MIDTERMS KINES CORRECTED PDF

5. Which of the following provides more stability? INTRO a. High center of gravity; large base of support 1. According to Newton’s Second Law of...

5. Which of the following provides more stability? INTRO a. High center of gravity; large base of support 1. According to Newton’s Second Law of b. Low center of gravity; large Motion? base of support a. A body at rest will remain at rest c. High center of gravity; small base b. For every action, there is an equal of support reaction in the same direction d. Low center of gravity; small base of c. Acceleration is directly support proportional to the net force applied to the body 6. Correctly describes one of the laws of d. Acceleration is directly proportional motion according to Newton to the mass of the moving object a. A body at rest will remain at rest only for a specific period of time 2. The extent of movement in a mass of the moving object translatory motion is expressed in b. For every action, there is an equal ____. reaction in the same direction a. feet/second c. Acceleration is directly b. meters/second proportional to the net force c. meters/second (squared) applied to a body d. degrees/second d. Acceleration is directly proportional to the moving object 3. The extent of movement in a rotatory motion is expressed in rotary motion is 7. Characterization of motion without expressed in_____. regard to the forces involved a. feet/second a. Kinetics b. meter/second b. Dynamics c. meters/second (squared) c. Status d. degrees/second d. Kinematics 4. Which of the following provides the 8. The application of this lever may be least stability? efficient or inefficient a. high center of gravity; large base of a. 1st class lever support b. 2nd class lever b. Low center of gravity; large base of c. 3rd class lever supports c. High center of gravity; small 9. Which of the following levers is not base of support utilized when the goal is to make work d. Low center of gravity; small base of less difficult? support a. 1st class lever b. 2nd class lever c. 3rd class lever 10. Bilateral action of sternocleidomastoid 15. Gluteus medius and single limb stance in standing position (head flexion; a. Concurrent forces sagittal plane) b. Parallel forces a. Coronal axis c. Linear forces b. Vertical axis c. Anteroposterior axis 16. Sesamoid bones act as anatomic d. None of these pulleys. Muscles that have anatomic pulleys can be described as follows, 11. Action of the clavicular portion of the except: pectoralis major with shoulder in resting a. Generate greater torque position (shoulder flexion; sagittal b. Produce greater tension plane) c. Resist greater external load a. Coronal axis d. Conserve energy b. Vertical axis c. Anteroposterior axis 17. As your patient abducts her shoulder d. None of these from 90 to 130 the deltoid moment arm decreases. If the torque requirement is 12. Action of your right pectoralis major constant the force of the deltoid will from 90 degrees shoulder abduction ____. (H-adduction; transverse plane) (Force is inversely proportional to a. Coronal axis moment arm) b. Vertical axis *shorter MA -> Greater force c. Anteroposterior axis requirement d. None of these *longer MA -> Lesser force requirement 13. A lever system with the effort force = to reach the same rotation/degree seen in the middle of the fulcrum and of movement the resistance affords a: a. Become zero pound face (Third class lever - faster range, b. Increase inefficient) c. Decrease *Second class - efficient, forceful d. Remain the same movement *First class - can be efficient or not, balance movement 18. Considering a full-grown adult human being with proportional and average a. Faster range of motion body size, where could be the b. Weak movements estimated COG (CoM) of the entire c. Balance movement right lower extremity? d. Forceful movement (femur; largest and heaviest bone of the LE) 14. Contraction of your pectoralis minor *in combined COG, it shift to the and coracobrachialis (line of motion heavier side(consider the midpoint converge at some point) of the total length of LE) a. Concurrent forces a. Just above the knee b. Parallel forces b. Mid-leg c. Linear forces c. Mid-thigh d. Just below the gluteal bridge 19. This is associated with the motion of 25. Refers to the ability of a force to the human body that gives regard to produce rotational movement the forces responsible for the motion a. Movement arm a. Kinetics b. Action line b. Dynamics c. Reaction c. Status d. Torque d. Kinematics 26. Your patient had an above knee 20. When muscle acts as resistance, amputation on the left lower extremity. regardless of the lever type, it is From an anatomic point of view, where contracting: did the center of gravity move? a. Concentric (COG shifts to heavier side) b. Isometric *lower left of the whole body c. Eccentric becomes lighter d/t amputation d. Isotonic a. Up and right b. Down and right 21. When a muscle acts as the effort in a c. Up and left lever system, the contraction is: d. Down and left a. Concentric b. Isometric 27. When two body segments act as one c. Eccentric solid object, a new COG location is d. Isotonic assumed. However, the COG changes to another position even if the object’s 22. Which of the following could be done position in space is unchanged. to increase the challenge of moving a a. Only the 1st statement is lever? correct a. Decrease the amount of b. Only the 2nd statement is correct resistance c. Both are incorrect b. Apply the resistance force closer d. Both are correct to the fulcrum/axis c. Move the resistance farther 28. The patella in the knee joint increases from the fulcrum/axis the angle of pull of the quadriceps d. AOTA femoris muscle, hence it provides the muscle with: 23. Which if the following could be done a. Longer moment arm to decrease the challenge of moving a b. Longer lever arm (this won’t lever? change since muscle insertion is a. Decrease the amount of permanent) resistance c. Both b. Apply the resistance force d. Neither closer to the fulcrum/axis c. Move the resistance farther from 29. Action of the right quadratus the fulcrum/axis lumborum when standing (right only d. AOTA = unilateral; hip hike and lateral flexion) 24. The forces of this lever type are a. Coronal plane adjustable to gain equilibrium b. Transverse plane a. 1st class lever c. Sagittal plane b. 2nd class lever c. 3rd class lever 30. Which of the following levers is most 34. The center of gravity of an object or applicable when your goal is to use body segment is: the muscle to control the downward a. At the tip of the heavier end moment produced by gravitational pull b. At the point of origin for gravity’s on one end of the lever? vector force a. 1st class lever (MS acts as c. Easier to find in asymmetrical resistance or force; to achieve objects that it is in symmetrical equilibrium) d. The theoretical point around b. 2nd class lever (MS acts as which the mass of the object is resistance) balanced c. 3rd class lever (MS acts as main force) 35. Which of the following forces can be associated with either internal or 31. Which of the following is correct external force? regarding levers? a. Atmospheric pressure a. The longer the lever arm, the b. Friction more effective it is in imparting c. Both velocity d. Neither b. First class levers have a mechanical advantage that is 36. Manual lengthening of the cervical always 1 spine region is closely associated with c. Second class lever have a what type of motion? mechanical advantage of less a. Curvilinear than 1 b. Rotatory d. Third class lever have mechanical c. General motion advantage greater than 1 d. Linear 32. Angular motion of the joints produces 37. Given values: Biceps Brachii force: 10 the linear motion of walking, and linear lb. Muscle moment arm: 2 inches motion of joints produces an angular Weight of the forearm, wrist, and motion hand: 5 lb. Gravity moment arm: 10 a. Only the 1st statement is inches correct What is the desired action for the b. Only the 2nd statement