2022Pruefungsfragen_AZF_pdf (1).pdf

Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil Kenntnisse bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb des Allgemeinen Sprechfunkzeugnis für den Flugfunkdienst (AZF) und Allgemeinen Sprechfunkzeugnis E für den Flugfunkdienst in englischer Sprache (AZF E) Gültig ab 01. Februar 2022 Valid from 01. February 2022 Bearbeitet und herausgegeben von der Bundesnetzagentur für Elektrizität, Gas, Telekommunikation, Post und Eisenbahnen Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb des Allgemeinen Sprechfunkzeugnis für den Flugfunkdienst (AZF) und des Allgemeinen Sprechfunkzeugnis E für den Flugfunkdienst in englischer Sprache (AZF E) Examination questions in the examination part "Knowledge" in examinations for obtaining the General Flight Radiotelephone Operator’s Certificate (AZF) and the General Flight Radiotelephone Operator’s Certificate E (AZF E) Herausgeber Bundesnetzagentur Referat 226 Fehrbelliner Platz 3 10707 Berlin E-Mail: [email protected] Internet: http://www.bundesnetzagentur.de/Flugfunkzeugnisse Hinweise Dieser Fragen- und Antwortenkatalog basiert auf der Verordnung über Flugfunkzeugnisse in der gültigen Fassung. Nur der von der Bundesnetzagentur für Elektrizität, Gas, Telekommunikation, Post und Eisenbahnen herausgegebene Fragen- und Antwortenkatalog in seiner aktuellen Fassung ist verbindlich. Notices This question and answer catalog is based on the Ordinance concerning Aeronautical Radio Certificates in the current version. The question and answer catalog in its current version issued by the Bundesnetzagentur für Elektrizität, Gas, Telekommunikation, Post und Eisenbahnen is binding only. Allgemeine Informationen Nach der Verordnung über Flugfunkzeugnisse (FlugfunkV) sind bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb des Allgemeinen Sprechfunkzeugnis für den Flugfunkdienst (AZF) und Allgemeinen Sprechfunkzeugnis E für den Flugfunkdienst in englischer Sprache (AZF E) folgende Kenntnisse in englischer Sprache nachzuweisen:  Durchführungsverordnung (EU) Nr. 923/2012; einschließlich der Luftverkehrs-Ordnung, soweit sie für Flüge nach Instrumentenflugregeln zur Anwendung kommt;  Verordnung über die Flugsicherungsausrüstung der Luftfahrzeuge bei Flügen nach Instrumentenflugregeln einschließlich der dazu ergangenen Durchführungsverordnungen;  Funknavigation bei Flügen nach Instrumentenflugregeln einschließlich Radarverfahren. In diesem Katalog ist bei jeder Frage die richtige Lösung immer die Antwort A. Die Antworten B, C und D sind falsche oder teilweise falsche Antworten. Bei der Prüfung sind in den Prüfungsbögen die Antworten in zufälliger Reihenfolge angeordnet. Bei der Prüfung ist im Antwortbogen die als richtig angesehene Antwort anzukreuzen. General information According to the Ordinance concerning Aeronautical Radio Certificates (FlugfunkV), the following knowledge must be demonstrated in the examinations for the General Flight Radiotelephone Operator’s Certificate (AZF) and the General Flight Radiotelephone Operator’s Certificate E (AZF E) in English:  Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 923/2012, including the Air Traffic Regulations, in so far as they are applicable to flights according to Instrument Flight Rules;  the Ordinance on the fitting of aircraft with flight navigational equipment according to the Instrument Flight Rules (Verordnung über die Flugsicherungsausrüstung der Luftfahrzeuge für Flüge nach Instrumentenflugregeln), including the regulations adopted for the implementation of the ordinance;  radionavigation on flights according the Instrument Flight Rules, including radar procedures. In this catalog, for every question, the correct answer is always the answer A. The answers B, C, and D are wrong or partially incorrect answers. In the exam, the answers are arranged in random order in the examination papers. In the examination, the answer should be marked as correct. Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 1 Select the correct definition for "ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL" in respect to IFR flights: The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference A to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that an instrument approach will be commenced The time at which the aircraft will actually arrive over that designated point defined by reference to B navigation aids, from which it is intended, that a visual approach will be commenced The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference C to visual aids, from which it is intended, that an approach will be commenced D In any case that time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome 2 What does the term "AERONAUTICAL STATION" mean? A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical station may be A located, for example, on board ship or on a platform at sea B A station forming part of the aeronautical telecommunication network A station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board of an aircraft to C exchange radiotelephony communications D Any station established to exchange radiotelephony communications 3 What does the term "BLIND TRANSMISSION" mean? A Transmission of a message to the air traffic service in cases where radio contact cannot be established B A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations C A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station A transmission of messages relating to enroute weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft D operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations 4 What does the term "GENERAL CALL" mean? Stations in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call all stations maintaining listening watch A on a frequency B A radiotelephony communication from a ground station to aircraft in flight A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over C remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations D A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station 5 What does the term "AIR-GROUND COMMUNICATION" mean? A Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth B One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth Any communication from aircraft to ground stations requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed C Telecommunication Network (AFTN) D One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 7 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 6 What does the term "EXPECTED APPROACH TIME" mean? The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to A complete its approach for a landing The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will B commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be C initiated The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid D serving the destination aerodrome 7 What does the term "VISUAL APPROACH" mean? An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed A and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain B An approach executed by a VFR flight unable to maintain VMC An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway C which is not suitable located for straight-in approach A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of D destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima 8 What does the term "CLEARANCE LIMIT" mean? A The point to which an aircraft is granted by an air traffic control clearance B The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been C commenced D The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance 9 What does the term "AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION SERVICE" mean? The automatic provision of current, routine information to arriving and departing aircraft throughout 24 A hours or a specified portion thereof A service established to provide information concerning enroute weather phenomena which may effect the B safety of aircraft operation A service which provides aircraft with weather reports relating to a specific number of aerodromes located C within a flight information region (FIR) A service by which aircraft operating within a flight information region (FIR) are provided with current D meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of air navigation 10 What does the term "WAYPOINT" mean? A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft A employing area navigation B A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system C A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport D A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 8 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 11 What does the abbreviation "INS" mean? A Inertial navigation system B International NOTAM service C International navigation service D Instrument navigation system 12 What does the abbreviation "TCAS" mean? A Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System B Tower Cabin Alarm Stop C Track Confirmation by Automatic Sources D Terminal Control and Advisory System 13 What does the abbreviation "SELCAL" mean? A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephony channels linking a A ground station with the aircraft B A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions C simultaneously D A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units 14 What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean? A Secondary Surveillance Radar B Search and Surveillance Radar C Surface Strength of Runway D Standard Snow Report 15 What does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean? A Area navigation B Route navigation C Radio navigation D Radar aided navigation 16 What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean? A Runway Visual Range B Runway Visibility Report C Recleared Via Route …. D Radar Vectors Requested richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 9 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 17 What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? A Sunrise to sunset B No specific working hours C Continuous day and night service D Sunset to sunrise 18 QFE is the radiotelephony Q-code to indicate: A The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold) B The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome C The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground D The atmospheric pressure referred to a point on the surface of the Earth 19 QNH is the radiotelephony Q-code to indicate: A The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain aerodrome elevation when on the ground B The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold) C The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP) D The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome 20 If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code setting would you refer? A QFE B QNH C QDM D QBI 21 If you are requested to report your altitude, to which Q-code setting would you refer? A QNH B QFF C QNJ D QFE 22 What does QDM mean? A Magnetic heading (zero wind) B True heading to the station (zero wind) C True bearing from the station D Magnetic bearing richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 10 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 23 What is the Q-code for "MAGNETIC HEADING (ZERO WIND)"? A QDM B QNE C QTE D QDR 24 What does QTE mean? A True bearing from the station B Magnetic bearing from the station C True heading to the station (no wind) D Magnetic heading to the station 25 What is the Q-code for "TRUE BEARING FROM THE STATION"? A QTE B QDR C QFE D QDM 26 What does QDR mean? A Magnetic bearing B Magnetic heading (zero wind) C True heading to the station D True bearing from the station 27 What is the Q-code for "MAGNETIC BEARING"? A QDR B QDM C QFE D QTE The message to a ground station on a landing site "PLEASE CALL A TAXI CAB FOR US, WE WILL 28 ARRIVE AT 1045" is … A an Unauthorized Message in the aeronautical mobile service B a Flight Regularity Message C an Urgency Message D a Flight Safety Message richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 11 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 29 Messages concerning non-routine landings of an aircraft are: A Flight Regularity Messages B Flight Safety Messages C Unauthorized Messages in the aeronautical mobile service D Urgency Messages 30 A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is... A a Flight Regularity Messages B an Urgency Message C a Flight Security Message D a Flight Safety Message 31 Flight Safety Messages are... A air traffic control messages B messages concerning non-routine landings C messages relating to direction finding D messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger, requiring 32 immediate assistance is called: A Distress Message B Flight Safety Message C Urgency Message D Class B Message 33 Which of the messages listed below shall be handled by the aeronautical mobile service? A Messages Relating to Direction Finding B Aeronautical Security Messages C Aeronautical Administrative Messages D Messages of Airline Operators 34 Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service? A Radio Teletype Messages B Urgency Messages C Flight Safety Messages D Meteorological Messages richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 12 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 35 The priority of the instruction "TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 05 VIA A" is... A same as "LINE UP RUNWAY 07 AND WAIT" B higher than "TRANSMIT FOR QDM" C lower than "CLEARED TO LAND" D higher than "CAUTION CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY G" The message addressed to an Area Control Centre "REQUEST RADAR VECTORS TO 36 CIRCUMNAVIGATE ADVERSE WEATHER" is... A a Flight Safety Message B a Meteorological Message C a Message Relating to Direction Finding D an Urgency Message 37 Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions etc.) belong to the category of … A Flight Safety Messages B Class B Messages C Service Message D Flight Regularity Message 38 The clearance "RUNWAY 03, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF" is… A a Flight Safety Message B an Urgency Message C an Unauthorized Message in the aeronautical mobile service D Flight Regularity Messages 39 The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is... A Distress Message, Urgency Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding B Message Relating to Direction Finding, Distress Message, Urgency Message C Distress message, Flight Safety Message, Urgency Message D Meteorological message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Flight Regularity Message 40 The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is… A Flight Safety Message, Meteorological Message, Flight Regularity Message B Meteorological Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Flight Safety Message C Flight Safety Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Urgency Message D Flight Regularity Message, Distress Message, Meteorological Message richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 13 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 41 The priority of a pilot‘s message "REQUEST QDM" is... A higher than "TURN LEFT HEADING …" B same as "LATEST QNH 1018" C lower than "DECEND FLIGHT LEVEL …" D lower than "REQUEST CLIMB FLIGHT LEVEL …" 42 What is the correct way of spelling HBJYC? A Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie B Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo C Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie D Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie 43 What is the correct way of spelling FRl-VOR? A Foxtrot Romeo India - VOR B Foxtrot Romeo Juliett - VOR C Fox Romeo Yankee - VOR D Fox Romeo India - VOR 44 What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500? A Three thousand five hundred B Three five zero zero C Three five double "O" D Three five hundred 45 What is the correct way of transmitting a QNH of 1001? A QNH one zero zero one B QNH one double zero one C QNH one thousand and one D QNH one double "O" one 46 What is the correct way of transmitting VHF frequency 118.010 MHz? A One one eight decimal zero one zero B One eighteen decimal zero one C One one eight point zero one zero D One one eight decimal zero one richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 14 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 47 What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13 500? A One three thousand five hundred B One three five zero zero C Thirteen thousand five hundred D One three five hundred 48 When transmitting time, which time system shall be used? A Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) B Local time (LT) 24-hour clock C No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required D Local time (LT) a.m. and p.m. The time is 4:15 pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is a possibility of 49 confusion? A One six one five B Four fifteen p.m. C Four fifteen in the afternoon D Sixteen fifteen The time is 9:20 am. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of 50 confusion (same hour)? A Two zero B Two zero this hour C Nine twenty a.m. D Twenty An ATC unit providing air traffic control service to departing aircraft by means of surveillance 51 radar has the call sign: A DEPARTURE B CONTROL C APPROACH D DELIVERY An ATC unit providing air traffic control service to enroute aircraft by means of surveillance radar 52 has the call sign: A RADAR B CONTROL C DELIVERY D MONITOR richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 15 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 53 What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control? A TOWER B CONTROL C APRON D AERODROME What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating flight information 54 service? A INFORMATION B FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE C INFO D FLIGHT CENTRE What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement 55 control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area? A GROUND B TOWER C CONTROL D APPROACH What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control service 56 (no radar service)? A APPROACH B CONTROL C ARRIVAL D RADAR What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating an area control centre 57 (no radar)? A CONTROL B RADAR C CENTRE D APPROACH What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar 58 departures? A DEPARTURE B CONTROL C RADAR D APPROACH richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 16 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar 59 arrivals? A ARRIVAL B RADAR C DIRECTOR D APPROACH 60 Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XYABC is correct? A XBC or XABC B XYBC C BC D ABC 61 Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XYABC is correct? A Cherokee BC or Cherokee ABC B Cherokee XYBC C Cherokee XBC D Cherokee XABC 62 When shall an aircraft station use its abbreviated call sign? A If it has already been used by the aeronautical station B Only after satisfactory communication has been established C Provided no confusion is likely to result D In dense traffic What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off 63 mass of 136 tons or more? A Fastair 345 heavy B Fastair 345 widebody C Heavy Fastair 345 D Fastair 345 When shall an aircraft in the wake turbulence category HEAVY include the word "HEAVY" 64 immediately after the call sign? A When establishing radio contact with ATC and after every frequency change B Never C In all calls to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit D In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 17 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 65 When and by whom is the change of call signs of aircraft stations during flight allowed? A On the instruction of an ATC unit in the interests of safety B To facilitate subsequent radiotelephony communications by an aeronautical station C When changing the destination airport during flight by the aircraft operator D In case of diversion to the alternate aerodrome by the pilot-in-command 66 When may the name of the call sign of an aeronautical station or location name be omitted? A After the establishment of voice communication B Never C In dense traffic during the rush hours D Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign 67 The phrase "CANCEL" means: A Cancel the previously transmitted clearance B Consider that transmission as not sent C A new flight plan has to be filed D Expect a new clearance shortly 68 The phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE" means: A Let me know that you have received and understood this message B I have received all of your last transmission C Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission D My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you 69 The phrase "ROGER" means: A I have received all of your last transmission B A direct answer in the affirmative C Cleared for take-off or cleared to land D A direct answer in the negative 70 The phrase "STANDBY" means: A Wait and I will call you B Continue on present heading and listen out C Permission granted for action proposed D Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 18 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 71 The phrase "READ BACK" means: A Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received B Let me know that you have received and understood this message C Check and confirm with originator D Did you correctly receive this message? 72 The phrase "CHECK" means: A Examine a system or procedure B Repeat your last transmission C Consider that transmission as not sent D Did you correctly receive this message? 73 Which phrase shall be used for "I SHOULD LIKE TO KNOW…" or "I WISH TO OBTAIN…"? A REQUEST B ACKNOWLEDGE C CONFIRM D REPORT 74 Which phrase shall be used for "Pass me the following information …" A REPORT B SAY AGAIN C CHECK D REQUEST 75 Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly? A CORRECT B THAT IS RIGHT C THAT IS AFFIRMATIVE D AFFIRM Which phrase shall be used for "AN ERROR HAS BEEN MADE IN THIS TRANSMISSION. THE 76 CORRECT VERSION IS …"? A QNH 1017, CORRECTION QNH 1016 B QNH 1017, NEGATIVE 1016 C QNH 1017, NEGATIVE I SAY AGAIN 1016 D QNH 1017, NEGATIVE QNH 1016 richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 19 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 77 Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required? A SAY AGAIN B REPEAT YOUR MESSAGE C WHAT WAS YOUR MESSAGE D REPEAT YOUR LAST TRANSMISSION 78 Which phrase shall be used for "CONSIDER THAT TRANSMISSION AS NOT SEND"? A DISREGARD B CANCEL MY LAST MESSAGE C FORGET IT D MY LAST TRANSMISSION IS CANCELLED 79 Which phrase shall be used for "I UNDERSTAND YOUR MESSAGE AND WILL COMPLY WITH IT"? A WILCO B ROGER C OK, WILL DO IT D WILL COMPLY WITH YOUR INSTRUCTION 80 Which phrase shall be used for "YES"? A AFFIRM B YES C AFFIRMATIVE D ROGER 81 The phrase "MONITOR" means: A Listen out on (frequency/channel) B Wait and I will call you C Examine a system or procedure D Establish radio contact with… 82 The instruction: "Fastair 345 STANDBY FOR TOWER ON 118.900" means? Fastair 345 may be requested on frequency 118.900 when its intended that the Tower unit will initiate A communications soon B Fastair 345 shall contact TOWER on 118.900 C Fastair 345 may be requested on frequency 118.900 on which aerodrome data are being broadcast D Fastair 345 shall standby on the current frequency richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 20 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E Fastair 345 receives the instruction to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.000. What 83 is the correct confirmation by the pilot? A Fastair 345 contact 118.0 B Changing over Fastair 345 C Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345 D Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345 84 Which phrase shall be used when a pilot is unable to comply with a clearance or instruction? A UNABLE B NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION C IMPOSSIBLE TO MAKE IT D DISREGARD 85 Which phrase shall a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure? A GOING AROUND B MISSED APPROACH C OVERSHOOTING D PULLING UP An aircraft had initially been cleared to climb to FL 100. For separation purposes the aircraft has to 86 be levelled off at FL80 for a few minutes. ATC will give this instruction by using the phrase: A STOP CLIMB AT FL 80 B MAINTAIN FL 80 C CLEARED FL 80 D LEVEL OFF AT FL 80 87 Which phrase shall be used to instruct a pilot to set the transponder to mode A/C code 0410? A SQUAWK 0410 B SQUAWK ALPHA 0410 AND CHARLIE C SQUAWK MODE ALPHA CODE 0410 AND MODE CHARLIE D SQUAWK ALPHA AND CHARLIE ON 0410 88 The phrase "CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT" means: A The pilot changes from IFR to VFR B The pilot indicates that his landing is assured and he will not submit the landing time C The pilot closes his flight plan D The pilot continues VFR and closes his flight plan richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 21 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E Which phrase shall be used by ATC if a position report over a compulsory reporting point is not 89 required? A OMIT POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix) B CANCEL POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix) C DO NOT REPORT OVER …. (fix) D NO POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix) 