Area 9 Championship Drill Meet NS-3 Study Guide Jan 2022 PDF

Area 9 Championship Drill Meet Academic NS-3 Study Guide Jan 2022 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. During battle and other emergency conditions, the primary means of communication for damage control is a. a sound...

Area 9 Championship Drill Meet Academic NS-3 Study Guide Jan 2022 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. During battle and other emergency conditions, the primary means of communication for damage control is a. a sound-powered telephone system. b. the ship's service telephone system. c. messengers. d. a general announcing system (1MC). ____ 2. During time of national emergency or general mobilization, the entire U.S. flag merchant fleet is subject to requisitioning for defense needs by the Secretary of a. Defense. c. Commerce. b. Transportation. d. the Navy ____ 3. The Grand Alliance developed in World War II was composed of a. Great Britain and United States. b. the United Sates, Great Britain, and the Soviet Union. c. the United States, Great Britain, and France. d. Germany, Italy, and Japan. ____ 4. Alfred Thayer Mahan was convinced that a. central position in the world's seas was more important than central continental position. b. command of the sea approaches with a strong navy was fundamental to the United States attainment of greatness and prosperity. c. a nation or coalition of nations in command of the seas could best acquire the trade, wealth, and resources of the world, and be more likely to win future wars. d. All of the above statements are correct. ____ 5. Karl von Clausewitz warned that a. a government which strikes the preventive blow will be the victor. b. a government which weakens its military forces in time of peace because of abhorrence of war can be sure that a less principled adversary will take advantage of that weakness. c. without victory there is no survival. d. strategy is not a single defined doctrine, but requires special actions to fit each international situation. ____ 6. What officer has total authority over all the ship's personnel? a. Commanding Officer c. Executive Assistant b. Executive Officer d. None of the above ____ 7. Which department provides the ship with power, lighting, ventilation, heating, refrigeration and fresh water? a. Special Services c. Engineering b. Propulsion d. Administration ____ 8. Who in the duty section is used to pay military honors to high ranking officers and civilian dignitaries visiting the ship in port? a. Side boys c. Ceremonial Guards b. Gangway watch d. None of the above ____ 9. In the Navy, the term "Watch" means the a. location of a man on watch. b. watch section to which a person is assigned. c. section of the crew on duty and the individual man on watch. d. Any of the above may apply. ____ 10. Which of the following is NOT true about nylon line? a. Nylon is nearly three times as strong as manila and lasts nearly five times as long. b. Nylon is practically waterproof and does not rot or age as rapidly as natural fiber. c. Nylon is less bulky and requires less stowage space than natural fiber line. d. Nylon does not stretch under load so it is used primarily for transferring men and cargo. ____ 11. To lay a line in circles on the deck, roughly one coil or circle on top of the other, is called a. Faking down. c. Seizing down. b. Coiling down. d. Flemishing down. ____ 12. What set of basic laws govern our Navy today? a. Navy Regulations b. Manual of Regulations c. The Uniform Code of Military Justice d. All of the above are correct. ____ 13. Customs and law codes become functional laws regulating the daily lives of people principally because of a. rulings by judges. c. court decisions. b. the force of government. d. the pressure of social mores. ____ 14. If regulations cannot or will not be enforced, a. all supervisors should be fired or disciplined. b. all hands should be restricted until morale improves. c. an investigation should be conducted. d. it is better not to issue them in the first place. ____ 15. Civilized nations deal with each other using a body of rules called a. international law. c. alliances. b. treaties. d. diplomacy. ____ 16. Which country has been officially regarded as a "neutralized state?" a. Italy c. Switzerland b. Austria d. United States ____ 17. The shortest distance between two points is a a. straight line. c. curved. b. circle. d. Any of the above. ____ 18. Latitude is always measured a. east or west from 0 degrees through 90 degrees. b. south or west from 0 degrees through 90 degrees. c. north or south from 0 degrees through 90 degrees. d. east or south from 0 degrees through 90 degrees. ____ 19. The seaman's speed term "knot" means a. miles per hour. c. bearing change per hour. b. degrees per hour. d. nautical miles per hour. ____ 20. Developing international law of the sea recognizes that a coastal state exercises sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the purpose of a. taking reasonable self-defense measures. b. setting up oil rigs. c. exploring and exploiting its natural subsoil resources. d. limiting freedom of navigation, fishing, and research. ____ 21. The officers and crew of certain vessels are completely immune from local jurisdiction while on board ship in foreign ports. What are these vessels classified as? a. Warships c. Merchant vessels b. Commercial ships d. Cargo ships ____ 22. The International Maritime Consultative Organization is responsible for developing the International Rules of the Road. What agency do they work for? a. Department of the Navy c. Defense Department b. United States d. United Nations ____ 23. The fundamental purpose of the International Rules of the Road is to a. Control ship movements so as to avoid collisions at sea. b. provide the rules for admiralty law. c. illustrate lights and whistle signals. d. differentiate between