Midterms Kinesiology PDF

8. The application of this lever may be efficient or inefficient INTRO a. 1st class lever b. 2nd class lever 1. According to Newto...

8. The application of this lever may be efficient or inefficient INTRO a. 1st class lever b. 2nd class lever 1. According to Newton’s Second Law of Motion? c. 3rd class lever a. A body at rest will remain at rest b. For every action, there is an equal reaction 9. Which of the following levers is not utilized when in the same direction the goal is to make work less difficult? c. Acceleration is directly proportional to a. 1st class lever the net force applied to the body b. 2nd class lever d. Acceleration is directly proportional to the c. 3rd class lever mass of the moving object 10. Bilateral action of sternocleidomastoid in 2. The extent of movement in a translatory standing position (head flexion; sagittal plane) motion is expressed in ____. a. Coronal axis a. feet/second b. Vertical axis b. meters/second c. Anteroposterior axis c. meters/second (squared) d. None of these d. degrees/second 11. Action of the clavicular portion of the pectoralis 3. The extent of movement in a rotatory motion is major with shoulder in resting position (shoulder expressed in rotary motion is expressed flexion; sagittal plane) in_____. a. Coronal axis a. feet/second b. Vertical axis b. meter/second c. Anteroposterior axis c. meters/second (squared) d. None of these d. degrees/second 12. Action of your right pectoralis major from 90 4. Which of the following provides the least degrees shoulder abduction (H-adduction; stability? transverse plane) a. high center of gravity; large base of support a. Coronal axis b. Low center of gravity; large base of b. Vertical axis supports c. Anteroposterior axis c. High center of gravity; small base of d. None of these support d. Low center of gravity; small base of support 13. A lever system with the effort force seen in the middle of the fulcrum and the resistance affords 5. Which of the following provides more stability? a: a. High center of gravity; large base of support (Third class lever - faster range, b. Low center of gravity; large base of inefficient) support *Second class - efficient, forceful c. High center of gravity; small base of support movement d. Low center of gravity; small base of support *First class - can be efficient or not, balance movement 6. Correctly describes one of the laws of motion a. Faster range of motion b. Weak movements according to Newton c. Balance movement a. A body at rest will remain at rest only for a d. Forceful movement specific period of time mass of the moving object 14. Contraction of your pectoralis minor and b. For every action, there is an equal reaction coracobrachialis (line of motion converge at in the same direction some point) c. Acceleration is directly proportional to a. Concurrent forces the net force applied to a body b. Parallel forces c. Linear forces d. Acceleration is directly proportional to the moving object 15. Gluteus medius and single limb stance a. Concurrent forces 7. Characterization of motion without regard to the b. Parallel forces forces involved c. Linear forces a. Kinetics b. Dynamics 16. Sesamoid bones act as anatomic pulleys. c. Status Muscles that have anatomic pulleys can be d. Kinematics described as follows, except: a. Generate greater torque b. Produce greater tension  c. Resist greater external load 24. The forces of this lever type are adjustable to d. Conserve energy gain equilibrium a. 1st class lever b. 2nd class lever 17. As your patient abducts her shoulder from 90 to c. 3rd class lever 130 the deltoid moment arm decreases. If the torque requirement is constant the force of the 25. Refers to the ability of a force to produce deltoid will ____. rotational movement (Force is inversely proportional to moment a. Movement arm arm) b. Action line *shorter MA -> Greater force requirement c. Reaction d. Torque *longer MA -> Lesser force requirement = to reach the same rotation/degree of 26. Your patient had an above knee amputation on movement the left lower extremity. From an anatomic a. Become zero-pound force point of view, where did the center of gravity b. Increase move? c. Decrease (COG shifts to heavier side) d. Remain the same *Lower left of the whole body becomes lighter d/t amputation a. Up and right 18. Considering a full-grown adult human being b. Down and right with proportional and average body size, c. Up and left where could be the estimated COG (CoM) of d. Down and left the entire right lower extremity? (femur; largest and heaviest bone of the LE) 27. When two body segments act as one solid *In combined COG, it shifts to the heavier object, a new COG location is assumed. side (consider the midpoint of the total However, the COG changes to another length of LE) position even if the object’s position in space is a. Just above the knee unchanged. b. Mid-leg a. Only the 1st statement is correct c. Mid-thigh b. Only the 2nd statement is correct d. Just below the gluteal bridge c. Both are incorrect 19. This is associated with the motion of the d. Both are correct human body that gives regard to the forces responsible for the motion 28. The patella in the knee joint increases the a. Kinetics angle of pull of the quadriceps femoris muscle, b. Dynamics hence it provides the muscle with: c. Status a. Longer moment arm d. Kinematics b. Longer lever arm (this won’t change since muscle insertion is permanent) 20. When muscle acts as resistance, regardless of c. Both the lever type, it is contracting: d. Neither a. Concentric b. Isometric 29. Action of the right quadratus lumborum when c. Eccentric standing (right only = unilateral; hip hike d. Isotonic and lateral flexion) a. Coronal plane 21. When a muscle acts as the effort in a lever b. Transverse plane system, the contraction is: c. Sagittal plane a. Concentric b. Isometric 30. Which of the following levers is most applicable c. Eccentric when your goal is to use the muscle to control d. Isotonic the downward moment produced by gravitational pull on one end of the lever? 22. Which of the following could be done to a. 1st class lever (MS acts as resistance or increase the challenge of moving a lever? force; to achieve equilibrium) a. Decrease the amount of resistance b. 2nd class lever (MS acts as resistance) b. Apply the resistance force closer to the c. 3rd class lever (MS acts as main force) fulcrum/axis c. Move the resistance farther from the 31. Which of the following is correct regarding fulcrum/axis levers? d. AOTA a. The longer the lever arm, the more effective it is in imparting velocity 23. Which if the following could be done to b. First class levers have a mechanical decrease the challenge of moving a lever? advantage that is always 1 a. Decrease the amount of resistance c. Second class lever have a mechanical b. Apply the resistance force closer to the advantage of less than 1 fulcrum/axis d. Third class lever have mechanical c. Move the resistance farther from the advantage greater than 1 fulcrum/axis d. AOTA 32. Angular motion of the joints produces the linear d. D motion of walking, and linear motion of joints produces an angular motion 40. The mechanical advantage of this lever type is a. Only the 1st statement is correct variable. b. Only the 2nd statement is correct a. 3rd class lever c. Both are incorrect b. 1st class lever d. Both are correct c. 2nd class lever 33. Which of the following best describes torque? 