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Questions and Answers
At what altitude above MSL is a coded transponder with Mode C required in controlled airspace?
What does the 'No Entry' sign indicate on an airport?
Which visual approach indicator consists of one light projector with three colors?
What could a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots cause regarding vortex behavior?
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What flight procedure should be followed while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
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How should a pilot behave when on an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions during descent or climb?
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What is indicated by arrows leading to the threshold on an instrument runway?
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In which situation is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
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What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?
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Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
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Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
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What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
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What should a pilot do if RAIM is not available when setting up a GPS approach?
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What is a recommended technique to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
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What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
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What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?
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What is the source for obtaining the latest FDC NOTAM's?
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How often are ATIS broadcasts updated?
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In a composite flight plan, which item should be checked in block 1?
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What determines the code to be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
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What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
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What must a pilot do prior to transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
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How must a flight plan be closed if the destination airport has IFR conditions and no control tower is present?
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What parts of an IFR clearance must pilots read back?
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Under what conditions must a pilot in command possess an instrument rating?
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What is the latest date a pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without an instrument proficiency check if their recent experience expires on July 1?
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What limitation does a holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate face if they lack an instrument rating?
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What additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
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What is the required visibility and cloud distance for VFR-on-Top clearance in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL during daytime?
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What are the minimum visibility requirements for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
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What is the minimum fuel requirement in IFR conditions when the first airport has a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility?
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What must a pilot consider if an airport has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97?
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Which combination of weather variables is likely to produce cumuliform clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing?
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What is the reason frost is considered hazardous to flight operations?
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What does the remarks section entry 'RAE42SNB42' indicate in a METAR report?
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What is the thickness of an overcast layer reported at 6,500 feet if the sky cover is a single continuous layer?
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What significant sky condition is indicated by vertical visibility of 800 feet in a METAR observation?
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What does the PIREP UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172 indicate about the flight conditions?
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Which primary source should be referenced for information on expected weather at your destination at ETA?
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What is the wind shear forecast in the TAF reported as WS005/27050KT?
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Study Notes
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
- A pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating when operating under IFR, in weather conditions below the minimum for VFR flight, or in Class A airspace.
- A pilot must log six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses through navigation systems within the preceding six calendar months to meet the minimum required instrument flight experience for IFR operations.
- IFR experience expires on July 1 of the year requiring re-qualification or an instrument proficiency check.
Commercial Pilot Certificate & Instrument Rating
- A commercial pilot certificate holder without an instrument rating is limited to carrying passengers for hire on cross-country flights up to 50 nautical miles and is prohibited from carrying passengers for hire at night.
Equipment Requirements
- An operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace.
VFR-on-Top Clearances
- In Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours, pilots must maintain 3 statute miles (SM) visibility and stay 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
- In Class E airspace at 10,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours, pilots must maintain 5 SM visibility and stay 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontally from clouds.
- In Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours, pilots must maintain 5 SM visibility and stay 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
IFR Fuel Requirements
- For IFR flights where the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at estimated time of arrival (ETA), pilots must carry enough fuel to reach the first airport, fly to an alternate airport, and continue flying for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
- For IFR flights, pilots must carry fuel to their destination, an alternate airport, and 45 minutes of reserve fuel.
Transponder Requirements
- In the 48 contiguous states, excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL.
Runway Lighting & Marking
- Runway end identifier lights (REIL) consist of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold.
- Arrows leading to the threshold mark indicate a displaced threshold on an instrument runway.
- "Runway hold position" signs denote an entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
- "Runway hold position" markings on the taxiway identify where aircraft hold short of the runway.
- "No Entry" signs identify paved areas where aircraft entry is prohibited.
Visual Approach Slope Indicators (VASI)
- A VASI provides pilots with visual guidance for a safe approach path, assuring obstruction clearance in the approach area.
- If all lights on a 3-bar VASI appear red as the airplane reaches the minimum descent altitude (MDA), the pilot should level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
- Tricolor VASIs consist of a single unit with a three-color visual approach path, including red, green, and amber lights.
Wake Turbulence Hazards
- Light quartering tailwind conditions prolong the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period.
- A light crosswind of approximately 7 knots causes the upwind vortex to remain over the runway.