maneuvering rules for merchant and naval vessels. ____ 24. One permissible method which belligerents may use to completely shut off an enemy's sea trade is the a. embargo. c. quarantine. b. blockade. d. convoy. ____ 25. The most effective way of enforcing the laws of war is a. reprisal for illegal acts by like actions against the one who initiates such acts. b. punishment of war criminals as the result of trials following the war. c. official publication of the facts by the wronged nation with intent to influence world public opinion against the wrongdoer. d. financial compensation by the wrongdoer to the victims of such illegal acts following cessation of hostilities. ____ 26. That hospital ships and aircraft when marked and operating may not legally be made the object of attack in naval warfare is a provision of the a. Geneva Convention. b. Act of World War II c. Peace Conference. d. Uniform Court of Military Justice. ____ 27. In the Navy, half past nine in the morning and in the evening, respectively, are written as a. 9:30 AM and 9:30 P.M. c. 0930 and 2130. b. 09:30 AM and 9:30 P.M. d. 0930 AM and 2130 P.M. ____ 28. Determining position by means of sightings of the sun, stars, planets, and moon is called a. piloting. c. celestial navigation. b. electronic navigation. d. dead reckoning. ____ 29. If it is 1600Z in New York City (ZD=+5), what is the local zone time there? a. 0800U. c. 1000S. b. 0900T. d. 1100R. ____ 30. The relative motion diagram drawn on the maneuvering board is a type of a. logarithmic diagram. c. theorem. b. vector diagram. d. bipolar distortion. ____ 31. What type of plot is a maneuvering board plot? a. Crosshatch plot c. Timeline plot b. Transfer plot d. Polar plot ____ 32. Naval weapon systems are broadly classified into a. guns, missiles, radars and mines. b. guns, missiles, torpedoes and mines. c. missiles, aircraft, torpedoes and mines. d. detection, delivery, guidance and destruction. ____ 33. The main consideration which governs the selection of a ship’s weapons system is the a. cost. c. perceived enemy threat. b. size of the ship. d. combat mission of the ship. ____ 34. The feature which prevents the firing of guns into own ship's structure is a. common sense. c. cutout cams. b. cam brake. d. gun stop. ____ 35. The three general classes of gun projectiles are a. fragmenting, high explosive and special purpose. b. penetrating, surface bursting and fragmenting. c. antisub, antisurface and antiair. d. penetrating, fragmenting and special purpose. ____ 36. The U.S. has never deployed an operational anti-ballistic missile system (ABM) because a. we lack the technology. b. Star Wars makes such a system unnecessary. c. it is not practical. d. of arms control agreements. ____ 37. Missiles that utilize the science that deals with the forces acting on bodies moving through air and other gases are a. homeostatic missiles. c. aerodynamic missiles. b. pressurized missiles. d. hydrodynamic missiles. ____ 38. The type of weapon that has become the main armament on most of today’s jet-powered aircraft is a. AIM-54. c. AAM. b. SAM. d. AIM-9. ____ 39. Harpoon and Tomahawk are a. anti-ballistic missiles (ABM). b. submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBM) c. air-to-air missiles (AIM). d. cruise missiles. ____ 40. Homing torpedoes are guided by a. electric motors and batteries. b. computers on destroyers and cruisers fitted with torpedo tubes. c. the sound of the vessel being attacked, or by reflected echoes from it. d. an inertial guidance system which causes the torpedo to detonate at a present depth. ____ 41. The first notable reference to mines in U.S. naval history occurred with a. Admiral Dewey at the Battle of Manila Bay. b. Admiral Farragut at the Battle of Mobile Bay. c. John Paul Jones during the Bon Homme Richard-Serapis engagement. d. Commodore Oliver Hazard Perry at the Battle of Lake Erie. ____ 42. American offensive mine-laying operations during World War II were mostly confined to: a. The European Theater off Northern Europe. b. The Pacific Theater off the Japanese home islands. c. The South Pacific Theater off Australia and New Zealand. d. All of the above. ____ 43. What is the body of water at the southern tip of Africa called? a. The Cape of Good Hope b. The Suez Canal c. The Strait of Gibraltar d. The Strait of Malacca e. The Turkish Straits ____ 44. Which of the following countries has not developed a means of getting energy from tides? a. Canada b. Holland c. France d. All of the listed countries have tidal energy systems. e. None of the listed countries have developed tidal energy plants. ____ 45. By federal law, what percentage of U.S. government cargo must be carried by U.S.-owned shipping? a. 100 percent b. 90 percent c. 75 percent d. 50 percent e. 25 percent ____ 46. Why is it necessary to think of the world's resources in terms of a worldwide economy? a. Because there only so many resources to go around and so they must be shared. b. Because the various raw materials of the world are sold on the world market rather than bought by individual countries. c. Because the stock markets of the nations of the world are tied together. d. Because so much of the world is dependant on imported raw materials. e. Because every country in the world could get by on only its own resources if trade weren't established and maintained. ____ 47. Modern military strategic thought began through the intense study of the campaigns of what military leader? a. Julius Caesar b. Fredrick the Great c. Napoleon Bonaparte d. Alexander the Great. e. Adolf Hitler ____ 48. Which conflict was the first of the great coalition wars of the twentieth century? a. World War II b. The Spanish-American War c. The Korean War d. The Sino-Russian War e. World War I ____ 49. The use of national power and influence to attain national security objectives is known as what? a. Grand