is correct subject to be able to flex the elbow? c. Both are incorrect a. Change the position of the UE d. Both are correct to increase the moment arm b. Relax the deltoid to allow 33. Which of the following best describes movement torque? c. Contract the deltoid to produce a. The force a muscle generates more tension b. A force times the perpendicular d. Adjust the weight of the UE to distance from the line of force lower the gravitational torque of the axis of rotation (impossible to adjust weight of UE c. The distance a muscle can move unless there is amputation d. A force times the distance occurring) measured along the lever from the line of force to the axis of 38. If excessive, this source of force may rotation significantly decrease the joint motion: a. Muscle contraction b. Gravity c. Ground friction  d. Externally applied resistance d. Externally applied resistance 39. Refer to the illustration below. Which 44. A lever system with the effort force position requires the least muscle between the fulcrum and the torque to initiate movement? resistance is best designed for: a. A a. Weak movements b. B b. Forceful movements (2nd class) c. C c. Balanced movements (1st class) d. D d. Faster range of motion (3rd class) 40. The mechanical advantage of this lever type is variable. 45. Which of the following could be done a. 3rd class lever to reduce the amount of force needed b. 1st class lever to move a lever? c. 2nd class lever a. Apply the force closer from an axis 41. Which of the following levers is best b. All of the answers are correct used to move a specific object if your c. Move the resistance closer to objective is a quick movement of the the axis object? d. Increase the amount of resistance a. Each lever would be just as effective as the others 46. Elbow flexion from 90 degrees b. A first class lever with a shoulder abduction and full medial resistance arm of 10 inches an rotation. effort arm of 10 inches a. AP axis c. A second class lever with a b. Vertical axis resistance of 10 inches and an c. Frontal axis effort arm of 20 inches d. A third class lever arm of 15 inches and an effort arm of 5 inches 42. Which of the following statements accurately represents the relationship between linear and angular motion? a. Angular motion of joint produces the linear motion of walking, and 47. Which of the following statements best linear motion of joints produces describes gravitational torque? an angular motion a. Greater when line of gravity b. Angular motion of joint acts 90 degrees in segment produces the linear motion of horizontally positioned walking b. Dependent with muscle torque c. Linear motion of joint produces an c. Affected by muscle moment arm angular motion d. Independent of extremity position d. None of the answers is correct 48. This source of internal force could 43. If insufficient, this source of force may place the joint in an unstable position place the joint in an unstable position a. Gravity a. Gravity b. Muscle contraction b. Muscle contraction c. Capsule tension c. Capsule tension d. Externally applied resistance  e. Joint capsule laxity EXTRA RICE 49. Action of the trunk when the internal and external obliques contract Frontal Axis simultaneously. (trunk rotation) Vertical Axis a. Coronal plane AP axis b. Sagittal plane c. Transverse plane 1. Bilateral action of sternocleidomastoid in standing position - Frontal Axis 50. Isometric of your gastrocnemius in 2. Action of your right Pec Major from 90 fully plantarflexed ankle. degrees shoulder abduction - Vertical Axis a. First class lever 3. Action of the left rectus femoris from a b. Second class lever sitting position - Frontal axis c. Third class lever 4. Elbow flexion from 90 degrees shoulder abduction and full medial rotation - AP axis 51. The study of systems that involved mobility and function Frontal Plane a. Statics Sagittal Plane b. Dynamics Transverse Plane c. Kinetics d. Kinematics 5. Action of the left quadratus lumborum from standing position - Frontal 52. What plane is Quadratus lumborum 6. Pelvic motion in supine when rectus from standing to sitting (extension) abdominis contracts - Sagittal a. Coronal plane 7. Synergistic action of external and internal b. Transverse plane obliques - Transverse c. Sagittal plane 8. Elbow flexion from 180 degrees elbow flexion - Sagittal 53. Considering a full grown adult human being with proportional and average Parallel body size, where could be the Linear estimated COG (CoM) of the entire Concurrent upper extremity? General force system a. Just above the elbow (just as the COG of LE is above the 9. Pectoralis minor & coracobrachialis - knee/distal femur) Concurrent b. Above the forearm 10. Gluteus Medius in a single limb stance - c. Head and neck Linear d. Just above the shoulder 11. External intercostal muscles - Parallel 54. Inertia is the ability to change in 1st class motion 2nd class a. React 3rd class b. Resist 12. What class of lever is utilized mostly in making work less difficult? - 2nd class 13. Action of supraspinatus muscle with elbow fully flexed and the shoulder abducted - 1st class 14.bIsometric contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle with foot fully plantarflexed while dangled in prone position - 2nd class 15. Supine hip flexion using rectus femoris just distal to the tibial tuberosity - 3rd class 16. Frontal Axis takes place in ____ plane. a. Sagittal b. Transverse 40. Refer to the illustration above. Which c. Frontal position has the least gravitational d. Coronal torque?-A 41. Which position has the greatest 17. Which of the following forces can be gravitational torque?-D associated with either internal or external 42. Estimating the action line of the muscle, force? which position requires the least muscle a. Gravity torque to initiate movement? D b. Friction c. Muscle Internal force d. Buoyancy External force 18. Lumbar traction 43. Gripping to the hand rail - Internal force a. Linear 44. Force when the bus roll over a rough b. Parallel surface - External force c. Concurrent d. General force A. Move proximally B. Move distally 19. Which of the following represent the C. Kept in place least degree of stability? a. Low center of gravity; large base of 45. What happens to cog of forearm and support wrist and hand that's anchored in distal arm b. High center of gravity; large base of -C support 46. What happens to cog of forearm and c. High center of gravity; small base wrist and hand that's anchored in distal of support forehand- B d. Low center of gravity; small base of 47. Amputee transtibial, what happens to support COG - A 20. As the patient abducts his shoulder from GIVEN (48-50): Gluteus medius- 50 lbs; 90 to 120, the deltoid moment arm Moment arm- 2 inches decreases. If the torque requirement is constant, the force of the deltoid will 48. If LE is 15 lbs with a moment arm of 2 __________. inches what do to abduct something ??? a. Increase a. Generate more tension b. Decrease b. Generate less tension c. Remain the same c. Keep tension muscle force d. Zero pound force 49. Refer to the same values in #48, what will you do to the moment arm to reduce the acceleration/speed of hip abduction? a. Increase b. Decrease 50. If the moment arm is now 3 inches, LE is still 15 lbs, what will you do to maintain hip abduction? a. Generate more muscle tension b. Generate less muscle tension  following will be observed in the MUSCLE patient? 