IFR Flight Procedures
- When climbing to an assigned altitude on an airway under IFR, pilots should climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
- When descending or climbing in VFR conditions during an IFR flight, pilots should execute gentle left and right banks to allow visual scanning of the airspace.
- Pilots on an IFR flight plan are responsible for avoiding other aircraft when weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
- Upon entering VFR conditions, pilots assume responsibility for seeing and avoiding other traffic.
Flight Planning & Information
- The Flight Service Station (FSS) provides the most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight.
- FAA Air Traffic Facilities (AFSS/FSS) provide the latest FDC NOTAMs.
- ATIS broadcasts are updated upon receipt of any official weather information, regardless of content changes.
- The absence of sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast implies a ceiling higher than 5,000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles.
IFR Flight Plan Form (Figure 1)
- Block 1 of a composite flight plan should contain VFR and IFR information.
- Block 3, the aircraft type, should be suffixed with a code determined by the aircraft's DME, transponder, and RNAV equipment.
- Block 7 of an IFR flight plan should contain the altitude for the first leg of a flight with multiple legs at different altitudes.
- Block 12 of an IFR flight plan should contain the time based on the total usable fuel on board.
- The point of first intended landing at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan.
Composite Flight Plans
- Pilots can file a composite flight plan when a portion of the flight will be VFR.
- When filing a composite flight plan with an IFR portion, all points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix should be indicated on the flight plan form.
- Transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan requires contacting the nearest FSS, closing the VFR portion, and requesting ATC clearance.
Closing Flight Plans
- When landing at an airport with IFR conditions and without a control tower or FSS, pilots must close their flight plan by radio or telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.
IFR Clearances
- Pilots receiving an IFR clearance should read back parts containing altitude assignments, vectors, and those requiring verification.
IFR Departure Clearances
- Abbreviated IFR departure clearances typically include the destination airport, altitude, departure procedure (DP) name, number, or transition, if applicable.
Instrument Departure Procedures
- To use an instrument departure procedure, pilots must possess at least a textual description of the approved procedure.
- Pilots can enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan if they don't wish to use an instrument departure procedure.
- Instrument departure procedures require pilots to possess at least a textual description of the procedure if accepted.
Instrument Approach Procedures (STARs)
- Instrument approach procedures (STARs) simplify ATC clearance delivery procedures.
- ATC issues a STAR when deemed appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR."
- VOR/DME-A procedures require at least one VOR receiver and DME.
GPS Approaches
- If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, pilots should select another type of navigation and approach system.
- When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
Spatial Disorientation
- Pilots are more susceptible to spatial disorientation when relying on body signals to interpret flight attitude.
- To prevent or overcome spatial disorientation, pilots should rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
Visual Scanning Techniques
- Pilots should scan for traffic during straight-and-level flight by systematically focusing on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
Meteorology
- The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the wind in the Northern Hemisphere, deflecting it to the right until parallel to the isobars.
- Winds at 2,000 feet above the surface tend to parallel isobars, while surface winds cross isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.
- Surface friction causes winds to flow across isobars at an angle rather than parallel.
- Stable moist air forced up a slope forms stratified clouds with little vertical development.
- Unstable moist air and orographic lifting produce cumuliform clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and potential clear-type icing in clouds.
- Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds indicate very strong turbulence.
- Frost is hazardous to flight operation because it causes early airflow separation, leading to loss of lift.
Weather Reports
- The "RMK" section of a METAR report provides additional information, such as the time of precipitation change.
- The sky condition, visibility, wind, and temperature are reported in a METAR report.
- The thickness of a continuous cloud layer can be calculated by subtracting the station elevation from the reported cloud top altitude.
- PIREPs (Pilot Reports) provide pilots with current weather information from other pilots in the area.
- The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) provides weather forecasts for a specific airport.
- Wind shear forecasts are provided in TAFs, indicating expected wind speed and direction changes.
- TAFs provide wind forecasts for different times within the forecast period.
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Description
Test your knowledge on Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) and the requirements for pilots operating under IFR conditions. This quiz covers necessary qualifications, experience, and equipment needed for IFR operations. Prepare to ensure you understand the critical regulations governing IFR flights.