90 The permission to taxi to the runway in use for departure will be phrased: A TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY... VIA …. B RUNWAY... TAXI VIA … C TAXI VIA... TO RUNWAY … D CLEARED TO RUNWAY … VIA … 91 If a pilot may start climb/descent at his convenience, ATC will use the phrase: A WHEN READY CLIMB/DESCEND FL … B CLIMB/DESCEND FL... AT YOUR CONVENIENCE C CLIMB/DESCEND FL... AT ANY TIME D CLIMB/DESCEND FL … 92 ATC will give a descent instruction by using the phrase: A DESCEND FL … B LEAVE FL... FOR FL … C CLEARED FL... D MAINTAIN FL... 93 The clearance to taxi to the take-off position will be phrased: A LINE UP RUNWAY …. B TAXI TO TAKE-OFF POSITION C CONTINUE TO TAKE-OFF POSITION AND HOLD D CLEARED INTO POSITION AND HOLD If requested by the control tower to report having crossed a runway, the pilot has to use the 94 phrase: A RUNWAY VACATED B I AM CLEAR OF RUNWAY C I AM BEYOND THE RUNWAY D I HAVE LEFT THE RUNWAY richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 22 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 95 In order to get a bearing, the ground station will request the pilot to …. A TRANSMIT FOR DIRECTION FINDING B SQUAWK IDENT C REPORT BEARING D TRANSMIT FOR BEARING A pilot will be instructed to reselect the assigned transponder code A 6620 with the following 96 phrase: A RESET SQUAWK 6620 B SQUAWK AGAIN ALPHA 6620 C CONFIRM SQUAWKING ALPHA 6620 D SWITCH ON ALPHA 6620 97 The prescribed phrase for obtaining permission to taxi to the runway for departure is: A REQUEST TAXI B REQUEST TAXI CLEARANCE C WHAT IS MY TAXI CLEARENCE D REQUEST PERMISSION TO TAXI 98 ATC will give a climb instruction by using the phrase: A CLIMB FL …. B MAINTAIN FL …. C LEAVE FL …. FOR FL …. D CLEARED FL …. 99 A pilot intending to close his flight plan shall use the phrase: A REQUEST TO CLOSE MY FLIGHT PLAN B REQUEST TO CANCEL IFR C WILL CONTINTUE VFR D WILL CONTINUE VMC If a transponder does not transmit on mode C as expected, ATC will instruct the pilot to switch on 100 mode C by using the phrase: A SQUAWK CHARLIE B SQUAWK ALTIMETER C SQUAWK PRESSURE ALTITUDE D TRANSMIT ON MODE CHARLIE richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 23 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E The advice by a radar controller "TRAFFIC THREE O‘CLOCK" means that the position of the 101 mentioned traffic is... A on the right side B on the left side C separated by three miles D three miles ahead 102 What is the correct procedure for the pilot to change from IFR-flight to VFR-flight? A Contact ATC and cancel IFR B A change from IFR to VFR is not possible C Contact ATC and request clearance to proceed in accordance with the visual flight rules D Contact ATC and request to close the flight plan 103 The phrase "CLEARENCE EXPIRES AT 1025" means? A The clearance is void if the aircraft is not airborne until or at 1025 B The clearance is void if the aircraft departs before 1025 C The pilot shall start engines not later than 1025 D The pilot shall stand by and ask for clearance again at 1025 104 When shall the phrase "TAKE-OFF" be used by a pilot? A To acknowledge take-off clearance B Never, it is used only by the control tower C Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway D To inform TOWER when ready for departure 105 How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off? A READY FOR DEPARTURE or READY B READY FOR TAKE-OFF C READY TO LINE-UP D READY TO GO 106 How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre? A STOPPING B ABANDONING TAKE-OFF C ABORTING TAKE-OFF D CANCELLING TAKE-OFF richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 24 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 107 How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to perform a missed approach? A GOING AROUND B OVERSHOOTING C PULLING UP D WILL MAKE ANOTHER APPROACH 108 The phrase "GO AROUND" means? A Carry out a missed approach B Make a 360° turn C Proceed with your message D Overtake the aircraft ahead 109 The phrase "ORBIT RIGHT" means? A Make 360° turns to the right B Turn right to avoid other traffic C Right-hand circuits are in use D Leave the runway to the right 110 The phrase "VACATE RUNWAY IMMEDIATELY" means: A Clear the runway immediately B Give way to aircraft from the left C Hold position on the left side of the runway D Turn left to leave the runway 111 What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received? A INFORMATION GOLF B WE HAVE THE INFORMATION C WE HAVE THE ATIS GOLF D WEATHER GOLF RECEIVED 112 What is the correct way of transmitting frequency 120.375 MHz? A One two zero decimal three seven five B One two zero decimal three seven C One two zero three seven D One twenty decimal three seven richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 25 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 113 Which elements of instructions or information shall be read back? Clearances, taxi instructions, runway-in-use, QNH, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed A instructions, frequency in the case of frequency change Runway in use, ground visibility, dew point, take-off clearance, frequency in the case of frequency B changes C Clearances, wind direction/speed, heading instructions, QNH, frequency in the case of frequency changes Instructions concerning heading, flight level, speed, altimeter setting, flight visibility, wind direction, take-off D clearance and frequency in the case of frequency changes 114 Shall an ATC route clearance be read back? A Yes No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure B Route/SID) C No, if the communication channel is overloaded D No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to 115 indicate it will follow this instruction? A HOLDING SHORT B ROGER C WILL STOP BEFORE D WILCO Cherokee XYABC receives the following instruction: "XBC climb straight ahead until altitude 2500 116 feet before turning right, wind 270 / 6 knots, Runway 22, cleared for take-off". What is the correct read back? XBC CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD ALTITUDE 2500 FEET, THEN TURN RIGHT, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED A FOR TAKE-OFF B WILCO, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, XBC C STRAIGHT AHEAD 2500 FEET RIGHT TURN, WIND WEST 6 KNOTS, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, XBC D RIGHT TURN AFTER 2500, ROGER, XBC 117 The phrase "SQUAWK 1234" means? A Switch transponder to Mode/Code 1234 B Give a short count for DF (direction finder) C Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz D Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz 118 RADAR informs aircraft XYABC: "XBC IDENTIFIED". What does this mean? A Radar identification has been achieved B XBC is not visible on the radar screen C XBC should operate the IDENT-button D XBC should perform an identification turn richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 26 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 119 RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "XBC SQUAWK IDENT". What does this mean? A XBC shall operate the IDENT-button (operation of the SPI feature) B Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC C X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 20 degrees D X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code 120 RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "XBC SQUAWK STANDBY". What does this mean? A XBC is requested to select the standby feature on the transponder B XBC is requested to standby for radar vectors C XBC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy D XBC is requested to standby on the frequency 121 RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "X BC RESET SQUAWK 1015". What does this mean? A XBC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015 B XBC is requested to set new code 1015 C XBC has been identified by SSR code 1015 D XBC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC) A pilot of an IFR flight has been instructed to establish radio contact with another ATC unit during 122 climb. On initial contact he has to transmit the following data: A Call sign, present and cleared level B Call sign and present level C Call sign and estimated time over the next compulsory reporting point D Call sign only To establish radio contact with "MÜNCHEN GROUND" the pilot of DIBEL shall transmit the 123 following call: A MÜNCHEN GROUND DIBEL B DIBEL, MÜNCHEN GROUND OVER C MÜNCHEN GROUND DIBEL GO AHEAD D MÜNCHEN GROUND THIS IS DIBEL A radio station in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call several stations. 