1. Defined as loss of muscle mass owing a. Increase thoracic kyphosis with to muscle fiber changes as a result of contraction of abdominals to aging. provide a stable base of support a. Sarcopenia b. Lateral curvature with b. Sarcoidosis contraction of contralateral c. Denervation atrophy lateral flexors d. Myopathy c. Substitution of rhomboids major in e. Hypertrophy elevation of the scapula d. Recruitment of shoulder adductors 2. If the proximal segment is fixed and the providing scapular upward rotation distal segment moves, it is called? contralaterally to decrease a. Closed kinetic chain gravitational forces on the affected b. Closed pack position limb c. Open pack position d. Open kinetic chain 7. A patient with calcaneovalgus deformity was referred to you. The ankle is 3. The space between two Z lines deformed with fixed 20-degree constitutes the: dorsiflexion. If this was caused by a. Sarcolemma contracted muscle, which of the b. Sarcoplasm following muscles is affected? c. Sarcomere a. Tibialis posterior d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Tibialis anterior c. Peroneus longus 4. What is an aponeurosis? d. Peroneus brevis a. An area of smooth muscle in the abdomen 8. You are lifting a bar with 20kg plates on b. A segment of muscle that is not both sides, you noticed that knee attached to bone extension was seen with simultaneous c. A large, flat tendon that anchors increased separation of the knees upon muscle lowering down. Which of the following is d. A group of neurons that innervate true about the case? striated muscle cells a. Weak eccentric contraction of the hip flexors 5. Which of these units contains b. Co-contraction of hip abduction overlapping actin and myosin together with hip extension as myofilaments? compensation to weak knee a. I band extensors b. A band c. Weak concentric contraction of hip c. H zone flexors d. Z disc d. Co-contraction of knee flexors and hip flexors as compensation of 6. In the rehab you let the patient perform weak knee extensors maximal shoulder abduction to test for deltoid muscle strength. If you noticed 9. A patient is being tested for the length that the patient was still able to reach of iliopsoas muscle in supine position. maximal 180 degrees despite the The hip was observed to be slightly deltoid being weak, which of the flexed, and the knee was in the last 20 degrees of knee extension even when it was left dangling at the edge of the  table. Which of the following is true b. Myosin about the case? c. Titin a. Iliopsoas is not affected d. Z disc b. Knee was not in 90 degrees flexion because of hamstring weakness 15. When muscle contracts upon c. Knee should be expected to be in stimulation, calcium ions bind to full extension if iliopsoas muscle is ______, which exposes the binding shortened sites for the myosin cross-bridges to d. Rectus femoris muscle is attach to: maximally lengthened because it a. Actin is abnormally weak, hence knee b. Myosiin was slightly extended c. Troponin d. Tropomyosin 10. Hamstring muscle is subjected to this condition when performing hip flexion 16. When the cross-bridges bind to actin, with knee on full extension. This results they will pivot in such a manner to in decreased hip flexion range cause the actin filaments to slide. This compared to when the knee is flexed. pivoting action causes the actin a. Active knee insufficiency filaments to slide: b. Passive insufficiency a. Farther apart c. All of the above b. Closer together d. None of the above c. Towards the z line d. Disappear 11. To establish the resting membrane potential: 17. Which of the following muscles is a. Sodium ions diffuse into the cell innervated by the musculocutaneous b. Sodium ions diffuse out of the cell nerve? c. Potassium ions diffuse into the cell a. Brachialis d. Potassium ions diffuse out of b. Brachioradialis the cell c. Anconeus d. ECRB 12. In order for muscles to contract, they e. NOTA need calcium ions. Muscle cells have an organelle that stores the needed 18. If muscle A contracts and causes calcium ions. This organelle is called movement of some sort, and muscle B the: helps muscle A accomplish this task, a. Fascia and muscle C does the opposite of A, b. Sarcolemma then muscle A is a(n) ______ muscle, c. Sarcoplasmic retinaculum muscle B is a ______ muscle, and d. T-tubule muscle C is a(n) ______ muscle. a. Antagonist; synergist; prime mover 13. The membrane around a muscle cell is b. Prime mover; synergist; called a: antagonist a. Sarcoplasm c. synergist ; prime mover; antagonist b. Sarcolemma d. Fixator; synergist; antagonist c. Z disc d. Sarcomere 19. Which of the following muscles are named according to both their action 14. The binding sites for the cross-bridges and origin? are located on: a. Rectus femoris a. Actin b. Tibialis anterior  c. Triceps brachii d. Co-contraction d. Coracobrachialis e. None of the above 20. When the arm is flexed, the biceps 26. The ends of the actin filaments are brachii bulges in the middle. This type anchored (attached) to the: of muscle consists of fascicles: a. M-line a. Parallel b. Z-line b. Circular c. Perimysium c. Pennate d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum d. Pivot 27. When a muscle fiber shortens, the 21. Which of the following muscles angles following stays the same: across the anterior leg, beginning at the a. Myosin filament lateral edges of the hip to the medial b. Actin filament side of the leg and inserts on the tibia c. H zone just inferior to the patella? d. Z-line a. Gracilis b. Sartorius 28. In regard to the cross-bridge (CB) c. Rectus femoris power stroke, it is not true that: d. Gracilis a. In concentric contraction, the CB power stroke pulls the actin 22. There are three major muscles making filament toward the center of the up the erector spinae group. Which of sarcomere, causing sarcomere the following is the most medial? shortening a. Spinalis b. In eccentric contractions, the CB b. Longissimus power stroke pushes the actin c. Iliocostalis filament away from the center of d. Quadratus lumborum the sarcomere, causing sarcomere lengthening. 23. Which of the following is a lower back c. In isometric contractions, the CB muscle that inserts on the humerus? power stroke pulls the actin a. Trapezius filament straight down, causing b. Rhomboid major shortening or lengthening. c. Latissimus dorsi d. All of the above are true. d. Erector spinae 29. For some force of muscle contraction, 24. Muscle role of the gluteus maximus the least activation of motor units would when performing concentric contraction occur during the following type of upon stair climbing: contraction: a. Agonist a. Fast eccentric b. Antagonist b. Isometric c. Synergist c. Slow eccentric d. Co-contraction d. Slow concentric e. None of the above 30. In regard to the force-length 25. Serratus anterior and trapezius relationship, the following is false: muscle’s relationship with protraction of a. Total force is equal to the sum of the scapula: active and passive force. a. Agonist b. Beyond resting length, passive b. Antagonist force increases from short to long c. Synergist muscle lengths.  c. The muscle length with maximally 34. ___________ leaves the sarcoplasmic active force output is called optimal reticulum and binds to __________ in length the sarcomere. d. All of the above are true. a. Ca2+; Troponin e. None of the above are true. b. Na+; Tropomyosin c. K+; Myosin 31. When applying resistance during MMT, d. Ca2+; Tropomyosin should you place your hand proximal or distal to the joint of the muscle being 35. Once myosin binds to actin, ________ tested? Why? heads change shape and slide the a. Your hand needs to be placed on ________. This is the sliding filament the distal end due to the force theory. that is being moved by the a. actin, myosin muscle. The resistance will be b. troponin, myosin better mechanically. c. myosin, actin b. Your hand needs to be placed on d. myosin, troponin the proximal end due to the force that is being moved by the muscle. 