MCQ-test Manual PDF - Tuberculosis Test - 6th Year Medical Students

ФГБОУ ВО «Казанский государственный медицинский университет Министерства здравоохранения Российской Федерации» Кафедра фтизиопульмонологии ТЕСТОВЫЕ ЗАДАНИЯ ПО ФТИЗИАТРИИ методическое пособие для студентов 6 курса Лечебного факультета TEST ON TUBERC...

ФГБОУ ВО «Казанский государственный медицинский университет Министерства здравоохранения Российской Федерации» Кафедра фтизиопульмонологии ТЕСТОВЫЕ ЗАДАНИЯ ПО ФТИЗИАТРИИ методическое пособие для студентов 6 курса Лечебного факультета TEST ON TUBERCULOSIS Manual for the 6th year students of Medical Faculty Казань 2017  УДК 616.01/-099 ББК 52.5 Печатается по решению Учебно-методического Совета по преподаванию на английском языке Казанского государственного медицинского университета Составители: докт. мед. наук, профессор каф. фтизиопульмонологии КГМУ М.Ф. Яушев Рецензенты: докт. мед. наук, профессор каф. инфекционных болезней КГМУ Фазылов В.Х. канд. мед. наук, врач отделения туберкулеза взрослых Махмутов И.Ф. Тестовые задания по фтизиатрии: методическое пособие для студентов / М.Ф. Яушев.– Казань: КГМУ, 2017. – 53 с. Методическое пособие предназначено для подготовки студентов, обучающихся на языке-посреднике в рамках учебного курса по «Фтизиатрии». Пособие содержит тестовые вопросы с вариантами ответов для контроля знаний в рамках учебных модулей и экзаменов по Фтизиатрии. © Казанский государственный медицинский университет, 2017 2  Contents Chapter Page # History of TB (Tuberculosis) 4 Etiology and pathogenesis of TB 6 Epidemiology of TB 14 Diagnosis of TB 18 Tuberculin Skin test or PPD test 23 Microbiology of TB 29 Chest X-ray 33 Clinical forms of TB 38 Treatment of TB 50 3 Chapter 1. History of Tuberculosis 1. According to modern view Tuberculosis (ТВ) – is … 1) An infectious disease, caused by M. tuberculosis and predominant localization in lungs 2) chronic infectious disease with typical localization in lung tissue 3) chronic infectious disease with localization in lymph nodes 4) chronic infectious disease with specific necrosis in lung tissue 2. The earliest form of tuberculosis discovered in humans was: 1) infiltrative TB 2) TB of peripheral lymph nodes 3) skin TB 4) backbone TB 3. The first systemic description of clinical manifestations and epidemiological features of TB was given by … 1) Aristotle 2) Avicenna 3) Hippocrates 4) Paul Bartels 4. The infectious nature of TB was first suggested by: 1) Aristotle 2) Avicenna 3) Vesalius 4) Hippocrates 5. The first classical description of miliary TB was given by … 1) Jacob Monget 2) Marten 3) Girolamus Fracastorius 4) Villemin 6. The term “tuberculosis” was originally proposed by …. 1) Jacob Monget 2) Laenecc 3) Girolamus Fracastorius 4) Bayle 7. The physician who was the first to unite specific changes in lung tissue and lymphatic nodes into one disease – TB … 1) Fracastorius 2) Antone Villemin 3) Bayle 4) Laenecc 8. The famous Russian surgeon Pirogov was connected with …. 1) developing of surgical treatment of TB 2) description of specific type of necrosis – caseous necrosis 3) description of TB granuloma consisting of giant multinuclear cells 4) description of alveolar macrophages role in TB inflammation 4 9. Besides discovering M. tuberculosis, Robert Koch …. 1) improved staining technique of M. tuberculosis 2) was the first to describe Chest X-ray findings suggestive of infiltrate in lung 3) obtained tuberculin for the purpose of detecting individuals with TB infection 4) improved culture medium for the isolation of M. tuberculosis 10. The scientist who was the first to describe polymorphic forms of M. tuberculosis (rod-shaped, granular or filaments or cocci forms) is: 1) Mechnikov 2) Robert Koch 3) Laenecc 4) Calmette 11. “Germ theory of TB" was originally proposed by: 1) Jacob Monget 2) Marten 3) Girolamus Fracastorius 4) Antone Villemin 12. Development of disseminated TB in rabbits pre-injected with pus derived from a cavern or lung tissue of a person with active TB infection, was demonstrated by: 1)Jacob Monget 2) Marte 3) Girolamus Fracastorius 4) Antone Villemin 13. The human vaccine (BCG) for the prevention of TB was developed by: 1) Jacob Monget 2) Robert Koch 3) Calmette & Guerin 4) Ziehl & Neelsen 14. A possibility to compare pathomorphological manifestation of tuberculosis with lifetime tubercular changes in various organs was related to discovery made by: 1) Robert Koch 2) W.C. Roentgen 3) Calmette 4) Ziehl & Neelsen 15. The first specialized hospital for TB patients (dispensary) was opened in: 1) London 2) Paris 3) Edinburgh 4) Bristol 16. The name of a calcified focus on Chest X-ray caused by a primary TB complex is: 1) Ghon’s focus 2) Abricosov’s focus 3) Aschoff-Paul focus 4) Assman’s focus 17. The round shape pulmonary infiltrate on Chest X-ray was originally described by: 1) Ghon 5 2) Pirogov 3) Assman 4) Aschoff-Paul 18. Multi-nuclear giant cells in tuberculous granuloma were originally described by: 1) Ghon 2) Pirogov-Langhans 3) Assman 4) Aschoff-Paul 19. A vaccine for tuberculosis was developed by: 1) Mantoux 2) Robert Koch 3) Calmette and Guerin 4) C. Pirquet 20. A skin test for primary M. tuberculosis infection with was offered by: 1) Mantoux 2) Robert Koch 3) Calmette and Guerin 4) C. Pirquet Chapter 2. Etiology and pathogenesis of TB 1. M. tuberculosis belongs to … 1) bacteria 2) fungi 3) protozoa 4) virus 2. The main cause of tuberculosis in humans is: 1) M. tuberculosis 2) M. bovis 3) M. africanum 4) M. microti 3. Modifications in the structure of M. tuberculosis are primarily influenced by: 1) vaccination; 2) chemotherapy 3) localization of TB 4) age of patient 4. As a result of tuberculosis chemotherapy, Koch's bacilli can be transformed into: 1) rickettsia 2) viruses 3) L-forms and filtered virus-like forms 4) coccus 5. M. tuberculosis resistance to antitubercular drugs is a result of: 1) natural capacity of mycobacterium tuberculosis for genetic mutations; 2) inadequate antitubercular therapy (including unstructured treatment interruptions) 3) long-term treatment with a single antitubercular agent 4) all of the above 6 6. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Complex does not include or includes all but: 1) M. bovis 2) M. africanum 3) M. microti 4) M. avium 7. Tuberculosis in humans is caused by all but: 1) M. bovis 2) M. microti 3) M. africanum 4) M. tuberculosis 8. M. tuberculosis divides every … 1) 4-10 hrs 2) 10-14 hrs 3) 18-24 hrs 4) 25-30 hrs 9. Growth on culture medium of M. tuberculosis strain obtained in a clinical setting requires: 1) 2-4 days 2) 1 week 3) 2-3 weeks 4) 4-6 weeks 10. The optimal range of temperature for growth of M. tuberculosis is: 1) 30-34ºC 2) 34-36ºC 3) 37-38ºC 4) 39-40ºC 11. M. tuberculosis maintains viability at 80ºC for: 1) 3 min 2) 5 min 3) 10 min 4) 20 min 12. M. tuberculosis maintains viability in water for a maximum of: 1) 20 days 2) 40days 3) 80 days 4) 150 days 13. Cryopreservation of M. tuberculosis maintains viability for a maximum of: 1) 1 yr 2) 5 yrs 3) 30 yrs 4) 40 yrs 14. Identification of M. tuberculosis under microscope is related to its capability: 1) to maintain it’s color after processing with acid 2) to stain with carbol-fuchsine 3) to stain with methylene blue 4) all of the above 7 15. The name of external membrane lipid that is a virulent factor of M. tuberculosis is: 1) CFP-10 2) ESAT-6 3) tuberculin 4) cord-factor 16. Principal clinical characteristic of L-form of M. tuberculosis is: 1) low level of metabolism 2) low virulence 3) induction of anti-TB immunity 4) resistance to anti-TB chemotherapy 17. The main reason for accelerated transformation M. tuberculosis to L-form is: 1) genetic characteristic of a patient 2) size of a pulmonary cavity 3) longstanding anti-TB therapy 4) all of the above 18. Positive PPD test in healthy adults is mostly related to: 1) post-vaccination tuberculin sensitivity 2) post-TB pulmonary changes 3) nonspecific allergy 4) presence of L-form of M. tuberculosis in different organs or latent TB infection 19. Mutation in inhA gene of M. tuberculosis is characteristic for resistance to: 1) Rifampin 2) Isoniazid 3) Ethambutol 4) Streptomycin 20. Mutation in catG gene of M. tuberculosis is a sign of resistance to: 5) Rifampin 6) Isoniazid 7) Ethambutol 8) Streptomycin 21. Mutation in rpoB gene of M. tuberculosis is indicative of resistance to: 1) Rifampin 2) Isoniazid 3) Ethambutol 4) Streptomycin 22. The main route of M. tuberculosis transmission form person to person is: 1) air-borne 2) alimentary 3) transplacental or vertical 4) contact 23. Most frequent localization of TB in adults is: 1) gastrointestinal tract 2) excretory organs 3) lung tissue 4) lymphatic system 8 24. Most frequent localization of TB in children is: 1) gastrointestinal tract 2) excretory organs 3) lung tissue 4) lymphatic system 25. Air-borne route of TB infection is more typical for the following high-risk group: 1) prisoners or incarcerated population or prison population 2) HIV-positive individuals 3) close contacts of persons with SSP (sputum-smear positive) TB 4) persons with diabetes mellitus 26. Low sensitivity of M. tuberculosis to many antibiotics is related to its: 1) decreased frequency of bacterial cell division 2) increased hydrophobicity of the cell surface 3) high level of metabolism 4) expression of cord-factor on the surface of membrane 27. Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis is characterized by: 1) resistance to Isoniazid & Streptomycin 2) resistance to Isoniazid & Ethambutol 3) resistance to Isoniazid & Rifampicin 4) resistance to Rifampicin & Fluoroquinolones 28. Most dangerous factor for M. tuberculosis transmission is: 1) longtime exposure to persons with SSP TB 2) immunodeficiency 3) young age 4) absence of BCG-vaccination at birth 29. The main mechanism of nonspecific resistance of the surface of the bronchi to M. tuberculosis is related to: 1) antibodies to M. tuberculosis 2) T-lymphocytes 3) alveolar macrophages 4) B-lymphocytes 30. The basic type of allergic reaction in tuberculosis is: 1) immediate response or Ig E-mediated type 1 HSR (hypersensitivity reaction) 2) delayed response or cell-mediated type 4 HSR 3) late response 4) anaphylaxis 31. The first morphological reaction on invasion and multiplication of mycobacterium tuberculosis in the focus of tissue damage is: 1) formation of caseous necrosis 2) formation of tuberculous granuloma 3) fibrotic response 4) calcification 32. Specific morphological reaction of tuberculous inflammation is accumulation in the focus of infection of: 1) T-lymphoid cells 2) neutrophil cells 9 3) epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells of Pirogov–Langhance 4) fibrous tissue 33. A specific feature of tuberculous granuloma in comparison to other granulomatous diseases is presence of: 1) CD4+ lymphocytes 2) neutrophils 3) epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells of Pirogov–Langhance 4) caseous necrosis 34. Primary TB is: 1) New case of TB 2) TB diagnosed in adults 3) TB diagnosed in teenagers 4) TB developed as a result of primary TB infection 35. The inflammation in primary TB is typically localized in: 1) lung tissue 2) peripheral lymph nodes 3) pleura 4) intrathoracic lymph nodes 36. Primary tubercular complex consists of: 1) focus in lung and tuberculosis of regional lymph nodes 2) focus in lung, specific lymphangitis and tuberculosis of regional lymph nodes 3) lung infiltration 4) changes in peripheral lymph nodes 37. One of the paraspecific reactions of primary TB is: 1) cough 2) enlargement in a few groups of peripheral lymph nodes 3) Poncet's disease or (tuberculous rheumatitis) 4) all of the above 38. The most frequent localization of TB in peripheral lymph nodes is … 1) neck 2) inguinal 3) axillary 4) mesenteric 39. The concept of exogenous superinfection implies: 1) exogenous mycobacterial invasion of a previously uninfected organism 2) exogenous mycobacterial invasion of a previously infected organism 3) repeated mycobacterial invasion of a previously uninfected organism 4) Air-borne TB transmission 40. Endogenous reinfection is: 1) activation of TB focus in the setting of latent TB process 2) occurrence of TB foci in internal organs due to exogenous mycobacterial invasion 3) activation of TB focus in the setting of latent TB due to newly acquired TB infection 4) reversion of L-form of M. tuberculosis 10 41. Distribution of tuberculosis infection in disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis can be by all routes except for: 1) hematogenous 2) lymphogenous 3) bronchogenic 4) lympho-hematogenous 42. In case of hematogenous disseminated pulmonary TB the process is localized in: 1) arterioles 2) venules 3) capillaries 4) arteries 43. The typical size of the pulmonary foci in case of Miliary TB is: 1) small 2) medium 3) large 4) various 44. Secondary TB is: 1) TB of adults 2) pulmonary TB 3) TB developed in person previously infected with M. tuberculosis 4) TB in persons with SSP 45. Localization of TB process in focal pulmonary TB usually includes all but: 1) one segment of lungs 2) one-two segments of lungs 3) one-two segments of both lungs 4) at least two lobes 46. Infiltrative pulmonary TB is: 1) pulmonary TB with clinical symptoms of pneumonia 2) pulmonary TB characterized by inflammatory changes with predominant exudative component and caseous necrosis 3) acute inflammation in lung tissue 4) limited shadow in lung 47. Clinical form of pulmonary TB which resembles to Chest X-ray features and clinical symptoms of pneumonia is: 1) Focal TB 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Fibrous cavernous TB 4) Pulmonary tuberculomas 48. The main morphological difference between caseous pneumonia and infiltrative tuberculosis is: 1) extensive pulmonary process 2) prevalence of caseous necrosis 3) severe intoxication 4) potential bronchogenic dissemination 49. Pulmonary tuberculomas is characterized by: 1) focus of caseous necrosis of > 10 mm in size surrounded by a zone of specific granulation tissue 11 2) focus of caseous necrosis of >10 mm in size surrounded by connective tissue capsule 3) round shape zone of specific inflammation in lung 4) tuberculous cavity containing a caseous mass 50. Cavernous TB is : 1) an active limited destructive tuberculosis with a cavity 2) a chronic TB process characterized by isolated cavity with fibrous wall in ling 3) a zone of caseous necrosis with perifocal inflammation 4) acute cavity in a new case of TB 51. Most virulent Mycobacteria affecting humans include all but: 1) M. tuberculosis 2) M. bovis 3) M. microti 4) M. africanum 52. M. tuberculosis is a major cause of tuberculosis in humans in: 1) 45% of cases 2) 65% of cases 3) 80% of cases 4) 95% of cases 53. The type of Mycobacteria that does not form primary complex of pulmonary tuberculosis, but is capable of causing mycobacteriosis is: 1) M. tuberculosis 2) M. avium 3) M. africanum 4) M. bovis 54. Growth of M. tuberculosis strains on routine laboratory medium requires: 1) 1-2 days 2) 10-20 days 3) 4-6 weeks 4) 7-8 weeks 55. Ziehl–Neelsen method is based on the following specific capability of M. tuberculosis: 1) susceptibility to sulphuric acid 2) susceptibility to carbol-fuchsine 3) resistance to methylene blue 4) resistance to sulphuric acid 56. Sequence of steps in Ziehl–Neelsen method is … 1) adding of sulphuric acid -> washing off-> carbol-fuchsine-> washing off-> methylene blue 2) adding of methylene blue -> washing off -> sulphuric acid -> washing off-> carbol-fuchsine 3) adding of carbol-fuchsine -> washing off-> sulphuric acid -> washing off-> methylene blue 4) adding of sulphuric acid -> washing off -> methylene blue -> washing off-> carbol-fuchsine 57. Inhalation of aerosol that contains M. tuberculosis is typical for: 1) air-droplet transmission of infection 2) air-dust transmission of infection 3) contact transmission of infection 4) vertical transmission of infection 12 58. Lubeck disaster resulted from accidental infection of 252 infants with Kiel strain, is the evidence of: 1) air-born transmission of infection 2) alimentary transmission of infection 3) contact transmission of infection 4) vertical transmission of infection 59. Tuberculosis in the mesenteric lymph nodes is typical for: 1) air-born transmission of infection 2) contact transmission of infection 3) alimentary transmission of infection 4) vertical transmission of infection 60. High mortality of newborns due to TB within the several days after birth is most common in: 1) air-born transmission of infection 2) contact transmission of infection 3) alimentary transmission of infection 4) vertical transmission of infection 61. The main gate of TB infection to human is: 1) upper airway 2) digestive tract 3) lower respiratory tract 4) skin 62. The distance sufficient for transmission of sputum particles with M. tuberculosis from a TB patient to healthy person is: 1) 1 m 2) 2 m 3) 3 m 4) 5 m 63. Induction of immune response in a non-immunized host corresponds to: 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 64. Proliferation of M. tuberculosis in alveolar macrophages after inhalation of sputum containing particles of SSP corresponds to: 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 65. Engulfment of M. tuberculosis by alveolar macrophages of the non-immunized host corresponds to: 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection 13 5) 5th stage of infection 66. Development of nonnegative response to TST or PPD in host after infection with M. tuberculosis corresponds to: - 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 67. Reactivation of TB focus in lung tissue and development of caseous necrosis that results in formation of a cavity corresponds to: 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 68. Expectoration of M. tuberculosis-containing sputum and subsequent infection of another person corresponds to: 1) 1st stage of infection 2) 2nd stage of infection 3) 3rd stage of infection 4) 4th stage of infection 5) 5th stage of infection 69. TB inflammation is based on: 1) Immediate-type hypersensitivity 2) Delayed-type hypersensitivity 3) Late-type hypersensitivity 4) Idiosyncrasy 70. Latent tuberculosis infection is an infectious process characterized by: 1) the presence of virulent M. tuberculosis in the host without clinical symptoms and CXR changes 2) early clinical manifestations of TB 3) typical changes of TB on CXR without clinical symptoms 4) (+) PPD along with (-) IGRA-test Chapter 3. Epidemiology of TB 1. Infection is an epidemiological parameter which is defined as: 1) % patients with CXR(+) changes 2) % persons with post-BCG allergy 3) % of persons with hyperergic reaction to PPD 4) % of persons with nonnegative response to PPD, excluding post BCG allergic reaction 2. Incidence rate of TB is defined as: 1) % of new cases of active TB (events) occurring in a sample population over a certain period of time 2) a number of new cases of active TB (events) occurring in a sample population over a certain period of time (per 100 000 of population) 3) % of sputum-smear positive patients (SSP) identified over a certain period of time 4) a number of active TB patients in a general population 14 3. Prevalence of tuberculosis is defined as: 1) % of new cases of TB occurring in a sample population over a certain period of time 2) % of sputum-smear positive patients (SSP) identified