Strategy b. Grand Preparedness c. Continental Strategy d. Aerospace Strategy e. Maritime Strategy ____ 50. Which one of the basic U.S. national security objectives is to preserve the United States as a free nation with its fundamental institutions and values intact? a. Military b. Political c. Economic d. Intelligence Gathering e. Security ____ 51. Which phase of U.S. strategy began with President Truman's administration after WWII? a. Limited Interventionism b. Western Hemispheric Defense c. Massive Retaliation d. Containment of Communism e. Flexible Response ____ 52. During which of the principal phases of U.S. grand strategy did the United States tend toward isolationism? a. The Western Hemispheric Defense phase. b. Containment of Communism phase c. Globalization phase d. The Eastern Hemispheric Defense phase e. Limited Interventionism phase ____ 53. Land-based intercontinental ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and air-delivered nuclear weapons constitute a. the ultimate in modern sophisticated weaponry. b. the main components of the balanced U.S.general purpose forces. c. a design to meet any tactical battlefield situation. d. the U.S. triad of strategic nuclear forces. ____ 54. Our nuclear and conventional capabilities are designed to make aggression an impractical, costly, and unattractive option for any nation. a. True b. False ____ 55. What is an example of the national interests as set down by American forefathers? a. Control the western hemisphere b. Yearning for justice c. Free trade d. Intervention in world affairs. ____ 56. The Nixon Doctrine contained ______ major features of the U.S. flexible response strategy a. A8 b. B7 c. C5 d. 10 ____ 57. What is the basic U.S. National Security objective? a. Destroy enemies, both foreign and domestic b. Preserve American freedom, institutions and values. c. Contain communism d. Defend other countries ____ 58. The economy of the United States depends heavily upon international trade for raw materials to support our industry, and for markets which to sell our agricultural and manufactured goods. a. False b. True ____ 59. The strategy of Flexible Response was developed during the presidency of a. George H, W. Bush b. Richard Nixon c. Lyndon Johnson d. John F. Kennedy ____ 60. In times of tension, deployed U.S. forces can be increased to what percentage for limited periods? a. 40 percent b. 50 percent c. 25 percent d. 85 percent e. 30 percent ___ 61. _________ are integral units that carry much of their own support. a. Tanks b. Naval planners c. Nuclear weapons d. Ships ____ 62. The Normandy invasion of World War II took place in what country? a. Belgium b. Italy c. France d. Germany ____ 63. Highly accurate __________ weapons have greatly increased the probability of successful target destruction with just a single shot or attack. a. Forward b. Amphibious c. Axis d. Smart ____ 64. What is the term used to describe a limited war where a major power avoids direct military involvement by having satellite states engage another major power or its allies? a. A Revolutionary War b. A Proxy War c. A General War d. A Cold War e. A Pax Ballistica ____ 65. The Prerequisites for Revolution are: a. a defined cause and dissatisfaction with the status quo only. b. countries with rapidly improving economies. c. dissatisfaction with the status quo, a defined cause and a carefully directed organization. d. dissatisfaction with the status quo, and a carefully directed organization only. ____ 66. A principle of war that never allows an enemy to acquire unexpected advantage is called, "Economize force." a. False b. True ____ 67. Efforts to seize political power by illegitimate and coercive means, destroying existing systems of government and social structure, is called a. counterinsurgency. b. proxy war. c. limited war. d. revolutionary war. ____ 68. Maneuvers that change a group of ships from an approach or cruising formation to a battle disposition, or formation, are called what? a. Battle Force Composition b. Sweeps c. Surface Action Groups d. Mopping Up Operations e. Deployment of Forces ____ 69. Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of naval ships and craft? a. Auxiliary Ships b. Service Craft c. Auxiliary Craft d. Combatant Craft e. Combatant Ships ____ 70. What term refers to the agencies within the Navy that give government and military leaders the information about potential or actual enemies needed to make good decisions? a. Naval intelligence b. Naval communications c. Naval research and development d. Naval logistics e. Naval operations ____ 71. Warships in a battle formation such that mutual support is possible are collectively known as a surface action group (SAG). a. False b. True ____ 72. What was the name of the first nuclear-powered submarine? a. USS Lexington b. USS Enterprise c. USS Nautilus d. USS George Washington ____ 73. What term is used for the function of intelligently pursuing the latest technology? a. Naval logistics b. Naval intelligence c. Naval operations d. Naval research and development ____ 74. All air warfare can be classified into one of three areas: air-to- surface, air-to-air, and surface-to-air. a. False b. True ____ 75. The submarine is generally classified under surface warfare. a. True b. False ____ 76. What is the name given to groups of military communications satellites? a. Space Communications Groups b. Arrays c. Conglomerations d. Constellations e. Galaxies ____ 77. What agency manages the Navy's satellite communications program? a. The Department of Naval Research. b. The Naval Satellite Command and Control Program. c. The National Aeronautical and Space Administration (NASA). d. The Nautical Communications Command. e. The Naval Space Systems Command. ____ 78. What are the strongest advantages to the semaphore method of visual communications? a. Reliability and security