36. Thick filament is made up of ________. c. Your hand needs to be placed on a. Troponin the distal end of the bone that is b. Tropomyosin being moved by the muscle c. Actin because you have better leverage. d. Myosin d. Your hand needs to be placed on the distal end of the bone that is 37. Which type of contraction primarily being moved by the muscle occurs in the quadriceps as a person because you will be able to palpate descends a flight of stairs? the muscle better. a. Concentric b. Isometric 32. Which of the following is in the correct c. Eccentric order from largest to smallest? d. Asymmetrical a. Muscle belly → sarcomere → myofibril 38. The following are factors affecting b. Myofibril → sarcomere → thick active muscle tension, except: and thin filaments a. The diameter of the axon c. Sarcomere → thick and thin b. The number of muscle fibers of the filaments → myofibril motor unit recruited d. Thick and thin filaments → c. The number of motor units that are sarcomere → myofibril firing d. The frequency of supramaximal 33. After the receptor is activated, stimulus ___________ depolarizes the muscle fiber cell and travels through the 39. Two muscles that are antagonists are __________. the: a. Ca2+; Sarcoplasmic Reticulum a. Rectus femoris and vastus b. Na+; T tubules lateralis c. K+; Sarcomere b. Vastus medialis and vastus d. Ca2+; Sarcomere lateralis c. Adductor longus and vastus intermedius d. Gluteus maximus and semitendinosus 40. During elbow flexion, which of the 45. Which type of joint receptor would a following muscles acts as a fixator? therapist expect to be exquisitely a. Deltoid sensitive to increases in muscle tension b. Triceps brachii that arise from muscle contraction? c. Biceps brachii a. Muscle Spindle d. Brachialis b. Perimysium c. Sarcomere 41. Muscle fibers can be classified d. Golgi Tendon Organ according to muscle architecture via the following, except: 46. A physical therapist instructs a patient a. Muscle fiber length to move from sitting to quadruped to tall b. Physiological cross-sectional area kneeling. By moving through the c. Axis of force application developmental sequence, a patient d. Muscle length gains ________ control during e. Muscle compliance movement and ________ during balance activities. 42. The outer layer of connective tissue a. Isometric; Isotonic which surrounds skeletal muscle tissue b. Isotonic; Isometric is called the? c. Isometric; Isokinetic a. Epimysium d. Isokinetic; Isotonic b. Perimysium c. Endomysium 47. Eccentric muscle contractions occur d. Hypomysium when: a. A person slowly lowers a heavy 43. The following are true of the factors that weight may affect active muscle tension b. The length of the muscle does not generation, except: change a. Increasing frequency of firing of a c. A person rapidly raises a lighter motor unit or increasing the weight number of motor units with a large d. The length of the muscle number of fibers decreases b. Recruitment of motor units with a larger number of fibers 48. When a high jumper takes off, the c. The greater the number of quadriceps muscles are contracting: cross-bridges that are formed, the a. Eccentrically greater the tension generated b. Isometrically d. Large PCSA produces less c. Concentrically tension compared to muscles d. From behind with small PCSA e. Velocity of active shortening 49. When the sprinter's knee is being decreases—less tension; and brought forward, the hamstring muscles velocity of active lengthening are working… increases—greater tension a. Eccentrically b. Isometrically 44. Dorsiflexion strength is limited when the c. Concentrically knee is extended due to: d. From behind a. Passive insufficiency b. Active insufficiency c. Both d. Neither 50. Characteristics of a type I fiber are: a. Slow contraction speed, small motor neuron size, low fatigability b. Fast contraction speed, large motor neuron size, fast fatigability c. Low myoglobin content, fast contraction speed, low capillary density d. Anaerobic capacity low, myoglobin content low, fast fatigability 51. Which of the following is an example of an isotonic muscle contraction? a. Holding a plank position b. Lifting a dumbbell during a bicep curl c. Relaxing the muscles after a workout d. Stretching before exercise  8. The elastic qualities in connective tissues JOINT primarily depend on collagen. It also depends on elastin content and MULTIPLE CHOICE organization. - C A. If the FIRST statement is TRUE and SECOND statement is FALSE 9. Kinematic chains, in the engineering B. If the FIRST statement is FALSE and sense, are composed of a series of rigid SECOND statement is TRUE links. They are interconnected by a C. BOTH true series of pin-centered joints. - C D. BOTH false 10. The normal ROM of a joint is sometimes 1. Tendons connect muscle to bone and called the anabolic or physiologic ROM. transmit forces developed by the The sensations experienced by the muscles to their bony attachments. Each examiner performing passive movements muscle has tendinous material at each joint is referred to as accessory interspersed between it and bone. - C motion. - D 2. Cartilage is usually divided into the 11. The term arthrokinematics, or accessory following types: fibrocartilage (white), motion, is used to refer to these elastic cartilage (yellow), and hyaline movements of joint surfaces relative to (articular). Bone is the hardest of all the one another. Sliding is a pure translatory connective tissues. - C motion. - C 3. The change in bone shape to match 12. Sliding refers to gliding of one function is known as Wernicke's Law. component over the other. An example to Cartilage cells include fibroblasts, this is when a braked wheel skids. - C osteoblasts, and osteocytes. - D 13. A roll refers to the rolling of one joint 4. When a force acts on an object, it surface on another. An example of this is produces a deformation. The term a tire rolling on the road. - C pressure refers to a force or forces applied to a structure.- A 14. The joint should have a sufficient amount of play to allow normal motion at the joint 5. When loads (forces) are applied to a articulating surfaces. If the supporting structure or material, forces within the joint structures are excessively lax, the material are produced to oppose the joint may have too much play. - C applied forces. The types of stress and strain that develop in human tissues 15. overuse may be illustrated by using the does not depend on the material. - A abnormal function of a joint structure as a basis for analysis. Example is when the 6. All connective tissues are viscoelastic synovial membrane of a joint is affected materials. They combine the properties by a disease like rheumatoid arthritis. - B of elasticity and turbulence. - A 16. Joint support is decreased after injury to 7. Plasticity refers to the material's ability to one or more of its components. Any return to its original length. The term process or event that disturbs the normal elasticity implies that length changes or function of a specific joint structure will deformations are directly proportional to start a chain of events. - C the applied forces or loads. - B 17. Joints and their supporting structures 32. is a type of joint in which the material subjected to repetitive loading thus may used to connect the two components is be injured. An injury resulting from this hyaline cartilage. - C type of repetitive strain is called underused injury. - A 33. The function of this type of joint is to permit bone growth while also providing 18. If the supporting joint structures are stability and allowing a small. amount of excessively lax. the joint may have too mobility. - C much play and become unstable. - C 34. The bony components are indirectly 19. Osteokinematics refers to the rotary connected to one another by means of a movement of the bones in space. joint capsule that encloses the joint. - D Hysteresis is when the force and length of the tissues are measured. - C 35. Other capsules, such as the hip joint capsule, are thick and dense and thus 20. Proteoglycans are distinguished by their favor stability over mobility. - E carbohydrate core. Interfibrillar components are PG + GCGs +. - D 36. The fibrous capsule may be reinforced by and, in some instances, incorporate MATCHING TYPE: Connective tissue cell ligaments or tendons as part of the type capsule. - E a. Fixed 37. is a type of fibrous joint in which two b. Transient bony components are joined directly by c. AOTA an interosseous ligament? - B d. NOTA 38. These joints usually allow a small 21. Fibroblast - A amount of motion. - B 22. Chondroblast - A 23. White blood cells