41. Which of the following levers is best used to a. The force a muscle generates move a specific object if your objective is a b. A force times the perpendicular quick movement of the object? distance from the line of force of the a. Each lever would be just as effective as axis of rotation the others c. The distance a muscle can move b. A first class lever with a resistance arm of d. A force times the distance measured 10 inches an effort arm of 10 inches along the lever from the line of force to the c. A second class lever with a resistance of axis of rotation 10 inches and an effort arm of 20 inches d. A third class lever arm of 15 inches and 34. The center of gravity of an object or body an effort arm of 5 inches segment is: a. At the tip of the heavier end 42. Which of the following statements accurately b. At the point of origin for gravity’s vector represents the relationship between linear and force angular motion? c. Easier to find in asymmetrical objects that a. Angular motion of joint produces the linear it is in symmetrical motion of walking, and linear motion of d. The theoretical point around which the joints produces an angular motion mass of the object is balanced b. Angular motion of joint produces the linear motion of walking 35. Which of the following forces can be c. Linear motion of joint produces an angular associated with either internal or external motion force? d. None of the answers is correct a. Atmospheric pressure b. Friction 43. If insufficient, this source of force may place c. Both the joint in an unstable position d. Neither a. Gravity b. Muscle contraction 36. Manual lengthening of the cervical spine c. Capsule tension region is closely associated with what type of d. Externally applied resistance motion? a. Curvilinear 44. A lever system with the effort force between b. Rotatory the fulcrum and the resistance is best designed c. General motion for: d. Linear a. Weak movements b. Forceful movements (2nd class) 37. Given values: Biceps Brachii force: 10 lb. c. Balanced movements (1st class) Muscle moment arm: 2 inches d. Faster range of motion (3rd class) Weight of the forearm, wrist, and hand: 5 lb. Gravity moment arm: 10 inches 45. Which of the following could be done to reduce What is the desired action for the subject to be the amount of force needed to move a lever? able to flex the elbow? a. Apply the force closer from an axis a. Change the position of the UE to b. All of the answers are correct increase the moment arm c. Move the resistance closer to the axis b. Relax the deltoid to allow movement d. Increase the amount of resistance c. Contract the deltoid to produce more tension 46. Elbow flexion from 90 degrees shoulder d. Adjust the weight of the UE to lower the abduction and full medial rotation. gravitational torque (impossible to adjust a. AP axis weight of UE unless there is amputation b. Vertical axis occurring) c. Frontal axis 38. If excessive, this source of force may significantly decrease the joint motion: a. Muscle contraction b. Gravity c. Ground friction d. Externally applied resistance 39. Refer to the illustration below. Which position requires the least muscle torque to initiate 47. Which of the following statements best movement? describes gravitational torque? a. A a. Greater when line of gravity acts 90 b. B degrees in segment horizontally c. C positioned b. Dependent with muscle torque  c. Affected by muscle moment arm EXTRA RICE (INTRO) d. Independent of extremity position 48. This source of internal force could place the Frontal Axis joint in an unstable position Vertical Axis a. Gravity AP axis b. Muscle contraction c. Capsule tension 1. Bilateral action of sternocleidomastoid in d. Externally applied resistance standing position - Frontal Axis e. Joint capsule laxity 2. Action of your right Pec Major from 90 degrees shoulder abduction - Vertical Axis 49. Action of the trunk when the internal and 3. Action of the left rectus femoris from a sitting external obliques contract simultaneously. position - Frontal axis (trunk rotation) 4. Elbow flexion from 90 degrees shoulder a. Coronal plane abduction and full medial rotation - AP axis b. Sagittal plane c. Transverse plane Frontal Plane Sagittal Plane 50. Isometric of your gastrocnemius in fully Transverse Plane plantarflexed ankle. a. First class lever 5. Action of the left quadratus lumborum from b. Second class lever standing position - Frontal c. Third class lever 6. Pelvic motion in supine when rectus abdominis contracts – Sagittal 51. The study of systems that involved mobility 7. Synergistic action of external and internal and function obliques – Transverse a. Statics 8. Elbow flexion from 180 degrees elbow flexion - b. Dynamics Sagittal c. Kinetics d. Kinematics Parallel Linear 52. What plane is Quadratus lumborum from Concurrent standing to sitting (extension) General force system a. Coronal plane b. Transverse plane 9. Pectoralis minor & coracobrachialis – c. Sagittal plane Concurrent 10. Gluteus Medius in a single limb stance – Linear 53. Considering a full grown adult human being 11. External intercostal muscles - Parallel with proportional and average body size, where could be the estimated COG (CoM) of 1st class the entire upper extremity? 2nd class a. Just above the elbow (just as the COG 3rd class of LE is above the knee/distal femur) b. Above the forearm 12. What class of lever is utilized mostly in making c. Head and neck work less difficult? - 2nd class d. Just above the shoulder 13. Action of supraspinatus muscle with elbow fully flexed and the shoulder abducted - 1st class 54. Inertia is the ability to change in motion 14. Isometric contraction of the gastrocnemius a. React muscle with foot fully plantarflexed while dangled b. Resist in prone position - 2nd class 15. Supine hip flexion using rectus femoris just distal to the tibial tuberosity - 3rd class 16. Frontal Axis takes place in ____ plane. a. Sagittal b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Coronal 17. Which of the following forces can be associated with either internal or external force? a. Gravity b. Friction c. Muscle d. Buoyancy 18. Lumbar traction a. Linear b. Parallel c. Concurrent d. General force 19. Which of the following represent the least degree of stability? a. Low center of gravity; large base of support b. High center of gravity; large base of support c. High center of gravity; small base of support d. Low center of gravity; small base of support 20. As the patient abducts his shoulder from 90 to 120, the deltoid moment arm decreases. If the torque requirement is constant, the force of the deltoid will __________. a. Increase b. Decrease c. Remain the same d. Zero-pound force 40. Refer to the illustration above. Which position has the least gravitational torque? - A 41. Which position has the greatest gravitational torque? - D 42. Estimating the action line of the muscle, which position requires the least muscle torque to initiate movement? D Internal force External force 43. Gripping to the hand rail - Internal force 44. Force when the bus roll over a rough surface - External force A. Move proximally B. Move distally C. Kept in place 45. What happens to cog of forearm and wrist and hand that's anchored in distal arm - C 46. What happens to cog of forearm and wrist and hand that's anchored in distal forehand- B 47. Amputee transtibial, what happens to COG - A GIVEN (48-50): Gluteus medius- 50 lbs; Moment arm- 2 inches 48. If LE is 15 lbs with a moment arm of 2 inches what do to abduct something? a. Generate more tension b. Generate less tension c. Keep tension muscle force 49. Refer to the same values in #48, what will you do to the moment arm to reduce the acceleration/speed of hip abduction? a. Increase b. Decrease 50. If the moment arm is now 3 inches, LE is still 15 lbs, what will you do to maintain hip abduction? a. Generate more muscle tension b. Generate less muscle tension  b. Co-contraction of hip abduction MUSCLE together with hip extension as 1. Defined as loss of muscle mass owing to compensation to weak knee extensors muscle fiber changes as a result of aging. c. Weak concentric contraction of hip flexors a. Sarcopenia d. Co-contraction of knee flexors and hip b. Sarcoidosis flexors as compensation of weak knee c. Denervation atrophy extensors d. Myopathy e. Hypertrophy 9. A patient is being tested for the length of iliopsoas muscle in supine position. The hip was 2. If the proximal segment is fixed and the distal observed