124 This call is named: A MULTIPLE CALL B GENERAL CALL C SIMULTANEOUS CALL D URGENCY CALL richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 27 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E During approach to an airport with parallel runways the pilot of an IFR flight has to transmit on 125 initial contact, after changing frequency from approach control to aerodrome control, the radio call sign of his aircraft and … A the designation of the runway being approached B passing the transition level C cleared altitude/flight level D the type of instrument approach The pilot of an IFR flight has to transmit the following data on initial contact after changing 126 frequency from approach control to aerodrome control: A Radio call sign of the aircraft only B Aircraft call sign and cleared altitude/flight level C Aircraft call sign and present position D Aircraft call sign and flight level or altitude 127 When establishing radio contact, how shall aircraft XYABC call Stephenville TOWER? A Stephenville TOWER XYABC B Stephenville TOWER XBC C Stephenville XYABC D TOWER XYABC Aircraft XYABC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.700. What is 128 the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction? A XBC 118.7 B WILL CHANGE TO TOWER XBC C XBC CHANGING OVER D Stephenville TOWER XBC Aircraft XYABC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.250, on which the aerodrome 129 data are being broadcast. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction? A XBC MONITORING 123.250 B WILL CONTACT 123.250 XBC C XBC CHECKING 123.250 D CHANGING TO 123.250 XBC Aircraft XYABC is making a radio check with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.700. What is 130 the correct phrasing for this transmission? A Stephenville TOWER XYABC HOW DO READ B Stephenville TOWER XYABC PRE-FLIGHT CHECK C Stephenville TOWER XYABC FREQUENCY CHECK D Stephenville TOWER XYABC SIGNAL CHECK richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 28 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 131 On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 3" mean? A Readable but with difficulty B No problem to understand C Unreadable D Loud and clear 132 On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 5" mean? A Perfectly readable B Unreadable C Readable but with difficulty D Problem to understand 133 A compulsory reporting point is a defined location where a position report must be made... A in any case B on request of ATC C in IMC only D in VMC only 134 A non-compulsory reporting point is a defined location where a position report must be made... A on request of ATC B in VMC C in IMC D in any case Which elements of information should an abbreviated position report during an IFR flight always 135 contain? A Radio call sign, position, time over B Radio call sign, position, time over, level C Radio call sign, position, level D Radio call sign, position, next position 136 What shall be the pilot‘s read back for: "CLIMB FL 280"? A Climbing flight level two eight zero B Climbing to flight level two eight zero C Climbing to two eighty D Climbing two eight zero richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 29 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 137 What shall the pilot‘s read back be for: "CLIMB ALTITUDE 2500 feet"? A Climbing altitude two thousand five hundred feet B Up two thousand five hundred C Climbing to altitude two thousand five hundred feet D Climbing to two point five 138 ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot? A Fastair 345 leaving flight level 100 descending flight level 80 B Fastair 345 leaving 100 to 80 C Descending to 80, Fastair 345 D Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345 139 Runway visual range (RVR) is included in the weather report when the visibility is … A less than 1500 m B 1000 ft or less C less than 1000 m D 1500 ft or less A pilot of an IFR flight shall inform the ATC unit competent for approaches and departures that he 140 has received ATIS... A upon initial contact B if deemed necessary C if the control zone is IMC D on request only When the term "SCATTERED (SCT)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological 141 conditions, the cloud amount is... A 3 to 4 oktas B 5 to 7 oktas C NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS D 8 oktas When the term "BROKEN (BKN)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological 142 conditions, the cloud amount is … A 5 to 7 oktas B 1 to 4 oktas C NO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS D 8 oktas richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 30 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E When the term "OVERCAST (OVC)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological 143 conditions, the cloud amount is … A 8 oktas B 5 to 7 oktas C 3 to 4 oktas D 1 to 2 oktas When the term "CAVOK" is used in a routine meteorological report (METAR), the values of visibility 144 and clouds are: A Visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL B Visibility more than 8 km, no cloud below 3000 ft AGL C Visibility more than 5000 m, no cloud below 1500 m AGL D Visibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 1500 ft AGL In what units of measurement is the visibility in a routine meteorological report (METAR) 145 expressed in plain language? A Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres B In feet and nautical miles C In nautical miles only D Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres 146 What is the correct way of expressing visibility in plain language (in METAR)? A Visibility 1200 metres B Visibility 1200 feet C Visibility 1.2 kilometres D Visibility 1.2 nautical miles 147 When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase: A RVR RUNWAY 16, TOUCHDOWN ZONE, METRES, MID POINT, METRES, STOP END, METRES B THE VALUES OF THE TRANSMISSION ARE: …. METRES AND... METRES C RVR AT THE BEGINNING OF RUNWAY 16 IS... METRES D RVR RUNWAY 16, METRES DIAGONAL, METRES DIAGONAL METRES 148 What does "FRICTION COEFFICIENT 45" in a runway report mean? A Braking action good B Braking action medium C Braking action poor D Braking action not measurable richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 31 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 149 What does "FRICTION COEFFICIENT 20" in a runway report mean? A Braking action poor B Braking action medium C Braking action unreliable D Braking action good 150 Under which runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "UNRELIABLE"? A Runway covered with wet snow and slush B Runway covered with dry snow C Runway conditions normal D Runway covered with ice 151 If you are requested to "REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS", what does that mean? A Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC B Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing C Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR D Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature 152 An aeronautical station using the identification "VOLMET" in its call sign... A is a broadcasting service for the transmission of aerodrome meteorological reports for airports B can be called by an aircraft in flight to obtain flight information service C is an aeronautical station operated by an airport company D executes air traffic control service to enroute aircraft The weather report in an ATIS broadcast contains the term "CAVOK". This means that an arriving 153 aircraft has to expect … A no cloud below 5000 ft AGL B less than 5/8 clouds below 5000 ft C thunderstorm D light precipitation 154 What is normally used for ATIS broadcast? A VHF frequencies B NDB frequencies C DME voice channel D Voice channel of an ILS richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 32 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E How can routine meteorological reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in 155 flight? A VOLMET B ATIS C SIGMET D AFIS 156 Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET? A Routine aerodrome meteorological reports for airports B SPECI and TAF C Runway reports D SIGMET 157 Distress is defined as... A a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, B but which does not require immediate assistance a condition concerning the safety of some person on board or within sight and requiring immediate C assistance