that have surface 39. mandible or maxilla - A proteins - B 24. lymphocyte-producing antibodies - B 40. Some of these joints are found in the 25. Found in adipose tissue. - A skull and in other areas of the body at 26. Lymphocytes - B sites of bone growth. - C 27. Osteoblast - A 28. Neutrophils - B 41. Tendon 29. Monocyte-deprived - D a. Zone 1 30. Plasma cells - B b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 MATCHING TYPE: Type of joint d. Zone 4 a. Gomphosis Joint 42. In this report, the deformation dimension b. Syndesmosis of the internal will not return to its original c. Synchondrosis shape. d. Diarthroses a. Elastic region e. Joint Capsule b. Plastic region c. ultimate failure point 31. joint in which the surfaces of bony d. None of these components are adapted to each other like a peg in a hole - A 43. External applied forces are equal, d. Neither parallel, and opposite but are not in line with one another. a. Tensile loading b. Compressive loading c. Shear loading d. Torsional loading 44. Saddle joint is also known as the sellar joint a. True b. False 45. Most abundant protein a. Collagen b. Elastin c. Both d. Neither 46. Best position for palpation a. Open-packed position b. Close-packed position c. Both d. Neither 47. Best position for joint mobilization a. Open-packed position b. Closed-packed position c. Both d. Neither 48. If two equal, parallel, and opposite forces are applied perpendicular to the axis of a structure a. Tensile loading b. Compressive loading c. Shear loading d. Torsional loading chat gpt 49. Gomphoses are movable joints a. True b. False 50. The exercise that is indicated for stability a. Close kinematic chain b. Open kinematic chain c. Both  accept his request. She transferred her bag SHOULDER back on her right shoulder and soon the neighbor left. 1. A PT is doing a postural assessment of a patient. On the shoulder region it was 5. The right shoulder (GH joint) is stabilized noticed that there is a retracted and tilted by: scapula due to hypertonic Trapezius a. Passive supraspinatus tension, muscle. Proceeding with palpation of the superior capsule & coracohumeral rest of the shoulder girdle muscles, the ligament PT will experience difficulty in palpation b. Active supraspinatus tension, of these muscles due to the initial superior capsule & coracohumeral findings, except? ligament a. Levator scapulae c. Superior capsule & coracohumeral b. Supraspinatus ligament c. Rhomboids d. Supraspinatus & deltoids d. Subscapularis 6. When she transferred the bag to her left 2. Your patient exhibits a weak but full hand, his right shoulder is supported by: range of shoulder flexion. Upon a. Passive supraspinatus tension, evaluation the prime movers are normal superior capsule & except one. What is this muscle? coracohumeral ligament a. Deltoids b. Supraspinatus & coracohumeral b. Supraspinatus ligament c. Serratus anterior c. Superior capsule & coracohumeral d. Trapezius ligament d. Supraspinatus, superior capsule & 3. The following are considered vertical coracohumeral ligament stressors of the GH joint: a. Infraspinatus & subscapularis 7. When the neighbor left, her right b. Anterior & posterior deltoids shoulder is now supported by: c. Supraspinatus & gravity a. Active supraspinatus tension, d. Pectoralis major & serratus anterior superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament 4. These muscles are antagonists in medial b. Supraspinatus & coracohumeral & lateral rotation of the shoulder but ligament synergist in providing shoulder c. Supraspinatus, deltoids, superior stabilization: capsule & coracohumeral ligament a. Supraspinatus & infraspinatus d. Supraspinatus & deltoid b. Trapezius & serratus anterior c. Teres minor & teres major 8. "Scaption" is arm elevation along the d. Subscapularis & infraspinatus plane of the scapula. This is estimated to be angled from the frontal plane: CASE: (for #5-7) a. 20° to 35° Miss Anna is waiting for a bus to ride home. b. 35° to 45° Within the first two minutes she was still c. 45° to 60° carrying a shoulder bag with her right hand. d. 45° to 90° It was still an hour so she could hardly hitch a ride, she transferred the bag later to her 9. The humerus articulation with the glenoid left hand. Minutes gone by, a neighbor saw fossa is deepened and stabilized further her & requested if she could help him with by the: his neighbor's bought. Miss Anna did not a. Coracohumeral ligament  b. Glenoid labrum a. Abduction c. Glenoid tuberosity b. Elevation d. Rotator cuff c. Upward rotation d. Adduction 10. A free-diver sustained a traumatic injury on his neck leading to absent scapular 14. The_______ ligament is the primary mobility particularly towards upward stabilizer of the sternoclavicular joint: rotation. If the injury involves the cervical a. Interclaviciular spinal nerves, which roots are affected? b. Coracoclavicular a. C3 to C7 c. Costoclavicular b. C3 to C4 d. Sternoclavicular c. C1 to C5 d. C1 to C6 15. When a tennis player elevates her shoulder during a serve, the clavicle rolls 11. The ultimate function of motion at the in a(n) scapulothoracic joint is to: a. Superior, superior a. Orient the glenoid fossa for b. Inferionr, inferior optimal contact with the humeral c. superior , iInferior, inferior head when maneuvering the arm d. Superior, inferior (superior roll, b. Provide downward rotation during inferior glide) shoulder girdle elevation e. Inferior, superior c. Decrease stability at the acromioclavicular (AC) and 16. Which of the following best describes the sternoclavicular (SC) joints structure of the glenohumeral (GH) joint? d. Work independent of the a. The joint surfaces of the GH joint are glenohumeral (GH) motion naturally congruent and stable. b. The glenoid labrum enhances the 12. Which of the following best describes depth of the glenoid fossa. motion at the sternoclavicular (SC) joint? c. The glenoid fossa, by itself, is three a. During clavicular elevation and times larger than the humeral with depression, the disc of the SC which it articulates. joint moves with the medial end of d. Produces downward rotation of the the clavicle on the manubrial facet scapula during shoulder girdle b. During clavicular protraction and motion retraction, the disc of the SC joint moves with the medial end of the 17. Which of the supporting ligaments of the clavicle on the manubrial facet glenohumeral (GH) joint is considered to c. During clavicular elevation and be a “ligament complex”? depression, the lateral end and a. The inferior GH ligament medial end of the clavicle move in b. The middle GH ligament the same direction c. The superior GH ligament d. During clavicular protraction and d. The coracoacromial ligament retraction, the lateral end and medial end of the clavicle move in opposite 18. The external rotation that occurs at the directions glenohumeral joint after 80° to 90° of abduction produces a(n) __________ 13. Which of the following movements glide of the humeral head on the glenoid involves moving the inferior angle fossa and a(n) __________ roll. superiorly and laterally away from the a. posterior, posterior spinal column to assist in raising the arm b. anterior, anterior out to the side? c. anterior, posterior  d. posterior, anterior a. The conoid portion of the coracoclavicular ligament 19. The acromioclavicular (AC) joint b. The coracoacromial ligament contributes to shoulder elevation c. The subclavius muscle a. between 30° and 90° of abduction d. The anterior fibers of the deltoid when tension on the trapezoid muscle component of the coracoclavicular ligament produces posterior rotation 23. Anterior scapular tipping is normally of the clavicle __________ from vertical and directly b. after 90° of shoulder abduction affects motion at the __________ joint. and until all scapulothoracic a. 10° to 15°, glenohumeral motion is taken up b. 10° to 15°, acromioclavicular c. between 30° and 90° of abduction c. 35° to 45°, glenohumeral when anterior rotation of the clavicle d. 35° to 45°, acromioclavicular