to be slightly flexed, and the knee was segment moves, it is called? in the last 20 degrees of knee extension even a. Closed kinetic chain when it was left dangling at the edge of the b. Closed pack position table. Which of the following is true about the c. Open pack position case? d. Open kinetic chain a. Iliopsoas is not affected b. Knee was not in 90 degrees flexion 3. The space between two Z lines constitutes the: because of hamstring weakness a. Sarcolemma c. Knee should be expected to be in full b. Sarcoplasm extension if iliopsoas muscle is shortened c. Sarcomere d. Rectus femoris muscle is maximally d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum lengthened because it is abnormally weak, hence knee was slightly extended 4. What is an aponeurosis? a. An area of smooth muscle in the abdomen 10. Hamstring muscle is subjected to this condition b. A segment of muscle that is not attached to when performing hip flexion with knee on full bone extension. This results in decreased hip flexion c. A large, flat tendon that anchors muscle range compared to when the knee is flexed. d. A group of neurons that innervate striated a. Active knee insufficiency muscle cells b. Passive insufficiency c. All of the above 5. Which of these units contains overlapping actin d. None of the above and myosin myofilaments? a. I band 11. To establish the resting membrane potential: b. A band a. Sodium ions diffuse into the cell c. H zone b. Sodium ions diffuse out of the cell d. Z disc c. Potassium ions diffuse into the cell d. Potassium ions diffuse out of the cell 6. In the rehab you let the patient perform maximal shoulder abduction to test for deltoid muscle 12. In order for muscles to contract, they need strength. If you noticed that the patient was still calcium ions. Muscle cells have an organelle able to reach maximal 180 degrees despite the that stores the needed calcium ions. This deltoid being weak, which of the following will be organelle is called the: observed in the patient? a. Fascia a. Increase thoracic kyphosis with contraction b. Sarcolemma of abdominals to provide a stable base of c. Sarcoplasmic retinaculum support d. T-tubule b. Lateral curvature with contraction of contralateral lateral flexors 13. The membrane around a muscle cell is called a: c. Substitution of rhomboids major in a. Sarcoplasm elevation of the scapula b. Sarcolemma d. Recruitment of shoulder adductors c. Z disc providing scapular upward rotation d. Sarcomere contralaterally to decrease gravitational forces on the affected limb 14. The binding sites for the cross-bridges are located on: 7. A patient with calcaneovalgus deformity was a. Actin referred to you. The ankle is deformed with fixed b. Myosin 20-degree dorsiflexion. If this was caused by c. Titin contracted muscle, which of the following d. Z disc muscles is affected? a. Tibialis posterior 15. When muscle contracts upon stimulation, b. Tibialis anterior calcium ions bind to ______, which exposes the c. Peroneus longus binding sites for the myosin cross-bridges to d. Peroneus brevis attach to: a. Actin 8. You are lifting a bar with 20kg plates on both b. Myosiin sides, you noticed that knee extension was seen c. Troponin with simultaneous increased separation of the d. Tropomyosin knees upon lowering down. Which of the following is true about the case? a. Weak eccentric contraction of the hip flexors 16. When the cross-bridges bind to actin, they will d. Co-contraction pivot in such a manner to cause the actin e. None of the above filaments to slide. This pivoting action causes the actin filaments to slide: 25. Serratus anterior and trapezius muscle’s a. Farther apart relationship with protraction of the scapula: b. Closer together a. Agonist c. Towards the z line b. Antagonist d. Disappear c. Synergist d. Co-contraction 17. Which of the following muscles is innervated by e. None of the above the musculocutaneous nerve? a. Brachialis 26. The ends of the actin filaments are anchored b. Brachioradialis (attached) to the: c. Anconeus a. M-line d. ECRB b. Z-line e. NOTA c. Perimysium d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum 18. If muscle A contracts and causes movement of some sort, and muscle B helps muscle A 27. When a muscle fiber shortens, the following accomplish this task, and muscle C does the stays the same: opposite of A, then muscle A is a(n) ______ a. Myosin filament muscle, muscle B is a ______ muscle, and b. Actin filament muscle C is a(n) ______ muscle. c. H zone a. Antagonist; synergist; prime mover d. Z-line b. Prime mover; synergist; antagonist c. synergist ; prime mover; antagonist 28. In regard to the cross-bridge (CB) power stroke, d. Fixator; synergist; antagonist it is not true that: a. In concentric contraction, the CB power 19. Which of the following muscles are named stroke pulls the actin filament toward the according to both their action and origin? center of the sarcomere, causing a. Rectus femoris sarcomere shortening b. Tibialis anterior b. In eccentric contractions, the CB power c. Triceps brachii stroke pushes the actin filament away from d. Coracobrachialis the center of the sarcomere, causing sarcomere lengthening. 20. When the arm is flexed, the biceps brachii c. In isometric contractions, the CB power bulges in the middle. This type of muscle stroke pulls the actin filament straight consists of fascicles: down, causing shortening or a. Parallel lengthening. b. Circular d. All of the above are true. c. Pennate d. Pivot 29. For some force of muscle contraction, the least activation of motor units would occur during the 21. Which of the following muscles angles across following type of contraction: the anterior leg, beginning at the lateral edges a. Fast eccentric of the hip to the medial side of the leg and b. Isometric inserts on the tibia just inferior to the patella? c. Slow eccentric a. Gracilis d. Slow concentric b. Sartorius c. Rectus femoris 30. In regard to the force-length relationship, the d. Gracilis following is false: a. Total force is equal to the sum of active and 22. There are three major muscles making up the passive force. erector spinae group. Which of the following is b. Beyond resting length, passive force the most medial? increases from short to long muscle a. Spinalis lengths. b. Longissimus c. The muscle length with maximally active c. Iliocostalis force output is called optimal length d. Quadratus lumborum d. All of the above are true. e. None of the above are true. 23. Which of the following is a lower back muscle that inserts on the humerus? 31. When applying resistance during MMT, should a. Trapezius you place your hand proximal or distal to the b. Rhomboid major joint of the muscle being tested? Why? c. Latissimus dorsi a. Your hand needs to be placed on the d. Erector spinae distal end due to the force that is being moved by the muscle. The resistance 24. Muscle role of the gluteus maximus when will be better mechanically. performing concentric contraction upon stair b. Your hand needs to be placed on the climbing: proximal end due to the force that is being a. Agonist moved by the muscle. b. Antagonist c. Synergist  c. Your hand needs to be placed on the distal 40. During elbow flexion, which of the following end of the bone that is being moved by the muscles acts as a fixator? muscle because you have better leverage. a. Deltoid d. Your hand needs to be placed on the distal b. Triceps brachii end of the bone that is being moved by the c. Biceps brachii muscle because you will be able to palpate d. Brachialis the muscle better. 