over a certain period of time 3) a number of patients with active form of TB in a population at the end of the year per 100 000 population 4) a number of patients with active TB within general population expressed in % 4. A cumulative morbidity of tuberculosis is closely related to: 1) TB infection 2) prevalence of TB 3) incidence rate of TB 4) coverage of population with fluorography 5. Persons infected with TB are defined as: 1) carriers of M. tuberculosis without clinical manifestation and active TB changes in organs and tissues 2) all TST(+) patients 3) all patients with post TB changes on Chest X-ray 4) all IGRA(+) patients 6. Most typical for active respiratory TB is: 1) TST(+) 2) IGRA(+) 3) symptoms of TB 4) Chest X-ray (+) and/or SSP 7. The high incidence rate of TB corresponds to : 1) less than 30 new cases of TB per 100.000 population 2) 30-60 new cases of TB per 100.000 population 3) 60-90 new cases of TB per 100.000 population 4) more than 100 new cases of TB per 100.000 population 8. The number of individuals infected with M. tuberculosis in high TB burden countries is: 1) < 10% of general population 2) ~1/3 of general population 3) ~2/3 of general population 4) more than 90% of general population 9. One untreated sputum smear positive patient may annually infect: 1) 50 healthy persons 2) 20 healthy persons 3) 5-10 healthy persons 4) 1-3 healthy persons 10. The notified incidence of TB in India in the last 5 years corresponds to: 1) 40-60 new cases per 100.000 population 2) 80-100 new cases per 100.000 population 3) 100-150 new cases per 100.000 population 3) >200 new cases per 100.000 population 11. % of HIV-associated active TB cases in South Africa in the last 5 years corresponds to: 1) 1-5 2) 6-20 15 3) 25-50 4) more than 50 12. The share of deaths due to TB in overall mortality of HIV patients corresponds to: 1) 5-10% 2) 20-30% 3) 40-50% 4) more than 50% 13. In 2014 the number of deaths caused by TB worldwide was: 1) 0,5 million 2) 1,0 million 3) 1,5 million 4) 3 million 14. In 2014 the number of new cases of TB worldwide was: 1) 5,1 million 2) 8,3 million 3) 9,6 million 4) 10,5 million 15. In the overall mortality due to infectious diseases, TB as a cause of death is ranked: 1) 1st 2) 5th 3) 6th 4) 8th 16. The Notified incidence of TB in Republic of Tatarstan in 2016 was: 1) ~150 new cases per 100.000 population 2) ~100 new cases per 100.000 population 3) ~80 new cases per 100.000 population 4) ~40 new cases per 100.000 population 17. India, as high TB burden country of TB is responsible for: 1) ~10% of all new cases of TB worldwide 2) ~20% of all new cases of TB worldwide 3) ~30% of all new cases of TB worldwide 4) ~40% of all new cases of TB worldwide 18. Maximal morbidity of TB in Russia Federation was registered in: 1) 1991 2) 2000 3) 2008 4) 2014 19. The amount of healthy individuals infected with M. tuberculosis worldwide accounts for: 1) ~1/10 of population 2) ~1/3 of population 3) ~1/2 of population 4) more than 90% of population 20. The amount of HIV-positive individuals among patients with active TB in South African countries accounts for: 1) 5-10% 16 2) 10-30% 3) 40-50% 4) more than 50% 21. The estimated lifetime probability of developing TB in an HIV-positive patient is: 1) ~5-10% 2) ~10-20% 3) ~ 50% 4) more than 60% 22. A patient never treated for TB or with a less than 1 month duration of antituberculous therapy falls into a category of: 1) chronic TB 2) relapse of TB 3) new case of TB 4) active form of TB 23. A patient previously treated for TB who has been declared cured or completed his therapy, and was diagnosed with bacteriologically positive (smear or culture) TB belongs to: 1) new case of TB 2) relapse of TB 3) chronic case of TB 4) active form of TB 24. In the High TB burden countries, the type of TB in adults in most of the cases is: 1) primary TB 2) secondary TB 3) chronic TB 4) relapse 25. In the High TB burden countries, the most frequent TB form in children & teenagers is: 1) primary TB 2) secondary TB 3) chronic TB 4) relapse of TB 26. Detection of active TB based on TST results is typical for: 1) 0-14 years age group 2) 15-17 years age group 3) 25-40 years age group 4) 55 and older age group 27. TB meningitis morbidity in children in Russia at the moment is: 1) 60 per 100.000 children 2) 10-15 per 100.000 children 3) 1-2 per 100.000 children 4) less 10 cases 28. In Russia TB of prisoners covers … 1) 2-3% of all new TB cases 2) 10-12% of all new TB cases 3) 15-20% of all new TB cases 4) 20-25% of all new TB cases 17 29. Relapse of TB in Russia covers … 1) 2-3% of all new TB cases 2) 10-12% of all new TB cases 3) 15-20% of all new TB cases 4) 20-25% of all new TB cases 30. MDR-TB in Russia accounts for: 1) 2-3% of all new TB cases 2) 10-15% of all new TB cases 3) 20-25% of all new TB cases 4) 30-35% of all new TB cases Chapter 4. Diagnosis of TB 1. The most specific attribute of cough in case of active TB diagnosis is … 1) appearance early in the morning 2) on exertion 3) unknown reason and duration more than 2-3 weeks 4) connection with cigarette smoking 2. The most typical symptom of TB in comparison to other lung disease is 1) dry or productive cough 2) high temperature 3) weight loss 4) dyspnea 3. The most obvious clinical symptom which corresponds to necrotic process in lung tissue is … 1) heavy intoxication 2) dyspnea 3) fever 4) hemoptysis (cough with blood) 4. Antibiotic with most high level of activity against M. tuberculosis belongs to … 1) aminopenicillins 2) fluoroquinolones 3) cephalosporins 4) macrolides 5. For the differential diagnostics of TB with Pneumonia most important is … 1) level of temperature 2) level of leukocytosis 3) onset of disease 4) effect of antibiotics 6. In comparison to Pneumonia most typical for TB is 1) acute onset 2) gradual onset 3) asymptomatic onset 4) 2 and 3 7. The onset of respiratory TB mostly depends on … 1) clinical form of TB 2) gender 18 3) age 4) localization of TB 8. In case of combination of cough and fever as symptoms of TB it’s necessary to make differential diagnosis first of all with … 1) HIV 2) tumor of lung 3) flu 4) COPD 9. Most fast method of verification of respiratory TB is … 1) clinical diagnostics 2) culture method 3) microscopy of sputum 4) fluorography 10. Most common method of active diagnosis of TB in children is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Ziehl-Neelsen 3) Tuberculin skin test (TST) 4) blood investigation 11. Ratio between active and non active case-detection of TB is approximately … 1) 2 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 3 12. In the last decades, one of a new and most powerful factors of increasing TB morbidity was … 1) diabetes mellitus 2) peptic ulcer 3) COPD 4) HIV 13. Detection of new TB case by fluorography in combination with good general condition is most typical for … 1) TB pleurisy 2) infiltrative TB 3) disseminated TB 4) focal TB 14. Detection of new TB case on the basis of symptoms (temperature, cough, night sweats) and heavy general condition most typical for … 1) TB pleurisy 2) caseous pneumonia 3) disseminated TB 4) focal TB 15. For TB pleurisy most typical is … 1) isolated character 2) perifocal character 3) neutrophil exudate 4) old age 19 16. For the differential diagnosis TB with pneumonia most typical is … 1) acute onset 2) infiltration in upper lobe of lung 3) rales in lungs 4) absence of positive effect to broad spectrum antibiotics 17. One of the most important signs, that should raise suspicion of possible TB … 1) cough is productive 2) onset is acute 3) symptoms are developing gradually over the weeks or months 4) temperature is febrile and wave form 18. Main method of active diagnosis of TB in children in Russia is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Zeihl-Neelsen 3) PCR 4) TST 19. Main method of active diagnosis of TB in adults in India is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Zeihl-Neelsen 3) PCR 4) TST 20. Main method of active diagnosis of TB in adults in Russia is 1) fluorography 2) sputum investigation by Zeihl-Neelsen 3) PCR 4) TST 21. Most high probability that patient is sputum-smear positive is … 1) hemoptysis 2) infiltrative TB of upper lobe 3) acute onset of TB 4) heavy intoxication 22. Most high probability that patient is sputum-smear positive is … 1) TB pleurisy 2) infiltrative TB 3) tuberculomas of lung 4) caseous pneumonia 23. Absence of symptoms and detection by fluorography is most typical for … 1) Infiltrative TB 2) Caseous pneumonia 3) Tuberculomas of lung 4) Disseminated TB 24. Development of TB during at least 2 years is most important for the diagnosis of … 1) Infiltrative TB 2) Caseous pneumonia 3) Tuberculomas of lung 4) Fibrous cavernous TB 20 n 25. Clinical form of TB which looks like pneumonia is … 1) Infiltrative TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Tuberculomas of lung 4) Fibrous cavernous TB 26. Chest pain in combination with dyspnea, cough, fever is most typical for … 1) Caseous pneumonia 2) Infiltrative TB 3) TB pleurisy 4) Tuberculomas of lung 27. Weight loss as a symptom of TB on the moment of detection a new case of TB tells about … 1) acute onset of disease 2) gradual onset of disease 3) asymptomatic onset of disease 4) not typical for TB 28. For cough as a symptom of TB is most typical … 1) connection with smoking 2) connection with dyspnea 3) duration for 2-3 weeks 4) dry character 29. Between different symptoms of TB in comparison to other lung disease the most typical is … 1) fever 2) cough 3) night sweating 3) dyspnea 30. What group of antibiotics between recommended for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia makes the detection of M. tuberculosis in sputum more difficult ? 