NEET-2019 (Code-P1)_Question Paper.pdf

DATE : 05/05/2019 Test Booklet Code P1...

DATE : 05/05/2019 Test Booklet Code P1 SURYAA Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456 Time : 3 hrs. Question Paper Max. Marks : 720 NEET (UG) - 2019 Important Instructions : 1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. 2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses. 3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 5. The CODE for this Booklet is P1. 6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. 7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator. 8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited. 10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination. 11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet. 1  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 1. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long 6. In which of the following devices, the eddy wire of lenght L, the length of the wire current effect is not used? becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy (1) Induction furnace stored in the extended wire is: (2) Magnetic braking in train (1) Mgl (3) Electromagnet (2) MgL (4) Electric heater 1 (3) Mgl 7. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown 2 from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside 1 the bubble equals at a point Z0 below the free (4) MgL 2 surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value of 2. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and Z0 is : whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when: (1) 100 cm (1) the mass is at the highest point (2) 10 cm (2) the wire is horizontal (3) 1 cm (3) the mass is at the lowest point (4) 0.5 cm (4) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical 8. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength? 3. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles with (1) Red same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their (2) Blue radii of their paths rH : r will be : (3) Green (1) 2 : 1 (4) Violet (2) 1 : 2 9. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on (3) 4 : 1 a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed (4) 1 : 4 of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop it? 4. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u (1) 3 J collides with another body B of mass 2m, at rest. The collision is head on and elastic in (2) 30 kJ nature. After the collision the fraction of (3) 2 J energy lost by the colliding body A is : (4) 1 J 1 8 (1) (2) 10. The displacement of a particle executing 9 9 simple harmonic motion is given by 4 5 (3) (4) y = A0 + Asint + Bcost 9 9 Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given 5. In a double slit experiment, when light of by : wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a screen placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What (1) A0  A2  B2 will be the angular width of the first minima, if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed (2) A 2  B2 in water? (water = 4/3) (1) 0.266° (2) 0.15° (3) A20  (A  B)2 (3) 0.05° (4) 0.1° (4) A + B 2 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 11. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal 17. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in length f each, are kept coaxially in contact the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero with each other such that the focal length of internal resistance. the combination is F 1. When the space The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs between the two lenses is filled with when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation glycerin (which has the same refractive index when two from section A and one from section ( = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent B are glowing, will be : focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be : (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 A B (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 12. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a container would lead to : (1) Increase in its mass (2) Increase in its kinetic energy E (3) Decrease in its pressure (1) 4 : 9 (4) Decrease in intermolecular distance (2) 9 : 4 13. An electron is accelerated through a potential (3) 1 : 2 difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg) (4) 2 : 1 (1) 12.2 × 10–13 m (2) 12.2 × 10–12 m 18. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the (3) 12.2 × 10–14 m (4) 12.2 nm following statements is true ? 14. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of (1) Electrons are the majority carriers and unknown length have their increase trivalent atoms are the dopants. in length independent of increase in (2) Holes are the majority carriers and temperature. The length of aluminium rod is : trivalent atoms are the dopants. (Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1) (3) Holes are the majority carriers and (1) 6.8 cm (2) 113.9 cm pentavalent atoms are the dopants. (3) 88 cm (4) 68 cm (4) Electrons are the majority carriers and 15. Pick the wrong answer in the context with pentavalent atoms are the dopants. rainbow. 19. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in (1) When the light rays undergo two internal one complete vibration is : reflections in a water drop, a secondary rainbow is formed A (1) (2) The order of colours is reversed in the 2 secondary rainbow (2) A (3) An observer can see a rainbow when his A2 front is towards the sun (3) 2 (4) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion (4) Zero refraction and reflection of sunlight 20. The unit of thermal conductivity is : 16. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the (1) J m K–1 earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the centre of the earth ? (2) J m–1 K–1 (1) 150 N (2) 200 N (3) W m K–1 (3) 250 N (4) 100 N (4) W m–1 K–1 3  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 21. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm 25. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The charged. The electric field due to the sphere at torque required to stop after 2 revolutions is a distance r from the centre (1) 2 × 10–6 N m (1) Increases as r increases for r < R and for r>R (2) 2 × 10–3 N m (2) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as (3) 12 × 10–4 N m r increases for r > R (4) 2 × 106 N m (3) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as 22. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in r increases for r > R y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. (4) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for Work done by this force to move the particle r>R from y = 0 to y = 1 m is 26. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of (1) 30 J (2) 5 J dip,  = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s surface (3) 25 J (4) 20 J the angle of dip,  = –25°. We can interpret that: 23. Which of the following acts as a circuit (1) A and B are both located in the northern protects device? hemisphere. (1) Conductor (2) A is located in the southern hemisphere (2) Inductor and B is located in the northern hemisphere. (3) Switch (3) A is located in the northern hemisphere (4) Fuse and B is located in the southern 24. In the circuits shown below, the readings of hemisphere. voltmeters and the ammeters will be (4) A and B are both located in the southern 10  hemisphere. i1 27. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential V1 A1 energies are, respectively: (1) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV (2) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (3) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV 10 V (4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV Circuit 1 28. In total internal reflection when the angle of 10  i2 incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact, what will be angle of 10  refraction? V2 A2 (1) 180° (2) 0° (3) Equal to angle of incidence 10 V (4) 90° Circuit 2 29. The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is (1) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2 equal to the radius of the earth, is: (2) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2 (1) mgR (2) 2 mgR (3) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2 1 3 (4) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2 (3) mgR (4) mgR 2 2 4 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 30. When an object is shot from the bottom of a 35. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of with horizontal, it can travel a distance x 1 radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between along the plane. But when the inclination is the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is decreased to 30° and the same object is shot 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. the cylinder to keep the block stationary when Then x1 : x2 will be: the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its (1) 1: 2 (2) 2:1 axis, will be : (g  10 m/s2 ) (3) 1: 3 (4) 1: 2 3 (1) 10 rad/s 31. -particle consists of : 10 (1) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only (2) rad/s 2 (2) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons (3) 10 rad/s (3) 2 electrons and 4 protons only (4) 10 rad/s (4) 2 protons only 36. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear 32. The speed of a swimmer in still water is charge densities +  C/m and – C/m are 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What is flowing due east. If he is standing on the is the electric field mid-way between the two south bank and wishes to cross the river along line charges? the shortest path the angle at which he should make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by : (1) Zero (1) 30° west (2) 0° 2 (2) N/C (3) 60° west (4) 45° west  0R  33. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by  (3) N/C three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.  0R The velocity of the particle will :  P (4) N/C 2 0R 37. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and –Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting between them is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then R Q force between the charges becomes : (1) increase (2) decrease 9F (1) F (2) 16 (3) remain constant (4) change according to the smallest force 16F 4F  (3) (4) QR 9 3 34. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform 38. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA present near the bottom of a fully filled open and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of of flow of water through the open hole would angular speed of A to that of B will be : be nearly (1) rA : rB (2) vA : vB (1) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s (2) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s (3) rB : rA (4) 1 : 1 (3) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s (4) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s 5  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) +6 V 43. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F 0 R is being charged by a voltage source whose 39. A 1 potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The LED (Y) conduction current through the connecting R wires, and the displacement current through 0 the plates of the capacitor, would be, B 1 respectively. (1) Zero, 60 A The correct Boolean operation represented by (2) 60 A, 60 A the circuit diagram drawn is : (3) 60 A, zero (1) AND (2) OR (4) Zero, zero (3) NAND (4) NOR 44. In an experiment, the percentage of error 40. In which of the following processes, heat is occurred in the measurement of physical neither absorbed nor released by a system? quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% (1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic respectively. Then the maximum percentage of 1 (3) Isobaric (4) Isochoric A2B 2 error in the measurement X, where X  1 , C 3D3 41. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept will be perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around  3  any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf (1)  %  13  induced in the coil will be: (2) 16% (1) 2 V (2) 0.2 V (3) – 10% (3) 2 × 10–3 V (4) 0.02 V (4) 10% 42. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are 45. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying indicated in the fig. a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field. B with the distance d y from the centre of the conductor, is correctly P(t = 0) represented by the figure : T=4s B x (1) 3m R d B y-projection of the radius vector of rotating (2) particle P is: R d (1) y(t) = –3 cos2t, where y in m B  t  (2) y(t)  4 sin   , where y in m (3) 2 R d  3t  (3) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m B  2  (4)  t  R d (4) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m 2 6 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 46. The number of sigma () and pi () bonds in 50. Which of the following reactions are pent-2-en-4-yne is disproportionation reaction? (1) 10 bonds and 3 bonds (a) 2Cu  Cu2   Cu0 (2) 8 bonds and 5 bonds (3) 11 bonds and 2 bonds (b) 3MnO24  4H  2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O (4) 13 bonds and no  bonds  (c) 2KMnO 4  K2MnO 4  MnO2  O2 47. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is (d) 2MnO4  3Mn2   2H2 O  5MnO2  4H CH3 CH OH Select the correct option from the following CH3 O + O2 H (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) A + H3C CH3 H2 O (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) only 51. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K CH3 CH3 expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a CH constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work O– CH3 H3C – C – O – O – H done by the gas is (1) (2) (Given that 1 L bar = 100 J) (1) –30 J CH3 CH2 – O – O – H (2) 5 kJ O – O – CH HC (3) 25 J CH3 CH3 (4) 30 J (3) (4) 52. Among the following, the one that is not a green house gas is 48. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is (1) Nitrous oxide O O O (2) Methane (1) O = Br – Br – Br = O (3) Ozone O O O (4) Sulphur dioxide O O O 53. For the cell reaction – (2) O = Br – Br – Br – O O – O – 2Fe3 (aq)  2I (aq) 2Fe2 (aq)  I2 (aq) O o O – ECell  0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs O O – (3) O – Br – Br – Br = O o energy (r G ) of the cell reaction is : – – O O O (1) –46.32 kJ mol–1 – O O O (2) –23.16 kJ mol–1 (4) O = Br – Br – Br – O – (3) 46.32 kJ mol–1 O O – O (4) 23.16 kJ mol–1 49. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the 54. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer order of decreasing energy. The correct require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the option is cofactor. M is : (1) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d (2) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d (1) Be (2) Mg (3) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p (4) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p (3) Ca (4) Sr 7  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 55. The most suitable reagent for the following 60. For the second period elements the correct conversion, is : increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is: H3 C CH3 (1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne H 3C C C CH3 H H (2) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne cis-2-butene (1) Na/liquid NH3 (2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline (3) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne (3) Zn/HCl (4) Hg2+/H+, H2O (4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne 56. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)? 61. The biodegradable polymer is: (1) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po (1) Nylon-6,6 (2) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po (2) Nylon 2-Nylon 6 (3) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O (3) Nylon-6 (4) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S 57. Which of the following is incorrect statement? (4) Buna-S (1) PbF4 is covalent in nature 62. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The (2) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is: (3) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than GeX2 (1) 0.5 × 10–15 (4) SnF4 is ionic in nature (2) 0.25 × 10–10 58. Match the following : (3) 0.125 × 10–15 (a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine (4) 0.5 × 10–10 (b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid (c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia 63. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is (d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the reaction is given by: Barium azide Which of the following is the correct option? (1) t = 0.693/k (a) (b) (c) (d) (2) t = 6.909/k (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) t = 4.606/k (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) t = 2.303/k (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 64. The non-essential amino acid among the 59. Which of the following diatomic molecular following is: species has only  bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory? (1) valine (1) O2 (2) leucine (2) N2 (3) alanine (3) C2 (4) Be2 (4) lysine 8 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 65. Among the following, the reaction that 68. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules proceeds through an electrophilic required to produce 20 moles of ammonia substitution, is: through Haber's process is : (1) 10 (2) 20 + – Cu 2Cl2 (1) N 2CI CI + N 2 (3) 30 (4) 40 69. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is : AlCl 3 (2) + Cl2 CI + HCl O (1) H H CI CI O (2) H3C H UV light (3) + Cl2 CI CI O (3) H3C CH3 CI CI O (4) Ph H heat 70. For an ideal solution, the correct option is : (4) CH 2OH + HCl (1) mix S = 0 at constant T and P CH 2Cl + H 2O (2) mix V  0 at constant T and P (3) mix H = 0 at constant T and P 66. The mixture that forms maximum boiling (4) mix G = 0 at constant T and P azeotrope is: ii 71. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and (1) Water + Nitric acid HF are : (2) Ethanol + Water (1) OH– and H2F+, respectively (3) Acetone + Carbon disulphide (2) H3O+ and F–, respectively (4) Heptane + Octane (3) OH– and F–, respectively 67. For the chemical reaction (4) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively 72. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the  N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) formation of negatively charged colloidal [Agl]l– sol. ? the correct option is: (1) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] (2) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI (1)   3 dt 2 dt (3) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI d[N2 ] d[NH3 ] (4) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI (2)  2 dt dt 73. Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic is : d[N2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] (1) Penicillin G (3)   dt 2 dt (2) Ampicillin d[H2 ] d[NH3 ] (3) Amoxycillin (4) 3 2 dt dt (4) Chloramphenicol 9  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 74. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O 77. Which will make basic buffer? gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar (1) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" CH3COOH as the major product. The structure of product "B" is: (2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH CH3 (3) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M (1) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH NH4OH CH3 (4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH CH2Cl 78. The major product of the following reaction is: (2) H3 C–CH2 –CH–CH3 COOH strong heating CH3 + NH3 (3) H3C–CH2–C–CH3 COOH Cl COOH (1) CH3 CONH 2 (4) H3C–CH–CH Cl CH3 O 75. What is the correct electronic configuration of (2) NH the central atom in K 4[Fe(CN) 6 ] based on crystal field theory? O 4 (1) t 2g e2g COOH (3) (2) t 62g e0g NH2 (3) e3 t 23 NH2 (4) (4) e 4 t 22 NH2 76. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following: 79. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the (1) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an correct code: angle of 120° with each other Column-I Column-II (2) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of (a) XeF4 (i) pyramidal 180° with each other (b) XeF6 (ii) square planar (3) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than equatorial P–Cl bonds (c) XeOF4 (iii) distorted octahedral (4) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive (d) XeO3 (iv) square pyramidal 10 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) Code: 85. A compound is formed by cation C and anion (a) (b) (c) (d) A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75% of (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) octahedral voids. The formula of the (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) compound is : (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (1) C2A3 (2) C3A2 (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) C3A4 (4) C4A3 80. The manganate and permanganate ions are 86. In which case change in entropy is negative? tetrahedral, due to : (1) The -bonding involves overlap of (1) Evaporation of water p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of (2) Expansion of a gas at constant manganese temperature (2) There is no -bonding (3) Sublimation of solid to gas (3) The -bonding involves overlap of p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of (4) 2H(g) H2(g) manganese 87. Which of the following series of transitions in (4) The -bonding involves overlap of the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of region? manganese (1) Lyman series 81. Which of the following species is not stable? (2) Balmer series (1) [SiF6]2– (2) [GeCl6]2– (3) [Sn(OH)6]2– (4) [SiCl6]2– (3) Paschen series 82. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V (4) Brackett series at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell 88. The method used to remove temporary reaction is : hardness of water is :  2.303 RT  (1) Calgon's method Given that  0.059 V at T = 298 K  F  (2) Clark's method (1) 1.0 × 102 (3) Ion-exchange method (2) 1.0 × 105 (3) 1.0 × 1010 (4) Synthetic resins method (4) 1.0 × 1030 89. Which one is malachite from the following? 83. Which of the following is an amphoteric (1) CuFeS2 hydroxide? (2) Cu(OH)2 (1) Sr(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2 (3) Fe3O4 (3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2 84. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume (4) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas 90. The correct order of the basic strength of under the same conditions. The correct methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution option about the gas and its compressibility is : factor (Z) is : (1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N (1) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant (2) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant (2) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH (3) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant (3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 (4) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant (4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N 11  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 91. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 97. Match the following structures with their 1992 was called respective location in organs (1) to reduce CO 2 emissions and global (a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas warming (b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum (2) for conservation of biodiversity and (c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small sustainable utilization of its benefits (3) to assess threat posed to native species intestine by invasive weed species (d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver (4) for immediate steps to discontinue use of Select the correct option from the following CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer (a) (b) (c) (d) 92. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) very essential to impart immunity to the new (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) born infants because it contains : (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Natural killer cells (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2) Monocytes 98. Which of the following is the most important (3) Macrophages cause for animals and plants being driven to (4) Immunoglobulin A extinction? 93. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation weather. Select the most appropriate reason (2) Drought and floods from the following : (1) Closure of stomata (3) Economic exploitation (2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells (4) Alien species invasion (3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy 99. Which part of the brain is responsible for mesophyll thermoregulation? (4) Tyloses in vessels (1) Cerebrum 94. The shorter and longer arms of a (2) Hypothalamus submetacentric chromosome are referred to (3) Corpus callosum as (4) Medulla oblongata (1) s-arm and l-arm respectively 100. Consider following features (2) p-arm and q-arm respectively (3) q-arm and p-arm respectively (a) Organ system level of organisation (4) m-arm and n-arm respectively (b) Bilateral symmetry 95. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin (c) True coelomates with segmentation of is body (1) 0.9 (2) 0.7 Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics (3) 0.07 (4) 0.09 (1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata 96. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent? (2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca (1) Cyclosporin A (2) Statin (3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata (3) Streptokinase (4) Lipases (4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata 12 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 101. Select the correct sequence of organs in the 106 Which one of the following is not a method in alimentary canal of cockroach starting from situ conservation of biodiversity? mouth (1) Biosphere Reserve (1) Pharynx Oesophagus Crop Gizzard (2) Wildlife Sanctuary Ileum Colon Rectum (2) Pharynx Oesophagus Gizzard Crop (3) Botanical Garden Ileum Colon Rectum (4) Sacred Grove (3) Pharynx Oesophagus Gizzard 107 In a species, the weight of newborn ranges Ileum Crop Colon Rectum from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an (4) Pharynx Oesophagus Ileum Crop average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive Gizzard Colon Rectum whereas 99% of the infants born with weight 102. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type responsible for green house effect? of selection process is taking place? (1) Ozone and Ammonia (1) Directional Selection (2) Oxygen and Nitrogen (2) Stabilizing Selection (3) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide (3) Disruptive Selection (4) Carbon dioxide and Methane (4) Cyclical Selection 103. Which of the following muscular disorders is 108. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle inherited? is : (1) Tetany (1) M G1 G2 S (2) G1 G2 S M (2) Muscular dystrophy (3) S G1 G2 M (4) G1 S G2 M (3) Myasthenia gravis 109. How does steroid hormone influence the (4) Botulism cellular activities? 104. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to (1) Changing the permeability of the cell move particles or mucus in a specific membrane direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in (2) Binding to DNA and forming a gene- hormone complex (1) Bile duct and Bronchioles (3) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell (2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct membrane (3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct (4) Using aquaporin channels as second (4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes messenger 105 Match the Column-I with Column-II 110. Which of the following statements is not Column-I Column-II correct? (a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of (1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic ventricles enzymes (b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of (2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are ventricles active under acidic pH (c) T - wave (iii) Coronary ischemia (3) Lysosomes are membrane bound (d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of structures size of T-wave atira (4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of (v) Repolarisation of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum atria 111. Which one of the following statements Select the correct option. regarding post-fertilization development in (a) (b) (c) (d) flowering plants is incorrect? (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Ovary develops into fruit (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) (2) Zygote develops into embryo (3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii) (3) Central cell develops into endosperm (4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) (4) Ovules develop into embryo sac 13  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 112. Concanavalin A is 117. Match the hominids with their correct brain size : (1) an alkaloid (2) an essential oil (a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc (3) a lectin (4) a pigment (b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc 113. Which one of the following equipments is (c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc essentially required for growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial production of (d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc enzymes? Select the correct option. (1) BOD incubator (a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Sludge digester (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) Industrial oven (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) Bioreactor (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 114. Consider the following statement : 118. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by (A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly Hugo de Vries are bound to enzyme protein is called (1) random and directional prosthetic group. (2) random and directionless (B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called (3) small and directional apoenzyme. (4) small and directionless Select the correct option. 119. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA? (1) Both (A) and (B) are true. (1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes (2) (A) is true but (B) is false. (2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles (3) Both (A) and (B) are false. (3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (4) (A) is false but (B) is true. (4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria 115. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are 120. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and (1) Adenine and thymine pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing (2) Adenine and guanine wheezing due to (3) Guanine and cytosine (1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity (4) Cytosine and thymine (2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles 116. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system. (3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls (1) Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia (4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants Rete testis Inguinal canal Urethra by pneumocytes. (2) Seminiferous tubules Rete testis 121. Select the incorrect statement. Vasa efferentia Epididymis Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra (1) Male fruit fly is heterogametic Urethral meatus (2) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome (3) Seminiferous tubules Vasa efferentia Epididymis Inguinal canal Urethra (3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than (4) Testis Epididymis Vasa efferentia egg Vas deferens Ejaculatory duct Inguinal canal Urethra Urethral (4) Human males have one of their sex- meatus chromosome much shorter than the other 14 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 122. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of 127. In some plants, the female gamete develops biomolecules can be achieved by treatment into embryo without fertilization. This with phenomenon is known as (1) Isopropanol (1) Autogamy (2) Parthenocarpy (2) Chilled ethanol (3) Syngamy (4) Parthenogenesis (3) Methanol at room temperature 128. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as (4) Chilled chloroform (1) Chalaza (2) Perisperm 123. Select the correct group of biocontrol (3) Hilum (4) Tegmen agents. (1) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic 129. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the virus, Aphids construction of genetic maps? (2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus (1) A unit of distance between two expressed thuringiensis genes representing 10% cross over. (3) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma (2) A unit of distance between two expressed (4) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus genes representing 100% cross over. 124. Select the incorrect statement. (3) A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross (1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity over. (2) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines (4) A unit of distance between genes on in any animal. chromosomes, representing 50% cross (3) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive over. genes that reduce fertility and productivity 130. What would be the heart rate of a person if (4) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the superior genes and elimination of ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and undesirable genes at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL? 125. Match the following organisms with the (1) 50 beats per minute products they produce (2) 75 beats per minute (a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese (b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd (3) 100 beats per minute cerevisiae (4) 125 beats per minute (c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid 131. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in (d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread carrying out (v) Acetic Acid (1) Nitrogen fixation Select the correct option. (2) Chemoautotrophic fixation (a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Nitrification (1) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii) (4) Denitrification (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) 132. Which of the following factors is responsible (3) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) for the formation of concentrated urine? (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (1) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone 126. What is the direction of movement of sugars (2) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards in phloem? inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys. (1) Non-multidirectional (3) Secretion of erythropoietin by (2) Upward Juxtaglomerular complex (3) Downward (4) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular (4) Bi-directional filtration 15  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 133. Which of the following statements regarding 139. Which of the following protocols did aim for mitochondria is incorrect? reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into (1) Outer membrane is permeable to the atmosphere? monomers of carbohydrates, fats and (1) Montreal Protocol proteins. (2) Kyto Protocol (2) Enzymes of electron transport are embedded in outer membrane. (3) Gothenburg Protocol (3) Inner membrane is convoluted with (4) Geneva Protocol infoldings. 140. Which of the following contraceptive methods (4) Mitochondrial matrix contains single do involve a role of hormone? circular DNA molecule and ribosomes. (1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency 134. Xylem translocates. contraceptives. (1) Water only (2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, (2) Water and mineral salts only Pills. (3) Water, mineral salts and some organic (3) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives. nitrogen only (4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier (4) Water, mineral salts, some organic methods. nitrogen and hormones 141. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume 135. Cell in G0 phase : of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL, (1) exit the cell cycle respectively. What will be his Expiratory Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL? (2) enter the cell cycle (1) 1500 mL (2) 1700 mL (3) suspend the cell cycle (3) 2200 mL (4) 2700 mL (4) terminate the cell cycle 136. Which of the statements given below is not 142. What is the fate of the male gametes true about formation of Annual Rings in trees? discharged in the synergid? (1) Annual ring is a combination of spring (1) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate wood and autumn wood produced in a (s) in the synergid. year (2) All fuse with the egg. (2) Differential activity of cambium causes (3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) light and dark bands of tissue early and with synergid nucleus. late wood respectively. (4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses (3) Activity of cambium depends upon with central cell nuclei. variation in climate. 