b. Reliability and distance c. Speed and security d. Speed and distance e. None of these combinations are advantages of the semaphore system. ____ 79. Line-of-sight radio transmissions means a. transmissions can only be received during daylight hours b. transmissions can only be made during daylight hours c. radio waves travel in a straight line and do not follow the curvature of the earth d. you can see the radio waves ____ 80. A machine that is used for transmitting and receiving pictures, charts, and graphs by wire or radio is called? a. Facsimile (FAX) b. Radiotelephone (R/T) c. Continuous Wave (CW) d. Radiotelegraph (RATT) ____ 81. ____________________ are examples of visual communications, which are a reliable and economical method of short range communications. a. Flaghoists, signal lights, and Facsimiles b. Flaghoists, semaphores, and signal lights c. Morse code and flaghoists d. Semaphores and Gertrude ____ 82. Types of Naval Telecommunications includes all of the following except: a. Extra sensory perception (ESP) b. Electrical/electronic c. Visual d. Sound ____ 83. Naval Communications must be all of the following except: a. Inexpensive b. Rapid c. Reliable d. Secure ____ 84. Which of the following IS NOT a requirement of naval communications? a. Rapidity b. Grammatical correctness c. Reliability d. Security ____ 85. The protection of a nation's secrets is known as what? a. Processing b. Counterintelligence c. Espionage d. Intelligence e. Defensive Intelligence ____ 86. Material collected from all sources about a given subject or country. a. Raw Intelligence b. Espionage c. Military Intelligence d. Raw Information e. Political Intelligence ____ 87. The best-known intelligence operations performed by the U.S. Navy during World War II were: a. satellite intelligence of the German defensive positions in France b. Unmanned aerial vehicles over flights of the Normandy coast c. overflights of the USSR by the U-2 and SR-71 spy planes d. breaking of the Japanese cipher code and gathering of information for amphibious operations e. discovery of the Japanese convoy routes through the Java Sea ____ 88. Many of today's intelligence "spy" satellites are "steerable" and can spot objects the size of a grapefruit from orbit. a. True b. False ____ 89. The mission of a military attache in a foreign country is... a. to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security functions. b. to recruit and train defector and espionage personnel within their assigned country. c. To prepare the defenses of the embassy against terrorist action. d. to collect military and political information and report it to the DIA and the parent service. e. to provide bodyguard and other protective services for the U.S. Ambassador. ____ 90. During the 1970s and early 1980s, a Navy Warrant Officer named John Walker was involved in.... a. the compromise of secret ballistic missile submarine communication systems. b. the discovery and capture of a naval spy ring. c. the leaking of the identities of numerous U.S. agents in the Soviet Union. d. the capture of a Soviet nuclear submarine. e. the leaking of U.S. Aircraft Carrier deployment schedules. ____ 91. The mission of the National Reconnaissance Office is: a. to coordinate, direct and provide signals intelligence and information security functions b. to coordinate the spaceborne reconnaissance needs of the U.S. government c. to coordinate, direct and perform signals intelligence and information security functions in support of both defense and non-defense U.S. government activities d. to centralize responsibility for the imagery and mapping needs of the U.S. government ____ 92. Coordinating military, industrial, and civilian mobilization as part of a total national effort in events of war is the task of the a. Security of Defense in accordance with the National Security act of 1947. b. President in accordance with the Constitution. c. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in accordance with the National Security Act of 1947. d. Chief of Naval Operations in accordance with Navy Regulations. ____ 93. What is the name of the corporate research and development laboratory of the Office of Naval Research? a. The Naval Research Laboratory b. The Radiological Defense Laboratory c. The Naval Defense Laboratory d. The Underwater Sound Laboratory e. The Naval Electronics Laboratory ____ 94. The Marine Corps version of the joint strike fighter (JSF) will have short take-off and vertical landing capability. a. False b. True ____ 95. Equity Law is most closely associated with what other law term? a. Civil Law b. Criminal Law c. Common Law d. Military Law e. Constitutional Law ___ 96. Which of the following is NOT something covered within the 10 groupings of articles of the Uniform Code of Military Justice, commonly called the Punitive Articles? a. Disobedience of lawful orders and insubordination. b. The conduct NonJudicial Punishment and Courts-Martial. c. Absence without leave. d. Murder, assault and larceny. e. Violations of acceptable military law. ____ 97. Which of the following is NOT an example of an important article found in Navy Regulations? a. Equal opportunity and treatment b. Standards of conduct c. Fraternization prohibited d. Alcoholic beverages prohibited e. Cruel and unusual punishments prohibited ____ 98. What is considered to be the cornerstone of the whole structure of naval justice and discipline? a. The Executive Officer's Inquiry b. The Screening Mast c. The Captain's Mast d. The Preliminary Inquiry e. The Courts-Martial ____ 99. What officer generally conducts the screening mast? a. The Command Duty Officer b. The local Judge Advocate General c. The Officer of the Deck d. The Executive Officer e. The Commanding Officer ____ 100. Under which form of restraint may a person still be required to perform their full military duty? a. Incarceration