IR Reviewer PDF

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should swing freely and indicate known headings. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate the approxima...

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should swing freely and indicate known headings. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere? The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right. During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected? The airspeed indicator only. If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions? No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase. What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked? The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter. If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will increase and true altitude will increase. What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over? The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent. What information does a Mach meter present? The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound. How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight? Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy. How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight? Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy. Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above the standard datum plane. If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter to the airport elevation. Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg? Pressure. The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg. How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS? Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated. How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet? Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg. At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately 6,000 feet. How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet? ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting. Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210? Pressure. What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways? Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet. While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying? 25,000 feet. En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, whatis the approximate indication upon landing? Sea level.  En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 in. Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing? 206 feet below MSL. Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg? In colder than standard air temperature. When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value? Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)? Air temperature warmer than standard. Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine? Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise. One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc. What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns. What pre-takeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight? The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes. Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable? The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns. During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum-driven attitude indicator resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn? Centrifugal. What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator? Rate of roll and rate of turn. If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°? 1 minute 30 seconds. If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°? 4 minutes. If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°? 1 minute. If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°? 1 minute.  If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°? 1 minute. Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude? 10 percent. To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately 10 percent of the vertical speed. As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator. Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude? Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI. To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should Simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed. To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude. To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately 50 feet. Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight- and-level flight? Heading indicator. Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments? Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change? Attitude indicator. The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight-and-level flight? Magnetic compass. What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed? Airspeed indicator. When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of 30 second intervals at 1350 Hz. The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace.  To meet the minimum required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems. A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check? December 31, this year. Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited. What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating? The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited. In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace? An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability. What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on- Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.) 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal. What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3,000 ft. scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing, then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA. What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan? 800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.  For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available? From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles. What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP? The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR. For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight? 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA. What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure? 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility. An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions. When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure? 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility. In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL. A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold? REIL. Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway? Arrows leading to the threshold mark. The "runway hold position" sign denotes An entrance to runway from a taxiway "Runway hold position" markings on the taxiway identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway. The "No Entry" sign identifies paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.  If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path. Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path. Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI? One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? Light quartering tailwind. What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior? The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway. Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway? Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions. What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions? Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you. When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft? When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR. What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions? To see and avoid other traffic. The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from The FSS. From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's? FAA AFSS/FSS. When are ATIS broadcasts updated? Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more. (Refer to figure 1.) Which item(s) should be checked in block 1 for a composite flight plan? VFR and IFR. (Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form? DME, transponder, and RNAV. (Refer to figure 1.) What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude? Altitude for first leg.  (Refer to figure 1.) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity? Total useable fuel on board. What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan? The point of first intended landing. When may a pilot file a composite flight plan? Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR. When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form? All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix. What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan? Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance. How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field? Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility. What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification. Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.) Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate. An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name of the destination airport filed in the flight plan. When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that The pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."? It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000. What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."? Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion. A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control? When advised by the tower.  To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used? As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude. When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute. Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact? When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach. For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways? Fixes selected to define the route. What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify? Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated. What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to a Victor airway? You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment. When are you required to establish communications with the tower (Class D airspace), if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination? Before entering Class D airspace. If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed? Airport Advisory Service. Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower? A. Airport advisories. What does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply? Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur. You enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing? Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach. Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time. You are in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow? Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher. What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure? Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.  Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two-way radio communications failure? Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240? Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made. What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL? After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made. What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart? Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace. Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP? The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace. What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP? 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace. MOAs are established to separate certain military activities from IFR traffic. (Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class A airspace? 18,000 feet MSL. What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS? The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider. How wide is an SDF course? Either 6° or 12°. If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC. Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.  If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon arrival at the DH on the glide slope. If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure. Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS? 200 feet. Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group? Middle compass locator. Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative? A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker. Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach? LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative. A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight? The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope. What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed? When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase. While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect? Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope. While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope? Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope. Which of the following conditions is required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted? If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal. If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix"? The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP. Prior to conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix," which one of the following is required? The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation. When making a "timed approach" from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time.  What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate? Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published. When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach? When established on a segment of a published route or IAP. While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until established on a segment of a published route or IAP. (Refer to figure 123.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME- A procedure? A. One VOR receiver and DME. Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR? When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR." Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart? To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved procedure. Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures. What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure? Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan. Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures? If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description. If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should select another type of navigation and approach system. When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS. What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected? Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal. A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if A. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? Rely on the indications of the flight instruments. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and- level flight? Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars? Coriolis.  What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds? The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars? Surface friction. What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope? Stratified clouds with little vertical development. Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds? Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting. The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a goodindication of very strong turbulence. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation? Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift. What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA? METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42 Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour. The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 6,500 feet)? METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RA BR OVC007 17/16 A2980 5,180 feet. The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness (tops of OVC are reported at 3,800 feet)? SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000 500 feet. What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation? METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42SNB42 Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet. Interpret this PIREP. MRB UA/OV MRB/TM 1430/FL 060/TP C182/SK BKN BL /WX RA/TB MDT. At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain. Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP? UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA - 04 /WV245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR. 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.  From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at your destination at your estimated time of arrival? A. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF? TAF KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ= 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT. What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005= Calm. When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as P6SM. A "VRB" wind entry in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is 3 knots or less. Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA? Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF). The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a 5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex. How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast? 7°C. Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD) for OKC at 39,000 feet. Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58°C. What is the definition of MEA? The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage. Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix? MRA. Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix? MRA. ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within 22 NM of a VOR.  Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only 22 NM. Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet? IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart. The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements is the minimum: enroute altitude. Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.) 1,000-foot obstacle clearance. If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies? The MEA at which the fix is approached. In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course flown. In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle. MEA is an altitude which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements. Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is 18,000 feet MSL. Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight? When the pilot requests it. What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR-on-Top clearance? Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions. Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-Top clearance? VFR and IFR. Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR? To VFR on Top. When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC? Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable. When on a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on magnetic course. When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan? When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance.  Where are VFR-on-Top operations prohibited? In Class A airspace. You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR-on-Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.) An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on- Top clearance? Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected. If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to "maintain VFR conditions on top," the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the magnetic course. In which airspace is VFR-on-Top operation prohibited? Class A airspace. What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet? Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA. What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a non radar environment? The same reports that are required for any IFR flight. When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained? A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC. (Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to Lake Charles? 30 NM east of DAS. (Refer to figure 87.) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns. What entry procedure is recommended? Direct. (Refer to figure 87.) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Jefferson County Airport? A published ILS localizer course, which has an additional navigation function. (Refer to figure 87.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area? 122.2, 122.3. (Refer to figure 87.) Why is the localizer back course at Jefferson County Airport depicted? The back course has an additional navigation function. (Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby? Halfway point. (Refer to figures 87 and 88.) What is your position with reference to FALSE intersection (V222) if your VOR receivers indicate as shown? South of V222 and east of FALSE intersection.  (Refer to figure 87.) While holding at the 10 DME fix east of LCH for an ILS approach to RWY 15 at Lake Charles Muni Airport, ATC advises you to expect clearance for the approach at 1015. At 1000 you experience two-way radio communications failure. Which procedure should be followed? Squawk 7600; plan to begin your approach at 1015. (Refer to figure 89.) When flying from Milford Municipal to Bryce Canyon via V235 and V293, what minimum altitude should you be at when crossing Cedar City VOR? 12,000 feet. (Refer to figure 89.) What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS? 122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 112.1. (Refer to figure 89.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight northeast bound from Bryce Canyon on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft? The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet. In the event of two-way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions, the pilot should continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical. On what frequency should you obtain En Route Flight Advisory Service below FL 180? 122.0. (Refer to figure 89.) What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME? 133.6. (Refer to figure 89.) What type airspace exists above Bryce Canyon Airport from the surface to 1,200 feet AGL? Class G. (Refer to figures 89 and 90.) What is your relationship to the airway while en route from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC on V8? Left of course on V8. (Refer to figure 91.) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes useable on V343 for a VFR-on-Top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection? 15,500 and 17,500 feet. (Refer to figure 91.) What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots from 260° and your intended TAS is 185 knots? (VAR 17°E.) 39 minutes. (Refer to figure 91.) Southbound on V257, at what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC if you crossed over CPN VORTAC at 0850 and over DIVID intersection at 0854? 0943. (Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257? 8,600 feet. (Refer to figure 91.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA? The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen.  (Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)? Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS. (Refer to figure 91.) Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520? 60 NM from DBS VORTAC. (Refer to figure 91.) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport? Pilot controlled lighting. (Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298? 11,100 feet. (Refer to figure 58.) On which frequencies could you communicate with the Montgomery County FSS while on the ground at College Station? 122.65, 122.2. (Refer to figure 58.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight? VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME No. 1 No. 2 097° FROM 101° FROM 3.3 (Refer to figures 59 and 60.) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS? 0600 to 2200. (Refer to figure 64.) The course deviation indicator (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check? VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM No. 1 No. 2 162° TO 346° FROM (Refer to figure 65.) Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP on V552 from the LFT to the TBD VORTACs? 34 DME from the LFT VORTAC. (Refer to figures 65 and 66.) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection? Right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection. (Refer to figures 65 and 67.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection? The localizer has an additional navigation function. (Refer to figures 21, 22, and 24.) (Refer to FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight from GJT to DRO. 1 hour 08 minutes.  (Refer to figures 21, 21A, 22, 22A, 23, 24, 25, and 26.) After departing GJT and arriving at Durango Co., La Plata Co. Airport, you are unable to land because of weather. How long can you hold over DRO before departing for return flight to the alternate, Grand Junction Co., Walker Field Airport? Total useable fuel on board, 68 gallons. Average fuel consumption 15 GPH. Wind and velocity at 16,000, 2308-16°. 1 hour 33 minutes. (Refer to figures 21, 22, and 24.) What fuel would be consumed on the flight between Grand Junction Co. and Durango, Co. if the average fuel consumption is 15 GPH? 17 gallons. (Refer to figures 22 and 24.) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V187 between Grand Junction, Walker Airport, and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport? 15,000 feet. (Refer to figure 24.) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187? 52 NM south of JNC. (Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V187? 13,700 feet MSL. (Refer to figures 44, 45, 46, and 47.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) 1 hour 02 minutes. (Refer to figure 47.) When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection? One VOR receiver. (Refer to figure 78.) What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V-86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs? 17,000 feet MSL.