allows for 30° of scapular upward rotation 24. Elevation of the clavicle at the d. after 60° of abduction sternoclavicular joint involves osteokinematic motion of the clavicle in 20. Which of the following is a function of the the __________ direction and rotator cuff during shoulder girdle arthrokinematic motion of the joint elevation? surface in the __________ direction. a. Functions with the deltoid to produce a. Inferior, superior a superior translation of the humeral b. Inferior, inferior head during shoulder girdle c. Superior, inferior elevation d. Superior, superior b. Produces scapular upward rotation during shoulder girdle motion 25. Which of the following muscles assists in c. Balances the deltoid activity by counteracting the upward translatory providing a slight inferior force caused by the deltoid muscle at the translatory force of the humeral glenohumeral joint? head during shoulder girdle a. Supraspinatus elevation b. Serratus anterior d. Produces downward rotation of the c. Corachobrachialis scapula during shoulder girdle d. Teres minor motion 26. Which muscle(s) stabilize(s) the scapula 21. Which of the following muscles produce in order to allow normal function of the upward scapular rotation when the teres major muscle? shoulder girdle is elevated from 90° to a. Levator scapula 180°? b. Supraspinatus a. Deltoid and rotator cuff muscles c. Rhomboids b. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, d. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior c. Upper trapezius and serratus 27. A strong contraction of the biceps with anterior the elbow flexed and shoulder abducted d. Teres major and teres minor to to 90°, promotes __________ translation of the glenohumeral joint and 22. Which structure directly produces the prevents __________. posterior rotation of the clavicle needed a. Compression; superior for normal shoulder girdle elevation? b. Compression; inferior c. Distraction; superior  d. Distraction; inferior 33. Which of the following is a salient feature 28. The shoulder girdle movements primarily of the upper fibers of the trapezius involve all of the following muscles muscle? except: a. They are a source of tenderness and a. Serratus anterior muscle discomfort due to chronic tension b. Trapezius muscle b. They depress the scapula and assist c. Rhomboid major and minor muscle in adduction. d. No exception c. They are primarily active in positioning the shoulder for function 29. Forms the osteoligamentous vault over and posture the glenohumeral joint : d. They assist in extension of the a. acromioclavicular ligament & head due to their origin on the clavicle base of the skull. b. coracoacromial ligament & acromion process 34. The scapulothoracic motion that usually c. coracoclavicular ligament & coracoid accompanies glenohumeral horizontal process adduction is: d. acromioclavicular ligament & greater a. Abduction tubercle b. Adduction c. Depression 30. Which of the following is a key d. Upward rotation application of the serratus anterior muscle? 35. An action common to the latissimus a. It is used in rotating the medial dorsi, teres major, and lower pectoralis border of the scapula down and major is back toward the spinal column. a. Abduction b. It is used strongly in pulling the b. External rotation clavicle anteriorly and inferiorly c. Extension toward the sternum. d. Flexion c. It is used strongly in doing push-ups, especially in the last 5 36. The____of the rotator cuff is attached to to 10 degrees of motion the greater tubercle from above. d. It is used strenuously when lifting a. Biceps brachii with the hands, as in picking up a b. Infraspinatus heavy wheelbarrow. c. Subscapularis d. Supraspinatus 31. The position of the scapula relative to rotation at the AP axis is 37. Stabilization of the humeral head in the a. 5° to 10° upwardly rotated glenoid fossa is a primary action of the b. 5° to 10° downwardly rotated a. Latissumus dorsi muscle (inserts c. 35° to 45° upwardly rotated bicipital groove) d. Neutral b. Teres major muscle (bicipital groove gihapon) 32. Which of the following muscles would c. Coracobrachialis muscle (coracoid best be strengthened by the bench press layu ra) and overhead press exercises? d. Subscapularis muscle (Lesser a. The serratus anterior muscle tubercle sa humerus pinaka duol b. The trapezius muscle sa head) mao ni ans nako c. The rhomboid muscle d. The levator scapulae muscle 38. An action common to the rhomboids and b. By passively moving the scapula into pectoralis minor is full protraction while maintaining a. Scapula abduction depression b. Scapula depression c. By lying supine with a rolled towel c. Scapula downward rotation directly under the thoracic spine d. Scapula elevation while a partner pushes each scapula into retraction 39. Which of the following applications d. By extreme elevation and retraction necessarily involves the levator scapulae of the shoulder girdle muscle? a. Shrugging the shoulders 43. Which of the following muscles works b. Stabilizing the sternoclavicular joint effectively with the latissimus dorsi and is during upper extremity movements said to be the latissimus dorsi's "little c. Preventing scapula winging helper"? d. Carrying objects on the tip of the a. The coracobrachialis muscle shoulders b. The teres major muscle c. The pectoralis major muscle 40. Which of the following is the most often d. The deltoid muscle injured rotator cuff muscle? a. The subscapularis muscle 44. Which of the following muscles are used b. The teres minor muscle powerfully in chinning, an activity in c. The infraspinatus muscle which an individual hangs from a d. The supraspinatus muscle horizontal bar suspended by his or her hands and pulls himself or herself up 41. In the context of shoulder girdle until his or her chin is over the bar? movements, an anterior tilt is a a. The rhomboid muscles consequential rotational movement of the b. The serratus anterior muscles scapula. c. The pectoralis minor muscles a. About the vertical axis occurring d. The subclavius muscles during extreme adduction b. About the frontal axis occurring 45. Which of the following is not a factor that during hyperextension of the contributes to the injury rate of the glenohumeral joint glenohumeral joint? c. Resulting in anterior movement of a. Shallowness of glenoid fossa the medial border and posterior b. Laxity of the ligamentous structures movement of the lateral border c. Tight configuration of ligaments d. Resulting in the superior border d. Lack of strength and endurance in moving posteroinferiorly and the the muscles inferior angle moving anterosuperiorly (dapat bali ang 46. During a shoulder-shrugging exercise, movement niya) most of the motion occurs at the___ joints. 42. Which of the following is an efficient way a. Acromioclavicular to stretch the pectoralis minor muscle? b. Glenohumeral a. By rotating the head approximately c. Scapulothoracic 45 degrees contralaterally and d. Sternoclavicular flexing the cervical spine actively while maintaining the scapula in a 47. The scapulothoracic motion that usually relaxed, depressed position accompanies glenohumeral abduction is: a. Abduction b. Depression  c. Elevation 52. The primary muscles involved in the d. Upward rotation extension of the shoulder joint against resistance are the muscles. 