NEET 2021 Past Paper PDF - Code M2

Test Booklet Code No. : AHJAGA M2 This Booklet contains 28 pages....

Test Booklet Code No. : AHJAGA M2 This Booklet contains 28 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Important Instructions : 1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on OFFICE Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below : (a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory. (b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject. Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated. 3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. 4. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on Answer Sheet. 5. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (ORIGINAL and OFFICE Copy) to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 7. The CODE for this Booklet is M2. Make sure that the CODE printed on the Original Copy of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet. 9. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet. 10. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 11. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 12. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case. 13. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. 14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination. 15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : Roll Number : in figures : in words Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature : Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : M2 2 Section - A (Physics) 4. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by 1. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are V=V0 sinωt connected in series to an ac source of potential difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure. The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by : Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of (1) Id=V0 ωCcosωt current flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A. The impedance of the circuit is : V (2) Id= 0 cosωt ωC V (3) Id= 0 sin ωt ωC (4) Id=V0 ωCsinωt (1) 4 2 Ω 5. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries (2) 5 2 Ω current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its (3) 4Ω cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) (4) 5Ω due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by : 2. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3. (1) (1) 608 (2) 308 (3) 458 (2) (4) 908 3. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move ? (3) (1) towards the left as its potential energy will increase. (2) towards the right as its potential energy will decrease. (3) towards the left as its potential energy will (4) decrease. (4) towards the right as its potential energy will increase.  3 M2 6. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave 9. A radioactive nucleus AZ X undergoes spontaneous lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a decay in the sequence parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a A X → Z −1B → Z −3C → Z − 2 D , where Z is the parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be : Z atomic number of element X. The possible decay (1) 25 particles in the sequence are : (2) 15 (1) α, β−, β+ (3) 50 (2) α, β+, β− (4) 30 (3) β+, α, β− (4) β−, α, β+ 7. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ‘λ’ is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible 10. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that work function. If ‘m’ mass is of photoelectron consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What λd, then : will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series ?  2m  2 (1) λ= λd (1) 0.25 Ω  hc  (2) 0.5 Ω  2mc  2 (3) 1Ω (2) λd= λ  h  (4) 4Ω  2mc  2 (3) λ= λd 11. A particle is released from height S from the  h  surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic  2h  2 energy is three times its potential energy. The (4) λ= λd height from the surface of earth and the speed of  mc  the particle at that instant are respectively : 8. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated S 3gS (1) , with flow of current through a metallic conductor. 4 2 Column - II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match S 3gS (2) , Column - I and Column - II with appropriate 4 2 relations. S 3gS Column - I Column - II (3) , 2 2 m (A) Drift Velocity (P) S 3gS ne2 ρ (4) 4 , 2 (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd 12. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain eE after 150 hours would be : (C) Relaxation Period (R) τ m (1) 1/2 E 1 (D) Current Density (S) (2) J 2 2 (1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q) 2 (3) (2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P) 3 (3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q) 2 (4) (4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P) 3 2 M2 4 13. A cup of coffee cools from 908C to 808C in t minutes, 18. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose when the room temperature is 208C. The time the correct match from the given choices. taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 808C Column - I Column - II to 608C at a room temperature same at 208C is : 1 (A) Root mean square (P) nm v 2 13 3 (1) t speed of gas molecules 10 13 3 RT t (B) Pressure exerted (Q) (2) M 5 by ideal gas 10 5 (3) t (C) Average kinetic energy (R) RT 13 2 5 of a molecule (4) t 3 13 (D) Total internal energy (S) k BT 2 14. The number of photons per second on an average of 1 mole of a emitted by the source of monochromatic light of diatomic gas wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) 3.3×10−3 watt will be : (h=6.6×10−34 Js) (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) (1) 1018 (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) (2) 1017 (4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S) (3) 1016 19. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined (4) 1015 plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be the distance travelled by the block in the interval 15. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with Sn frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy t=n−1 to t=n. Then, the ratio is : is : Sn+1 (1) n 2n−1 (1) (2) 2n 2n (3) 3n 2n−1 (4) 4n (2) 2n+1 16. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a 2n+1 current of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving (3) 2n−1 with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron 2n (4) 2n−1 and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced 20. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two by the electron at that instant. fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is : (1) 0.9 MeV (2) 9.4 MeV (3) 804 MeV (4) 216 MeV (1) 4×10−20 N (2) 8π×10−20 N 21. A screw gauge gives the following readings when (3) 4π×10−20 N used to measure the diameter of a wire (4) 8×10−20 N Main scale reading : 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions 17. If force [ F ], acceleration [ A ] and time [ T ] are Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter Find the dimensions of energy. of the wire from the above data is : (1) [F] [A] [T] (1) 0.52 cm (2) [ F ] [ A ] [ T2 ] (2) 0.026 cm (3) [ F ] [ A ] [ T−1 ] (3) 0.26 cm (4) [ F ] [ A−1 ] [ T ] (4) 0.052 cm  5 M2 22. The equivalent capacitance of the combination 26. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in shown in the figure is : x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively ? ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ (1) j+k, j +k ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ (2) − j+k, − j−k (1) 3C ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ (3) j +k, − j−k (2) 2C ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ (3) C/2 (4) − j+k, − j+k (4) 3C/2 27. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. 23. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is The escape velocity from the surface of another best suited as an objective of an astronomical planet having a radius, four times that of Earth telescope since : and same mass density is : (1) a large aperture contributes to the quality (1) v and visibility of the images. (2) 2v (2) a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power. (3) 3v (3) a large aperture provides a better resolution. (4) 4v (4) all of the above. 28. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another 24. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ? surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is : (1) 60 cm R1 (1) R2 (2) 21.6 cm (3) 64 cm R2 (2) R1 (4) 62 cm  R1  29. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density (3)    R2  d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density R12 d of glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on (4) 2 R22 the ball will be : Mg (1) 25. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The 2 time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is : (2) Mg (1) 0.0628 s (2) 6.28 s 3 (3) Mg 2 (3) 3.14 s (4) 0.628 s (4) 2 Mg M2 6 30. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric 35. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of → 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to field ‘ E ’ in the space between the plates. If the frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of much power is generated by the turbine ? each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor (g=10 m/s2) is : (ε0=permittivity of free space) (1) 10.2 kW 1 (2) 8.1 kW (1) ε E2 2 0 (3) 12.3 kW (4) 7.0 kW (2) ε0EAd 1 Section - B (Physics) (3) ε E2 Ad 2 0 36. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. E2 Ad At t=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a (4) ε0 person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t=6 s ? (Take g=10 m/s2) 31. The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration (1) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2 in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (2) 20 m/s, 0 (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare (3) 20 2 m/s, 0 the currents in them. (4) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2 (1) current in n-type=current in p-type. 37. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are (2) current in p-type > current in n-type. applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would (3) current in n-type > current in p-type. be the output at the terminal y ? (4) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type. 32. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V. (1) (A) and (B) both are correct. (2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect. (3) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. (4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. 33. Polar molecules are the molecules : (1) having zero dipole moment. (2) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges. (3) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent. (4) having a permanent electric dipole moment. 34. If E and G respectively denote energy and E (1) gravitational constant, then has the dimensions G of : (2) (1) [ M2 ] [ L−1 ] [ T0 ] (2) [ M ] [ L−1 ] [ T−1 ] (3) (3) [ M ] [ L0 ] [ T0 ] (4) (4) [ M2 ] [ L−2 ] [ T−1 ]  7 M2 38. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 41. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, the ball is (g=10 m/s2) nearly : what is the current in the primary circuit ? (1) 0 kg m/s (1) 0.2 A (2) 4.2 kg m/s (2) 0.4 A (3) 2.1 kg m/s (3) 2A (4) 1.4 kg m/s (4) 4A 39. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is 42. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A are connected as shown in the given circuit. The mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm i and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from ratio 3 of currents in terms of resistances used i1 the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. in the circuit is : Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2) r1 1 (1) r2 +r3 (1) kg 2 r2 1 (2) r2 +r3 (2) kg 3 r1 1 (3) r1 +r2 (3) kg 6 r2 1 (4) r1 +r3 (4) kg 12 43. In the product 40. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis → ( F =q v × B → → ) of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of : → ( ∧ =q v × B i +B j +B0 k ∧ ∧ ) → ∧ ∧ ∧ For q=1 and v =2 i +4 j+6 k and → ∧ ∧ ∧ F=4 i −20 j +12 k → What will be the complete expression for B ? (1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real ∧ ∧ ∧ (1) −8 i −8 j −6 k image. (2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real ∧ ∧ ∧ (2) −6 i −6 j −8 k image. (3) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a ∧ ∧ ∧ (3) 8 i +8 j−6 k virtual image. (4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a ∧ ∧ ∧ virtual image. (4) 6 i +6 j−8 k M2 8 44. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity 48. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an v=kVe(k < 1) from the surface of the earth. arc corresponding to a 908 sector is removed. The (Ve=escape velocity) moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the The maximum height above the surface reached ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is by the particle is : ‘K’ times ‘MR2’. Then the value of ‘K’ is : 2 3  k  (1) (1) R  4  1−k  7 2 (2)  k  8 (2) R   1+k  1 (3) 4 R2 k (3) 1 1+k (4) 8 Rk2 (4) 49. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 1−k2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1> > R2 , the mutual inductance M 45. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at between them will be directly proportional to : 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. R1 Calculate the potential of the bigger drop. (1) R2 (1) 660 V R2 (2) 1320 V (2) R1 (3) 1520 V 2 (4) 1980 V R1 (3) R2 46. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 2 R2 80 µF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to (4) 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular R1 frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the 50. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a resonant angular frequency are likely to be : uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. (1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s If this particle were projected with the same speed (2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s at an angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal, the maximum (3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then given by : (4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s 1  gT2  2 47. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and θ=cos−1   (1)  π2 R  resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying   coil in the shape of, 1 (i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.  π2 R  2 (2) θ=cos−1   (ii) a square of side ‘a’.  gT2    The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each 1 case respectively are :  π2 R  2 −1 (3) θ=sin   (1) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2  gT2    (2) 3 Ia2 and Ia2 1 (3) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 2gT   2 2 (4) θ=sin−1   4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2  2  (4) π R  9 M2 Section - A (Chemistry) 55. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 51. Given below are two statements : and 91.0 S cm2 mol−1 respectively. The molar Statement I : conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is. Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of Choose the right option for your answer. narcotic analgesics. (1) 201.28 S cm2 mol−1 Statement II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. (2) 390.71 S cm2 mol−1 In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) 698.28 S cm2 mol−1 correct answer from the options given below. (4) 540.48 S cm2 mol−1 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 56. The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are is exhibited by”, is : false. (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II (1) NaCl solution is false. (2) Glucose solution (4) Statement I is incorrect but (3) Starch solution Statement II is true. (4) Urea solution 52. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is : 57. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of : (1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin B6 (1) (3) Vitamin B1 (4) Vitamin B2 (2) 58. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is : (1) 1208 (2) 1808 (3) (3) 608 (4) 08 59. The incorrect statement among the following (4) is : (1) Actinoid contraction is greater for element 53. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. to element than Lanthanoid contraction. Hybridization and number of electrons around the (2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are central atom, respectively are : colorless in the solid state. (1) sp3 and 4 (3) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and (2) sp3 and 6 electricity. (3) sp2 and 6 (4) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, (4) sp2 and 8 especially when finely divided. 54. Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect 60. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation statement about them. reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This (1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water. product formation is based on ? (2) Noble gases have very high melting and (1) Saytzeff’s Rule boiling points. (2) Hund’s Rule (3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces. (4) Noble gases have large positive values of (3) Hofmann Rule electron gain enthalpy. (4) Huckel’s Rule M2 10 61. Which one among the following is the correct option 66. The major product of the following chemical for right relationship between CP and CV for one reaction is : mole of ideal gas ? (1) CP+CV=R (2) CP−CV=R (3) CP=RCV (4) CV=RCP (1) 62. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation ? (2) (1) Teflon (2) Nylon-66 (3) (3) Novolac (4) Dacron (4) 63. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction ? (i) C2H5MgBr , dry Ether Product 67. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits Acetone  → (ii) H2O, H+ which of the following particles ? (1) Beta (β−) (1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol (2) Alpha (α) (2) pentan-2-ol (3) Gamma (γ) (3) pentan-3-ol (4) Neutron (n) (4) 2-methyl butan-2-ol 68. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond 64. Match List - I with List - II. is : List - I List - II (1) CH3−F < CH3−Cl < CH3−Br < CH3−I (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal (2) CH3−F > CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar (3) CH3−F < CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral (4) CH3−Cl > CH3−F > CH3−Br > CH3−I (d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal 69. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and Choose the correct answer from the options given octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell below. are : (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (1) 8, 4 (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) 6, 12 (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) 2, 1 (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) 12, 6 65. Which one of the following methods can be used to 70. Which of the following reactions is the metal obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room displacement reaction ? Choose the right option. temperature ? ∆ (1) 2KClO3 → 2KCl+3O2 (1) Electrolysis ∆ (2) Chromatography (2) Cr2O3+2Al → Al2O3+2Cr (3) Distillation (3) Fe+2HCl → FeCl2+H2↑ (4) Zone refining (4) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO+4NO2+O2↑  11 M2 71. Choose the correct option for graphical 73. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph one which is covalent and soluble in organic of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different solvents is : temperatures : (1) Calcium chloride (2) Strontium chloride (3) Magnesium chloride (4) Beryllium chloride (1) 74. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is : (1) upto 1200 K (2) upto 2200 K (3) upto 1900 K (4) upto 5000 K 75. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is : (1) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms (2) (2) Unidentate ligand (3) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms (4) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms 76. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing (3) order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is : (1) P2 > P1 > P3 (2) P1 > P2 > P3 (3) P2 > P3 > P1 (4) P3 > P1 > P2 77. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF