NEET Physics, Chemistry & Biology Past Paper 2014 PDF
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2014
AIPMT
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This is an AIPMT past paper from 2014 covering Physics, Chemistry and Biology. It includes multiple choice questions testing foundational knowledge in these subjects.
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AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) AIPMT - 2014 (Physics, Chemistry and Biology) Code P T...
AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) AIPMT - 2014 (Physics, Chemistry and Biology) Code P Time: 3 hrs Total Marks: 720 General Instructions: 1. The Answer sheet is inside this Text booklet. When you are directed to open the text booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on side – 1 and side – 2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and consists of 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted. The maximum marks are 720. 3. Use Blue / Black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the text booklet only. 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the answer sheet to the invigilator in the room/ Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this text booklet with them. 6. Make sure that the CODE printed on side – 2 of the answer sheet is the same as that on this booklet, In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for the replacement of both the test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer sheet. Do not write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test booklet / Answer Sheet. 8. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet. Physics 1. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are take As fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are : (1) [F V T-1] (2) [F V T-2] (3) [F V-1 T-1] (4) [F V-1 T] AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 2. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms-1 and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired another planet with a velocity of 3 ms- 1 at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms-2) is: (given g = 9.8 ms-2) (1) 3.5 (2) 5.9 (3) 16.3 (4) 110.8 3. A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x,y)are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and (13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5s Average velocity vector Vav from t = 0 to t = 5 s is: 1 ( 13i +14 i ) (1) 5 7 (i+i) (2) 3 (3) 2( i + i ) 11 (4) 5(i+i) 4. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a strings passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = u) the pulley if frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is : (Assue m1 = m2 = m3 = m) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) (1) g (1 - gμ) 9 (2) 2gμ 3 (3) g (1 - 2μ) 3 (4) g (1 - 2μ) 2 5. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force – time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is : (1) 24 Ns (2) 20 Ns (3) 12 Ns (4) 6 Ns 6. A ballon with mass ‘m’ descending down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). how much mass should be removed from its so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’ ? (1) 2ma g +a (2) 2 ma ga (3) ma g+a (4) ma ga AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 7. A body of mass (4m) is laying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is : (1) mυ2 3 mυ2 (2) 2 (3) 2 mυ2 (4) 4 mυ2 8. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation, Where, X = A cos (t); X = displacement at time t; = frequency of oscillation Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation ‘a’ with ‘t’? (1) (2) (3) (4) Here a = acceleration at time t T = time period AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 9. A solid cylinder of mass 50 g and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s-2 is : (1) 25 N (2) 50 N (3) 78.5 N (4) 157 N 10. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ rolling down an incline of angle ‘θ’ Without slipping and slipping down the incline with rolling is : (1) 5 :7 (2) 2:3 (3) 2:5 (4) 7:5 11. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 x 1024 kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole ? (1) 10-9 m (2) 10-6 m (3) 10-2 m (4) 100 m 12. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by : (1) (2) (3) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) (4) 13. Copper of fixed bolume ‘V’ is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. When the wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’ the extension produced in the wire is'l'. Which of the following graphs is a straight line? (1) l versus 1/l (2) l versus l2 (3) l versus 1/l2 (4) l versus l 14. A certain number of spherical drops of liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. if ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then : 1 1 (1) Energy = 4VT - is released. r R 1 1 (2) Energy = 3 VT is absorbed r R 1 1 (3) Energy = 3 VT - is released r R (4) Energy is neither released nor absorbed 15. Steam at 100oC is passed into 20 g of water at 10oC. when water acquires a temperature of 80oC the mass of water present will be : [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g-1 oC-1 and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g-1] (1) 24 g (2) 31.5 g (3) 42.5 g (4) 22.5 g AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 16. Certain quantity of water cools from 70oC to 60oC in the first 5 minutes and to 54oC in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is : (1) 45oC (2) 20oC (3) 42oC (4) 10oC 17. A monoatomic gas at pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16 V. the final pressure if the gas is : (take = 5/3) (1) 64 P (2) 32 Po (3) P/64 (4) 16P 18. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. the work done by the system in the cycle is : (1) P0V0 (2) 2 P0V0 P0 V0 (3) 2 (4) Zero 19. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius is inversely proportional to : (1) r3 (2) r2 (3) r (4) r AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 20. If n₁,n₂ and n₃ are the fundamental frequencies three segments into which a string is divided, the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by : (1) 1=1+1+1 n n 1 n 2 n3 1 = 1 1 1 1 3 (2) n n + n 2 + n (3) n= n1 + n2 + n3 (4) N = n1 + n2 + n3 21. The number of possible natural oscillations of column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are : (velocity of sound = 340 ms1) (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 6 22. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds the traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. The speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be : (1) 1332 Hz (2) 1372 Hz (3) 1412 Hz (4) 1454 Hz 23. Two think dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 (K1 K’p (2) Kp < K’p (3) Kp =K’p 1 (4) K p = K'p AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 61. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ? (1) H- > H+ > H (2) Na+ > F- > O2- (3) F- > O2- > Na+ (4) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3- 62. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much? (At.wt.Mg = 24; O = 16) (1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2 , 0.16 g (3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g 63. The pair of compounds that can exist together is : (1) FeCl3, SnCl2 (2) HgCl2, SnCl2 (3) FeCl2, SnCl2 (4) FeCl3, KI 64. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions? (1) H+ (2) Li+ (3) Na+ (4) Mg2+ 65. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ? (1) CO2 (2) CH4 (3) NH3 (4) NF3 66. Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape? (1) N3 (2) NO 3 (3) NO 2 (4) CO2 AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 67. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increase in the order (1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te (2) H2Se < H2S > H2Te (3) H2Te < H2S < H2Se (4) H2Se < H2Te < H2S 68. (a) H2O2 + O3 H2O + 2O2 (b) H2O2 + Ag2O 2Ag + H2O + O2 Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively: (1) Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b) (2) Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b) (3) Reducing in (a) and (b) (4) Oxidizing in (a) and (b) 69. Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold conditions only is : (1) Saccharine (2) Sucralose (3) Aspartame (4) Alitame 70. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2O 7-2 to CrO5 which has two (-O-O-) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is : (1) +5 (2) +3 (3) +6 (4) -10 71. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic conditions gives : (1) Mn4 + and O2 (2) Mn2+ and O2 (3) Mn2+ and O3 (4) Mn4+ and MnO2 72. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is : (1) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (3) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+ AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 73. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions? (At.nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28) (1) Ti3+ (2) Ni2+ (3) Cr3+ (4) Mn2+ 74. Which of the following complexes is used to be as anticancer agent ? (1) mer – [Co (NH3)3 Cl] (2) cis – [Pt Cl2 (NH3)2] (3) cis – K2[Pt Cl2 Br2] (4) Na2CoCl4 75. Reasons of lanthanoid contraction is : (1) Negligible screening effect of ‘f’ orbitals (2) Increasing Nuclear charge (3) Decreasing nuclear charge (4) Decreasing screening effect 76. In the following reaction, the product (A) (1) (2) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) (3) (4) 77. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN 2+ X- ? (1) CH3 N 2+ X- (2) C6H5N 2+ X- (3) CH3CH2 N 2+ X- (4) C6H5 CH2 N 2+ X- 78. D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be : (1) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) (2) (3) (4) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 79. Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings ? (1) Thyroxin (2) Insulin (3) Adrenaline (4) Estradiol 80. Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer? (1) (2) (3) (4) 81. Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyster Dacron? (1) Propylene and para HO – (C6H4) – OH (2) Benzoic acid and ethanol (3) Terephthalic acid and ethyleneglycol (4) Benzoic acid and para HO –(C6H4) – OH AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 82. Which one of the following is not a common component of phototechemical smog ? (1) Ozone (2) Acrolein (3) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (4) Chlorofluorocarbons 83. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is : (1) 37.33 (2) 45.33 (3) 35.33 (4) 43.33 84. What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br in the presence of FeBr3 ? (1) (2) (3) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) (4) 85. Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses? (i) (ii) CH3CH2CH2Cl (iii) (iv) (1) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 86. Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole? (1) CH3CHO;RMgX (2) C6H5OH;NaOH;CH3I (3) C6H5OH;neutral FeCl3 (4) C6H5 – CH3;CH3COCl;AlCl3 87. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate? (1) 2,4,6 – trinitrophenol (2) Benzoic acid (3) o – Nitrophenol (4) Benzenesulphonic acid 88. Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction? (1) (2) (3) AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) (4) 89. Identity Z in the sequence of reactions : CH3CH2CH = CH2 HBr/H O Y C H ONa Z 2 2 3 5 (1) CH3 – (CH2)3 – O – CH2CH3 (2) (CH3)2CH2 – O – CH2CH3 (3) CH3(CH2)4 – O – CH3 (4) CH3CH2 – CH (CH3) – O – CH2CH3 90. Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product – (CO2)? (1) Ethane (2) Ethyne (3) Ethene (4) Ethanol AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) Biology 91. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non – flagellated gamets ? (1) Sargassum (2) Eatocarpus (3) Ulothrix (4) Spirogyra 92. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on : (1) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus (2) Mode of reproduction (3) Mode of nutrition (4) Complexity of body organization 93. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ? (1) Morchella esculenta (2) Amanita muscaria (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Ustilago sp. 94. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in : (1) Cell membrane structure (2) Mode of nutrition (3) Cell shape (4) Mode of reproduction 95. Which one of the following is wrong about chara? (1) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium (2) Globule and nucule present on the same plant (3) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium (4) Globule is male reproductive structure 96. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ? (1) Marchantia (2) Riccia (3) Funaria (4) Sphagnum AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 97. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in: (1) Apple (2) Banana (3) Tomato (4) Potato 98. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as : (1) Vexillary (2) Imbricate (3) Twisted (4) Valvate 99. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two? (1) Secondary xylem (2) Secondary phloem (3) Protoxylem (4) Cortical cells 100. Which one of the following statement is correct ? (1) The seed in grasses is not endospermic (2) Mango is parthenocarpic fruit (3) A proteinaceous aleurnone layer is present in maize grain (4) A sterile pistil is called a stainamode 101. Tracherids differ from other tracheray elements in : (1) Having casparian strips (2) Being imperforate (3) Lacking nucleus (4) Being lignified 102. An example of edible underground stem is : (1) Carrot (2) Groundnut (3) Sweet potato (4) Potato 103. Which structure perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria? (1) Nucleoid (2) Ribosomes (3) Cell wall (4) Mesosomes AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 104. The solid linear cyroskeltal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as : (1) Microtubules (2) Micorfilaments (3) Intermediate filaments (4) Lamins 105. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by: (1) Mitrochondria (2) Vacuoles (3) Plastics (4) Ribosomes 106. During which phase (s) of cell cycle, amound of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the intial amount is denoted as 2C? (1) G0 and G1 (2) G1 and S (3) Only G2 (4) G2 and M 107. Match the following and select the correct answer : (a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria (b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thaylakoids (c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids (d) Ribozymes (iv) basal body cilia or flagella (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 108. Dr.F went noted that if coleptile were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly- cut – coleptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment ? (1) It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin (2) It is the basis for quantitive determination of small amounts of growth – promoting substances (3) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin (4) It demonstartaed polar movement of auxins AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 109. Deficiency symotoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in : (1) Senescent leaves (2) Young leaves (3) Roots (4) Buds 110. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released ? (1) Aerobic respiration in plants (2) Aerobic respiration in animals (3) Alcoholic fermimentation (4) Lactate fermination 111. Anoxygric photosynthesis Is characterstics of : (1) Rhodospirillum (2) Spirogyra (3) Chlamudomonas (4) Ulva 112. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become while – coloured like alinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them? (1) Mutated (2) Embolised (3) Etiolated (4) Defoliated 113. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘ stress hormone’? (1) Absciessic acid (2) Ethyelene (3) GA3 (4) Indole acetic acid 114. Geitonogamy involves (1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant. (2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower (3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population (4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 115. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in: (1) Pteris (2) Funaria (3) Lilium (4) Pinus 116. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from: (1) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium (2) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynocium (3) Complete infloroscene (4) Multicarpellary superior ovary 117. Pollen tablets are available in tha market for: (1) In vitro fertilization (2) Breeding programmes (3) Supplementing food (4) Ex situ conservation 118. Function of filiform apparatus is to (1) Recongnize the suitable pollen at stigma (2) Stimulate division of generative cell (3) Produce necter (4) Guide the entry of pollen tube 119. Non – albuminous seed is produced in : (1) Maize (2) Castor (3) Wheat (4) Pea 120. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomers ? (1) Polio virus (2) Tobbaco mosaic virus (3) Measles virus (4) Retrovirus 121. Which one of the following is wrongely matched (1) Transcription – Writing information From DNA to t – RNA (2) Translation – Using information in m – RNA to make protein (3) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis (4) Operon - Structural genes, operator and promoter AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 122. Transoformation was discovered by : (1) Meselson and stahl (2) Hershey and chase (3) Griffith (4) Watson and Crick 123. Fruit colour in squash is an example of : (1) Recessive epistasis (2) Dominant epistasis (3) Complemetary genes (4) Inhibitory genes 124. Viruses here : (1) DNA enclosed in a protein coat (2) Prokaryotic nucleus (3) Single chromosome (4) Both DNA and RNA 125. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is : (1) Insulin (2) Estrogen (3) Thyroxin (4) Progesterone 126. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridization technique does not use: (1) Electrophoresis (2) Blotting (3) Autoradiography (4) PCR 127. In vitro propagation in plants is characterized by : (1) PCR and RAPD (2) Northern blotting (3) Electrophoresis and HPLC (4) Microscopy 128. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is : (1) Ulothrix (2) Chlorells (3) Spirogyra (4) Polysiphnia AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 129. Which vector can clone only small fragment of DNA ? (1) Bacterial artificial chromosome (2) Yeast artificial chromosome (3) Plasmid (4) Cosmid 130. An example of ex situ conservation is : (1) National park (2) Seed Bank (3) Wildlife Sanctuary (4) Sacred Grove 131. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the (1) Trees are very healthy (2) Trees are heavily infested (3) Location is highly polluted (4) Location is not polluted 132. Match the following and select the correct option : (a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species (b) Succession (ii) Detritivore (c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality (d) Population growth (iv) Pollination (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 133. A species facing exrtremely high risk of extinction in the immediate fucture is called: (1) Vulnerble (2) Endemic (3) Critically Endangered (4) Extinct 134. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called : (1) Ionosphere (2) Mesosphere (3) Stratosphere (4) Troposphere AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 135. The organization which publishes the Red list of species is : (1) ICFRE (2) IUCN (3) UNEP (4) WWF 136. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species : (1) Echinoderms (2) Ctenophora (3) Cephalochordata (4) Cnidaria 137. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks of cells wall ? (1) Cyanobacteria (2) Sea – Fan (Gorgonia) (3) Saccharmyces (4) Blue – Green algae 138. Planaria posses high capacity of : (1) Metamorphosis (2) Regeneration (3) Alteration of generation (4) Bioluminscene 139. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is : (1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Trygon (4) Scoliodon 140. Choose the correctly matched pair : (1) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue (2) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue (3) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue (4) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue 141. Choose the correctly matched pair : (1) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium (2) Moist surface of buccal cavity - Glandular epithelium (3) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium (4) Inner surface of bronchioles – squamous epithelium AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 142. In ‘s’ pahse of the cell cycle (1) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell (2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell. (3) Chromosome number is increased (4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell 143. The motile bacteria are able to move by : (1) Fimbriae (2) Flagella (3) Cilia (4) Pili 144. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action : (1) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site (2) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate (3) A non – competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distict from that which binds the substrate (4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase 145. Which one of the following is a non – reducing carbohydrate? (1) Maltose (2) Sucrose (3) Lactose (4) Ribose 5 – phosphate 146. The enzyme recombines is required at which stage of meiosis : (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (3) Diplotene (4) Daikinesis 147. The intial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by ? (1) Lipase (2) Trypsin (3) Rennin (4) Pepsin AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 148. Fructose is abosorbed bed into the blood through mucosa cells of intenstine by the process called : (1) Active transport (2) Faciliatated transport (3) Simple diffuision (4) Co-transport mechanism 149. Approximately seventy percent of carbon – dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs : (1) As bicarbonate ions (2) In the form of dissolved gas molecules (3) By binding to R.B.C (4) As carbamino – haeoglobin 150. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has : (1) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma (2) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma (3) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma (4) Both A and antigens in the plasma but no antibodies 151. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ? (1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output (2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output. (3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase (4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases. 152. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reasorption in te distal convoluted tubule ? (1) Increase in aldosterone levels (2) Increase in antidieuretic hormone levels (3) Decrease in aldosterone levels (4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels 153. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system : Type of joint Example (1) Carilaginous joint - Between frontal and paraiental (2) Pivot joint - Between third and fourth cervical Vertebrae (3) Hinge joint - Between humerus and pectoral girdle (4) Gliding joint - Between carpals AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 154. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at : (1) The neuromuscular junction (2) The transverse tubules (3) The myofibril (4) The sacroplasmic reticulum 155. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt : (1) Short – term memory (2) Co- ordination during locomotion. (3) Executive function, such as decision making (4) Regulation of body temperature 156. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (1) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments (2) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodpsin while cones have three different photopigments (3) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C. (4) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only. 157. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function : (1) Oxytocin – posterior pituatory, growth and maintenance of mammary glands (2) Melatonin – pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle. (3) Progesterone – corpus – luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs (4) Atrial natriuretic factor – ventricular wall increases the blood pressure. 158. Fight – or – flight reactions cause activation of : (1) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate. (2) The kidney, leading tu suppression of reninangiotensin – aldeosterone pathway. (3) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrene (4) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels 159. The shared terminal duct of the productive and urinary syste In the human ale is : (1) Urethra (2) Ureter (3) Vas deferens (4) Vasa efferentia AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 160. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce : (1) Estrogen only (2) Progesterone (3) Human chorionic gonadotropin (4) Relaxin only 161. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female : (1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium (2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implanatation of the embryo (3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone. (4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium. 162. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which : (1) Small party of fallopian tube is removed or tied up (2) Ovaries are removd surgically (3) Small party of vas deferens is removed or tied up. (4) Uterus is removed surgically 163. Which of the following is a hormone releasing intra Uterine Device (IUD) (i) Multiload 375 (ii) LNG – 20 (iii) Cervical cap (iv) Vault 164. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of : (1) Ovum into fallopian tube (2) Zygote into the fallopian tube (3) Zygote into the uterus (4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube 165. A man whose father was colur blind marries a woman who had a colour bline mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ? (1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 75% AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 166. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa the and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this date, the frequency of allele a in the population is : (1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7 167. A human female with Turner’s syndrome : (1) Has 45 chromosome with XO (2) Has one additional X chromosome (3) Exhibits male characters (4) Is able to produce children with normal husband 168. Select the correct option : Direction of RNA Direction of reading of the Synthesis template DNA strand (1) 5’ – 3’ 3’ – 5’ (2) 3’ – 5’ 5’ – 3’ (3) 5’ – 3’ 5’ – 3’ (4) 3’ – 5’ 3’ – 5’ 169. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are : (1) T – DNA (2) BAC and YAC (3) Expression Vectors (4) T/A Cloning Vectors 170. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking forelimbs of whale used n swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of : (1) Analogus organs (2) Adaptive radiation (3) Homologous organs (4) Convergent evolution 171. Which one of the following are analogues structures ? (1) Wings of Bat and wings of Pigeon (2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man (3) Thorns of Bouganvillea and Tendrills of Cucurbita (4) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 172. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below? (1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (3) Stimulant (4) Pain – killer 173. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symtoms of AIDS ? (1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person (2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells (3) When HIV damages large number of helper T – Lymphocytes. (4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase 174. To obtain virus – free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture techinique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken? (1) Apical meristem only (2) Palisade parenchyma (3) Both apical and axillary meristem (4) Epidermis only 175. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ? (1) Methane and CO2 only (2) Methane, Hydrogen, sulphide and CO2 (3) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O2 (4) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2 AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 176. Just as a person moving from Delhi to shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to : (1) Western Ghat (2) Meghalaya (3) Corbett National Park (4) Keolado National Park 177. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D) identify the blanks. A B C D (1) Rock Detritus Litter Fall Producers minerals (2) Litter fall Producers Rock Detritus Minerals (3) Detritus Rock Producer Litter fall minerals (4) Producers Litter fall Rock Detritus Minerals AIPMT │ PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY AND BIOLOGY NEET | Questions | live clase | Notes Paper - 2014 (Code P) 178. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively? A B C D (1) Insects Crustaceans Other animal Molluscs groups (2) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal groups (3) Molluscs Other Crustaceans Insects animal groups (4) Insects Molluscs Crustaceanus Other animal groups 179. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes: (1) Gases like suplhur dioxide (2) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above (3) Gases like ozone and methane (4) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less 180. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain? Plant mice snake peacock (1) 0.02 J (2) 0.002 J (3) 0.2 J (4) 0.0002 J AIPMT ENTRANCE - 2014 KEY | | | Qn. No. P Q R S Qn. No. P Q R S Qn. No. P Q R S 1 4 NA 4 4 61 NA 4 1 1 121 4 2 3 4 2 1 1 2 2 62 1 1 3 3 122 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 63 3 1 4 4 123 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 3 4 64 2 1 1 2 124 1 3 1 4 5 3 2 1 1 65 3 1 2 1 125 1 3 1 4 6 1 4 1 3 66 2 3 3 3 126 4 3 3 2 7 2 2 2 2 67 1 2 1 4 127 4 1 4 1 8 3 2 3 4 68 3 2 1 2 128 2 3 2 3 9 4 2 2 4 69 3 3 3 1 129 3 2 4 3 10 1 NA 2 4 70 3 2 2 1 130 2 4 4 3 11 3 2 3 1 71 2 2 4 4 131 4 3 4 4 12 1 2 2 4 72 2 1 4 2 132 4 2 3 4 13 2 1 2 2 73 2 2 4 1 133 3 2 1 3 14 3 3 4 1 74 2 1 4 1 134 3 1 1 2 15 4 1 1 1 75 1 4 4 2 135 2 4 1 1 16 1 4 3 2 76 4 3 4 2 136 4 1 4 NA 17 3 4 2 3 77 2 3 3 3 137 2 4 1 4 18 4 3 2 2 78 4 3 3 3 138 2 1 4 2 19 2 2 2 1 79 3 1 4 2 139 2 3 2 4 20 1 4 3 1 80 4 4 3 2 140 3 2 4 4 21 4 3 3 4 81 3 4 2 3 141 3 1 1 2 22 3 3 3 3 82 4 1 2 4 142 1 3 3 4 23 3 3 4 1 83 1 1 3 2 143 2 3 3 4 24 2 1 3 3 84 3 1 2 1 144 2 3 1 1 25 4 1 2 2 85 NA 2 1 3 145 2 2 3 4 26 2 1 3 1 86 2 4 2 3 146 1 2 4 3 27 2 3 1 2 87 3 2 1 3 147 3 2 1 1 28 3 3 1 3 88 4 2 3 2 148 2 3 1 3 29 3 2 2 2 89 1 2 2 2 149 1 1 3 2 30 3 1 1 2 90 2 4 1 4 150 1 2 1 2 31 4 1 1 1 91 4 1 4 4 151 1 4 1 3 32 4 3 2 4 92 1 4 3 3 152 1 4 NA 1 33 2 1 4 2 93 2 4 3 4 153 4 3 2 1 34 2 2 4 1 94 1 4 1 2 154 1 1 4 1 35 4 4 3 2 95 3 2 4 1 155 4 3 3 4 36 3 4 4 2 96 4 2 3 3 156 3 3 4 3 37 4 1 3 4 97 3 1 1 3 157 2 3 4 1 38 2 2 3 2 98 2 4 4 4 158 3 3 1 NA 39 2 2 3 1 99 3 3 3 4 159 1 1 3 4 40 2 2 1 4 100 3 1 3 2 160 2 1 4 3 41 3 1 4 4 101 2 1 2 3 161 3 3 4 1 42 4 2 1 1 102 4 1 3 4 162 1 2 1 2 43 3 2 2 1 103 4 2 4 1 163 2 4 3 2 44 1 4 2 1 104 2 2 4 4 164 2 2 2 1 45 4 3 4 3 105 2 4 2 1 165 3 2 4 2 46 1 4 4 4 106 3 1 1 1 166 3 4 3 1 47 107 1 | 2 1| 1 | 167 1 2 4 1 48 3 3 2 1 108 1 4 4 1 168 1 2 1 4 49 4 2 4 4 109 1 4 3 3 169 2 2 4 1 50 4 1 2 4 110 4 4 2 1 170 3 1 NA 4 51 3 3 4 1 111 1 4 4 1 171 2 2 2 3 52 3 2 4 1 112 3 1 2 3 172 1 2 3 2 53 1 4 3 4 113 1 3 1 2 173 3 4 2 1 54 3 2 4 3 114 1 4 1 4 174 3 4 2 4 55 2 1 1 1 115 3 4 2 3 175 2 3 3 3 56 4 1 2 3 116 2 1 2 4 176 4 3 3 4 57 2 3 3 2 117 3 4 4 4 177 3 2 4 1 58 4 4 4 3 118 4 3 4 1 178 4 1 2 1 59 2 3 4 1 119 4 2 4 4 179 1 1 4 2 60 3 1 4 3 120 2 2 1 3 180 1 1 2 2 2 of 4 05/05/14 2:23 PM