48. The prime movers of the scapula against a. latissimus dorsi and teres major resistance for abduction in the shoulder b. latissimus dorsi, teres major, girdle are the: posterior deltoid, and lower a. levator scapula and rhomboids. pectoralis major b. pectoralis minor and pectoralis major c. posterior deltoid and upper c. rhomboids and serratus anterior pectoralis major d. trapezius and serratus anterior. d. latissimus dorsi, teres major, (gi state ni sir sa iyang lec) posterior deltoid, and upper pectoralis major 49. Poor posture and improper usage of the scapula muscles typically lead to the 53. Weak and poor endurance of the rotator a. scapula elevators and retractors cuff muscles may lead to this faulty becoming stronger and tighter and movement of the shoulder. the depressors becoming weaker a. Absence of superior glide upon b. scapula protractors and abduction depressors becoming stronger b. Absence of inferior glide upon and tighter and the retractor adduction becoming weaker c. Superior translation of the c. scapula protractors and depressors humerus upon abduction becoming weaker and tighter and d. Superior translation of the scapula the retractor becoming stronger upon abduction d. scapula upward rotators and retractors becoming stronger and 54. The above (#49) pathomechanics could tighter and the protractors becoming lead to. weaker a. Irritation and inflammation of the tendons rotator cuff muscles 50. The primary muscles involved in flexion more commonly the of the shoulder joint against resistance supraspinatus and infraspinatus are the: b. Irritation and inflammation of the a. anterior and middle deltoid muscles tendons rotator cuff muscles more b. anterior deltoid and lower pectoralis commonly subscapularis and teres major muscles minor c. anterior deltoid and upper c. Irritation and inflammation of the pectoralis major muscles tendons rotator cuff muscles and d. posterior deltoid and upper levator scapulae pectoralis major muscles d. Irritation and inflammation of the tendons 51. To obtain maximum abduction of the upper extremity shoulder joint, abduction 55. Which SITS muscle could also improve is accompanied by — of the shoulder the strength in strengthening exercise girdle. regimen targeting the Latissimus Dorsi? a. Abduction a. Supraspinatus b. Adduction b. Infraspinatus c. Elevation c. Teres minor d. Upward rotation d. Subscapularis 56. The effective way of lengthening a tight Teres Major is through external rotation from a. Resting position of the shoulder b. Full abduction c. Full medial rotation d. Abducted 90-degree position 57. A Volley player sustained a C5 & C6 nerve root injury. The athlete will experience severe difficulty in the following, except. a. Spiking b. Serving a ball c. Reaching a top the net to block a spik d. Reaching down to save a dropped ball 58. Provided more stabilization to the scapula during flexion : a. Serratusanterior b. Latissimus dorsi c. Trapezius d. Pectoralis minor 59. A Pt. abducts his arm with a completely stiff AC & SC joints. If he externally rotates his shoulder during elevation, how many degrees could he reach? a. 60° b. 90° c. 120° d. 150° 60. Granting a Pt. with a complete tear of the coracoclavicular ligament performs elevation of the arm pain free. How many degrees of abduction could he possibly make from both GH & close chain joints? a. 60° b. 90° c. 120° d. 150°  3. Based on the previous case, which of ELBOW COMPLEX the following could also be affected on our patient? 1. The following are articulating surfaces a. Oblique cord of the ulna, ЕХСЕРТ b. Medial collateral ligament a. Olecranon fossa - humerus c. Interosseus membrane b. Olecranon process- ulna d. None of the above c. Trochlear notch-ulna e. Lateral collateral ligament d. Trochlear ridge e. None of these 4. Based on the case above, which reflexes could you. observe hyporeflexia? a. Brachioradialis b. Triceps brachii c. Biceps brachii d. None of the above 5. Based on the previous case, as the patient's physical therapist, with intensive knowledge of the anatomy and kinesiology, you should be able to suspect which of the following muscles to be affected in this case? a. None of the above b. Triceps, anconeus c. FDS, FDP, FCU d. Biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis 6. All of the following are considered to be the articulating suríaces of the humeroulnar joint, except: a. Trochlear groove CASE: A tennis athlete comes to rehab b. Capitate holding his right elbow in considerable c. Trochlear notch flexion. Your assessment reveals d. All of the above tenderness in the area over the patient's right lateral epicondyle. Active wrist and/or 7. Two of the articulating surfaces of this finger extension increases the pain. And joint include ulnar radial notch and the grip strength is weak. Based on the case, capitulum of the humerus also provides considering the aggravating and/or relieving stability of the forearm up factors mentioned and with the support of pronation/supination activities. the physical exams you have performed a. Proximal radioulnar joint b. Distal radioulnar joint c. Humeroradial joint 2. What would be your PT impression? d. Humeroulnar joint a. Nursemaid’s elbow e. None of the above b. Elbow fracture c. None of the above 8. TRUE about the Brachialis muscle: d. Lateral epicondylitis a. More active when the forearm is e. Medial epicondylitis supinated b. It is a two-jointed muscle  c. It undergoes active insufficiency d. All of these 14. Chief pronator muscle e. None of the above a. Pronator teres b. Brachioradialis 9. Which of the following is not true about c. Pronator quadratus the biceps brachii muscle: d. ECRL a. Affected by shoulder positions b. Active in all positions when 15. This ligament forms & of a ring around resistance is see a greater than limb the radius: weight a. Oblique ligament c. Innervated by a nerve that arises b. MCL from the: middle trunk of the c. Annular ligament brachial plexus (supposedly d. LCL lateral) d. Innervated by a nerve that arises fro 16. True about the elbow flexors: root C5 and C6 a. Brachialis is considered as the e. None of these primary elbow flexor due to its insertion at the radius 10. The following are the articulating b. Patient with musculocutaneous surfaces of the Humeroradial joint, nerve injury will still be able to flex except: the elbow joint because of the a. Radial fossa spared biceps brachii b. Olecranon fossa c. Brachioradialis is an example of a c. Head of the radius shunt muscle d. All of the above d. AOTA e. None of the above 17. Which of the following are true 11. The following are articulating surfaces regarding the brachialis muscle: of the humerus, ЕХСЕРТ: a. as a primary elbow flexor, brachialis a. Trochlea is affected by forearm and shoulder b. Coronoid process position c. Coronoid fossa b. as a primary elbow flexor, brachialis d. None of these is affected by forearm and but unaffected by shoulder position 12. To best observe and palpate the c. as a primary elbow flexor, brachioradialis. muscle, resistance brachialis is unaffected by should be given to: forearm and shoulder position a. 90 degrees of elbow flexion, forearm d. brachialis is the strongest elbow supinated flexor due to its large cross section b. 90 degrees of mid position elbow flexion, forearm in mid position 18. This muscle assists elbow extension c. 90 degrees of elbow flexion, forearm and acts as a stabilizer during pronation pronated and supination d. any of these a. Brachioradialis b. Anconeus 13. The tendon of the muscle is primarily c. Biceps brachii involved in lateral epicondylitis: d. Coracobrachialis a. ECRL b. EDC 19. This muscle is a pure flexor of the c. Supinator elbow when the forearm is in d. ECRB midposition  a. Biceps brachii are all innervated by a nerve that b. Brachialis arises from the posterior cord of the c. Brachioradialis brachial plexus d. Anconeus c. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint posteriorly and have their primary function over the elbow joint 20. Which of the following describes the are all innervated by a nerve that humeroulnar joint? arises from the lateral cord a. Modified hinge joint d. The muscles that pass over the b. Reinforced by the LCL elbow joint posteriorly and have c. Articulating surfaces are trochlear their primary function over the notch of humerus and trochlea of elbow joint are all innervated by a ulna nerve that arises from the d. NOTA posterior cord of the plexus 21. A forearm muscle that belongs to the Case: Your patient recalls a painful elbow extensor group but flexes the elbow is whenever he pitches. Your assessment the: reveals pain is observed in movement a. Anconeus phase of throwing and follow-up phase of b. ECRL push-ups. c. Brachioradialis d. Supinator 23. Which of the following muscles could be affected? a. Pronator teres b. Biceps brachii c. Triceps brachii d. Pronator quadratus 24. Based on your answer above, which of the following management is most appropriate for your patient? a. Rows b. Pull-ups c. Curl ups d. Dumbbell raises 25. What is the normal carrying angle? a. 25 degrees 22. Which of the following is true about the b. 30 degrees muscles that are associated with the c. 15 degrees elbow joint? d. 20 degrees a. The muscles that pass over the e. None of these elbow joint anteriorly and have their primary function over the elbow joint 26. The medial collateral ligament stabilizes are all innervated by a nerve that the elbow joint against varus forces. arises from the lateral cord of the Whereas the lateral collateral ligament brachial plexus stabilizes the elbow against valgus b. The muscles that pass over the forces, elbow joint anteriorly and have their a. First statement is true primary function over the elbow joint b. Second statement is true  c. Both statements are true d. Elbow flexion causes the rim of d. Both statements are false the radial head to slide along the capitulotrochlear groove thereby 27. The radiouinar joints (proximal/distal; entering the radial fossa at end superior/inferior) are mechanically range linked. Motions over the distal radioulnar joint will always be 32. The following muscles crosses the accompanied by motions over the elbow joint. ЕХСЕРТ: proximal radioulnar joint. a. Biceps brachii a. First statement is true b. Triceps brachii b. Second statement is true c. Flexor digitorum profundus c. Both statements are false d. Flexor digitorum superficialis d. Both statements are true e. Anconeus 28. These ligaments reinforce the distal 33. Which of the following is true about the radioulnar joint, except: muscles that are associated with the a. Dorsal radioulnar ligament elbow joint? b. Palmar radiouinar ligament a. The muscles that pass over the c. Ligament of Denuce elbow joint anteriorly and have their d. All of the above primary function over the elbow joint e. None of the above are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the lateral cord of the 29. The following are part of the superior brachial plexus radioulnar joint, ЕХСЕРТ: b. The muscles that pass over the a. Radial head elbow joint anteriorly and have their b. Ulnar head primary function over the elbow joint c. Capitulum are all innervated by a nerve that d. Radial notch of ulna arises from the posterior cord of the e. Annular ligament brachial plexus c. The muscles that pass over the 30. Defined as a strong band that forms elbow joint posteriorly and have their four fifths of a ring that encircles the primary function over the elbow joint radial head and the lateral aspect is are all innervated by a nerve that reinforced by fibers from the LCL arises from the lateral cord of the a. Quadrate ligament brachial plexus b. Annular ligament d. The muscles that pass over the c. Oblique cord elbow joint posteriorly and have d. Interosseus border their primary function over the e. None of the above elbow joint are all innervated by a nerve that arises from the 31. The following are TRUE about the posterior cord of the brachial humeroulnar joint: plexus a. Is a type of plane joint e. here are 5 muscles in total that pass b. In full extension, there is contact over the elbow joint both anteriorly between the radial head and the and posteriorly and have their capitulum primary function over the elbow joint c. They are enclosed in a single capsule together with the 34. The following are the primary muscles humeroradial and distal radiouinar that are associated with the radioulnar joint joints, except: a. Pronator teres  b. Pronator quadratus 40. Provides some resistance to c. Biceps brachii longitudinal distraction - B d. Supinator teres 41. Stability against varus torques - A e. None of the above 42. Stability again valgus torques - B 35. The elbow joint is classified as a II. Matching type: Collateral ligaments: ginglymus joint which allows flexion and a) Biceps Brachii extension moment on the sagittal plane. b) Brachialis It is considered to be a modified hinge C) Brachioradialis joint for the reason that if allows a slight d) two of the choices bit of rotation and side to side motion. e) AOTA a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both statements are false 43. Moment arm is greatest between 80- d. Both statements are correct 100 degrees - A 44. Large physiological cross sectional area 36. Which of the following is not true of the and hard work capacity - D triceps brachli muscle: 45. Small physiological cross sectional area a. Affected by changes in elbow -C position but not by changes in 46. Elbow flexors - E position of the FA 47. Peak moment between 100-120 b. Activity of the long head is affected degrees - A by shoulder position c. The medial and lateral heads of the 48. importance of the ulna lies at the: triceps, being one-pint muscles, are a. Elbow joint not affected by the position of the b. Wrist joint shoulder c. Shoulder joint d. Innervated by the nerve that d. AOTA originates from the superior trunk of the brachial plexus 49. carrying angle in males: a. 5-10 degrees 37. Open-packed position of the b. 0-10 humero-ulnar joints. c. 10-15 a. 70 degrees flexion; 10 degrees d. 15-20 supination b. 70 degrees flexion; 35 degrees 50. carrying angle in females: supination a. 5-10 degrees c. Full extension b. 0-10 d. 10 degrees supination c. 10-15 d. 15-20 Matching type: Collateral ligaments: a) LCL b) MCL c) AOTA d) NOTA 38. Maintains posterolateral rotatory instability - A 39. Prevents subluxation of the humeroulnar joint - B  weak extension of the elbow during a WRIST AND HAND concentric contraction. 1. Tenderness of the snuffbox may be a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is indicative of: FALSE a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. 1st statements is FALSE, 2nd is b. Colle’s fracture TRUE c. Scaphoid fracture c. Both statements are TRUE d. De quervain’s d. Both statements are FALSE *FCU e. None of the above does not pass through the carpal tunnel, and ECRL can only extend 2. The ___ is located most laterally in the wrist, not elbow. relation to the wrist a. Abductor pollicis longus 7. Gusion came to rehab with complaints b. Extensor pollicis brevis of wrist pain after playing an online c. Extensor pollicis longus game for 12 hours. He stated that there d. Flexor pollicis longus were only short-term rests during the e. FCR entire gaming session. QUESTION: What possible structure 3. Other name of scaphoid may have caused the production of a. Unciform pain: b. Os pyramidale a. Carpal tunnel c. Navicular b. Tunnel of Guyon d. Greater multangular c. Tarsal tunnel e. Lesser multangular d. NOTA 4. Which of the ff. Muscles allows ulnar 8. Active middle finger deviation of the wrist metacarpophalangeal and a. FCU interphalangeal extension range of b. ECU motion is greatest when: c. ECRB a. All of the other fingers are d. Both A and B extended with the wrist in e. All of the above extension b. All of the other fingers are flexed 5. Disruption of a tendon at or near the c. The wrist is in neutral position insertion of the ___ is known as jersey d. The wrist is maximally extended or sweater finger and should be addressed surgically within 9. Mcp extension with flexion of the IP approximately one week. a. EDC isolated contraction a. Flexor digitorum superficialis b. Intrinsic muscle isolated muscle contraction b. Flexor digitorum profundus c. All of the above muscle d. None of the above c. Extensor digitorum muscle d. Extensor indicis muscle 10. The following muscles are flexors of the Reference here digits with secondary functions on the wrist, EXCEPT: 6. All of the flexor carpi ulnaris pass a. FDP through the carpal tunnel, along with b. FDS the median nerve. The extensor carpi c. FPL radialis longus muscle can perform d. FCU *FCU is a primary flexor, not