. Programming D. Recruitment 154. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals. A. Forecasting B. Control C. Programming D. Recruitment 155. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success. A. Forecasting B. Evaluation and Control C. Programming D. Recruitment 156. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected. A. Forecasting B. Evaluation and Control C. Programming D. Recruitment 157. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on the job. A. Forecasting B. Evaluation and Control C. Selection D. Training 158. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and coworkers. A. Performance Appraisal B. Induction and Orientation C. Training and Development D. Monetary Rewards 159. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job. A. Performance Appraisal B. Induction and Orientation C. Training and Development D. Monetary Rewards 160. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition. A. Monetary reward B. Promotion C. Demotion D. Transfer 161. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization. A. Monetary reward B. Promotion C. Demotion D. Transfer 162. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position. A. Separation B. Promotion C. Demotion D. Transfer 163. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee. A. Separation B. Transfer C. Termination D. Demotion 164. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message. A. Counseling B. Communication C. Hypnotism D. Language 165. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization. A. Information Function B. Emotive Function C. Motivation Function D. Control Function 166. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the organizations objectives. A. Information Function B. Emotive Function C. Motivation Function D. Control Function 167. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance. A. Information Function B. Emotive Function C. Motivation Function D. Control Function 168. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight. A. Verbal B. Oral C. Written D. Nonverbal 169. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements. A. Verbal B. Oral C. Written D. Nonverbal 170. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal. A. Suppression B. Motivation C. Praising D. Unification 171. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except: A. Willingness to do a job B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task C. Needs satisfaction D. Inferiority complex 172. The following are considered theories of Motivation except: A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory B. Expectancy Theory C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory D. Gagarin’s Theory 173. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals. A. Sales talk B. Motivation C. Leading D. Commanding 174. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions within the organization. This describes: A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power 175. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as: A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power 176. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment. A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power 177. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the former. A. Legitimate power B. Referent power C. Coercive power D. Reward power 178. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader: A. A high level of personal drive B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology C. Charisma D. Greedy 179. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future. A. Planning B. Controlling C. Evaluation D. Inspection 180. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence. A. Feed forward control B. Preventive control C. Concurrent control D. Feedback control 181. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made. A. Feed forward control B. Preventive control C. Concurrent control D. Feedback control 182. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived. A. Feed forward control B. Preventive control C. Concurrent control D. Feedback control 183. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways. A. Operation B. Production C. Construction D. Creation 184. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively. A. Planning B. Operations management C. Evaluation management D. Backboning 185. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation. A. Product Design B. Blueprinting C. Product planning D. Conceptualizing 186. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities. A. Product Design B. Blueprinting C. Product planning D. Conceptualizing 187. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long each operation in the production process takes. A. Plotting B. Scheduling C. Timetable D. Anticipating 188. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm. A. Work B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management 189. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods. A. Work-Flow Layout B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management 190. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system. A. Work-Flow Layout B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management 191. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company. A. Work-Flow Layout B. Quality Control C. Inventory Control D. Purchasing and Materials Management 192. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services. A. Advertisement B. Commercial C. Marketing D. Sales 193. The four P’s of marketing are the following except: A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Publicity 194. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place 195. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or service. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place 196. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place 197. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior. A. Product B. Price C. Promotion D. Place 198. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action. A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Sales promotion D. Personal selling 199. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor. A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Sales promotion D. Personal selling 200. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service. A. Advertising B. Publicity C. Sales promotion D. Personal selling ENGINEERING MATERIALS 1. What are considered as the “building blocks” for engineering materials? A. Atoms B. Elements C. Matters D. Compounds 2. What are the major classes of engineering materials? A. Metals, ceramics and semiconductors B. Polymers, metals and composites C. Metals, ceramics, polymers and semiconductors D. Metals, ceramics, polymers, semiconductors and composites 3. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field? A. Crystals B. Amorphous materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Metalloids 4. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber form? A. Metalloids B. Matrix alloys C. Metal lattices D. Metal Matrix composites 5. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element? A. Metalloids B. Matrix Composite C. Inert D. Ceramic 6. Polymer comes from Greek words “poly” which means “many” and “meros” which means __________. A. metal B. material C. part D. plastic 7. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called ____________. A. Polyvinyl chloride B. Polymers C. Polyethylene D. Mers 8. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components materials do not have by themselves? A. Compound B. Composite C. Mixture D. Matrix 9. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering materials? A. Periodic Table B. Truth Table C. Building blocks of Materials D. Structure of Materials 10. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling? A. Melting point B. Curie point C. Refractive index D. Specific heat 11. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces? A. Melting point B. Thermal conductivity C. Thermal expansion D. Curie point 12. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled environment? A. Dielectric strength B. Electric resistivity C. Water absorption D. Thermal conductivity 13. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to area? A. Thermal expansion B. Thermal conductivity C. Heat distortion temperature D. Water absorption 14. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference (voltage) that an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk? A. Thermal expansion B. Conductivity C. Dielectric strength D. Electrical resistivity 15. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water to 1 degree. A. Specific heat B. Latent heat C. Heat of fusion D. Heat of fission 16. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of deflection? A. Curie temperature B. Specific heat C. Heat distortion temperature D. Thermal conductivity 17. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant temperature? A. Creep strength B. Stress rapture strength C. Compressive yield strength D. Hardness 18. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation? A. Rigidity B. Plasticity C. Ductility D. Hardness 19. What parameter is defined as the temperature at which the toughness of the material drops below some predetermined value, usually 15ft-lb? A. Nil ductility temperature B. Curie temperature C. Thermal conductivity D. Heat distortion temperature 20. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails? A. Elastic limit B. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material C. Creep D. All of the choices 21. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness? A. Lay B. Out of flat C. Camber D. Waviness 22. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface roughness? A. Lay B. Waviness C. surface finish D. D. Out of flat 23. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called ________. A. plastic B. lignin C. mer D. additive 24. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different monuments? A. Copolymerization B. Blending C. Alloying D. Cross-linking 25. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as “nylon”? A. Polyacetals B. Polyamide C. Cellulose D. Polyester 26. By definition, a rubber is a substance that has at least _____ elongation in tensile test and is capable of returning rapidly and forcibly to its original dimensions when load is removed. A. 100 % B. 150 % C. 200 % D. 250 % 27. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes in which the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in contact with the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold? A. Calendaring B. Blow molding C. Thermoforming D. Solid phase forming 28. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die? A. Calendaring B. Thermoforming C. Lithugraphy D. Extrusion 29. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment? A. Stereo specificity B. Corrosion resistance C. Conductivity D. Electrical resistance 30. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an ordered, spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules? A. Stereo specificity B. Conductivity C. Retentivity D. Spatial configuration 31. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material? A. Impact strength B. Endurance limit C. Creep strength D. Stress rupture strength 32. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress? A. Elongation B. Elasticity C. Creep D. Rupture 33. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from proportionality of stress and strain? A. Tensile strength B. shear strength C. Yield strength D. Flexural strength 34. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without a deviation from acceptable of stress to strain is called _______. A. Elongation B. proportional limit C. yield point D. elastic limit 35. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles? A. Endurance state B. Endurance test C. Endurance limit D. endurance strength 36. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron? A. Conductor B. Semiconductor C. Magnet D. Semimetal 37. Which of the following is a natural magnet? A. Steel B. Magnesia C. Lodestone D. Soft iron 38. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation? A. Hardness B. Stiffness C. Creepage D. Rigidity 39. Which of the following materials has permeability slightly less than that of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 40. What materials has permiabilities slightly greater than of free space? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 41. Which of the materials have very high permiabilities? A. Paramagnetic materials B. Non-magnetic materials C. Ferromagnetic materials D. Diamagnetic materials 42. What is the defined by ASTM as a material that contains as an essential ingredient an organic substance of large molecular weight, is solid in its finished state, and some stage in its manufactured or in its processing into finished articles, can be shaped by flow? A. Metal B. Metalloid C. Plastic D. Ceramic 43. Some polymetric materials such as epoxies are formed by strong primary chemical bonds called ________. A. Metallic bond B. Van der Waals bond C. Cross linking D. Covalent bond 44. What do you call a polymer without additives and without blending with another polymer? A. Homo polymer B. Ethenic polymer C. Polyethylene D. Copolymer 45. A large molecule with two alternating mers is called as _______. A. monomer B. elastomer C. mers D. copolymer or interpolymer 46. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties? A. Vulcanizer B. Elasticmer C. Polychloroprene D. Elastomer 47. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain concentration limits? A. Steel B. Wrought Iron C. Cast Iron D. Tendons 48. What is the most popular steel refining process or technique which involves casting of steel from the BOF or electric furnace into cylindrical ingots? A. Vacuum are remelting (VAR) B. Vacuum induction melting (VIM) C. Electron beam refining D. Electroslag refining 49. In what special refining process of steel where molten metal is poured down a tundish (chute) into an ingot mold? A. Electroslag refining B. Vacuum are remelting C. Vacuum induction melting D. Electron beam refining 50. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent? A. Alloy steel B. Stainless steel C. Galvanized steel D. Carbon steel 51. What type of steel has 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite? A. Austenite B. Eutectoid C. Hyper-eutectoid D. Stainless steel 52. What group of steel are water-hardened tool steels? A. Group S B. Group W C. Group O D. Group T 53. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels? A. Group A B. Group D C. Group M D. Group H 54. Steels that are used for axles, gears, and similar parts requiring medium to high and strength are known as? A. Medium-carbon steel B. Low-carbon steel C. Very high-carbon D. High-carbon steel 55. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with _________. A. Carbon B. Sulfur C. Zinc D. Nickel 56. What ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics? A. A370 B. D638 C. E292 D. C674 57. What ASTM test for compression is designated for plastic? A. D638 B. D695 C. D790 D. D732 58. What ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics? A. D732 B. D790 C. D695 D. D638 59. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods for steel products? A. A370 B. E345 C. E8 D. C674 60. Low-quality steels with an M suffix on the designation intended for non- structural application is classified as ____________. A. Merchant quality B. Commercial quality C. Drawing quality D. Special quality 61. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as_______. A. Tempering B. Pickling C. Machining D. Galvanizing 62. What is the purpose of molybdenum in steel alloying? A. To increase brittleness B. To increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and hardness. C. To reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur D. To increase corrosion and resistance 63. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. About 10% of the earth’s crust is iron. B. Pure iron does not have significant industrial use because it is too weak and soft. C. Steel is an alloy of carbon and iron with limits on the amount of carbon (less than 2%) D. Steel is made by reducing oxide ore of iron by thermochemical reactions in a blast furnace or direct reductions vessel. 64. What prefix in steel identification means composition varies from normal limits? A.................................................. 29 B.......................................................... 34 C.......................................................... 51 C. B 65. What is prefix in steel identification means it is made in an electric furnace? A. E B. H C. X D.B 66. What letter suffix steel identification means that it is steel with boron as an alloying element? A. xxLxx B. B. xxBxx C. xxHxx D. xxKxx 67. What refers to the tin mill steel, without a coating? A. White plate B. Tin Steel free C. Black plate D. Dechromate tin 68. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at red hear temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating? A. Aluminum bronze B. Nichrome C. Hastelloy D. Alnico 69. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium? A. 10 % B. 20 % C. 25 % D. 5 % 70. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy? A. Deorizers B. Deoxidizers C. Deterrent D. Deoxifiers 71. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon-silicon alloy? A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Alloy iron 72. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility? A. Gray iron B. Malleable iron C. White iron D. Ductile iron 73. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant? A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. White iron D. Malleable iron 74. What is considered as the general purpose oldest type and widely used cast iron? A. Gray iron B. Ductile iron C. Alloy iron D. Malleable iron 75. What is the effect if manganese in cast iron? A. To affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form B. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5% C. To dioxide molten cast iron D. To increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature 76. What is the effect of aluminum in cast iron? A. To increase hardness above 0.5% B. To deoxidize molten cast iron C. To affect machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form D. To reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% 77. What is the effect of silicon in cast iron? A. Reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase the hardness above 0.5% B. Increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature. C. Softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25% hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid and corrosion resistance above 13% D. deoxidizes molten cast iron 78. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the earth’s crust is iron? A. 10 % B. 5 % C. 20 % D. 8 % 79. What is the advantage of quench hardening? A. Improved strength B. Hardness C. Wear characteristics D. All of the choices 80. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench? A. Carburizing B. Tempering C. Nitriding D. Heat-treating 81. The following statements are true except one. Which one? A. Carburizing does not harden a steel. B. Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels. C. Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness. D. Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts. 82. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel? A. Heating to the proper temperature B. Sufficient carbon content C. Adequate quench D. All of the choices 83. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals? A. Metallurgy B. Geology C. Material Science D. Metalgraphy 84. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides? A. Hematite B. Magnetite C. Gangue D. Ore 85. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment? A. Tuyere B. Coke C. Diamond D. Hematite 86. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? A. Brass B. Zinc C. Nickle D. Aluminum 87. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel ear the surface of a part is increased? A. Carburizing B. Annealing C. Normalizing D. Martempering 88. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical temperature, followed by any desired rate of cooling? A. Normalizing B. Spheroidizing C. Carburizing D. Tempering 89. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite composition and a definite temperature of transformation within the solid state? A. Pearlite B. Eutectoid C. Austernite D. Delta solid solution 90. What is the most undesirable of all the elements commonly found in steels? A. Sulfur B. Phosphorus C. Silicon D. Manganese 91. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened is machined, heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000oF? A. Annealing B. Normalizing C. Carburizing D. Nitriding 92. What typical penetrator is used in Brinell hardness test? A. 10 mm ball B. 120° diamond (brale) C. 1.6 mm diameter ball D. 20°needle 93. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of the test bar? A. Tensile strength B. Yield strength C. Shear strength D. Flexural Strength 94. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic ranger? A. Poisson’s ratio B. Refractive index C. Modulus of elasticity D. Percent elongation 95. What is a measure of rigidity? A. Stiffness B. Hardness C. Strength D. Modulus of elasticity 96. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures, within the gage length is called _______. A. percent elongation B. creep C. elasticity D. elongation 97. What impurity in steel can cause “red shortness”, which means the steel becomes unworkable at high temperature? A. Sulfur B. Silicon C. Manganese D. Phosphorus 98. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface? A. Cyaniding B. Nitriding C. Flame hardening D. Induction hardening 99. What is the common reinforcement for polymer composites? A. Boron B. Ceramic C. Graphite D. Glass fiber 100. Which of the following fluids conducts electricity? A. Electrolyte B. Water C. Solution D. Acid 101. What is defined as a local corrosion damaged characterized by surface cavities? A. Cracking B. Pitting C. Cavitation D. Erosion 102. What refers to the removal of zinc from brasses? A. Dezincification B. Graphitization C. Stabilization D. Dealloying 103. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion? A. Expoliation B. Corrosion fatigue C. Scaping D. Fretting 104. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 105. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100 µm) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment? A. Stray current corrosion B. Microbiological corrosion C. Filiform corrosion D. Fretting corrosion 106. Indicate the false statement about corrosion. A. Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good conduction of electricity. B. The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode. C. Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protect on many metals. D. Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature. 107. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than ______ percent. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1 108. Indicate false statement about stainless steel? A. The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels. B. Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat. C. Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity. D. Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels. 109. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels? A. Iron, chromium, carbon and nickel B. Iron, chromium, zinc and nickel C. Iron, chromium, carbon and zinc D. Iron, chromium, carbon and copper 110. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ time that of carbon steel. A. 5 B. 6 C. 10 D. 15 111. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold? A. Casting B. Molding C. Forming D. All of the choices 112. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting? A. Water-cooled metal cavities B. machined metal holding blocks C. Ejection mechanism D. Metal mold (matching halves) 113. What cast iron has modular or spheroidal graphite? A. Ductile iron B. Wrought iron C. Gray iron D. White iron 114. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generate by polling resin-impregnated glass stands through a die? A. Continuous pultrusion B. Bulk molding C. Vacuum bag forming D. Resin transfer moulding 115. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and acids? A. Alkaline B. Alkydes C. Alcocids D. Aldehyde 116. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy? A. 13XX B. 23XX C. 25XX D. 31XX 117. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel? A. 13XX B. 31XX C. 23XX D. 12XX 118. What does AISI stands for? A. Asian Institute of Steel Industries B. American Institute of Steel Industries C. Association of Iron and Steel Industries D. American Iron and Steel Institute 119. What does SAE stands for? A. Society of Automotive Engineers B. Society of American Engineers C. Society of Architects and Engineers D. Society of Alloy Engineers 120. What does ASTM stands for? A. Association of Steel Testing and Materials B. American Society for Testing and Materials C. Asian Society for Testing and Materials D. Allied Society for Testing and Materials 121. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferritic stainless steel? A. 12 % to 18 % B. 10 % to 12 % C. 16 % to 20 % D. 20 % to 24 % 122. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range? A. 600oC to 1100oC B. 1000oC to 1500oC C. 1100oC to 2000oC D. 200oC to 800oC 123. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steel except: A. Molybdenum B. Tungsten C. Cobalt D. Chromium 124. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum? A. 0.10 B. 0.20 C. 0.30 D. 0.40 125. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium? A. 0.15 to 0.30 B. 0.05 to 0.15 C. 0.30 to 0.45 D. 0.45 to 0.60 126. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 11 to 14 D. 14 to 18 127. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _______, that is, the hardness is increased greatly when the steel is cold worked. A. cold harden B. stress harden C. cool-temperature D. strain harden 128. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium? A. 4 to 8 B. 9 to 10 C. 11 to 17 D. 17 to 21 129. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that it will become hard? A. Caburizing B. Casehardening C. Annealing D. Surfacehardening 130. What refers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section? A. Malleability B. Hardenability C. Spheroidability D. Rigidity 131. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite? A. 1000o F B. 1333o F C. 1666o F D. 1222o F 132. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above ____________. A. 770o C B. 550o C C. 660o C D. 440o C 133. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve? A. Pearlite B. Bainite C. Austenite D. Martensite 134. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670o F? A. Beta iron B. Gamma iron C. Delta iron D. Alpha iron 135. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000o F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia atmosphere, followed by slow cooling? A. Nitriding B. Flame hardening C. Precipitaion hardening D. Carburizing 136. What is the chief ore of tin? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Ilmanite D. Galena 137. What is the chief ore of zinc? A. Cassiterite B. Bauxite C. Sphalerite D. Ilmanite 138. What is the chief ore of titanium? A. Sphalerite B. Ilmanite C. Bauxite D. Cassiterite 139. What is the mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived? A. Bauxite B. Rutile C. Galera D. Sphalerite 140. The term “brass” is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily of: A. copper and zinc B. aluminum and iron C. copper and aluminum D. zinc and nickel 141. The term “bronze” is used to designate any alloy containing: A. copper and zinc B. copper and aluminum C. copper and nickel D. copper and tin 142. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit indicates? A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy C. The alloy group D. The strength of the alloy 143. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represents? A. The purity of aluminum B. The identity of the alloy C. The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits D. The alloy group 144. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what condition of the alloy? A. As fabricated B. Strain hardened C. Annealed D. Artificially aged 145. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except: A. Zinc alloys B. Magnesium alloys C. Manganese alloys D. Aluminum alloys 146. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50? A. 25000 lbf/in2 B. 35000 lbf/in2 C. 50000 lbf/in2 D. 100000 lbf/in2 147. What is the carbon content of wrought iron? A. less than 0.1 percent B. exactly 0.1 percent C. more than 0.1 percent D. ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent 148. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel? A. 10 % B. 14 % C. 18 % D. 22 % 149. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60 % copper and 40 % zinc is called ______. A. yellow brass B. red brass C. Muntz metal D. white brass 150. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc? A. 20 % B. 15 % C. 20 % D. 25 % 151. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc? A. 20 % B. 50 % C. 30 % D. 40 % 152. Indicate the false statement. A. Aluminum bronzes contain no tin. B. Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners. C. Bronze is a copper-tin alloy. D. Tin is relatively soluble in copper. 153. What is the most abundant metal in nature? A. Aluminum B. Steel C. Iron D. Copper 154. Indicate the false statement about aluminum. A. It has 1/3 the weight of steel. B. It has 1/3 of the stiffness of steel. C. It has high strength-to-weight ratio. D. It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity. 155. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element? A. Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting. B. Improve conductivity C. Lowers castability D. Improves machinability 156. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element? A. Increase strength up to about 12% B. Reduces shrinkage C. Improves machinability D. Increases fluidity in casting 157. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent magnets? A. Invar and Nilvar B. Nichrome and Constantan C. Elinvar and Invar D. Alnico and Conife 158. The Portland cement is manufacture from the following elements except: A. lime B. silica C. alumina D. asphalt 159. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the stress-strain diagram? A. Modulus of elasticity B. Proportionality limit C. Secant modulus D. Tangent modulus 160. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen? A. Jominy end-quench test B. The lever rule C. Gibb’s phase test D. Stress relief test 161. What steel relief process is used with hypocutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite? A. Tempering B. Normalizing C. Annealing D. Spheroidizing 162. What is another term for tempering? A. Recrystalization B. Annealing C. Spheroidizing D. Drawing or toughening 163. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one? A. Carburizing B. Flame hardening C. Nitriding D. Annealing 164. For metric wire gage, the No. 2 wire is ________ in diameter. A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm 165. Bus bars of rectangular cross section are generally used for carrying ________. A. high electric current B. low electric current C. high voltage D. low voltage 166. What are used for interconnection on printed-circuit boards? A. Unlaminated flat conductors B. Insulated conductors C. Rounded flexible conductors D. Flat flexible conductors 167. Yellow brass is a copper alloy with improved mechanical properties but reduced corrosion resistance and electrical conductivity. How many percent of yellow brass is copper? A. 65 % B. 35 % C. 55 % D. 45 % 168. What type of copper alloy is used as collectors for electric generator? A. yellow brass B. Beryllium copper C. Tin Bronze D. Phosphor bronze 169. What is the electrical resistivity of pure copper in μΩ-cm? A. 1.76 B. 1.71 C. 1.67 D. 3.10 170. What should be the resistivity in μΩ-cm of a resistor material? A. 200 – 300 B. 100 – 200 C. 50 – 150 D. 10 – 50 171. What is the most widely used dielectric material in the electrical and electronics industry? A. Polymer B. Plastic C. Rubber D. All of the above 172. What are natural or synthetic rubber like materials which have outstanding elastic characteristics? A. Thermosetting plastics B. Polymers C. Elastomers D. Thermoplastic plastics 173. What are cellular forms of urethanes, polystyrenes, vinyls, polyehtylenes, polypropylenes, phenolics, epoxies and variety of other plastics? A. Thermoplastic plastics B. Plastic foams C. Polymers D. Thermosetting plastics 174. What is the widely used electrical insulator? A. Plastic B. Polymer C. Epoxy D. Paper 175. What is the dielectric strength of an unimpregnated cellulose paper or kraft paper? A. 6 to 12 MV/m B. 8 to 14 MV/m C. 10 to 16 MV/m D. 12 to 18 MV/m 176. What is the most widely known carbide? A. Carbon carbide B. Lead carbide C. Germanium carbide D. silicon carbide 177. Class I capacitors have dielectric constants are up to _____. A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 500 178. What are the typical dielectric constants of class II capacitors? A. 500 to 10,000 B. 1,000 to 10,000 C. 500 to 5,000 D. 100 to 1,000 179. What are the most widely used general-purpose coatings? A. Alkyds B. Acrylics C. Epoxies D. Vinyls 180. What is widely used in the electronic industry as a structural member, such as tube envelopes, hermetic seals to metals or ceramics, protective coating on hybrid and integrated circuits, etc.? A. Glass B. Plastic C. Silica D. Film 181. What refers to glasses which are devitrified about 100oC below their softening point to form a very fine network of crystalline phase? A. Fused silica B. Glass ceramics C. Fused quartz D. Fiber glass 182. The percentage change in magnetic properties of materials resulting from temperature aging called the ____________. A. aging index B. aging factor C. aging coefficient D. aging point 183. The change in electrical resistance due to the application of magnetic field is called ____________. A. magnetic anisotropy B. magnetoresistance C. magnetostriction D. magnetizing factor 184. Which material is used for de application such as electromagnetic cores and relays? A. Iron B. Copper C. Steel D. Aluminum 185. Which of the following is known as “electrical steel”? A. Silicon steel B. Stainless steel C. Carbon steel D. Cast Steel 186. What is the highest-frequency ferrite? A. Garnet B. Spinel C. Mumetal D. Superinvar 187. Which material is used for Schottky barrier diodes, light-emitting diodes, Gunn diodes and injection lasers? A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallian Phosphide 188. What material is used for electroluminescent diodes which can emit either green or red light? A. Gallium Arsenide B. Silicon Carbide C. Selenium D. Gallium Phosphide 189. Lead compounds such as load sulfide, selenide and telluride may be used for which application? A. Diodes and transistors at low temperature B. Infrared detectors C. Thermoelectric applications D. All of the above 190. For hardness penetration test, the Rockwell test uses what type of penetrator? A. Sphere B. Square pyramid C. Asymmetrical pyramid D. Cube 191. What is the combination of cutting and scratch test of a material? A. Knoop test B. Vickers test C. File hardness test D. Toughness test 192. What refers to the strain energy per unit volume required to reach the yield point? A. Elastic toughness B. Fatigue C. Hardness D. Creep strain 193. The following are typical properties of ceramics except one. Which one? A. High melting point B. High compressive strength C. High corrosion resistance D. High thermal conductivity 194. What refers to the average number of mers in the molecule, typically several hundred to several thousand? A. Polymerization constant B. Polymerization factor C. Degree of polymerization D. Polemerization index 195. What nickel alloy has high electrical and corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat temperature and contain 15 to 20% chromium? A. Alnico B. Nichrome C. Invar D. Nilvar 196. Silicon bronze contains how many percent of silicon? A. 96 % B. 3 % C. 1 % D. 69 % 197. What element is added to copper to increase its strength and fatigue properties? A. Silicon B. Aluminum C. Beryllium D. Zinc 198. What element is added to copper to make it extremely hard? A. Aluminum B. Zinc C. Lead D. Silicon 199. What element constitutes the major component of most bronzes? A. Zinc B. Tin C. Lead D. Aluminum 200. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper? A. Tin B. Lead C. Zinc D. Aluminum 201. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic limit without being ruptured is called A. ductility B. malleability C. elasticity D. hardness 202. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling together is known as A. Friction B. Cohesion C. Adhesion D. Viscosity 203. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called A. Brittle B. Ductile C. Plastic D. Malleable 204. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another I known as A. Potential difference B. Charge C. Specific change D. Nucleon interaction 205. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference is called A. Resistance B. Permeance C. Impedence D. Conductance 206. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called A. Thermoscopic B. Thermotropic C. Thermoduric D. Thermoplastic 207. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as A. Gummosity B. Glutinosity C. Viscidity D. Viscosity 208. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed is called A. Elastance B. Elasticity C. Elastivity D. Anelastivity 209. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as A. Incandescence B. Luminescence C. Scintillation D. Phosphorescence 210. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a glass prism? A. The violet color travels faster than the red color B. The violet color travels slower than the red color C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color 211. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or motion is called A. Torpidity B. Passivity C. Inactivity D. Inertia 212. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is A. Capacitance B. Conductance C. Permeability D. Accumulation 213. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called A. Isodynamic B. Isotropic C. Isogonic D. Isotopic 214. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with another object is called A. Calidity B. Pyxeria C. Caloric D. Temperature 215. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature gradient is called A. Thermal capacity B. Thermal conductivity C. Thermal radiation D. Thermal convection 216. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as A. dichroism B. dichromatism C. diastrophism D. chromaticity 217. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher frequency is called A. illuminance B. fluorescence C. radioluminescence D. incandescence 218. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is A. diamagnetic B. paramagnetic C. ferromagnetic D. ferromagnetic 219. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called A. debility B. rigidity C. elastic deformation D. fatigue 220. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having negligible to the flow of an electric current is called A. supercharging B. supercooling C. superfluidity D. superconductivity 251. What property of an element is determined by the number of protons in its nucleus? a. Atomic weight b. Atomic number c. Isotopes d. Atomic Mass unit 252. What are considered as the building blocks for engineering materials? a. Atoms b. Elements c. Compounds d. Matter 253. What refers to a metal combined with one or more other elements? a. Mixture b. Compound c. Alloy d. Molecule 254. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramic or other materials usually in fiber form? a. Metalloids b. Matrix Alloys c. Metal Lattices d. Metal Matrix Composites 255. The engineering materials known as “plastics” are more correctly called a. Polyvinyl Chloride b. Polymers c. Polyethylene d. Mers 256. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the components material do not have by themselves? a. Compound b. Composite c. Mixture d. Matrix 257. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling? a. Melting point b. Curie Point c. Refractive index d. Specific heat 258. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces? a. Melting point b. Curie Point c. Refractive index d. Specific heat 259. What physical property of a material refers to the amount of weight gain (%) experienced in a polymer after immersion in water for a specified length of time under a controlled environment? a. Dielectric strength b. Electric Resistivity c. Water Absorption d. Thermal conductivity 260. What physical property of material refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time in a homogeneous material under steady state conditions per unit area, unit temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to the area? a. Thermal expansion b. Thermal conductivity c. Heat distortion temperature d. Water absorption 261. What is the absolute value of the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial strain in a body subjected to uniaxial stress? a. Poisson’s Ratio b. Euler’s Ratio c. Refractive index d. Dielectric index 262. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference that an insulating material of a given thickness can withstand for a specified time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk? a. Thermal expansion b. Conductivity c. Dielectric Strength d. Electric Resistivity 263. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required to raise the same mass of water to 1 degree? a. Specific Heat b. Latent Heat c. Heat of Fusion d. Heat of Fission 264. What refers to the heat needed to change the temperature of the substances without changing its phases? a. Latent heat b. Sensible heat c. Specific heat d. entropy 265. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer under a specified load shows a polymer under a specified load shows a specified amount of deflection? a. Curie temperature b. Specific Heat c. Heat Distortion Temperature d. Thermal Conductivity 266. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a tension test at constant load and constant temperature? a. Creep strength b. Stress rapture strength c. Compressive yield strength d. Hardness 267. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic deformation? a. Rigidity b. Plasticity c. Ductility d. Hardness 268. What is obtained by repeatedly loading a specimen at given stress levels until it fails? a. Elastic Limit b. Endurance limit or fatigue strength of material c. Creep d. All of these 269. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge straightness? a. Lay b. Out of Flat c. Camber d. Waviness 270. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wave like variation from a perfect surface, generally much wider in spacing and in higher in amplitude than surface roughness? a. Lay b. Waviness c. Surface finish d. Out of flat 271. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another natural polymer called a. Plastic b. Lignin c. mer d. additive 272. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain containing two different monomers? a. Copolymerization b. Blending c. Alloying d. Cross-linking 273. What is the generic name of a class of polymer which is commercial known as nylon? a. Polyacetals b. Polyamide c. Cellulose d. Polyester 274. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes, in which the sheets is clamped on the edge, heated until it soften and sags, drawn in contact with the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold? a. Calendering b. Blow molding c. Thermoforming d. Solid phase forming 275. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer through a metal die? a. Calendering b. Thermoforming c. Lithugraphy d. Extrusion 276. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration by chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment? a. Stereospecificity b. Corrosion resistance c. Conductivity d. Electrical Resistance 277. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular material to form with an ordered spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules? a. Stereospecificity b. Corrosion resistance c. Retentivity d. Spatial Configuration 278. What is the ratio of the maximum load in a tension test to the original cross-sectional area of the test bar? a. Tensile strength b. Yield strength c. Shear strength d. Flexual strength 279. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material loaded within its elastic range? a. Poisson’s ratio b. Refractive index c. Modulus of elasticity d. Percent elongation 280. What is measure of rigidity? a. Stiffness b. Hardness c. Strength d. Modulus of elasticity 281. The greatest stress which a material is capable of withstanding without deviation from acceptable stress to strain is called a. elongation b. proportional limit c. yield point d. elastic limit 282. What refers to the stress at which a material exhibits a specified deviation from proportionality of stress and strain? a. Tensile strength b. Shear strength c. Yield strength d. Flexural strength 283. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material? a. Impact strength b. Endurance limit c. Creep strength d. Stress rupture strength 284. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain under stress? a. elongation b. elasticity c. creep d. rupture 285. In tensile testing, the increase in the gage length measured after the specimen fractures within the gage length is called a. Percent elongation b. Creep c. Elasticity d. Rupture 286. What is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation? a. Hardness b. Creepage c. Stiffness d. Rigidity 287. What is the maximum stress below which a material can theoretically endure an infinite number of stress cycles? a. Endurance state b. Endurance test c. Endurance limit d. Endurance strength 288. What is a substance that attracts piece of iron? a. Conductor b. Semiconductor c. Magnet d. All of the choices 289. Which of the following is a natural magnet? a. Steel b. Magnesia c. Lodestone d. Soft iron 290. Which of the following material has permeability, slightly less than that of free space? a. Paramagnetic materials b. Non-magnetic materials c. Ferromagnetic materials d. Diamagnetic materials 291. What materials has permeabilities slighter greater than that of free space? a. Paramagnetic materials b. Non-magnetic materials c. Ferromagnetic materials d. Diamagnetic materials 292. Which of the following materials have very high permeabilities? a. Paramagnetic materials b. Non-magnetic materials c. Ferromagnetic materials d. Diamagnetic materials 293. What is ASTM test for tension is designated for plastics? a. A370 b. D638 c. E292 d. C674 294. What is ASTM test for compression is designated for plastics? a. D638 b. D695 c. D790 d. D732 295. What is ASTM test for shear strength is designated for plastics? a. D732 b. D790 c. D695 d. D638 296. What is the ASTM tension testing designation for standard methods of steel products? a. A370 b. E345 c. E8 d. C674 297. What do you call a polymer without additive and without blending with another polymer? a. Homopolymer b. Ethenic polymer c. Polyethylene d. Copolymer 298. A large molecule with two alternating mers is known as a. monomer b. elastomer c. mers d. copolymer or interpolymer 299. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties? a. Vulcanizer b. Elasticmer c. Polychloroprene d. Elastomer 300. What is defined as an alloy of iron and carbon, with the carbon being restricted within certain concentration limits? a. Steel b. Wrought iron c. Cast Iron d. Tendons 301. What type of steel has carbon as its principal hardening agent? a. Alloy steel b. Stainless steel c. Galvanized steel d. Carbon steel 302. What type of steel has 0.8% of carbon and 100% pearlite? a. Austenite b. Eutectoid c. Hyper-eutectoid d. Stainless steel 303. Galvanized steel are steel products coated with a. Carbon b. Sulfur c. Zinc d. Nickel 304. The use of acids to remove oxides and scale on hot-worked steels is known as a. Tempering b. Picking c. Machining d. Galvanizing 305. What do you call tin mill steel without a coating? a. White plate b. Tin steel free c. Black plate d. Dechromate tin 306. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance high corrosion resistance and high strength at red heat temperature making it u

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