143. What is the site of perception of photoperiod (4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of necessary for induction of flowering in temperate region. plants? 137. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted? (1) Lateral buds (2) Pulvinus (1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland (3) Shoot apex (4) Leaves (2) Pyramid of energy 144. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus (3) Pyramid of biomass in a forest Linnaeus : (4) Pyramid of biomass in a sea (1) Mangifera indica Car. Linn. 138. Placentation in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is (2) Mangifera indica Linn. (1) Basal (2) Axile (3) Mangifera indica (3) Parietal (4) Free central (4) Mangifera Indica 16 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 145. Following statements describe the 150. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Devices. Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect (1) Vaults, LNG-20 statement. (2) Multiload 375, Progestasert (1) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA. (3) Progestasert, LNG-20 (2) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites (4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375 and cuts only one of the two strands. 151. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the (3) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then backbone at specific sites on each strand. what will be the frequency of homozygous (4) The enzyme recognizes a specific dominant, heterozygous and homozygous palindromic nucleotide sequence in the recessive individuals in the population? DNA. (1) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa) 146. From evolutionary point of view, retention of (2) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa) the female gametophyte with developing (3) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa) young embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in : (4) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa) (1) Liverworts (2) Mosses 152. Which of the following is true for Golden (3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms rice? 147. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower (1) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from was crossed with a white flower and in F 1 daffodil generation pink flowers were obtained. When (2) It is pest resistant, with a gene from pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation Bacillus thuringiensis showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose (3) It is drought tolerant, developed using the incorrect statement from the following : Agrobacterium vector (1) This experiment does not follow the (4) It has yellow grains, because of a gene Principle of Dominance. introduced from a primitive variety of rice (2) Pink colour in F 1 is due to incomplete dominance. 153. Pinus seed cannot germinate and established without fungal association. This is because : 1 2 1 (1) its embryo is immature. (3) Ratio of F 2 is (Red) : (Pink) : 4 4 4 (2) it has obligate association with (White) mycorrhizae. (4) Law of Segregation does not apply in this (3) it has very hard seed coat. experiment (4) its seeds contain inhibitors that present 148. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, germination. the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is 154. Which of the following features of genetic catalyzed by code does allow bacteria to produce human (1) Aldolase insulin by recombinant DNA technology? (2) Hexokinase (1) Genetic code is not ambiguous (3) Enolase (2) Genetic code is redundant (4) Phosphofructokinase (3) Genetic code is nearly universal 149. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by (4) Genetic code is specific (1) methylation of morphine 155. Which of the following sexually transmitted (2) acetylation of morphine diseases is not completely curable? (3) glycosylation of morphine (1) Gonorrhoea (2) Genital warts (4) nitration of morphine (3) Genital herpes (4) Chlamydiasis 17  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 156. Which of the following statements is Choose the correct answer from the option incorrect? given below (1) Viroids lack a protein coat. (a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Viruses are obligate parasites. (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) Infective constituent in viruses is the (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) protein coat. (4) Prions consist of abnormally folded (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) proteins. (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 157. Match the following organisms with their 161. Which of the following glucose transporters is respective characteristics : insulin-dependent? (a) Pila (i) Flame cells (1) GLUT I (2) GLUT II (b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates (3) GLUT III (4) GLUT IV (c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula (d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules 162. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? Select the correct option from the following : (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Auto-immune response (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2) Humoral immune response (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) Inflammatory immune response (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) Cell-mediated immune response (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 163. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis 158. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to : may result in : (1) Genes expressed as RNA (a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body (2) Polypeptide expression (b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions (3) DNA polymorphism (c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from (4) Novel DNA sequences gastro-intestinal tract 159. Which is of the following statements is incorrect? (d) Reduced RBC production (1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies. Which of the following options is the most (2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids appropriate? and LSD. (1) (a) and (b) are correct (3) Conidia are produced exogenously and (2) (b) and (c) are correct ascospores endogenously. (3) (c) and (d) are correct (4) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae. (4) (a) and (d) are correct 160. Match Column - I Column - II 164. Which of the following statements is Column - I Column - II correct? (a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association (1) Cornea is an external, transparent and of fungi with plant protective proteinacious covering of the roots eye-ball. (b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of (2) Cornea consists of dense connective dead organic tissue of elastin and can repair itself. materials (3) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which (c) Lichens (iii) Living on living is highly vascularised. plants or animals (4) Cornea consists of dense matrix of (d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic collagen and is the most sensitive portion association of algae the eye. and fungi 18 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 165. The frequency of recombination between 171. Extrusion of second polar body from egg gene pairs on the same chromosome as a nucleus occurs : measure of the distance between genes was (1) after entry of sperm but before fertilization explained by : (2) after fertilization (1) T.H. Morgan (2) Gregor J. Mendel (3) before entry of sperm into ovum (3) Alfred Sturtevant (4) Sutton Boveri (4) simultaneously with first cleavage 166. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective products : 172. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of (a) i gene (i) -galactosidase following mRNA? (b) z gene (ii) Permease 5AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3 (c) a gene (iii) Repressor (1) Insertion of G at 5th position (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase (2) Deletion of G from 5th position Select the correct option. (3) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions (a) (b) (c) (d) respectively (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (4) Deletion of GGU from 7 th , 8 th and 9 th positions (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 173 The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) regarding cell division was first proposed by (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Rudolf Virchow 167. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to (2) Theodor Schwann produce flowers. Which combination of hormones can be applied to artificially induce (3) Schleiden flowering in pineapple plants throughout the (4) Aristotle year to increase yield? 174 What triggers activation of protoxin to active (1) Auxin and Ethylene Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm? (2) Gibberellin and Cytokinin (1) Body temperature (3) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid (2) Moist surface of midgut (4) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid (3) Alkaline pH of gut 168. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the (4) Acidic pH of stomach lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various 175 Identify the correct pair representing the enzymes. causative agent of typhoid fever and the (1) Chief Cells (2) Goblet Cells confirmatory test for typhoid. (3) Oxyntic Cells (4) Duodenal Cells (1) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test 169. Which of the following can be used as a (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant (3) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test disease? (4) Salmonella typhi / Widal test (1) Trichoderma (2) Chlorella 176. What is the genetic disorder in which an (3) Anabaena (4) Lactobacillus individual has an overall masculine 170. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks : development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ? (1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells (1) Turner's syndrome (2) Sieve tubes only (2) Klinefelter's syndrome (3) Companion cells only (3) Edward syndrome (4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells (4) Down's syndrome 19  NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-P1) 177. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified Select the correct option. plastic, has proved to be a good material for (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Making plastic sacks (2) Use as a fertilizer (1) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) Construction of roads (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) Making tubes and pipes (3) (v) (iv) (i) (iii) 178. Which of these following methods is the most suitable for disposal of nuclear waste? (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (1) Shoot the waste into space 180. Select the correct option. (2) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover (1) 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs articulate (3) Dump the waste within rocks under deep directly with the sternum. ocean (4) Bury the waste within rocks deep below (2) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to the Earth's surface the sternum with the help of hyaline 179. Match the following hormones with the cartilage. respective disease (3) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs (a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease are connected dorsally to the thoracic (b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum. (c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly (4) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal, (d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre three pairs of vertebrochondral and two (v) Diabetes mellitus pairs of vertebral ribs. ‰‰‰ 20