b. Restriction c. Confinement d. Arrest e. Apprehension ____ 101. What term is defined as the taking of a person into custody? a. Restriction b. Confinement c. Arrest d. Apprehension e. Restraint ____ 102. What body is known as the "Supreme Court" of military justice? a. The U.S. Supreme Court b. The Court of Military Review c. The Convening Authority d. The Court of Military Appeals e. The Office of the Judge Advocate General of the Navy ____ 103. What is the major difference between the military and civilian justice systems in regards to a convicted person's right to appeal? a. Appeals of court-martial convictions are not allowed. b. Appeal of a conviction within the military court system requires reasonable grounds where it does not in the civilian court system. c. Only officers may appeal their convictions to higher authority. d. Appeal of a court-martial conviction is automatic. Civilians must show reasonable grounds for appeal. e. Appeal of a conviction within the military court system is free where it is not in the civilian court system. ____ 104. The death penalty can be given by a General Court-Martial for all of the following acts EXCEPT: a. Desertion in time of war b. Mutiny c. Spying d. Sedition e. Inciting a riot ____ 105. What type of challenge can be made one time by an accused at a special court-martial where the court member challenged will be dismissed from court duties by the president? a. A challenge "for cause" b. A peremptory challenge c. A prescribed challenge d. An impromptu challenge e. An immediate challenge ____ 106. Which of the following is NOT a legal punishment that could be awarded at a special courts-martial? a. Forfeiture of two-thirds pay per month for three months b. Confinement for three months c. Detention of two-thirds pay per month for three months. d. Hard labor without confinement for six months. e. A Bad Conduct Discharge. ____ 107. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the right of innocent passage under international law? a. If a submarine, transit must be on the surface and not submerged. b. The transiting ship must not enter into the inland waters of the coastal state. c. The transit must not be prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of the coastal state. d. The transiting ship has the right to stop and anchor if necessary for safe navigation. e. Prior notification or authorization of the countries whose waters are being transited. ____ 108. What is unique about the right of innocent passage in regards to submarines? a. Submarines must have a licensed pilot onboard when making the transit. b. Submarines only have this right if the transit is made on the surface. c. Submarines do not have the right of innocent passage. d. Submarines only have this right if the transit is made while submerged. e. Submarines do not have to comply with the rules for innocent passage. ____ 109. The Geneva Convention on the Continental Shelf in 1964 set what depth of water as the maximum depth for a continental shelf? a. 656 meters b. 200 meters c. 200 feet d. 3 nautical miles e. 2000 meters ____ 110. Which of the following is considered to be a national river? a. The Amazon b. The Rhone c. The Danube d. The Rhine e. The Congo ____ 111. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a warship in a foreign port of call? a. To comply with harbor regulations concerning sewage disposal. b. To comply with harbor regulations concerning quarantine restrictions. c. To comply with harbor regulations concerning speed control. d. To comply with harbor regulations concerning routine searches or inspections of the ship. e. To comply with harbor regulations concerning traffic control. ____ 112. Under international law, Commanding Officers of warships are most closely related to which of the following below? a. Private citizens on international travel visas. b. Senior Military Attachs at overseas embassies. c. Justices on the International Court of Justice at the Hague. d. Chargs d Affairs heading up foreign missions. e. Ambassadors heading up overseas legations. ____ 113. Which of the following is NOT a part of the requirements for a ship to be termed a "Warship" under international law? a. The crew of the vessel must be subject to military discipline. b. The vessel must be commanded by a member of a state's military forces. c. The ship or vessel must have armaments and be capable of engaging in combat operations. d. The ship must be commissioned as a part of the naval forces of a state. e. The vessel must be authorized to display an appropriate flag or pennant identifying her as a commissioned naval vessel. ____ 114. What is the primary difference between warships and merchants when visiting a foreign port? a. Merchant ships cannot be inspected, even with the Commanding Officer's permission, unless the owners permission is also obtained. b. Merchant shipping owners must negotiate their own Status of Forces Agreements. c. There is not difference between the protections afforded the two under international law. d. Merchant ship personnel retain protections even when ashore on leave or liberty. e. Merchant ships are subject to the jurisdiction of the nation being visited. ____ 115. What is the name of the axis of movement of a ship when the bow swings to port and starboard because of wave action? a. Yaw b. Roll c. Break d. Outboard e. Pitch ____ 116. Which of the following is NOT a type of propulsion used by Navy ships today? a. Nuclear power plants b. Steam plants c. Electric plants d. These are all types of propulsion systems currently used by Navy ships today. e. Gas-turbine engines ____ 117. A circulating water cycle is the primary system of what type of modern power plant? a. Nuclear b. Gas-Turbine c. Electric d. Steam e. Coal ____ 118. Where is the national ensign flown while at sea? a. From the jackstaff b. From the gaff c. From the foremast d. From the flagstaff e. From the mainmast ____ 119. What is the top of the mast called? a. The jackstaff b. The stack c. The flagstaff d. The pig-stick e. The truck ____ 120. What is the most common use for the forepeak and after peak tanks? a. To re-route water to avoid flooding. b. To store provisions. c. To store drinking water d. To help trim the ship. e. As fuel storage areas. ____ 121. All parts of decks that are exposed to the elements are called what? a. Weather Decks b. Signal Bridges c. Scuppers d. Bulwarks e. Superstructure Decks ____ 122. Which class of fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, sodium, and titanium? a. Class Echo b. Class Alpha c. Class Bravo d. Class Delta e. Class Charlie ____ 123. A solid stream of water should never be used on what type of fires, since it tends to only scatter the fuel and spread the flames? a. Class Alpha b. Class Bravo c. Class Echo d. Class Charlie e. Class Delta ____ 124. What officer is responsible to the Commanding Officer for the safe navigation and piloting of the ship? a. The Navigator b. The Reactor Officer c. The Senior Watch Officer (SWO) d. The Executive Officer e. The First Lieutenant ____ 125. Which of the following documents tells the ship's Divisions and Departments their normal responsibilities? a. The Battle Organization Manual b. The Ship's Organization and Regulations Manual c. The Plan of the Day d. The Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill e. Navy Regulations ____ 126. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of all Navy Seaman Apprentices before they are able to advance to Seaman? a. Show a solid understanding of boat seamanship. b. Pass a written exam on marlinspike seamanship. c. Demonstrate knowledge and skills in marlinspike seamanship. d. Take a written exam on deck seamanship. e. Prove competent at deck seamanship. ____ 127. To whom does the nickname "brownshoes" generally apply on U.S. Navy ships? a. Aviation personnel b. Deck Department Officers c. U.S. Marines d. Amphibious Warfare Sailors e. Administrative Department personnel ____ 128. How many feet long would a line be that measured 3 fathoms? a. 54 feet b. 18 feet c. 12 feet d. 3 yards e. 9 yards ____ 129. Why are all anchor links studded? a. To allow for greater link freedom of movement. b. To prevent the chain from kinking. c. To prevent slippage of the chain when it is under strain. d. To add additional weight to the chain for stability. e. To strengthen the chain. ____ 130. What is the name of the cable that attaches to the free end of a boom and allows it to be raised or lowered? a. The Topping Lift b. The Running Rigging c. The Yard Boom d. The Vang Line e. The Standing Rigging ____ 131. What is the name commonly given to the 180th meridian? a. The Great Circle b. The International Date Line c. The Equator d. The Greenwich Meridian e. The Prime Meridian ____ 132. How many nautical miles would there be in three degrees, 20 minutes of latitude? a. 20 NM b. 320 NM c. 3.2 NM d. 200 NM e. You measure distance from degrees of longitude, not latitude. ____ 133. What is the common name given to map and chart makers? a. Sextants b. Mercators c. Navigators d. Cartographers e. Oceanographers ____ 134. Which of the navigation light characteristics listed below is considered the most valuable for identification purposes? a. Timing interval b. Height c. Color d. Brightness e. Pattern of flashes ____ 135. What would 5:07 PM be in military time? a. 1407 b. 1707 c. 1507 d. 0507 e. 1907 ____ 136. What international body is the parent organization of the International Maritime Organization (IMO)? a. NATO b. The European Union c. The International Court of Justice at the Hague d. The International Merchant Marine e. The United Nations ____ 137. Under what condition would a white masthead light be an "all-around" light rather than a sector light? a. If the vessel is longer than 50 meters in length. b. Masthead lights can never be all-around lights. c. If the vessel is less than 12 meters in length. d. If the vessel does not have an aftermast, and therefore only has one white light. e. Masthead lights are always all-around lights. ____ 138. Which of the following is NOT a special rule for naval vessels that varies from the standard international rules of the road? a. The white lights on aircraft carriers are usually on the superstructure and off the centerline. b. Naval vessels will show no lights at all during darkened ship exercises. c. Naval vessels hoist a "5" flag if not under command and will also hoist 2 black balls as a warning in international waters. d. The horizontal separation of white lights on destroyers can be less than normally required by the rules. e. U.S. submarines display an amber-colored intermittent flashing beacon when running surfaced. ____ 139. On a maneuvering board, the head of the relative wind vector is labeled with _____________. a. an uppercase W b. a lowercase w c. the symbol RW d. the symbol rw e. the symbol wr ____ 140. After taking and plotting a number of range and bearing lines to another ship you connect these points with an extended line. This line is called what? a. The Intercept Vector Line (IVL) b. The Course Correction Line (CCL) c. The Closest Point of Approach Line (CPAL) d. The Relative Motion Line (RML) e. The Relative Bearing Line (RBL) ____ 141. What is the symbol used on the maneuvering diagram to show ranges and bearing to another ship? a. Capital O with a small number below it showing the order the sighting was taken. b. Capital M with a small number below it showing the order the sighting was taken. c. Lowercase b with a small number below it showing the order the sighting was taken. d. Capital B with a small number below it showing the order the sighting was taken. e. Lowercase m with a small number below it showing the order the sighting was taken. ____ 142. Which