D a condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS-approach 158 A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word "MAYDAY" means: A The aircraft is threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance B The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle C The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure D The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight 159 An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony: A MAYDAY, emitted preferably three times B DETRESFA, emitted three times C PAN PAN, emitted three times D URGENCY, emitted three times 160 The distress signal and the distress message shall be transmitted on... A the frequency used or on the emergency frequency B the regional guard frequency C the FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned D the emergency frequency in any case richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 33 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 161 The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be … A the frequency currently in use or on the emergency frequency B any other international emergency frequency C any frequency at pilot‘s discretion D the distress frequency 121.500 MHz 162 The distress message shall contain the following data: Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, intention of the pilot, kind of assistance required, data concerning A position, course and level B Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport C Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level D Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required 163 Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency? A 121.500 MHz B 122.500 MHz C 6500 KHz D 121.050 MHz 164 The frequency 121.500 MHz is... A an international emergency frequency B a regional VHF emergency frequency C a regional guard frequency D a frequency for air-to-air communication 165 An aircraft in distress situation shall squawk: A A 7700 B A 7600 C A 7500 D A 6700 166 An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the aeronautical station that … A the aircraft is in distress B the aircraft‘s transceiver is unserviceable C there is a very sick passenger on board D the aircraft is being hijacked richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 34 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk an internationally prescribed 167 mode/code? A In distress B When following a SID C When passing the transition level D When flying within controlled airspace 168 An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the aeronautical station that … A his aircraft is in distress B he has radio communication failure C he has a sick person on board D his aircraft is in an emergency situation 169 Urgency is defined as... a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, A but which does not require immediate assistance a condition concerning the safety of some person on board or within sight and requiring immediate B assistance C a condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS-approach D a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words "PAN PAN", preferable spoken 170 three times, means: The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle and A does not requiring immediate assistance The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate B reclearance C The aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure D The aircraft is threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance 171 An urgency call shall be initiated by the radiotelephony urgency signal: A PAN PAN, preferable emitted three times B MAYDAY, emitted three times C ALERFA, emitted three times D URGENCY, emitted three times 172 Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call? A On the frequency in use B The regional guard frequency C Any frequency at pilot‘s discretion D The international emergency frequency richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 35 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 173 The urgency message shall contain the following data: Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, intention of the pilot-in-command, present position, level A and heading, and any other useful information B Aircraft call sign, present position, level and heading, assistance required C Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, assistance required D Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, present position, level and heading 174 What is the transponder code for radio communication failure? A 7600 B 6700 C 7700 D 7500 175 An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: A lt is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure B It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome C lt is about to make a forced landing D lt is requesting immediate level change An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated 176 frequency. What action is required by the pilot? A Try to establish radio contact on another frequency published for the route of flight B Return to the airport of departure C Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit D Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station which fails to establish radio contact with 177 an aeronautical station? A Try to establish radio contact with other aircraft or aeronautical stations B Divert to the alternate airport C Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight D Squawk mode A code 7500 A message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE" shall be 178 transmitted … A on the frequency presently in use B on the regional guard frequency C to all available aeronautical stations D on the international emergency frequency richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 36 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E If all attempts of an aircraft station to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station fail, it 179 shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase: A "TRANSMITTING BLIND" B "READ YOU ONE, READ YOU ONE" C "PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN" D "HOW DO YOU READ?" 180 Blind transmission shall be made... A twice on the designated frequency B only once on the designated frequency C during VFR flights only D on the emergency frequency only When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER 181 FAILURE" during an enroute flight, the aircraft station shall also... A advise the time of its next intended transmission B enter immediately base leg when approaching the airfield for landing C land at the nearest airfield/airport D return to the airport of departure Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk an internationally 182 prescribed code? A In case of radio communication failure B When approaching a prohibited area C When flying over desert areas D When entering bad weather areas Which aircraft shall, during radio communication failure, keep a watch for instructions issued by 183 visual signals? A Aircraft forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome B VFR flights above clouds C Aircraft entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport D IFR flights when entering a CTR 184 An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure the pilot shall... set the transponder to Mode A 7600 and maintain the last assigned speed and level or the minimum IFR A cruising level for a period of 7 minutes B leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace C continue the flight to destination aerodrome D squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 37 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain his 185 last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. When does this period commence? At the time the last assigned level or minimum IFR cruising level is reached or when the transponder code A is set to Mode A 7600, whichever is later B At the beginning of radio communication failure C After noticing radio communication failure D At the last contact with ATC An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain his 186 last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. What is the pilot supposed to do thereafter? A Adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan B Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules C Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome D Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain the 187 last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. What