1) aminopenicillins 2) fluoroquinolones 3) cephalosporins 4) macrolides 31. For the diagnosis of sputum smear negative TB in anamnesis is most typical … 1) dry cough 2) acute onset 3) upper localization of process in lung 4) lack of response to a trial of broad spectrum antimicrobial agents 32. For which clinical form of TB symptoms are not typical: 1) Focal TB 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB 4) Fibrous cavernous TB 33. For cough as a symptom of TB is most typical … 1) connection with smoking 2) connection with dyspnea 3) hemoptysis 21 4) dry character 34. The symptoms of TB patient … 1) are specific for this disease and make it possible to make differential diagnosis 2) have some features of specificity that makes it possible to suspect TB 3) are nonspecific and can’t be used for suggestion of TB 4) are not informative for the detection of TB 35. The only way to confirm TB in everyone who had a cough for more than 3 weeks is … 1) blood investigation 2) Chest X-ray 3) sputum examination for M. tuberculosis at least 3 times 4) PPD 36. For bronchiectasis most typical is … 1) connection with Tobaco smoking 2) chronic cough with purulent sputum since childhood 3) connection with allergens 4) connection with occupational dust 37. One of the most important point of TB anamnesis is … 1) acute character of symptoms 2) seasonal character 3) developing gradually over weeks or months 4) connection with age 38. Dyspnea as early symptom of TB in most of cases is due to all reasons but … 1) an extensive TB process in lung tissue 2) pleural effusion 3) COPD in anamnesis 4) congestive heart failure 39. For the general condition of TB patient most typical is … 1) good health despite long duration of disease 2) acute progression 3) fast development of cachexia 4) connection with age of patient 40. Most common signs of TB at auscultation of chest is … 1) crepitation in upper lobe 2) absence of abnormal signs 3) wheezing 4) sound shortening in low parts of lungs 41. Correlation between presence of cavity on Chest X-ray and SSP is … 1) 20-30% 2) 40-50% 3) 60-70% 4 80-100% 22 Chapter 5. Tuberculin Skin test 1. Tuberculin was first extracted from strain of M. tuberculosis by … 1) Perquet 2) Geren 3) C. Mantoux 4) R. Koch 2. TST is method for … 1) verification of primary TB 2) detection of specific sensitivity caused by M. tuberculosis or BCG vaccine 3) induction of antituberculous immunity 4) verification of secondary TB 3. Tuberculin was first proposed for clinical practice by … 1) Perquet 2) Geren 3) C. Mantoux 4) R. Koch 4. Tuberculin is … 1) water-glycerin extraction from culture of M. tuberculosis 2) water-glycerin extraction from culture of M. bovis 3) water-glycerin extraction from culture of M. BCG 4) recombinant proteins produces by Escherichia coli BL21(DE3)/pCFP-ESAT 5. Chemical structure of Diaskintest consists of … 1) water-glycerin extraction from culture of M. tuberculosis 2) water-glycerin extraction from culture of mycobacterium BCG 3) recombinant proteins produces by M. bovis 4) recombinant proteins produces by Escherichia coli BL21(DE3)/pCFP-ESAT 6. The main thermo-stable component of Tuberculin is 1) antigen Cord-factor 2) antigen A60 3) antigen CFP10 4) antigen ESAT6 7. Tuberculin as hapten (incomplete antigen) … 1) is capable to produce antituberculous immunity 2) is capable to produce sensibilization to M. tuberculosis 3) can’t produce antituberculous immunity & sensibilization to M. tuberculosis 4) is capable to produce antituberculous immunity only in high doses 8. Tuberculin as allergen … 1) is capable to produce sensibilization to M. tuberculosis 2) is capable to produce antituberculous immunity 3) can produce skin reaction after 2-3 hours of injection 4) can produce skin reaction in infected with M. tuberculosis person 9. After contamination with M. tuberculosis host body can react to injection of Tuberculin … 1) after 2-3 hour 2) after 2-3 days 23 3) after 2-3 weeks 4) after 6-8 weeks 10. The basis of skin response to injection of Tuberculin is … 1) immediate type of hypersensitivity 2) delayed type of hypersensitivity 3) late type of hypersensitivity 4) idiosyncrasy 11. Most common indication for TST is … 1) detection of TB in adults 2) estimation of number of infected with TB person in general population 3) detection of primary TB infection 4) detection of secondary TB infection 12. TST for the active diagnosis of TB is conducted In Russia … 1) annually up to 15 2) annually up to 7 3) every 6 mo 4) in case of TB suspicion 13. 0,1 ml of PPD-S includes …. 1) 1 TE 2) 2 TE 3) 5 TE 4) 8 TE 14. 0,1 ml of PPD-L includes …. 1) 1 TE 2) 2 TE 3) 5 TE 4) 8 TE 15. The name of first drug form of Tuberculin is … 1) purified protein derivative 2) Koch’s Alt-tuberculin 3) liquid form of tubercular allergen purified in standard solution 4) dry purified Tuberculin 16. The WHO and the International Union Against Tuberculosis and Lung Disease recommend using … 1) PPD-L 2) PPD-S 3) Koch’s alt-tuberculin 4) PPD-RT23 17.Way of injection of PPD is … 1) intracutaneously 2) subcutaneously 3) intramuscularly 4) intravenously 24 18. Only hyperemia as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction 4) hyperergic reaction 19. Infiltrate of skin 8 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction 4) hyperergic reaction 20. Infiltrate of skin 4 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction 4) hyperergic reaction 21. Infiltrate of skin 15 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction 4) hyperergic reaction 22. Infiltrate of skin 18 mm in size as response to TST is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction 4) hyperergic reaction 23. Pustule on the surface of skin after injection of PPD is … 1) negative reaction 2) doubtful reaction 3) positive reaction 4) hyperergic reaction 24. Infiltrate of skin 10 mm in size as response to TST in BCG vaccinated 1 year child most probably tells about … 1) conversion of TST 2) primary TB infection 3) postvaccination allergy 4) nonspecific allergy 25. Infiltrate of skin 10 mm in size as response to TST in BCG vaccinated 5 year child most probably tells about … 1) conversion of TST 2) primary TB infection 3) postvaccination allergy 4) nonspecific allergy 26. Infiltrate of skin 7 mm in size after negative previous year as response to TST in BCG vaccinated 5 year child most probably tells about … 1) conversion of TST 25 2) primary TB infection 3) postvaccination allergy 4) nonspecific allergy 27. Pustule on skin after injection of PPD in BCG vaccinated 3 year child tells about … 1) conversion of TST 2) primary TB infection 3) postvaccination allergy 4) nonspecific allergy 28. Response to TST in HIV associated with TB patient … 1) in most of cases will be negative 2) in most of cases will be positive 3) depends on number CD4+ lymphocytes in blood 4) depends on duration of HIV-infection 29. Contraindication for the TST is … 1) M. tuberculosis infection in past 2) active TB 3) HIV-infection 4) Bronchial Asthma 30. False-positive response to TST is expected in case of … 1) Sarcoidosis of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 2) Psoriasis 3) HIV-infection 4) Caseous pneumonia 31. False-negative response to TST is expected in case of … 1) Sarcoidosis of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 2) Pneumonia 3) Silicosis 4) TB pleurisy 32. Contraindication for the TST is … 1) M. tuberculosis infection in past 2) active tuberculosis 3) HIV-infection 4) quarantine of child infection within 1 mo 33. Indication for IGRA test is all but 1) differential diagnosis of TB and other lung disease 2) detection of primary infection 3) detection of postvaccination allergy 4) detection of latent TB infection 34. Injection of Diaskintest in child undergone TB is … 1) out of sense because of TB in past 2) indicated for estimation of TB activity 3) indicated for detection of primary TB infection 4) indicated for detection of postvaccination allergy 26 35. Negative response to Diaskintest after 6 mo of chemotherapy in case of active TB tells about … 1) effective course of chemotherapy 2) immunosuppression 3) false-negative response 4) sterilization of organism from M. tuberculosis 36. Diaskintest in contrast with TST 1) can’t detect primary infection 2) can react in case of immunosuppresion 3) can detect postvaccination allergy 4) can’t detect secondary TB 37. Growing reaction to PPD in child 3 years old after TST conversion … 1) is indication for total examination for active TB 2) is routine response and doesn’t need anything to do 3) needs Diaskintest for detection of primary infection 4) needs to repeat TST 2 mo later 38. Tactics for diagnosis of TB infection in case of Bronchial Asthma consists in … 1) supervision only 2) conduction of TST 3) conduction of IGRA-test 4) direction of a patient to Chest X-ray 39. Latent TB infection (LTBI) can be diagnosed on the basis of … 1) sputum investigation for M. tuberculosis 2) Chest X-ray 3) IGRA-test 4) TST 40. Routine schema of chemoprophylaxis of LTBI consists of … 1) 2-3 mo of Isoniazide daily 2) 4 mo of Isoniazide daily 3) 6 mo of Isoniazide daily 4) 9 mo of Isoniazide daily 41. Schema of chemoprophylaxis of LTBI of HIV-patient consists of … 1) 2-3 mo of Isoniazide daily 2) 4 mo of Isoniazide daily 3) 6 mo of Isoniazide daily 4) 9 mo of Isoniazide daily 42. Selection of contingents for BCG-revaccination based on … 1) Diaskintest 2) IGRA-test 3) TST 4) Koch’s test 43. Indication for BCG-revaccination is 1) negative TST at age of 7 2) doubtful TST at age of 7 3) positive response to Diaskintest 4) negative response to Diaskintest 27 44. Most common indication for Diaskintest in child is … 1) age of 5 2) cough for 2-3 weeks 3) age of 10 4) HIV-infection 45. Features of post-vaccination allergy are all but … 1) annual decrease in size of infiltration 2) non-hyperergic response 3) maximal manifestation after 1-1,5 years of BCG 4) increase to more than 6 mm in contrast to previous 46. Conversion of TST is 1) hyperergic response to TST 2) detected for the first time positive response to TST after previous negative 3) size of skin infiltration 11 mm 4) appearance of pustule on the surface of skin 47. Signs of primary infection on the basis of TST are all but … 1) hyperergic response to TST 2) positive response to TST detected for the first time after previous negative 3) maximal size of skin infiltration after 1st year of BCG-vaccination 4) appearance of pustule on the surface of skin 48. Infiltration 10 mm in size to TST and 12 mm to Diaskintest in 5 year child with changes in root of lung on CXR and HRCT tells about … 1) primary TB infection only 2) high probability of TB in Intrathoracic lymph nodes 3) high probability of Hodgkin disease 4) high probability of Sarcoidosis in lymph nodes 49. Features of LTBI are all but … 1) changes on CXR similar to TB 2) positive TST 3) positive IGRA-test 4) sputum smear negative 50. Skin infiltrate in size of 2-4 mm or only hyperemia of any size after TST corresponds to …. 