of the following devices is not a required instrument when using a maneuvering board to solve a navigation problem? a. A calculator b. Navigator's dividers c. A pencil or other marking instrument d. A triangle e. A parallel rule ____ 143. The maneuvering board is a type of plot called in mathematics a ______ plot. a. Linear b. X / Y Grid c. Time-Distance-Heading d. Polar e. Newtonian ____ 144. A 5-inch, 54-caliber gun has a barrel ________ long. a. 54 feet b. 54 inches c. 5.4 feet d. 270 inches e. 27 feet ____ 145. What provides the thrust that ejects a projectile at the desired velocity from the muzzle of a gun? a. A burster charge b. An igniter c. Bag ammunition d. A propelling charge e. A booster charge ____ 146. Which type of missile guidance system uses gyroscopes to keep the missile on a set course? a. Inertial b. Mechanical gyro c. Preset gyro d. Homing e. Command ____ 147. What is the name of the Navy's first anti-ship cruise missile? a. Sidewinder b. Tomahawk c. Trident d. Polaris e. Harpoon ____ 148. What international agreement requires moored or bottom mines be made to deactivate or sink automatically after a prescribed time? a. The 1947 Geneva Conventions b. The 1974 Law of the Sea Convention c. The SALT II arms limitation treaty d. The 1907 Hague Convention e. There is no such agreement concerning bottom or moored mines. ____ 149. Which type of mine made up the Allied North Sea minefields in World War I? a. Anchored influence-type b. Anchored contact-type c. Anchored acoustic-type d. Free-floating influence-type e. Free-floating contact-type ____ 150. Which of the following weapons would use a living organism to kill? a. Psycho gases b. Biological sprays c. Chemical shells d. Choking agents e. Blood agents ____ 151. What main qualifications are necessary for a leader to be regarded as knowledgeable? a. Thorough job knowledge b. Significant job experience c. Schoolbook knowledge d. Street smarts and common sense e. C and D ____ 152. Never making a promise when you cannot deliver on it falls in under what leadership quality discussed in the text? a. Self-Confidence b. Personal Example c. Moral Courage d. Mutual Trust and Confidence e. Ability to Organize and Make Decisions ____ 153. What do new leaders have a tendency to do with minor infractions they see in subordinates? a. Be too harsh. b. To look the other way. c. To delegate responsibility d. Be too lenient. e. To take too long to act ____ 154. What are some of the disadvantages of the lecture with audiovisual aids technique for delivery of instruction? a. It is not good for development of motor skills. b. It assumes active listening on the part of the students. c. It assumes adequate note-taking skills on the part of the students. d. All of the above ____ 155. Which instruction technique listed below consists of a presentation of information by a single individual to a group of listeners? a. Demonstration b. Lecture c. Discussion d. Role Playing e. Case Study ____ 156. What is the most commonly used small-group teaching technique to develop students' ability to operate equipment or acquire physical skills? a. Discussion b. Case Study c. Role Playing d. Lecture e. Demonstration ____ 157. Which of the following is NOT one of the learning types identified by psychologists? a. Motor b. Emotional c. Verbal d. Conceptual e. Absorption ____ 158. The Pacific Ocean extends from the Bering Strait to the a. Suez Canal. c. Strait of Gibraltar. b. Strait of Malacca. d. Cape of Good Hope. ____ 159. An international agreement at the 1958 Geneva Conference on the Seas gave littoral nations exclusive rights to a. expand their merchant fleets. b. develop the resources in the continental shelf adjacent to their own shores. c. engage in oceanographic research. d. refine fresh water for their cities where there isn't enough natural fresh water available. ____ 160. The ocean area which has become a naval operating area only since the advent of the nuclear submarine is the a. Indian Ocean. c. Arctic Ocean. b. Atlantic Ocean. d. Pacific Ocean. Area 9 Championship Drill Meet Academic NS-3 Study Guide Jan 2022 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 2. ANS: C PTS: 1 3. ANS: A PTS: 1 4. ANS: D PTS: 1 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 12. ANS: A PTS: 1 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 14. ANS: D PTS: 1 15. ANS: A PTS: 1 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 17. ANS: A PTS: 1 18. ANS: C PTS: 1 19. ANS: D PTS: 1 20. ANS: C PTS: 1 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 24. ANS: B PTS: 1 25. ANS: C PTS: 1 26. ANS: A PTS: 1 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 28. ANS: C PTS: 1 29. ANS: D PTS: 1 30. ANS: B PTS: 1 31. ANS: D PTS: 1 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 33. ANS: D PTS: 1 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 35. ANS: D PTS: 1 36. ANS: D PTS: 1 37. ANS: C PTS: 1 38. ANS: C PTS: 1 39. ANS: D PTS: 1 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 41. ANS: B PTS: 1 42. ANS: B PTS: 1 43. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 0 44. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 0 45. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 0 46. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 0 47. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 48. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 49. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 50. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: 0 51. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 52. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 0 53. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 54. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 55. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 56. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 57. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 58. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 59. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 60. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 61. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 62. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 63. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 64. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 0 65. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 66. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 67. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 68. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: 3 69. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 3 70. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 0 71. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 72. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 73. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 74. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 75. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 3 76. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 77. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 78. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 79. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 2 80. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 3 81. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 4 82. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 83. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 4 84. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 2 85. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 86. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 87. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 3 88. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 89. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 2 90. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 0 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 92. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 93. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 94. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 95. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 96. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 97. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 98. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 99. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 100. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 101. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 102. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 103. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 104. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 105. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 106. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 107. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 108. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 109. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 110. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 111. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 112. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 113. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 114. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 115. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 116. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 117. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 118. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 119. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 120. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 121. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 122. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 123. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 124. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 125. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 126. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 127. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 128. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 129. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 130. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 131. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 132. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 133. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 134. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 135. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 136. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 137. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 138. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 139. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 140. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 141. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 142. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: -1 143. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 144. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 145. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: -1 146. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: -1 147. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 148. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: -1 149. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 150. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: -1 151. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: 1 152. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 153. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 154. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 155. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 156. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: 1 157. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: 1 158. ANS: B PTS: 1 159. ANS: B PTS: 1 160. ANS: C PTS: 1