41. Muscle fibers can be classified according to 32. Which of the following is in the correct order muscle architecture via the following, except: from largest to smallest? a. Muscle fiber length a. Muscle belly → sarcomere → myofibril b. Physiological cross-sectional area b. Myofibril → sarcomere → thick and thin c. Axis of force application filaments d. Muscle length c. Sarcomere → thick and thin filaments → e. Muscle compliance myofibril d. Thick and thin filaments → sarcomere → 42. The outer layer of connective tissue which myofibril surrounds skeletal muscle tissue is called the? a. Epimysium 33. After the receptor is activated, ___________ b. Perimysium depolarizes the muscle fiber cell and travels c. Endomysium through the __________. d. Hypomysium a. Ca2+; Sarcoplasmic Reticulum b. Na+; T tubules 43. The following are true of the factors that may c. K+; Sarcomere affect active muscle tension generation, except: d. Ca2+; Sarcomere a. Increasing frequency of firing of a motor unit or increasing the number of motor units with 34. ___________ leaves the sarcoplasmic a large number of fibers reticulum and binds to __________ in the b. Recruitment of motor units with a larger sarcomere. number of fibers a. Ca2+; Troponin c. The greater the number of cross-bridges b. Na+; Tropomyosin that are formed, the greater the tension c. K+; Myosin generated d. Ca2+; Tropomyosin d. Large PCSA produces less tension compared to muscles with small PCSA 35. Once myosin binds to actin, ________ heads e. Velocity of active shortening decreases— change shape and slide the ________. This is less tension; and velocity of active the sliding filament theory. lengthening increases—greater tension a. actin, myosin b. troponin, myosin 44. Dorsiflexion strength is limited when the knee is c. myosin, actin extended due to: d. myosin, troponin a. Passive insufficiency b. Active insufficiency 36. Thick filament is made up of ________. c. Both a. Troponin d. Neither b. Tropomyosin c. Actin 45. Which type of joint receptor would a therapist d. Myosin expect to be exquisitely sensitive to increases in muscle tension that arise from muscle 37. Which type of contraction primarily occurs in the contraction? quadriceps as a person descends a flight of a. Muscle Spindle stairs? b. Perimysium a. Concentric c. Sarcomere b. Isometric d. Golgi Tendon Organ c. Eccentric d. Asymmetrical 46. A physical therapist instructs a patient to move from sitting to quadruped to tall kneeling. By 38. The following are factors affecting active muscle moving through the developmental sequence, a tension, except: patient gains ________ control during a. The diameter of the axon movement and ________ during balance b. The number of muscle fibers of the motor activities. unit recruited a. Isometric; Isotonic c. The number of motor units that are firing b. Isotonic; Isometric d. The frequency of supramaximal c. Isometric; Isokinetic stimulus d. Isokinetic; Isotonic 39. Two muscles that are antagonists are the: 47. Eccentric muscle contractions occur when: a. Rectus femoris and vastus lateralis a. A person slowly lowers a heavy weight b. Vastus medialis and vastus lateralis b. The length of the muscle does not change c. Adductor longus and vastus intermedius c. A person rapidly raises a lighter weight d. Gluteus maximus and d. The length of the muscle decreases semitendinosus 48. When a high jumper takes off, the quadriceps muscles are contracting: a. Eccentrically b. Isometrically c. Concentrically d. From behind 49. When the sprinter's knee is being brought forward, the hamstring muscles are working… a. Eccentrically b. Isometrically c. Concentrically d. From behind 50. Characteristics of a type I fiber are: a. Slow contraction speed, small motor neuron size, low fatigability b. Fast contraction speed, large motor neuron size, fast fatigability c. Low myoglobin content, fast contraction speed, low capillary density d. Anaerobic capacity low, myoglobin content low, fast fatigability 51. Which of the following is an example of an isotonic muscle contraction? a. Holding a plank position b. Lifting a dumbbell during a bicep curl c. Relaxing the muscles after a workout d. Stretching before exercise  surfaces. If the supporting joint structures are JOINT excessively lax, the joint may have too much play. - C MULTIPLE CHOICE A. If the FIRST statement is TRUE and SECOND 15. overuse may be illustrated by using the abnormal statement is FALSE function of a joint structure as a basis for analysis. B. If the FIRST statement is FALSE and SECOND Example is when the synovial membrane of a statement is TRUE joint is affected by a disease like rheumatoid C. BOTH true arthritis. - B D. BOTH false 16. Joint support is decreased after injury to one or 1. Tendons connect muscle to bone and transmit more of its components. Any process or event forces developed by the muscles to their bony that disturbs the normal function of a specific joint attachments. Each muscle has tendinous structure will start a chain of events. - C material interspersed between it and bone. - C 2. Cartilage is usually divided into the following 17. Joints and their supporting structures subjected types: fibrocartilage (white), elastic cartilage to repetitive loading thus may be injured. An injury (yellow), and hyaline (articular). Bone is the resulting from this type of repetitive strain is called hardest of all the connective tissues. - C underused injury. - A 3. The change in bone shape to match function is 18. If the supporting joint structures are excessively known as Wernicke's Law. Cartilage cells include lax. the joint may have too much play and become fibroblasts, osteoblasts, and osteocytes. - D unstable. - C 4. When a force acts on an object, it produces a 19. Osteokinematics refers to the rotary movement of deformation. The term pressure refers to a force the bones in space. Hysteresis is when the force or forces applied to a structure. - A and length of the tissues are measured. - C 5. When loads (forces) are applied to a structure or 20. Proteoglycans are distinguished by their material, forces within the material are produced carbohydrate core. Interfibrillar components are to oppose the applied forces. The types of stress PG + GCGs +. - D and strain that develop in human tissues does not depend on the material. - A MATCHING TYPE: Connective tissue cell type a. Fixed 6. All connective tissues are viscoelastic materials. b. Transient They combine the properties of elasticity and c. AOTA turbulence. - A d. NOTA 7. Plasticity refers to the material's ability to return 21. Fibroblast - A to its original length. The term elasticity implies 22. Chondroblast - A that length changes or deformations are directly 23. White blood cells that have surface proteins - B proportional to the applied forces or loads. - B 24. lymphocyte-producing antibodies - B 8. The elastic qualities in connective tissues 25. Found in adipose tissue. - A primarily depend on collagen. It also depends on 26. Lymphocytes - B elastin content and organization. - C 27. Osteoblast - A 28. Neutrophils - B 9. Kinematic chains, in the engineering sense, are 29. Monocyte-deprived - D composed of a series of rigid links. They are 30. Plasma cells - B interconnected by a series of pin-centered joints. - C MATCHING TYPE: Type of joint 10. The normal ROM of a joint is sometimes called a. Gomphosis Joint the anabolic or physiologic ROM. The sensations b. Syndesmosis experienced by the examiner performing passive c. Synchondrosis movements at each joint is referred to as d. Diarthroses accessory motion. - D e. Joint Capsule 11. The term arthrokinematics, or accessory motion, 31. joint in which the surfaces of bony components is used to refer to these movements of joint are adapted to each other like a peg in a hole – A surfaces relative to one another. Sliding is a pure translatory motion. - C 32. is a type of joint in which the material used to connect the two components is hyaline cartilage. 12. Sliding refers to gliding of one component over - C the other. An example to this is when a braked wheel skids. - C 33. The function of this type of joint is to permit bone growth while also providing stability and allowing 13. A roll refers to the rolling of one joint surface on a small. amount of mobility. - C another. An example of this is a tire rolling on the road. - C 34. The bony components are indirectly connected to one another by means of a joint capsule that 14. The joint should have a sufficient amount of play encloses the joint. - D to allow normal motion at the joint articulating 35. Other capsules, such as the hip joint capsule, are 49. Gomphoses are movable joints thick and dense and thus favor stability over a. True mobility. - E b. False 36. The fibrous capsule may be reinforced by and, in 50. The exercise that is indicated for stability some instances, incorporate ligaments or a. Close kinematic chain tendons as part of the capsule. - E b. Open kinematic chain c. Both 37. is a type of fibrous joint in which two bony d. Neither components are joined directly by an interosseous ligament? - B 38. These joints usually allow a small amount of motion. - B 39. mandible or maxilla - A 40. Some of these joints are found in the skull and in other areas of the body at sites of bone growth. - C 41. Tendon a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4 42. In this report, the deformation dimension of the internal will not return to its original shape. a. Elastic region b. Plastic region c. ultimate failure point d. None of these 43. External applied forces are equal, parallel, and opposite but are not in line with one another. a. Tensile loading b. Compressive loading c. Shear loading d. Torsional loading 44. Saddle joint is also known as the sellar joint a. True b. False 45. Most abundant protein a. Collagen b. Elastin c. Both d. Neither 46. Best position for palpation a. Open-packed position b. Close-packed position c. Both d. Neither 47. Best position for joint mobilization a. Open-packed position b. Closed-packed position c. Both d. Neither 48. If two equal, parallel, and opposite forces are applied perpendicular to the axis of a structure a. Tensile loading b. Compressive loading c. Shear loading d. Torsional loading chat gpt  c. Supraspinatus, deltoids, superior capsule & SHOULDER coracohumeral ligament d. Supraspinatus & deltoid 1. A PT is doing a postural assessment of a patient. On the shoulder region it was noticed that there 8. "Scaption" is arm elevation along the plane of the is a retracted and tilted scapula due to hypertonic scapula. This is estimated to be angled from the Trapezius muscle. Proceeding with palpation of frontal plane: the rest of the shoulder girdle muscles, the PT will a. 20° to 35° experience difficulty in palpation of these muscles b. 35° to 45° due to the initial findings, except? c. 45° to 60° a. Levator scapulae d. 45° to 90° b. Supraspinatus c. Rhomboids 9. The humerus articulation with the glenoid fossa is d. Subscapularis deepened and stabilized further by the: a. Coracohumeral ligament 2. Your patient exhibits a weak but full range of b. Glenoid labrum shoulder flexion. Upon evaluation the prime c. Glenoid tuberosity movers are normal except one. What is this d. Rotator cuff muscle? a. Deltoids 10. A free-diver sustained a traumatic injury on his b. Supraspinatus neck leading to absent scapular mobility c. Serratus anterior particularly towards upward rotation. If the injury d. Trapezius involves the cervical spinal nerves, which roots are affected? 3. The following are considered vertical stressors of a. C3 to C7 the GH joint: b. C3 to C4 a. Infraspinatus & subscapularis c. C1 to C5 b. Anterior & posterior deltoids d. C1 to C6 c. Supraspinatus & gravity d. Pectoralis major & serratus anterior 11. The ultimate function of motion at the scapulothoracic joint is to: 4. These muscles are antagonists in medial & lateral a. Orient the glenoid fossa for optimal rotation of the shoulder but synergist in providing contact with the humeral head when shoulder stabilization: maneuvering the arm a. Supraspinatus & infraspinatus b. Provide downward rotation during shoulder b. Trapezius & serratus anterior girdle elevation c. Teres minor & teres major c. Decrease stability at the acromioclavicular d. Subscapularis & infraspinatus (AC) and sternoclavicular (SC) joints d. Work independent of the glenohumeral (GH) CASE: (for #5-7): motion Miss Anna is waiting for a bus to ride home. Within 12. Which of the following best describes motion at the first two minutes she was still carrying a shoulder the sternoclavicular (SC) joint? bag with her right hand. It was still an hour so she a. During clavicular elevation and could hardly hitch a ride, she transferred the bag depression, the disc of the SC joint later to her left hand. Minutes gone by, a neighbor moves with the medial end of the clavicle saw her & requested if she could help him with his on the manubrial facet neighbor's bought. Miss Anna did not accept his b. During clavicular protraction and retraction, request. She transferred her bag back on her right the disc of the SC joint moves with the medial shoulder and soon the neighbor left. end of the clavicle on the manubrial facet c. During clavicular elevation and depression, 5. The right shoulder (GH joint) is stabilized by: the lateral end and medial end of the clavicle a. Passive supraspinatus tension, superior move in the same direction capsule & coracohumeral ligament d. During clavicular protraction and retraction, b. Active supraspinatus tension, superior the lateral end and medial end of the clavicle capsule & coracohumeral ligament move in opposite directions c. Superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament d. Supraspinatus & deltoids 13. Which of the following movements involves moving the inferior angle superiorly and laterally 6. When she transferred the bag to her left hand, his away from the spinal column to assist in raising right shoulder is supported by: the arm out to the side? a. Passive supraspinatus tension, superior a. Abduction capsule & coracohumeral ligament b. Elevation b. Supraspinatus & coracohumeral ligament c. Upward rotation c. Superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament d. Adduction d. Supraspinatus, superior capsule & coracohumeral ligament 14. The_______ ligament is the primary stabilizer of the sternoclavicular joint: 7. When the neighbor left, her right shoulder is now a. Interclaviciular supported by: b. Coracoclavicular a. Active supraspinatus tension, superior c. Costoclavicular capsule & coracohumeral ligament d. Sternoclavicular b. Supraspinatus & coracohumeral ligament 15. When a tennis player elevates her shoulder d. Teres major and teres minor during a serve, the clavicle rolls in a(n) a. Superior, superior 22. Which structure directly produces the posterior b. Inferior, inferior rotation of the clavicle needed for normal c. superior, inferior, inferior shoulder girdle elevation? d. Superior, inferior (superior roll, inferior a. The conoid portion of the glide) coracoclavicular ligament e. Inferior, superior b. The coracoacromial ligament c. The subclavius muscle 16. Which of the following best describes the d. The anterior fibers of the deltoid muscle structure of the glenohumeral (GH) joint? a. The joint surfaces of the GH joint are 23. Anterior scapular tipping is normally __________ naturally congruent and stable. from vertical and directly affects motion at the b. The glenoid labrum enhances the depth __________ joint. of the glenoid fossa. a. 10° to 15°, glenohumeral c. The glenoid fossa, by itself, is three times b. 10° to 15°, acromioclavicular larger than the humeral with which it c. 35° to 45°, glenohumeral articulates. d. 35° to 45°, acromioclavicular d. Produces downward rotation of the scapula during shoulder girdle motion 24. Elevation of the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint involves osteokinematic motion of the 17. Which of the supporting ligaments of the clavicle in the __________ direction and glenohumeral (GH) joint is considered to be a arthrokinematic motion of the joint surface in the “ligament complex”? __________ direction. a. The inferior GH ligament a. Inferior, superior b. The middle GH ligament b. Inferior, inferior c. The superior GH ligament c. Superior, inferior d. The