is the pilot supposed to do if the minimum IFR cruising altitude is higher than the last assigned level? A The pilot shall climb to the minimum IFR cruising level B In any case maintain last assigned flight level C Hold over present position for 7 minutes than continue in accordance with the filed flight plan D Continue immediately in accordance with the filed flight plan An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot shall commence descent 188 over the designated navigational aid serving the destination airport (no EAT received): Commence descend over the IAF at or as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival according to A the current flight plan B After holding for 5 minutes in the holding pattern C Without any delay D After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged An IFR-flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot shall land, if possible, 189 within... A 30 minutes after the estimated time of arrival or the last confirmed approach time, whichever is later B 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure C 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer D 20 minutes after leaving the last assigned and acknowledged level 190 An IFR flight in VMC encountering radio communication failure the pilot shall... A conduct his flight in accordance with the rules for encountering radio communication failure in IMC maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 7 minutes, before proceeding to the nearest B suitable aerodrome for landing C climb or descend to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan D land at the nearest suitable aerodrome richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 38 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure while under radar vectors, the pilot 191 shall... squawk 7600 and proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight plan route not later A than the next significant point, taking into consideration the applicable minimum flight altitude squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to B the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the C current flight plan on the shortest way squawk 7600 and maintain present heading for the next 7 minutes and then return to the flight path in ac- D cordance with the current flight plan 192 In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall … A inform the competent ATC unit immediately B land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair C squawk 7600 D continue the flight in VMC 193 In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR-flight, the pilot shall... A obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight B inform FIS for relay to AlS C inform ATC after departure D insert under item 18 of the flight plan "TRANSPONDER UNSERVICEABLE" 194 What is a pilot expected to do if he reaches the clearance limit with a functioning VHF radio? A Enter the holding pattern and request further clearance B Proceed to the initial approach fix according to his current flight plan C Continue VFR to destination or alternate aerodrome D Proceed to the initial approach fix on the shortest way 195 ATC issues an EAT in any case if the anticipated delay is more than... A 20 minutes B 30 minutes C 15 minutes D 10 minutes A pilot receives the clearance to hold over an enroute reporting point until a specified time. This 196 time is called: A Holding time B Estimated overhead time C Estimated time of arrival D Expected approach time richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 39 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 197 If a pilot has to hold over an initial approach fix ATC will issue an... A expected approach time, if the expected delay is more than 20 minutes B exact arrival time C estimated time of arrival D estimated elapsed time 198 Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service? A 117.975 - 137.000 MHz B 108.000 - 117.975 MHz C 11650 -13200 kHz D 1810 - 2850 kHz To which frequency band belong the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile 199 Service? A Very high frequency B Low frequency C Medium frequency D Very low frequency 200 Which channel spacing is used in the VHF band of aeronautical mobile service? A 25 kHz + 8.33 kHz B 100 kHz + 8.33 kHz C 100 kHz D 50 MHz 201 What are the propagation characteristics of VHF? A Practically straight-line similar to light waves The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the B form of sky-waves C Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical D obstacles have not influence 202 Which phenomena can influence the reception quality of VHF? A Level of aircraft and topographical features B Day-night effect C Ionosphere D Atmospherics occurring particularly during thunderstorms richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 40 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER 203 frequency 118.200 MHz? A Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station B Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station C Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone D Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill 204 The ELBA / ELT transmits on the following frequencies an emergency signal A 121.500, 243.000 or 406.000 MHz B 243.000 MHz only C 119.200 MHz D 121.500 MHz only Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at 205 flight level 100? A Approx.120 NM B Approx.300 NM C Approx.12 NM D Approx.30 NM 206 The air traffic service is providing... A air traffic control service B aeronautical telecommunication service C air traffic information service D air traffic communication service 207 Air traffic control is provided for... A IFR flights and aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes B all VFR flights above 5000 ft MSL C VFR flights at night within airspace G D VFR flights in the identification zone 208 The air traffic control service comprises: A TWR, APP, ACC B AlS, FIC, TWR C APP, ACC, SAR D TWR, FIC, APP richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 41 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E Information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, the 209 timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations are published as … A NOTAM B AIP supplement C AIC D NfL I 210 A NOTAM is distributed by... A a teletype message B an official gazette C no means, since it is of no interest to pilots D radio 211 The collection of active NOTAM presented to the pilot by AIS is called: A Pre-flight Information Bulletin B NfL C Flight plan D Circular Information 212 The Pre-flight Information Bulletins contain all valid... A active NOTAMs B international regulations C military activities within the next 24 hours D national regulations 213 Changes of instrument procedures are published by means of... A AIP Supplements or AIP Amendments B NfL II C AIC D alerting messages (ALR) 214 Pilots have to obtain pre-flight information from AIS-C for... A flights for which a flight plan has to be filed B all flights C all flights operating during night D IFR flights only richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 42 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E What is the measurement unit for wind direction and horizontal speed (except for take-off and 215 landing)? A Degrees true and knots B Degrees magnetic and kilometres C Degrees magnetic and miles D Degrees true and kilometres 216 What is the measurement unit for wind direction and horizontal speed for take-off and landing? A Degrees magnetic and knots B Degrees magnetic and miles C Degrees true and knots D Degrees true and kilometres 217 What is the meaning of the designator "A65" on an enroute chart? A ATS route A65 B Altitude 6500 ft C Low Flying area six five D Danger area number six five 218 ATC must be informed on a change of the TAS by... A 5% or more B 15% or more C 20% or more D 10% or more 219 In order to conduct an IFR-flight "AT FL 200" the aircraft must be equipped with... A two functioning transceivers with 8.33 kHz channel spacing B one transceiver with 25 KHz channel spacing C one transceiver with 720 channels D one transceiver with 25 KHz and one with at least 50 KHz channel spacing 220 An IFR-flight without DME interrogator may be operated … A only with a special permission B if the aircraft is equipped with VOR and ADF C below FL 100, but not to or from international airports D to and from international airports with RADAR control richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 43 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E An IFR flight intending to conduct an instrument approach has to be equipped with LLZ-, GP- and 221 Marker beacon receivers... A during ILS approach B during SRE approach C during NDB/DME approach D in any case 222 By what time at the latest prior to EOBT will AlS / IFPS normally accept a flight plan? A 1 hour B 3 hours C 0.5 hour D 2 hours A pilot intends to fly IFR via ATS route "G1" to the "ABC" VOR and thereafter VFR. What is the 223 correct entry in his flight plan under item- "route"? A G1 ABC VFR B VFR ABC G1 C G1 N0120/ABC VFR D N0120 VFR ABC G1 A Pilot intends to fly VFR to the "XYZ" VOR and thereafter IFR. What is the correct entry in his 224 flight plan under item "route"? A XYZ/N0120F080 IFR B VFR XYZ IFR C 0120/XYZFO8O IFR D F080 XYZ IFR 225 What is the correct entry in an IFR flight plan for a flight level change over Leipzig VOR (LEG)? A …. A101 LEG/N0250F150 G98... B.