Short Practice Test 01 Yakeen NEET 3.0 2025 PDF
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2025
Yakeen
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This is a short practice test for the NEET 3.0 exam in 2025. It includes questions covering topics in physics, chemistry and biology. The test has 190 marks and is 60 minutes.
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Yakeen NEET 3.0 (2025) SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 DURATION:: 60 DURATION 90Minutes Minutes DATE : 28/07/2024...
Yakeen NEET 3.0 (2025) SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 DURATION:: 60 DURATION 90Minutes Minutes DATE : 28/07/2024 M.MARKS : 192 Topics Covered Physics: Basic Maths & Calculus (Mathematical Tools) (Complete Chapter) Chemistry: Some Basic Concept of Chemistry (Complete Chapter) Redox Reaction: Introduction, Classical idea of Redox Reactions - Oxidation and Reduction Reactions, Redox Reactions in Terms of Electronic Concept, Competitive Electron Transfer Reactions Oxidation Number, Limitations of Concept of Oxidation Number, Oxidation Number and Nomenclature, Types of Redox Reactions, Application of Redox Reactions, Balancing of Redox Reactions, Redox Reactions and Electrode Processes Botany: Cell - The Unit of Life : What is a Cell ? Overview of the cell, Cell Theory, Prokaryotic cells, Cell Membrane, Cell Wall Zoology: Structural Organization in Animals : Tissues, Animal Tissues, Epithelium Tissue, Cell Junctions, Connective Tissue, Muscular Tissue, Nervous Tissue, FROG General Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet. 2. The test is of 60 minutes duration. 3. The test booklet consists of 48 questions. The maximum marks are 192. 4. All questions are compulsory. 5. There is only one correct response for each question. 6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response. 7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall. 8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR). OMR Instructions: 1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens. 2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software. 3. Never use pencils to mark your answers. 4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process. 5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may create problems during the evaluation. 6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses. 7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR). Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : ___________________________________________________________________________ Roll Number : _______________________________________________________________________________________________________ OMR Bar Code Number : __________________________________________________________________________________________ Candidate’s Signature : __________________________________ Invigilator’s Signature ____________________________ [Short Practice Test-01 | Yakeen NEET 3.0 (2025) | 28/07/2024] Basic Maths & Calculus (Mathematical Tools) (Complete Chapter) SECTION-(I) PHYSICS 9. Distance between points (2, 3, –7) and (–2, 0, 5) is: 1. Convert angle from radian to degree rad: 2 (1) 5 (1) 60° (2) 30° (2) 13 (3) 90° (4) 0° (3) 145 (4) 119 dy 2. If y = x + 4x – 8x + 4, then find 2 3 : dx 10. Draw graph between momentum(p) and mass(m) (1) 2x + 4x2 – x (2) 2x + 12x2 – 8 of the object for constant kinetic energy E (3) 2x + 4x3 – 8 (4) 2x + 12x2 – x p = 2mE : 3. Find the solutions of given equation: 2x2 + 3x – 2 = 0: 1 1 (1) (1) x = −3, (2) x = 3, 2 2 1 1 (3) x = −2, (4) x = 2, 2 2 (2) 1 1 1 4. Find sum of 1 + + +... up to term: 3 9 27 3 2 (1) (2) 2 3 (3) 4 3 (3) (4) 3 4 5. What is the value of log2 16? (4) (1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 1/8 (4) 16 /2 4 11. ( sin + cos ) d : 6. If cos = then find the value of tan : 0 5 (1) 1 (2) 0 4 3 (1) (2) (3) 2 (4) –1 5 5 4 3 (3) (4) 12. Find the value of P: 3 4 7. Find the value of cos (330°): (1) sin 45° H P (2) – cos 30° (3) cos 60° 30° (4) sin 60° B=8 3 sin + cos 7 (1) 8. If = then find tan ? 