coracoacromial ligament d. Superior, superior 18. The external rotation that occurs at the 25. Which of the following muscles assists in glenohumeral joint after 80° to 90° of abduction counteracting the upward translatory force produces a(n) __________ glide of the humeral caused by the deltoid muscle at the glenohumeral head on the glenoid fossa and a(n) __________ joint? roll. a. Supraspinatus a. posterior, posterior b. Serratus anterior b. anterior, anterior c. Coracobrachialis c. anterior, posterior d. Teres minor d. posterior, anterior 26. Which muscle(s) stabilize(s) the scapula in order 19. The acromioclavicular (AC) joint contributes to to allow normal function of the teres major shoulder elevation muscle? a. between 30° and 90° of abduction when a. Levator scapula tension on the trapezoid component of the b. Supraspinatus coracoclavicular ligament produces posterior c. Rhomboids rotation of the clavicle d. Upper trapezius b. after 90° of shoulder abduction and until all scapulothoracic motion is taken up 27. A strong contraction of the biceps with the elbow c. between 30° and 90° of abduction when flexed and shoulder abducted to 90°, promotes anterior rotation of the clavicle allows for 30° __________ translation of the glenohumeral joint of scapular upward rotation and prevents __________. d. after 60° of abduction a. Compression; superior b. Compression; inferior 20. Which of the following is a function of the rotator c. Distraction; superior cuff during shoulder girdle elevation? d. Distraction; inferior a. Functions with the deltoid to produce a superior translation of the humeral head 28. The shoulder girdle movements primarily involve during shoulder girdle elevation all of the following muscles except: b. Produces scapular upward rotation during a. Serratus anterior muscle shoulder girdle motion b. Trapezius muscle c. Balances the deltoid activity by providing c. Rhomboid major and minor muscle a slight inferior translatory force of the d. No exception humeral head during shoulder girdle elevation 29. Forms the osteoligamentous vault over the d. Produces downward rotation of the scapula glenohumeral joint: during shoulder girdle motion a. acromioclavicular ligament & clavicle b. coracoacromial ligament & acromion 21. Which of the following muscles produce upward process scapular rotation when the shoulder girdle is c. coracoclavicular ligament & coracoid elevated from 90° to 180°? process a. Deltoid and rotator cuff muscles d. acromioclavicular ligament & greater b. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and tubercle serratus anterior c. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior 30. Which of the following is a key application of the 38. An action common to the rhomboids and serratus anterior muscle? pectoralis minor is a. It is used in rotating the medial border of the a. Scapula abduction scapula down and back toward the spinal b. Scapula depression column. c. Scapula downward rotation b. It is used strongly in pulling the clavicle d. Scapula elevation anteriorly and inferiorly toward the sternum. c. It is used strongly in doing push-ups, 39. Which of the following applications necessarily especially in the last 5 to 10 degrees of involves the levator scapulae muscle? motion a. Shrugging the shoulders d. It is used strenuously when lifting with the b. Stabilizing the sternoclavicular joint during hands, as in picking up a heavy upper extremity movements wheelbarrow. c. Preventing scapula winging d. Carrying objects on the tip of the shoulders 31. The position of the scapula relative to rotation at the AP axis is 40. Which of the following is the most often injured a. 5° to 10° upwardly rotated rotator cuff muscle? b. 5° to 10° downwardly rotated a. The subscapularis muscle c. 35° to 45° upwardly rotated b. The teres minor muscle d. Neutral c. The infraspinatus muscle d. The supraspinatus muscle 32. Which of the following muscles would best be strengthened by the bench press and overhead 41. In the context of shoulder girdle movements, an press exercises? anterior tilt is a consequential rotational a. The serratus anterior muscle movement of the scapula. b. The trapezius muscle a. About the vertical axis occurring during c. The rhomboid muscle extreme adduction d. The levator scapulae muscle b. About the frontal axis occurring during hyperextension of the glenohumeral joint 33. Which of the following is a salient feature of the c. Resulting in anterior movement of the medial upper fibers of the trapezius muscle? border and posterior movement of the lateral a. They are a source of tenderness and border discomfort due to chronic tension d. Resulting in the superior border moving b. They depress the scapula and assist in posteroinferiorly and the inferior angle adduction. moving anterosuperiorly c. They are primarily active in positioning the shoulder for function and posture 42. Which of the following is an efficient way to d. They assist in extension of the head due stretch the pectoralis minor muscle? to their origin on the base of the skull. a. By rotating the head approximately 45 degrees contralaterally and flexing the 34. The scapulothoracic motion that usually cervical spine actively while maintaining the accompanies glenohumeral horizontal adduction scapula in a relaxed, depressed position is: b. By passively moving the scapula into full a. Abduction protraction while maintaining depression b. Adduction c. By lying supine with a rolled towel c. Depression directly under the thoracic spine while a d. Upward rotation partner pushes each scapula into retraction 35. An action common to the latissimus dorsi, teres d. By extreme elevation and retraction of the major, and lower pectoralis major is shoulder girdle a. Abduction b. External rotation 43. Which of the following muscles works effectively c. Extension with the latissimus dorsi and is said to be the d. Flexion latissimus dorsi's "little helper"? a. The coracobrachialis muscle 36. The ____ of the rotator cuff is attached to the b. The teres major muscle greater tubercle from above. c. The pectoralis major muscle a. Biceps brachii d. The deltoid muscle b. Infraspinatus c. Subscapularis 44. Which of the following muscles are used d. Supraspinatus powerfully in chinning, an activity in which an individual hangs from a horizontal bar suspended 37. Stabilization of the humeral head in the glenoid by his or her hands and pulls himself or herself up fossa is a primary action of the until his or her chin is over the bar? a. Latissimus dorsi muscle a. The rhomboid muscles b. Teres major muscle b. The serratus anterior muscles c. Coracobrachialis muscle c. The pectoralis minor muscles d. Subscapularis muscle d. The subclavius muscles 45. Which of the following is not a factor that 53. Weak and poor endurance of the rotator cuff contributes to the injury rate of the glenohumeral muscles may lead to this faulty movement of the joint? shoulder. a. Shallowness of glenoid fossa a. Absence of superior glide upon abduction b. Laxity of the ligamentous structures b. Absence of inferior glide upon adduction c. Tight configuration of ligaments c. Superior translation of the humerus upon d. Lack of strength and endurance in the abduction muscles d. Superior translation of the scapula upon abduction 46. During a shoulder-shrugging exercise, most of the motion occurs at the___ joints. 54. The above (#49) pathomechanics could lead to. a. Acromioclavicular a. Irritation and inflammation of the tendons b. Glenohumeral rotator cuff muscles more commonly the c. Scapulothoracic supraspinatus and infraspinatus d. Sternoclavicular b. Irritation and inflammation of the tendons rotator cuff muscles more commonly 47. The scapulothoracic motion that usually subscapularis and teres minor accompanies glenohumeral abduction is: c. Irritation and inflammation of the tendons a. Abduction rotator cuff muscles and levator scapulae b. Depression d. Irritation and inflammation of the tendons c. Elevation d. Upward rotation 55. Which SITS muscle could also improve the strength in strengthening exercise regimen 48. The prime movers of the scapula against targeting the Latissimus Dorsi? resistance for abduction in the shoulder girdle are a. Supraspinatus the: b. Infraspinatus a. levator scapula and rhomboids. c. Teres minor b. pectoralis minor and pectoralis major d. Subscapularis c. rhomboids and serratus anterior d. trapezius and serratus anterior. 