1) positive response 2) doubtful response 3) hyperergic response 4) negative response to 51. Skin infiltrate more than 5 mm and less than 15 mm in size after TST corresponds to …. 1) positive response 2) doubtful response 3) hyperergic response 4) negative response to 52. False negative response to TST can be detected in all cases except … 1) healthy not infected patient 2) heavy disseminated TB 3) Hodgkin disease 28 4) HIV-infection 53. False positive response to TST can be detected in all cases except … 1) allergic disease 2) vaccination against measles 3) 1 year after BCG-vaccination 4) psoriasis 54. False positive response to TST can be detected in case of … 1) conversion of TST 2) atopic dermatitis 3) 1 year after BCG-vaccination 4) infiltrative TB 55. After an injection of PPD an estimation of Mantoux reaction carries out … 1) 1 hour later 2) 12 hour later 3) 24 hour later 4) 48-72 hour later 56. An estimation of TST result based on measurement all except of… 1) skin itching 2) skin hyperemia 3) skin infiltration 4) pustule of skin 57. IGRA test based on excretion of gamma-interferon by … 1) dendritic cells 2) alveolar macrophages 3) CD4+ lymphocytes 4) B-lymphocytes Chapter 6. Microbiology of TB 1. Multi-drug resistance of M. tuberculosis is … 1) resistance to Isoniazid & Streptomycin 2) resistance to Isoniazid & Riphampicin 3) resistance to Isoniazid & Fluoroquinolones 4) resistance to Riphampicin & Streptomycin 2. Extremely-drug resistance of M. tuberculosis is … 1) MDR plus resistance to Streptomycin 2) MDR plus resistance to Fluoroquinolones 3) MDR plus resistance to Ethambutol 4) MDR plus resistance to Fluoroquinolones & Aminoglycosides 3. Most fast diagnostics of MDR based on … 1) BACTEC 2) culture method 3) PCR-diagnostics 4) microscopy of sputum 29 4. Growth of M.tubeculosis on Lowenstein-Jensen media is expecting in average after … 1) 1 weeks 2) 2-3 weeks 3) 4-6 weeks 4) 8-10 weeks 5. Culture method of diagnostics based on … 1) visual identification of M. tuberculosis 2) identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M. tuberculosis DNA 4) identification of M. tuberculosis metabolism level 6. Culture method of diagnostics based on … 1) visual identification of M. tuberculosis 2) visual identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M. tuberculosis DNA 4) identification of M. tuberculosis metabolism level 7. Microscopy method of diagnostics based on … 1) visual identification of M. tuberculosis 2) visual identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M. tuberculosis DNA 4) identification of M. tuberculosis metabolism level 8. BACTEC based on … 1) visual identification of M. tuberculosis 2) visual identification of a colony growth 3) identification of M. tuberculosis DNA 4) identification of M. tuberculosis metabolism level 9. Fluorescence phenomenon is used in … 1) PCR diagnostics 2) BACTEC 3) Lowenstein-Jensen media 4) routine microscopy of sputum 10. The most clinical value for negative prognosis the detection of M. tuberculosis has in case of … 1) microscopy investigation 2) BACTEC 3) culture method 4) PCR 11. The main disadvantage of microscopy for the beginning of treatment is … 1) low sensitivity 2) long time of procedure 3) inability of identification drug susceptibility 4) low specificity 12. The method of using the bronchial washing increases results of culture investigation of … 1) 5-8% 2) 10-20% 3)25-30% 4) 40-50% 30 13. The most simplest way to increase sensitivity of microscopy is … 1) to use more than one microbiologist 2) to use at least 3 samples of sputum 3) to use gastric washings 4) to use induction of sputum 14. Instillation of 15-20 ml of saline solution into trachea is named as … 1) broncho-alveolar lavage 2) induction of sputum 3) bronchial washings 4) laryngeal washings 15. Acid-fast feature of M. tuberculosis based on … 1) presence of cord-factor 2) mycolic acids of the cell capsule 3) CFP10 peptide 4) slow duplication 16. The cell capsule of M. tuberculosis includes … 1) 5% of lipids 2) 10% of lipids 3) 20% of lipids 4) 60% of lipids 17. At the Zeihl-Neelsen stain M. tuberculosis look like … 1) gray on the blue background 2) red on the blue background 3) blue on the red background 4) bright yellow on the blue background 18. BACTEC in comparison to culture method has it’s advantage due to … 1) use of the Middlebrook media 2) automatic system of control 3) detection of early signs of M. tuberculosis metabolism 4) special settings of cultivation 19. The most fast diagnostics of drug resistance maybe reached by … 1) use of Middlebrook media in BACTEC 2) PCR diagnostics 3) use of MGIT (mycobacterium growth indicator tube) 4) IFA-diagnostics 20. Number of SSP in new cases of TB in Russia is approximately … 1) 35-40% 2) 50-55% 3) 60-65% 4) 75-80% 21. The greatest number of SSP is typical for … 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 3) Infiltrative TB 4) TB pleurisy 31 22. Denaturation is a phase of … 1) preparation of sputum for microscopy 2) preparation of sputum for culture 3) first step of PCR 4) second step of PCR 23. The most sensitive method of identification of M. tuberculosis is … 1) microscopy of sputum 2) culture method 3) automated system BACTEC 4) PCR diagnostics 24. The reason of drug-resistant mutant selection is … 1) inadequate treatment 2) spontaneous resistance 3) presence of wild strains 4) late diagnostics of TB 25. The reason of primary resistance is … 1) inadequate treatment for more than 1 mo 2) long exposure with MDR-TB patient 3) late diagnostics of TB 4) chronic curse of TB 26. The reason of secondary resistance is … 1) inadequate treatment for more than 1 mo 2) long exposure with MDR-TB patient 3) late diagnostics of TB 4) chronic curse of TB 27. Polyresistance of M. tuberculosis is … 1) resistance to Isoniazid & Riphampicin 2) resistance to two or more anti-tuberculosis drugs without resistance to Isoniazid & Rifampicin 3) resistance to Fluoroquinolones & Streptomycin 4) resistance to Ethambutol & Streptomycin 28. Number of new case of TB with MDR in Russia is … 1) 3-5% 2) 6-10% 3) 15-20% 4) 20-25% 29. Successful treatment of new case of TB during initial faze of chemotherapy is limited by … 1) slow growth of M. tuberculosis on culture medium (1-1,5 mo) 2) high frequency of adverse reaction to antiTB drugs 3) slow involution of changes on Chest X-ray 4) slow inverse dynamics of symptoms 30. Genetic mutants of M. tuberculosis with resistance to antiTB drugs can be detected by … 1) BACTEC 960 2) immunosorbent assay 3) PCR 4) use of special media 32 31. Acquired (secondary) resistance of M. tuberculosis is: 1) drug resistance developed during treatment of TB 2) drug resistance, which is revealed among mycobacterium, produced from the patient who has never takes anti-tubercular preparations 3) infection with resistant strain of M. tuberculosis 4) acquired from relapses 32. During treatment with single or combination of inadequately chosen anti-tuberculous drugs, resistance of M. tuberculosis can be developed in: 1) 2-3 weeks 2) 2-3 months 3) 4-6 months 3) in one year 33. MDR-TB increases course of antituberculous treatment up to … 1) 4-8 mo 2) 8-10 mo 3) 12-14 mo 4) 18-24 mo Chapter 7. Chest X-ray of TB 1. Favorite localization of secondary TB is 1) S 1-2-6 2) S 9-10 3) S 3-4 4) S 8 2. Favorite localization of primary TB is 1) upper lobe 2) low lobe 3) middle lobe 4) root of lung 3. Radiologic method which gives possibility to estimate internal structure of shadow is … 1) anterior-posterior Chest X-ray 2) fluorography 3) tomography 4) Chest X-ray in lateral view 4. X-ray examination in case of respiratory diseases should begin with … 1) fluorography with anterior-posterior and lateral view 2) radioscopy in various projections 3) Chest X-ray in anterior-posterior and lateral projections 4) tomography of lungs in anterior-posterior and lateral projections 5. For estimation of Chest X-ray film rigidity it is necessary … 1) to compare intensity of shadow and ribs 2) to measure distance between clavicles 3) to look at the position of scapulae 4) to look at the fissures between Th1-Th4 33 6. Position of S1 on anterior-posterior view of Chest X-ray corresponds to … 1) so called «student’s caverns» 2) second intercostal space 3) lateral sinuses 4) medial corner 7. On normal Chest X-ray upper level of diaphragm in healthy person corresponds to … 1) 4-th rib 2) 5-th rib 3) 6-th rib 4) 7-th rib 8. Segments with predominant projection on back surface are … 1) S 3, 4, 5 2) S 8 3) S 2, 6, 8 4) S 1 9. Normally position of root lung body is … 1) 1st intercostal space – 3-th rib 2) 3rd intercostal space – 5-th rib 3) 2nd intercostal space – 4-th rib 4) 2nd-4th rib 10. Root of lung has normally … 1) round shape 2) cylindrical form of body 3) butterfly shape 4) polygonal form head 11. The name of upper part of lung root is … 1) «body» 2) «tail» 3) «head» 4) «neck» 12. Low branches of pulmonary artery form a … 1) «body» of lung root 2) «tail» of lung root 3) «head» of lung root 4) «neck» of lung root 13. The Middle lobe of right lung consists of … 1) S2, S3 2) S3, S4 3) S4, S5 5) S6, S5 14. Part of pulmonary artery by which it exits out of mediastinum is … 1) «body» 2) «tail» 3) «head» 4) «neck» 34 15. On lateral view the point which defines projection of main fissure is … 1) bifurcation of trachea 2) main bronchus 3) 5th rib 4) 6th rib 16. Low-lateral position on Chest X-ray has … 1) S2 2) S6 3) S8 4) S10 17. Position in front of lung root on anterior-posterior view of Chest X-ray has … 1) S2 2) S6 3) S8 4) S10 18. Shadow with size less than 1,5 cm is … 1) round shape shadow 2) diffuse shadow 3) limited shadow 4) focus 19. Shadow with size more than 1,5 cm and less than 2/3 of lung field is … 1) round shape shadow 2) diffuse shadow 3) limited shadow 4) focus 20. Shadow with size more than 2/3 of lung field is … 1) round shape shadow 2) diffuse shadow 3) limited shadow 4) focus 21. A lot of foci within two intercostal spaces is … 1) dissemination 2) group of foci 3) node 4) local shadow 22. A lot of foci which occupy more than two intercostal spaces is … 1) dissemination 2) group of foci 3) node 4) local shadow 23. Shadow with density equals to low border of posterior rib has … 1) middle intensity 2) low intensity 3) high intensity 4) very high intensity 35 24. Calcification on Chest X-ray has … 1) middle intensity 2) low intensity 3) high intensity 4) very low intensity 25. Infiltrate on Chest X-ray in most of cases has … 1) middle intensity 2) low intensity 3) high intensity 4) very low intensity 26. Section of tomography which goes throw the hilar of lung is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section 4) lateral section 27. Section of tomography which goes throw the third segments is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section 4) lateral section 28. Section of tomography which goes throw the sixth segments is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section 4) lateral section 29. Section of tomography which goes throw the eight segments is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section 4) lateral section 30. Section of tomography on which only lateral parts of ribs are seen is … 1) anterior section 2) posterior section 3) middle section 4) lateral section 31. Limited shadow in S1, S2 with size 5 10 cm heterogeneous low density with nonprecise border and lucency in the center corresponds to …. 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Disseminated TB 32. Round shape shadow in S2 with size 2 cm homogeneous middle density with precise border corresponds to …. 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 36 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Disseminated TB 33. Group of foci with size less than 1 cm in S1-2 of lung with nonprecise border low density corresponds to … 1) Focal TB 2) Primary TB complex 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Disseminated TB 34. Both side dissemination in all parts of lung with size of foci 1-2 mm corresponds to … 1) Disseminated TB 2) Focal TB 3) Miliary TB 4) Tuberculomas o lung 35. Limited homogeneous shadow low density with nonprecise oblique border and localization in costa-diaphragmatic angle corresponds to … 1) Caseous pneumonia 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Disseminated TB 36. Diffuse heterogeneous, middle density shadow within whole lung with a few giant caverns more than 5 cm in size and dissemination into ipsilateral lung corresponds to … 1) Caseous pneumonia 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Disseminated TB 37. Combination of changes in root of lung, infiltrate 2-3 cm in diameter and connection between the root and infiltrate corresponds to …. 1) TB of Intrathoracic Lymph nodes 2) Primary TB complex 3) TB intoxication of children and teenagers 4) Infiltrative TB 38. Apneumatosis with shift of mediastinum to same side is typical for … 1) Disseminated TB 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 39. Diffuse homogeneous shadow in lateral sinus with shift of mediastinum to contrlateral side is typical for … 1) Disseminated TB 2) TB pleurisy 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 37 Chapter 8. Clinical forms of TB 1. The modern classification of tuberculosis in Russia is based on: 1) pathogenesis of TB 2) morphological principle 3) clinical and radiological principle 4) clinical and immunological principle 2. Clinically for Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers is characterized by … 1) the complex of functional disorders at early period of Primary TB infection (1 year after conversion of TST) 2) asymptomatic course of disease 3) an intensive progression of TB with involvement of lung tissue 4) changes in root of lung on Chest X-ray 3. Morphologically in the basis of Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers lays … 1) TB process in lung tissue 2) a cavitation in lungs 3) slow TB process in mediastinal lymph nodes 4) TB process in bones 4. For localization of TB process in case of Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers it is necessary to carry out …. 1) Chest X-ray 2) HRCT of Thoracic cage 3) Bronchoscope 4) Diaskintest 5. Verification of Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers based on … 1) Chest X-ray 2) HRCT 3) Positive response to 1-2 mo of chemotherapy 4) Conversion on the basis of TST 6. In Clinical classification of TB in Russia Tuberculous intoxication of children & teenagers was distinguished into a separate group due to …. 1) a special clinical picture 2) features of localization in lungs 3) an absence of visual localization 4) very young age of patient 7. The early stage of TB is all but … 1) infiltration 2) destruction (cavitation) 3) dissemination 4) scarring 8. Stage, which first of all reflects progression of TB is all but … 1) infiltration 2) cavitation 3) resolution 4) calcification 38 9. Stage of TB mostly typical for TB of children is... 1) infiltration 2) cavitation 3) resolution 4) calcification 10. The name of the period from the moment of infection till the manifestation of the disease is known as … 1) immunity induction period 2) incubation period 3) latent TB infection 4) primary infection 11. What is the most typical for uncomplicated primary complex: 1) dry cough 2) hemoptysis 3) chest pains 4) syndrome of intoxication 12. Infiltrate 2-3 cm in size in lung tissue due to primary TB complex Chest X-ray is … 1) Lymphadenitis 2) Lymphangitits 3) Primary affect 4) Path to root 13. The Primary tubercular complex is most often necessary to differentiate with: 1) lung cancer with metastasis in thoracic lymph nodes 2) community equated pneumonia 3) Hodgkin’s disease 4) eosinophilic infiltration 14. Late stage of the Primary tubercular complex is … 1) syndrome of bipolarity 2) pneumonic stage 3) Ghon’s focus 4) resolution 15. Earliest stage of the Primary tubercular complex is … 1) syndrome of bipolarity 2) pneumonic stage 3) Ghon’s focus 4) resolution 16. Discrete character of pulmonary affect and lymphadenitis on Chest X-ray corresponds to… 1) syndrome of bipolarity 2) pneumonic stage 3) Ghon’s focus 4) stage of infiltration 17. Most typical localization of Intrathoracic lymph nodes TB in root of lung is … 1) parartracheal lymph nodes 2) bifurcation 3) bronchopulmonary lymph nodes 39 4) tracheobronchial lymph nodes 18. Expanded root of lung with nonprecise contour in case of TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes corresponds to … 1) tumor like form 2) infiltrative form 3) small forma 4) calcified form 19. Expanded root of lung with precise contour in case of TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes corresponds to … 1) calcified form 2) infiltrative form 3) small forma 4) tumor like form 20. Heterogeneous shadow with indrawn walls and triangle form in low lobe on Chest X-ray in case of Intrathoracic lymph nodes TB corresponds to … 1) stage of infiltration 2) stage of dissemination 3) syndrome of compression 4) syndrome of valve emphysema 21. For Hodgkin’s disease in comparison with TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes is typical all but … 1) intoxication syndrome 2) localization in paratracheal lymph nodes 3) negative TST 4) changes in cervical lymph nodes 22. Most frequent localization of Peripheral lymph node TB is … 1) cervical 2) inguinal 3) axillary 4) mixed 23. Verification of Peripheral lymph node TB base on … 1) microscopy 2) Mantoux test 3) puncture and histological examination 4) culture method 24. Differential diagnosis with Cat scratch syndrome should be made in case of … 1) Infiltrative TB 2) Fibrous-cavernous TB 3) TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 4) Primary TB complex 25. Erythema nodosum as early manifestation of TB is typical for … 1) Infiltrative TB 2) Fibrous-cavernous TB 3) TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 4) Caseous pneumonia 40 26. For the paraspecific reaction due to Primary TB typical all but … 1) hemoptysis 2) dry cough 3) revmatoid Poncet 4) keratitis 27. For the Primary TB in comparison with Secondary most typical is … 1) localization in pleura 2) localization in lung tissue 3) localization in lymph nodes 4) Extrathoracic localization 28. Small calcified stones in root of lung which can be detected on fluorography corresponds to … 1) old foci due to Focal TB 2) old foci due to Disseminated TB 3) residual changes after Primary TB in past 3) active TB of Inthathoracic lymph nodes 29. Identification of M. tuberculosis in sputum for many times in combination to normal Chest X- ray corresponds to … 1) TB of peripheral lymph nodes 2) Latent TB infection 3) Healthy infected in past 4) TB of bronchus 30. In which segments of lungs is focal tuberculosis located: 1) 3, 4 2) 1, 2 3) 5, 6 4) 6, 8, 9 31. The main method of detecting of focal pulmonary tuberculosis in adults is: 1) prophylactic fluorography 2) diagnostic Chest X-ray 3) Mantoux test 4) microscopy investigation of sputum 32. Group of foci within 1-2 segment on Chest X-ray is typical for … 1) Focal TB 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB 4) TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 33. Capability for self-healing is typical for 1) Focal TB 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB 4) TB of Intrathoracic lymph nodes 34. Number of cases of Focal TB which are SSP is … 1) 10-15% 41 2) 20-40% 3) 40-50% 4) 60-70% 35. For Focal TB is most typical … 1) progression of process 2) bronchogenic dissemination 3) cavity formation 4) low frequency of cavity 36. Appearance of new active foci in S1-2 of lung is typical for the … 1) Focal TB fibrous type 2) Focal TB soft type 3) Foci as a residual changes after primary TB 4) Stage of bronchogenic dissemination 37. Exacerbation of old Foci in S1-2 of lung on Chest X-ray is characteristic of … 1) Focal TB fibrous type 2) Focal TB soft type 3) Foci as a residual changes after primary TB 4) Stage of bronchogenic dissemination 38. Reliable sign of active Focal TB is … 1) dry cough for 203 weeks 2) febrile temperature 3) weakness 4) hemoptysis 39. Reliable sign of active Focal TB is … 1) dry cough for 203 weeks 2) febrile temperature 3) positive Diaskintest 4) general weakness 40. Reliable sign of active Focal TB on Chest X-ray is … 1) both side group of foci 2) path to root 3) small cavity 4) polymorphic character 41. The most reliable sign of active Focal TB is …. 1) nonprecise border of foci 2) path to root 3) positive response to chemotherapy 4) polymorphic character 42. Clinics without sharp clinical symptoms, absence of respiratory noises during auscultation more typical for the : 1) Focal pulmonary tuberculosis 2) Infiltrative pulmonary tuberculosis 3) Disseminated pulmonary tuberculosis 4) Fibrous-cavernous pulmonary tuberculosis 42 43. Caseous necrosis in lung morphologically limited by thin fibrotic capsule is typical for the... 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 3) Fibrous-cavernous TB 4) Chronic disseminated TB 44. Round shape mass with size 2-3 cm, well-defined contour in S2, S6 is most typical for the 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 3) Round shape Infiltrative TB 4) Aspegiloma 45. Ball-syndrome (ring shape shadow with mass inside) is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Tuberculomas of lung 3) Round shape Infiltrative TB 4) Aspegilomas of lung 46. Number of cases of Tuberculomas of lung which are SSP is … 1) 10-15% 2) 20-40% 3) 40-50% 4) 60-70% 47. Number of cases of Tuberculomas of lung with cavity in lung is … 1) 10-15% 2) 20-40% 3) 40-50% 4) 60-70% 48. Main method of detecting of Tuberculomas of lung is … 1) by physician on the basis of symptoms 2) actively by fluorography 3) microscopy 4) PCR diagnostics 49. Most frequently Tuberculomas of lungs is outcome of … 1) exacerbation of single TB focus 2) spontaneous but not complete resolution of round shape infiltrate 3) filling of cavity 4) exacerbation of group of foci 50. The indication for the surgical operation of Lung Tuberculomas is … 1) 1-2 cm 2) 3-4 cm 3) destruction 4) nonprecise contour 51. Detecting of small (1-2 cm) Tuberculomas of lung is indication for the.. 1) chemotherapy 2) Diaskintest for the estimation of activity 3) surgical operation 4) supervision during 1-2 mo 43 52. For the Tuberculomas of lung in comparison with Lung Cancer is most important …. 1) localization in upper lobe 2) presence of destruction 3) path to root 4) satellite foci around shadow 53. For the Tuberculomas of lung in comparison with Lung Cancer is most important …. 1) localization in S 1-2-6 2) presence of destruction 3) absence of growth of shadow during last 1-2 years 4) path to root 54. For the diagnosis of progressive course of Lung Tuberculomas the most informative is … 1) Chest X-ray 2) Diaskintest 3) culture investigation 4) HRCT 55. One of the sign of Tuberculomas progression is … 1) big size (more than 4 cm) 2) path to root 3) indefinite contour 4) positive Diaskintest 56. 2-3 cm round shape shadow with not entirely definite border, middle density is typical for … 1) true type of lung Tuberculomas 2) filled cavern 3) infiltrative-pneumonic type of Lung Tuberculomas 4) Focal TB 57. Focal TB within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% 2) 10-15% 3) 20-25% 4) 60-70% 58. Tuberculomas of lung within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% 2) 10-15% 3) 20-25% 4) 60-70% 59. Infiltrative TB of lung within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% 2) 10-15% 3) 20-25% 4) 60-70% 60. Disseminated TB of lung within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 4-5% 2) 10-12% 3) 15-20% 4) 60-70% 44 61. Caseous pneumonia within all new cases of TB covers … 1) 1-2% 2) 10-12% 3) 15-20% 4) 60-70% 62. Clinical form of TB, which on Chest X-ray looks like pneumonia is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 63. Clinical form of TB with predominance of exudative inflammation in lung is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 64. Clinical form of TB for which predominance of productive-proliferative inflammation in lung is most typical is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 65. Clinical form of TB which is result of two not successful courses of chemotherapy is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Fibrous-cavernous TB 66. Clinical form of TB with predominance of caseous necrosis in lung tissue is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Caseous pneumonia 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Focal TB 67. Gradual onset is most typical for the… 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB 4) Focal TB 68. Clinical form of TB for which acute onset is most typical is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB 4) Focal TB 69. Clinical form of TB for which SSP is most typical (most frequent) is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Infiltrative TB 3) Disseminated TB 45 4) Focal TB 70. Clinical form of TB for which progression in case of spontaneous course is most typical is … 1) Tuberculomas of lung 2) Focal TB 3) Disseminated TB 4) Infiltrative TB 71. Round shape shadow 3-5 cm in size, indefinite border, heterogeneous, cavity in center, reversible to chemotherapy is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloudy Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 72. Triangle shape shadow with well-defined low border, heterogeneous with localization along major fissure is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloudy Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 73. Limited shadow more than 5 cm in size, indefinite border, heterogeneous, irregular shape, localization in S2, S6 reversible to chemotherapy is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloudy Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 74. Diffuse shadow within upper or low lobe, indefinite border, heterogeneous, reversible to chemotherapy is … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloudy Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 75. Infiltrate on Chest X-ray with acute onset, symptoms like pneumonia is most typical for the … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloud like Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 76. Infiltrate on Chest X-ray with asymptomatic onset, detecting on Fluorography by active case- finding is most typical for the … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloudy Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 77. For clinical picture of Infiltrative TB most typical is … 1) acute onset, temperature, hemoptysis, loss of weight 2) gradual onset, presentation of symptoms more than 2-3 weeks 3) asymptomatic onset, detecting by fluorography 46 4) dependence on the lesion volume from asymptomatic to acute onset 78. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical all but … 1) acute onset 2) gradual onset 3) asymptomatic onset 4) loss of weight 79. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical … 1) acute onset 2) Infiltrate on Chest X-ray 3) dyspnea 4) loss of weight 80. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical … 1) acute onset 2) Infiltrate on Chest X-ray 3) upper lobe localization 4) absence of crepitations 81. For the Infiltrative TB in case of differential diagnosis with pneumonia is typical … 1) acute onset 2) Infiltrate (consolidation) of Chest X-ray 3) chest pain 4) no effect of broad spectrum antibiotics 82. Most objective sign of Infiltrative TB on Chest X-ray is … 1) localization in S 1-2-6 2) cavity in the center of consolidation 3) pleural effusion 4) no resolution of shadow to broad spectrum antibiotics 83. Most fast differential diagnosis of Infiltrative TB with pneumonia based on … 1) clinical symptoms analysis 2) Chest X-ray changes 3) microscopy of sputum 4) estimation of response to broad spectrum antibiotics 84. Minimal clinical manifestation is most typical for the … 1) Assman’s infiltrate 2) Peristsissuritis 3) Cloud like Infiltrate 4) Lobitis 85. High frequency of SSP is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 86. Fast progression is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 47 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 87. Cachexia is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 88. Expectoration of more than 100 ml of sputum is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 89. Dyspnea is more typical for the … 1) Focal TB 2) Disseminated TB 3) Infiltrative TB 4) Caseous pneumonia 90. For the Caseous pneumonia in comparison to Infiltrative is more typical … 1) both side localization 2) acute onset 3) plural effusion 4) giant cavity or system of a lot of cavities 91. Shift of mediastinum in case of Caseous pneumonia related to … 1) atelectasis of lung due to compression of main bronchus 2) atelectasis of lung due to deficiency of surfactant 3) apneumatosis due expectoration of lung tissue in form of caseous mass 4) pleural effusion 92. Hyperinflated cavity 10-15 cm in size in lung, shift of mediastinum to same side, negative TST is Chest X-ray picture of the … 1) Infiltrative TB of right lung 2) Fibrous-cavernous TB 3) Caseous pneumonia 4) Cavernous TB 93. Localization of foci in case of the Miliary TB is … 1) capillaries 2) venules 3) veins 4) arteriols 94. Both side Dissemination with foci 1-2 mm in size is typical for the … 1) Subacute Disseminated TB 2) Miliary TB 3) Focal TB 4) Lymphogenic disseminated TB 48 95. Both side upper lobe Dissemination is typical for the … 1) Hematogenic Disseminated TB 2) Bronchogenic Disseminated TB 3) Lymphohematogenic Disseminated TB 4) Lymphogenic Disseminated TB 96. One side dissemination with localization of foci on surface of pleura is typical for the … 1) Hematogenic Disseminated TB 2) Bronchogenic Disseminated TB 3) Lymphohematogenic Disseminated TB 4) Lymphogenic Disseminated TB 97. In the basis of bronchogenic Disseminated TB is … 1) Giant cavity in lung due to Infiltrative TB 2) Giant cavity in lung due to Fibrous-cavernous TB 3) TB of bronchus 4) Giant cavity in lung due to Caseous TB 98. Dyspnea, cough, fiver as main manifestation of TB are typical for the … 1) meningeal type of Miliary TB 2) typhoid type of Miliary TB 3) pulmonary type of Miliary TB 4) chronic Disseminated TB 99. Combination of both side Dissemination in lung with Kernig’s sign is due to … 1) meningeal type of Miliary TB 2) typhoid type of Miliary TB 3) pulmonary type of Miliary TB 4) chronic Disseminated TB 100. Dyspnea, fiver in combination with both side Dissemination in lungs is more typical to … 1) Miliary TB 2) subacute hematogenic Disseminated TB 3) chronic Disseminated TB 4) lymphogenic Disseminated TB 101. Cough, loss of weight, weakness, both side dissemination with 8-10 mm size of foci is typical for the … 1) Miliary TB 2) subacute hematogenic Disseminated TB 3) chronic Disseminated TB 4) lymphogenic Disseminated TB 102. In case of combination of both side dissemination in lung and cough, fiver early differential diagnosis should be made with all but … 1) Pneumonia 2) Malignant dissemination 3) Disseminated TB 4) Sarcoidis 103. In case of combination of both side dissemination and both side lymphadenopathy in lung differential diagnosis should be made for the first time with … 1) Pneumonia 49 2) Malignant dissemination 3) Intersticail Lung Fibrosis 4) Sarcoidis 104. Combination of both side Dissemination in lung and impaired consciousness is due to … 1) Meningeal type of Miliary TB 2) Typhoid type of Miliary TB 3) Pulmonary type of Miliary TB 4) Chronic Disseminated TB Chapter 9. Treatment of TB 1. The first medicine was offered for the treatment of TB was … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Steptomycin 4) Ethambutol 2. The author who first proposed collapse therapy for the treatment of TB was … 1) Pirogov 2) Farlanini 3) Waksman 4) Calmette 3. The main factor for choosing of chemotherapy regimen is … 1) resistance of antituberculosis drug 2) presence of cavity in lung tissue 3) expectoration of sputum with M. tuberculosis 4) morphologic changes in lungs 4. Chemotherapy of TB is directed first of all to... 1) prevention of the drug resistance development 2) resolution of process in lung 3) decrease of mortality 4) eradication of M. tuberculosis 5. The principals of DOTS are all but … 1) direct observation of drug consumption 2) duration of antiTB treatment at least 6 months 3) prescribing of treatment on the basis of specific regimens 4) prevention of TB by BCG-vaccination 6. The regimen of chemotherapy includes all but … 1) combination of antiTB drugs 2) periodization of treatment according to stages 3) duration of treatment 4) the choice of dose 7. The name of the second phase of chemotherapy is … 1) intensive 2) continuation 3) completion 4) resolution 50 8. The aims of intensive phase of chemotherapy are all but … 1) stop of M. tuberculosis expectoration with sputum 2) resolution of infiltration 3) choice of treatment 4) prevention of drug resistance development 9. The duration of intensive stage of chemotherapy in new case of TB is … 1) 1 mo 2) 2-3 mo 3) 6-8 mo 4) 10-12 mo 10. 1st standard regimen of chemotherapy is … 1) 2-3 H R/RbZ E 2) 2HRZE/4HR(E) 3) 8 Cm Lfx Z Cs/Trd Pto/Eto PAS 12-18 Lfx Z Cs/Trd Pto/Eto PAS 4) 3 Km/Am[Cm] R/Rb1 Z Lfx [Sfx Mfx] [E] [Pto/Eto] 6 R Z Lfx [Sfx Mfx] [E] [Pto/Eto] 11. Indication for the 1st regimen of chemotherapy is … 1) sputum smear negative TB patients 2) chronic case of TB 3) TB cases with established resistance to H alone or in combination with all drugs but R 4) all SSP patient with established sensitivity to H and R 12. Indication for the 2nd regimen of chemotherapy is … 1) sputum smear negative TB patients 2) TB cases with established resistance to H alone or in combination with all drugs but R 3) all relapses of TB 4) all SSP patient with established sensitivity to H and R 13. Indication for the 3rd regimen of chemotherapy is … 1) sputum smear negative TB patients 2) TB cases with established resistance to H alone or in combination with all drugs but R 3) all relapses of TB 4) all SSP patient with established sensitivity to H and R 14. Indication for the 4th regimen of chemotherapy is … 1) sputum smear negative TB patients 2) TB cases with established resistance to H alone or in combination with all drugs but R 3) resistance to combination of H and R (MDR TB) 4) all SSP patient with established sensitivity to H and R 15. Indication for the 5th regimen of chemotherapy is … 1) resistance to combination of H, R, Fq 2) TB cases with established resistance to H alone or in combination with all drugs but R 3) resistance to combination of H and R (MDR TB) 4) all SSP patient with established sensitivity to H and R 16. The antiTB drug which is no longer used for the treatment of TB due to high frequency of resistance despite of very strong bactericidal affect due is … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Steptomycin 51 4) Ethambutol 17. The first line antiTB drugs are all but … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Ethambutol 4) Kanamicin 18. The first line antiTB drugs are all but … 1) Isoniazid 2) Fluoroquinolones 3) Pyrasinamide 4) Streptomycin 19. The first line antiTB drugs are all but … 1) Etionamide 2) Ethambutol 3) Pyrasinamide 4) Streptomycin 20. An actively growing M. tuberculosis strain in liquefied caseous mass is more sensitive to … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Steptomycin 4) Ethambutol 21. Most active antiTB drug for the intracellular M. tuberculosis is … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Pyrasinamide 4) Ethambutol 22. Use of combination of antiTB drugs in chemotherapy of TB related to … 1) multiplication of action 2) different types of action 3) presence of wild strain of M. tuberculosis inside population with different drug resistance 4) different pH of caseous mass in active TB patients 22. AntiTB drugs with strong bactericidal effect are all but … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Steptomycin 4) Ethambutol 21. Most specific adverse effect of Isoniazid is … 1) loss of vision 2) arthralgia 3) neuropathy 4) hepatotoxicity 22. Most specific adverse effect of Pyrasinamide is … 1) loss of vision 2) anemia 52 3) neuropathy 4) hepatotoxicity 23. Most specific adverse effect of Ethambutol is … 1) loss of vision 2) arthralgia 3) neuropathy 4) hepatotoxicity 24. One of the most specific adverse effect of Rifampicin is … 1) loss of vision 2) disorders of the digestive tract 3) neuropathy 4) flu-syndrome 25. One of the most specific adverse effect of Etionamide is … 1) loss of vision 2) arthralgia 3) neuropathy 4) disorders of the digestive tract 26. One of the most specific adverse effect of Fluoroquinolones is … 1) loss of vision 2) Photodermatitis 3) neuropathy 4) disorders of the digestive tract 27. Red color of the urine is typical to use of … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Steptomycin 4) Ethambutol 28. AntiTB drug with only pareneteral route of administration is … 1) Isoniazid 2) Rifampicin 3) Steptomycin 4) Ethambutol 29. Criteria of effective course of chemotherapy is … 1) positive clinical dynamics 2) positive Chest X-ray dynamics 3) stop of M. tuberculosis excretion with sputum 4) all above 30. Criteria of not effective course of chemotherapy is … 1) negative Chest X-ray dynamics 2) patient became SSP after 5 mo 3) patient keeps be SSP after 5 mo of treatment 4) all above 53