8 sin − cos 3 (2) 8 3 5 (1) (2) 8 5 2 (3) 3 5 2 (3) (4) 3 5 (4) 0 [Short Practice Test-01 | Yakeen NEET 3.0 (2025) | 28/07/2024] Some Basic Concept of Chemistry (Complete Chapter) Redox Reaction: Introduction, Classical idea of Redox Reactions - Oxidation and Reduction Reactions, Redox Reactions in Terms of Electronic Concept, Competitive Electron Transfer Reactions, Oxidation Number, Limitations of Concept of Oxidation Number, Oxidation Number and Nomenclature Types of Redox Reactions, Application of Redox Reactions, Balancing of Redox Reactions, Redox Reactions and Electrode Processes SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY 13. Oxidation state of oxygen is (−1) in: 19. The amount of NaOH required to prepare 250 mL (1) NO2 of 0.1 M solution is: (2) MnO2 (Molar mass of NaOH = 40 g/mol) (3) PbO2 (1) 1 g (2) 10 g (4) Na2O2 (3) 4 g (4) 6 g 14. Number of atoms present in 6.8 g of NH3 is: 20. Molarity of an aqueous solution of H2SO4 is 18M. (Molar mass of NH3 = 17 g/mol) If the density of solution is 1.8 g/cm3, then the (1) 1.2 NA molality of solution is: (3) 16 NA (Molar mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol) (3) 12 NA (1) 180 m (2) 250 m (4) 1.6 NA (3) 360 m (4) 500 m 15. The maximum number of molecules present in: 21. The number of electrons present in 8.4 g of CO is: (1) 11.2 L of H2 gas at STP (Molar mass of CO = 28 g/mol) (2) 5.6 L of N2 gas at STP (1) 0.3 NA (2) 1.4 NA (3) 1.2 g of H2 gas (3) 2.8 NA (4) 4.2 NA (4) 1.6 g of O2 gas 22. Which of the following concentration term is 16. Which of the following is not a redox reaction? temperature independent? (1) 2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl A. Molarity (2) C + O2 → CO2 B. (w/w)% C. Mole fraction (3) AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3 (1) A and B only (4) Zn + H 2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H 2 (2) A and C only (3) B only 17. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as (4) B and C only Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A: The number of O atoms in 1 g of O2, 23. 4 g of hydrogen is ignited with 4 g of oxygen, the 1 g of O3 and 1 g of atomic oxygen is same. amount of water formed is: Reason R: O2 and O3 have different molar masses. 1 In the light of the above statements, choose the H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O(l) 2 correct answer from the options given below: (1) 2.5 g (1) A is true but R is false. (2) 0.5 g (2) A is false but R is true. (3) 4.5 g (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) 8 g explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the 24. Consider the following statement: correct explanation of A. A. Addition of oxygen or electronegative element to a substance is called oxidation. 18. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O, B. Electron donors act as reducing agent. having molecular mass 120. The molecular formula C. An oxidising agent accepts electrons. of compound is: The correct statements are: (1) C2H4O2 (1) A and B only (2) C4H8O4 (2) A and C only (3) C3H6O (3) B and C only (4) C5H10O5 (4) A, B and C [Short Practice Test-01 | Yakeen NEET 3.0 (2025) | 28/07/2024] Cell - The Unit of Life: What is a Cell? Overview of the cell, Cell Theory, Prokaryotic cells, Cell Membrane, Cell Wall SECTION-(III) BOTANY 25. A specialised differentiated form of cell 30. Choose the odd one out related to the examples of membrane called mesosome is the characteristic prokaryotic cells. of; (1) Bacteria (1) eukaryotes. (2) only plants. (2) Blue-green algae (3) only animals. (4) prokaryotes. (3) Mycoplasma (4) Human cheek cells 26. Identify the incorrect function of the cell membrane among the following. 31. The innermost portion of a mature plant cell wall (1) cell growth. possesses; (2) formation of intracellular junctions. (1) primary cell wall. (3) endocytosis. (2) plasma membrane. (4) cell division. (3) secondary cell wall. (4) middle lamella. 27. The concept of "Omnis cellula-e cellula" regarding cell theory was first proposed by; 32. The four basic shapes of bacteria includes all (1) Rudolf Virchow. except; (2) Theodor Schwann. (1) rod like. (2) spherical. (3) Matthias Schleiden. (3) comma shaped (4) irregular. (4) Robert Brown. 28. Given below are two statements: 33. The largest isolated single cell is the egg of an; Statement I: Plasmid DNA confers certain (1) ostrich. (2) onion. unique phenotypic characters to bacteria. (3) human. (4) blue-green algae. Statement II: One such character of plasmid is resistance to antibiotics. 34. Match the List-I with List-II. In the light of the above statements, choose the List-I List II most appropriate answer from the options given (A) Mycoplasmas (I) 3 to 5 m below: (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (B) Viruses (II) 7.0 m incorrect. (C) Bacteria (III) 0.3 m (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (D) Human red (IV) 0.02-0.2 µm correct. blood cells (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are Choose the correct answer from the options given incorrect. below: (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 29. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Assertion A: The cytoplasm is the main arena of (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. 35. Movement of water by diffusion in cell membrane Reason R: Various chemical reactions occur in it is called; to keep the cell in the non-living state. (1) osmosis. (2) passive transport. In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) active transport. (4) Both (2) and (3) correct answer from the options given below: (1) A is true but R is false. 36. No organelles, like the ones in eukaryotes are (2) A is false but R is true. found in prokaryotic cells except for; (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) lysosomes. explanation of A. (2) endoplasmic reticulum. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (3) mesosomes. correct explanation of A. (4) ribosomes. [Short Practice Test-01 | Yakeen NEET 3.0 (2025) | 28/07/2024] Structural Organization in Animals: Tissues, Animal Tissues, Epithelium Tissue, Cell Junctions, Connective Tissue, Muscular Tissue, Nervous Tissue, FROG SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY 37. Select the odd one out of the following w.r.t male 43. Frogs are beneficial to mankind because they: reproductive system of Rana tigrina. (1) eat insects and protect the crops. (1) Vasa efferentia (2) Bidder’s canal (2) maintain ecological balance. (3) Testes (4) Oviduct (3) serve as an important link of food webs. (4) all of these 38. Which of the following is an incorrect pair? (1) Specialised tissue Cartilage 44. Match the List-I with List-II. (2) Dense regular tissue Tendons List-I List-II (3) Columnar Stomach (A Squamous (I) Biceps epithelium epithelium ) (B) Skeletal (II) Outer ear joints (4) Compound Intestine muscles epithelium (C) Cartilage (III) Skin (D Dense irregular (IV) Inner lining of 39. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as connective ) blood vessels Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. tissue Assertion A: Frogs have a long alimentary canal. Choose the correct answer from the options given Reason R: Frogs are carnivores. below. In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV correct answer from the options given below. (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (1) A is true but R is false. (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A is false but R is true. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III explanation of A. (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 45. Read the following statements w.r.t Rana tigrina. explanation of A. A. There are ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. 40. Which of the following is involved in functions like B. During aestivation gaseous exchange takes forming a diffusion boundary? place through lungs. (1) Columnar epithelium C. RBCs are enucleated. (2) Compound epithelium D. The forelimbs end in four digits. (3) Ciliated epithelium E. Copulatory pad is present in male frogs. (4) Squamous epithelium Which of the above statements are correct? (1) A, B and C only (2) A, D and E only 41. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t Rana tigrina. (3) A, B and E only (4) B, D and E only (1) They are ureotelic. (2) Vascular system is of open type. (3) Pancreatic juice digest carbohydrates. 46. All of the following are incorrect statements, (4) The medulla oblongata passes out through except: foramen magnum. (1) salivary gland is an endocrine gland. (2) adhering junctions help stop substances from 42. _______ is present beneath the skin. leaking. Choose the correct option to fill the blank. (3) smooth muscles are voluntary and non- (1) Adipose tissue (2) Cartilage striated. (3) Ligament (4) Tendon (4) cardiac muscles are found only in heart. 47. Given below are two statements. 48. Refer to the given below diagram. Statement I: Blood contains RBCs, WBCs, platelets and fibre secreting cells. Statement II: Arrival of the disturbance at the neuron’s endings, triggers events that may cause stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below. (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Which of the following secrete modified incorrect. polysaccharides? (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) I correct. (2) III (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) II correct. (4) IV (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4 Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if