56. The effective way of lengthening a tight Teres Major is through external rotation from 49. Poor posture and improper usage of the scapula a. Resting position of the shoulder muscles typically lead to the b. Full abduction a. scapula elevators and retractors becoming c. Full medial rotation stronger and tighter and the depressors d. Abducted 90-degree position becoming weaker b. scapula protractors and depressors 57. A Volley player sustained a C5 & C6 nerve root becoming stronger and tighter and the injury. The athlete will experience severe difficulty retractor becoming weaker in the following, except. c. scapula protractors and depressors a. Spiking becoming weaker and tighter and the b. Serving a ball retractor becoming stronger c. Reaching a top the net to block a spik d. scapula upward rotators and retractors d. Reaching down to save a dropped ball becoming stronger and tighter and the protractors becoming weaker 58. Provided more stabilization to the scapula during flexion: 50. The primary muscles involved in flexion of the a. Serratus anterior shoulder joint against resistance are the: b. Latissimus dorsi a. anterior and middle deltoid muscles c. Trapezius b. anterior deltoid and lower pectoralis major d. Pectoralis minor muscles c. anterior deltoid and upper pectoralis 59. A Pt. abducts his arm with a completely stiff AC & major muscles SC joints. If he externally rotates his shoulder d. posterior deltoid and upper pectoralis major during elevation, how many degrees could he muscles reach? a. 60° 51. To obtain maximum abduction of the upper b. 90° extremity shoulder joint, abduction is c. 120° accompanied by — of the shoulder girdle. d. 150° a. Abduction b. Adduction 60. Granting a Pt. with a complete tear of the c. Elevation coracoclavicular ligament performs elevation of d. Upward rotation the arm pain free. How many degrees of abduction could he possibly make from both GH 52. The primary muscles involved in the extension of & close chain joints? the shoulder joint against resistance are the a. 60° muscles. b. 90° a. latissimus dorsi and teres major c. 120° b. latissimus dorsi, teres major, posterior d. 150° deltoid, and lower pectoralis major c. posterior deltoid and upper pectoralis major d. latissimus dorsi, teres major, posterior deltoid, and upper pectoralis major  8. TRUE about the Brachialis muscle: ELBOW COMPLEX a. More active when the forearm is supinated b. It is a two-jointed muscle 1. The following are articulating surfaces of the c. It undergoes active insufficiency ulna, ЕХСЕРТ d. All of these a. Olecranon fossa e. None of the above b. Olecranon process- ulna c. Trochlear notch-ulna 9. Which of the following is not true about the d. Trochlear ridge biceps brachii muscle: e. None of these a. Affected by shoulder positions b. Active in all positions when resistance is see a greater than limb weight CASE: A tennis athlete comes to rehab holding his c. Innervated by a nerve that arises from right elbow in considerable flexion. Your assessment the: middle trunk of the brachial plexus reveals tenderness in the area over the patient's (supposedly lateral) right lateral epicondyle. Active wrist and/or finger d. Innervated by a nerve that arises fro root C5 extension increases the pain. And grip strength is and C6 weak. Based on the case, considering the e. None of these aggravating and/or relieving factors mentioned and with the support of the physical exams you have 10. The following are the articulating surfaces of the performed Humeroradial joint, except: a. Radial fossa b. Olecranon fossa 2. What would be your PT impression? c. Head of the radius a. Nursemaid’s elbow d. All of the above b. Elbow fracture e. None of the above c. None of the above d. Lateral epicondylitis 11. The following are articulating surfaces of the e. Medial epicondylitis humerus, ЕХСЕРТ: a. Trochlea 3. Based on the previous case, which of the b. Coronoid process following could also be affected on our patient? c. Coronoid fossa a. Oblique cord d. None of these b. Medial collateral ligament c. Interosseus membrane 12. To best observe and palpate the brachioradialis. d. None of the above muscle, resistance should be given to: e. Lateral collateral ligament a. 90 degrees of elbow flexion, forearm supinated 4. Based on the case above, which reflexes could b. 90 degrees of mid position elbow flexion, you. observe hyporeflexia? forearm in mid position a. Brachioradialis c. 90 degrees of elbow flexion, forearm b. Triceps brachii pronated c. Biceps brachii d. any of these d. None of the above 13. The tendon of the muscle is primarily involved in 5. Based on the previous case, as the patient's lateral epicondylitis: physical therapist, with intensive knowledge of a. ECRL the anatomy and kinesiology, you should be b. EDC able to suspect which of the following muscles c. Supinator to be affected in this case? d. ECRB a. None of the above b. Triceps, anconeus 14. Chief pronator muscle c. FDS, FDP, FCU a. Pronator teres d. Biceps brachii, brachialis, brachioradialis b. Brachioradialis 6. All of the following are considered to be the c. Pronator quadratus articulating suríaces of the humeroulnar joint, d. ECRL except: a. Trochlear groove 15. This ligament forms & of a ring around the b. Capitate radius: c. Trochlear notch a. Oblique ligament d. All of the above b. MCL c. Annular ligament 7. Two of the articulating surfaces of this joint d. LCL include ulnar radial notch and the capitulum of the humerus also provides stability of the 16. True about the elbow flexors: forearm up pronation/supination activities. a. Brachialis is considered as the primary elbow a. Proximal radioulnar joint flexor due to its insertion at the radius b. Distal radioulnar joint b. Patient with musculocutaneous nerve injury c. Humeroradial joint will still be able to flex the elbow joint d. Humeroulnar joint because of the spared biceps brachii e. None of the above c. Brachioradialis is an example of a shunt muscle d. AOTA 17. Which of the following are true regarding the innervated by a nerve that arises from the brachialis muscle: posterior cord of the plexus a. as a primary elbow flexor, brachialis is affected by forearm and shoulder position Case: Your patient recalls a painful elbow whenever b. as a primary elbow flexor, brachialis is he pitches. Your assessment reveals pain is affected by forearm and but unaffected by observed in movement phase of throwing and shoulder position follow-up phase of push-ups. c. as a primary elbow flexor, brachialis is unaffected by forearm and shoulder 23. Which of the following muscles could be position affected? d. brachialis is the strongest elbow flexor due to a. Pronator teres its large cross section b. Biceps brachii c. Triceps brachii 18. This muscle assists elbow extension and acts d. Pronator quadratus as a stabilizer during pronation and supination a. Brachioradialis 24. Based on your answer above, which of the b. Anconeus following management is most appropriate for c. Biceps brachii your patient? d. Coracobrachialis a. Rows b. Pull-ups 19. This muscle is a pure flexor of the elbow when c. Curl ups the forearm is in midposition d. Dumbbell raises a. Biceps brachii b. Brachialis 25. What is the normal carrying angle? c. Brachioradialis a. 25 degrees d. Anconeus b. 30 degrees c. 15 degrees 20. Which of the following describes the d. 20 degrees humeroulnar joint? e. None of these a. Modified hinge joint b. Reinforced by the LCL 26. The medial collateral ligament stabilizes the c. Articulating surfaces are trochlear notch of elbow joint against varus forces. Whereas the humerus and trochlea of ulna lateral collateral ligament stabilizes the elbow d. NOTA against valgus forces, a. First statement is true 21. A forearm muscle that belongs to the extensor b. Second statement is true group but flexes the elbow is the: c. Both statements are true a. Anconeus d. Both statements are false b. ECRL c. Brachioradialis 27. The radioulnar joints (proximal/distal; d. Supinator superior/inferior) are mechanically linked. Motions over the distal radioulnar joint will always be accompanied by motions over the proximal radioulnar joint. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both statements are false d. Both statements are true 28. These ligaments reinforce the distal radioulnar joint, except: a. Dorsal radioulnar ligament b. Palmar radiouinar ligament c. Ligament of Denuce 22. Which of the following is true about the muscles d. All of the above that are associated with the elbow joint? e. None of the above a. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint anteriorly and have their primary function 29. The following are part of the superior radioulnar over the elbow joint are all innervated by a joint, ЕХСЕРТ: nerve that arises from the lateral cord of the a. Radial head brachial plexus b. Ulnar head b. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint c. Capitulum anteriorly and have their primary function d. Radial notch of ulna over the elbow joint are all innervated by a e. Annular ligament nerve that arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus 30. Defined as a strong band that forms four fifths c. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint of a ring that encircles the radial head and the posteriorly and have their primary function lateral aspect is reinforced by fibers from the over the elbow joint are all innervated by a LCL nerve that arises from the lateral cord a. Quadrate ligament d. The muscles that pass over the elbow b. Annular ligament joint posteriorly and have their primary c. Oblique cord function over the elbow joint are all d. Interosseus border  e. None of the above b. Activity of the long head is affected by shoulder position 31. The following are TRUE about the humeroulnar c. The medial and lateral heads of the triceps, joint: being one-pint muscles, are not affected by a. Is a type of plane joint the position of the shoulder b. In full extension, there is contact between the d. Innervated by the nerve that originates radial head and the capitulum from the superior trunk of the brachial c. They are enclosed in a single capsule plexus together with the humeroradial and distal radiouinar joint 37. Open-packed position of the humeroulnar joints. d. Elbow flexion causes the rim of the radial a. 70 degrees flexion; 10 degrees supination head to slide along the capitulotrochlear b. 70 degrees flexion; 35 degrees supination groove thereby entering the radial fossa c. Full extension at end range d. 10 degrees supination 32. The following muscles crosses the elbow joint. Matching type: Collateral ligaments: ЕХСЕРТ: a) LCL a. Biceps brachii b) MCL b. Triceps brachii c) AOTA c. Flexor digitorum profundus d) NOTA d. Flexor digitorum superficialis e. Anconeus 38. Maintains posterolateral rotatory instability - A 39. Prevents subluxation of the humeroulnar joint - 33. Which of the following is true about the muscles B that are associated with the elbow joint? 40. Provides some resistance to longitudinal a. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint distraction - B anteriorly and have their primary function 41. Stability against varus torques - A over the elbow joint are all innervated by a 42. Stability again valgus torques - B nerve that arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus II. Matching type: Collateral ligaments: b. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint a) Biceps Brachii anteriorly and have their primary function b) Brachialis over the elbow joint are all innervated by a C) Brachioradialis nerve that arises from the posterior cord of d) two of the choices the brachial plexus e) AOTA c. The muscles that pass over the elbow joint posteriorly and have their primary function 43. Moment arm is greatest between 80- 100 over the elbow joint are all innervated by a degrees - A nerve that arises from the lateral cord of the 44. Large physiological cross-sectional area and brachial plexus hard work capacity - D d. The muscles that pass over the elbow 45. Small physiological cross-sectional area - C joint posteriorly and have their primary 46. Elbow flexors - E function over the elbow joint are all 47. Peak moment between 100-120 degrees - A innervated by a nerve that arises from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus 48. importance of the ulna lies at the: e. here are 5 muscles in total that pass over the a. Elbow joint elbow joint both anteriorly and posteriorly b. Wrist joint and have their primary function over the c. Shoulder joint elbow joint d. AOTA 34. The following are the primary muscles that are 49. carrying angle in males: associated with the radioulnar joints, except: a. 5-10 degrees a. Pronator teres b. 0-10 b. Pronator quadratus c. 10-15 c. Biceps brachii d. 15-20 d. Supinator teres e. None of the above 50. carrying angle in females: a. 5-10 degrees 35. The elbow joint is classified as a ginglymus joint b. 0-10 which allows flexion and extension moment on c. 10-15 the sagittal plane. It is considered to be a d. 15-20 modified hinge joint for the reason that if allows a slight bit of rotation and side to side motion. a. First statement is true b. Second statement is true c. Both statements are false d. Both statements are correct 36. Which of the following is not true of the triceps brachii muscle: a. Affected by changes in elbow position but not by changes in position of the FA  d. The wrist is maximally extended WRIST AND HAND 1. Tenderness of the snuffbox may be indicative 9. MCP extension with flexion of the IP of: a. EDC isolated contraction a. carpal tunnel syndrome b. Intrinsic muscle isolated contraction b. Colle’s fracture c. All of the above c. Scaphoid fracture d. None of the above d. De Quervain’s e. None of the above 10. The following muscles are flexors of the digits with secondary functions on the wrist, EXCEPT: 2. The ___ is located most laterally in relation to a. FDP the wrist b. FDS a. Abductor pollicis longus c. FPL b. Extensor pollicis brevis d. FCU *FCU is a primary flexor, not c. Extensor pollicis longus secondary. d. Flexor pollicis longus e. None of the above e. FCR 3. Another name of scaphoid 11. You are reviewing a chart of a patient who a. Unciform was recently referred to rehab d/t a median b. Os pyramidale nerve injury in the R hand. Which of the c. Navicular following is most affected based on the nerve d. Greater multangular injury presented? e. Lesser multangular a. Power grip b. Precision handling 4. Which of the ff. Muscles allows ulnar deviation c. Both are equally affected of the wrist d. None of the choices a. FCU *Muscle affected is FDS, which does forceful hand b. ECU closure. Only the lateral portion of FDP is affected. c. ECRB d. Both A and B 12. The following are considered as the primary e. All of the above wrist muscles, EXCEPT: a. FPL *FPL is a secondary muscle 5. Disruption of a tendon at or near the insertion of b. PL the ___ is known as jersey or sweater finger and c. FCR should be addressed surgically within d. FCU approximately one week. e. None of the above a. Flexor digitorum superficialis muscle b. Flexor digitorum profundus muscle 13. The carpal bone that is first to ossify is the c. Extensor digitorum muscle capitate. Pisiform is the only carpal bone that d. Extensor indicis muscle will serve as a sesamoid bone to the FCU Reference here and ECU at the wrist a. 1st statement is TRUE, 2nd is FALSE 6. All of the flexor carpi ulnaris pass through the b. 1st statement is FALSE