… A101 N0250/F150 LEG G98... C …. A101 F150/N0250 LEG G98... D …. A101 LEG/F150 G98... Which letter shall be used in the flight plan to indicate, that the flight commences in accordance 226 with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR? A Y B Z C I D V richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 44 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E How many minutes after EOBT is the flight plan automatically cancelled by ATC, if start-up or taxi 227 instructions have not been requested? A 60 minutes B 30 minutes C 120 minutes D 90 minutes 228 An IFR training flight shall be marked in item 8 of the flight plan by using the letters: A IX B IN C VN D VG 229 What is the meaning of the term "FLIGHT LEVEL"? A A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa B A pressure level based on regional QNH C A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QFE D A level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QNH 230 Except for take-off and landing the minimum safe height for IFR-flights is at least: A 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft B 500 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft C 1500 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft D 1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 km of the estimated position of the aircraft 231 The IFR minimum on ATS routes is expressed in: A Altitude and/or flight level B Flight level only C Elevation D Height Within how many miles radius around a specified navigational aid does the minimum sector 232 altitude provide 1000 ft obstacle clearance? A 25 NM B 30 NM C 20 NM D 15 NM richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 45 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 233 Altitude information of route segments on German enroute charts indicate the … A minimum IFR cruising altitude B minimum safe height for IFR flights C lower limit of the controlled airspace D minimum reception altitude for radio navigational aids 234 What is the minimum vertical separation to other IFR flights above FL 290? A 1000 ft up to FL 410 thereafter 2000 ft B 2000 m C 1000 ft D 500 ft 235 What is the minimum vertical separation to other IFR flights below FL 410? A 1000 ft B 2000 ft C 1000 m D 500 ft Prior to departure the pilot will be given enroute clearance including the departure route. The 236 cruising altitude is normally not covered by the clearance. To which initial altitude has the pilot to climb after take-off? A To the initial altitude stated in the SID B Climb so, as to leave airspace E as soon as possible C The initial altitude is on pilot‘s discretion D To the minimum safe height for IFR flights 237 The transition level is determined on the basis of … A transition altitude and QNH B transition altitude and QFE C transition height and QFE D transition height and QNH 238 The vertical dimension of the transition layer must be at least: A 1000 ft B 1500 ft C 2000 ft D 500 ft richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 46 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1005 hPa. What is the transition 239 level? A FL 70 B FL 50 C FL 80 D FL 60 The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1015 hPa. What is the transition 240 level? A FL 60 B FL 50 C FL 70 D FL 80 The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 977 hPa. What is the transition 241 level? A FL 80 B FL 50 C FL 70 D FL 60 An IFR flight at FL 100 approaches an aerodrome for landing. The QNH given is 1018 hPa, the 242 transition altitude is 5000 ft. When shall the pilot change the altimeter setting to QNH? When... A passing FL 60 B leaving FL 100 C passing FL 70 D passing FL 50 The pilot of an arriving IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from 1013.2 hPa to QNH during the 243 descent … A when passing the transition level B when passing the transition altitude C after having passed the transition layer D when commencing descent The pilot of a departing IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from QNH to standard altimeter 244 setting 1013.2 hPa when … A passing transition altitude B passing transition C leaving the transition layer D reaching transition level richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 47 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E 245 Name the speed limitation applicable within airspace C for an IFR-flight: A No speed limitation B Maximum 250 kt IAS C Maximum 250 kt TAS D 250 kt lAS below FL 100 246 Which are the lower and upper limits of the German UIR: A FL 245 - unlimited B FL 245 – FL 460 C GND - unlimited D GND - FL 245 247 Flights within airspace E will be separated as follows: A IFR from IFR B IFR from VFR C All aircraft D VFR from IFR 248 Which kind of flights are not permitted within airspace G? A IFR outside of RMZ B Glider flights C Military exercise flights D VFR Flights below FL 100 within airspace D and E are not permitted to exceed an indicated airspeed 249 of... 250 kt except aircraft, which have to be operated at a higher airspeed because of their specific A performance characteristics B 150 kt C 300 kt D 200 kt A pilot intends to cancel his IFR flight at the minimum IFR cruising altitude in airspace E below 250 FL 100, descend below controlled airspace and continue VFR. Which are the required weather minima? A Flight visibility at least 5 km, distance from cloud 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally B Flight visibility at least 3 km, distance from cloud 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally C Flight visibility at least 8 km, horizontal distance from clouds 1500 m D Flight visibility at least 8 km, clear of cloud richtige Antwort immer A / Stand / As at:: 2021 Seite / page 48 von / of 55 correct answer always A Prüfungsfragen im Prüfungsteil "Kenntnisse" bei Prüfungen zum Erwerb AZF und AZF E A pilot departing on a VFR flight (Z - flight plan) and intending to change flight rules to IFR at the 251 minimum IFR cruising altitude in airspace E below FL 100, has to observe the following minimum values for flight visibility / distance from clouds: A 5 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically B 3 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically C 1.5 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically D 1.5 km flight visibility, clear of cloud A pilot on an IFR flight (Y - flight plan) intends to change flight rules to VFR at the minimum IFR 252 cruising level. Until leaving the controlled airspace E below FL 100 he has to observe the following minimum values for flight visibility: A 5 km B 8 km C 1.5 km D 3 km During a flight with an intended change of flight rules the VFR part of this flight shall generally be 253 conducted in such a way, that... in airspace E the pilot, has a flight visibility of at least 5 km and the aircraft maintains a horizontal distance A from clouds of at least 1500 m and a vertical distance of at least 1000 ft in airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 8 km and the aircraft maintains a horizontal distance B from clouds of at least 1500 m and a vertical distance of at least 1000 ft C in airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 8 km and the aircraft remains clear of cloud in airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 5 km, the aircraft remains clear of cloud and visual D contact to the ground is granted The start-up clearance shall not be requested befo

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