Infectious Disease Module - Study Guide (PDF)

Infectious disease module 1.Melanoma is: A. Disfunction of pigment melanin. B. Decrease of pigment melanin. C. Keratinization of melanocytes. D. A neoplasm of melanocytes. 2. Eruption with "butterfly" pattern is specific for: A. Rosacea. B. Perioral dermatitis. C...

Infectious disease module 1.Melanoma is: A. Disfunction of pigment melanin. B. Decrease of pigment melanin. C. Keratinization of melanocytes. D. A neoplasm of melanocytes. 2. Eruption with "butterfly" pattern is specific for: A. Rosacea. B. Perioral dermatitis. C. Lichen ruber planus. D. Lupus. 3. Tests for diagnosis of Allergic rhinitis are: A. CBC-complete blood count. B. IgE. C. Skin prick tests. D. All. 4. Which test is necessary for diagnosis of Hypersensitivity Type I : A. Skin prick test. B. Patch test. C. CBC. D. Coomb's test. 5. For diagnosis of Bronchial Asthma important is: A. All. B. Family history. C. Spirometry. D. Detail anamnesis of diseases. 6. Contraindication of Skin prick test is: A. Stable Bronchial Asthma. B. Pregnancy. C. Allergic rhinitis. D. Acute Urticaria. 7. On skin prick tests do not effect: A. Antihistamine H2. B. Inhalation corticosteroid (ICS). C. Antihistamine H1 second generation. D. Antihistamine H1 first generation. 8. Treatment of acute urticaria is all, except: A. H1 blocker. B. Corticosteroid. C. H2 blocker. D. Adrenalin /v. 9. Which one is main side effect of SABA? A. Tachycardia. B. Neither. C. Dysphagia. D. Dry mouth. 10. Which antiviral is active against herpesviruses? A. acyclovir. B. lamividine. C. ribavirin. D. oseltamivir. 11. The lace like picture on the tongue and lips is specific for:  A. Lichen ruber planus. B. Pityriasis rosae. C. Pemphigus vulgaris. D. Primary syphilis 12. 38. A 23-year-old man presented with a 4-week history of coughing. He had lost 4kg in weight, but had no history of night sweats and hemoptysis. The chest X-ray showed upper-lobe shadowing at the night lung. Sputum was found to contain acid-fast bag and Xpert MTB/RIF gives MTB (-) and RR (+) results. Finally patient was diagnosed as MDR-TB Case. What treatment should be prescribed? A. 4-6 Am-Mfx-Pto-Cfz-Z-Hhd-E/5 Mfx-Cfz-Z-E. B. 3HP. C. 9 BDQ+Lzd+Lfx+Cfz+Cs. D. 2HRZE/4HR. 13. Highest concentration of Herpesvirus 1 can be seen in which body fluid? A. Urine. B. Saliva. C. Blood. D. Feces. 14. Which is the pandemic type of influenza virus? A. Influenza virus group B B. Influenza virus group A C. Influenza virus group D D. Influenza virus group C 15. Select one:  A. Psoriasis. B. Pityriasis rosae. C. Lupus cutaneus. D. Lichen ruber planus. 16. What is the root of transmission of Hepatitis A Virus? A. Fecal- oral. B. Sexual, needle injury, C. Vertical D. Air-borne 17. What is the root of transmission of chickenpox? A. Airborne. B. Insect bites C. waterborne D. Sexual 18. Which one is main side effect of inhaled corticosteroids? A. Dysphonia. B. All. C. Dry Mouth D. Sleepiness 19. Please describe what pathogenicity is? A. Ability of an organism to produce an immune response that provides protection against infection with the same. B. Severity of the disease after infection occurs. C. Having higher case fatality rate. D. Ability of a microbe to cause disease. 20. Herpes Labialis is caused by: A. Cytomegalovirus. B. Ebstein-Barr virus C. Reactivation of Herpesvirus 1. D. Chickenpox. 21. Start treatment of Bronchial asthma attack: A. Adrenalin i/m or inhalation. B. H1 Blocker. C. LABA. D. Salbutamol 4-10 puffs by pMDI every 20 min for 1 hour. 22.What is AIDS? A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, which occurs at the end-stage of HIV infection. B. Congenial Immunodeficiency syndrome, HIV positive people suffer with. C. Opportunistic Infection. D. Asymptomatic career state of the virus. 23. Which one is recommended for "rescue therapy" of Bronchial asthma? A. Inhaled Corticosteroids (ICS). B. LABA.  C. Neither. D. SABA. 24. For asthma treatment not recommended: A. Oral corticosteroid. B. SABA - salbutamol, albuterol. C. Inhalation corticosteroid (ICS). D. LABA (formoterol, Salmeterol) alone. 25. Which one is main side effect of SABA? A. Neither. B. Dysphagia. C. Dry mouth. D. Tachycardia. 26. On skin prick tests do not effect: A. Antihistamine H1 first generation. B. Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists (LTRAS). C. Antihistamine H2. D. Antihistamine H1 second generation. 27. Reason of acute urticaria may be: A. Vaccination. B. Food. C. All. D. Medicine. 28. How long is duration of SABA action? A. 4-6 hours. B. 12 hours. C. 5 min. D. 15 min. 29. Br. Asthma is example of: A. Hypersensitivity Type II. B. Hypersensitivity Type III. C. Hypersensitivity Type IV. D. Hypersensitivity Type I. 30. Urticaria is characterized: A. Skin lesions last more than >24 hr. B. Neither. C. Skin lesions last more than >48 hr. D. Skin lesions last less than 12% and 200 ml after 10-15 min after 200-400 mcg SABA 154. FEV1/FVC-60, FEV1 -28%, FVC-88%, Change-4% describes: A. Severe obstruction with reversibility B. Very severe obstruction without reversibility C. Severe obstruction without reversibility D. Very severe obstruction with reversibility 155. What is seen in general blood analysis during EBV mononucleosis? A. monocytosis lymphocytosis, atypical mononuclears. B. normal general blood count C. leucopenia, thrombocytopenia, erythopaenia D. nouliophlosis, elevated ESR Dermatology final N7-Topic Acne and related disorders: 1. In which areas is located the seborrheic dermatitis?  A. Sebum-rich areas B. Sweat gland -rich areas C. Hair follicle-rich areas D. On the palms and soles 2. Rosacea is associated with: A. Pediculus humanus var capitis B. Demodex follicularum C. Sarcoptes hominies D. Genus ixode 3. Management for Rosacea: A. Cream-Ivermectin B. Cream/gel antifungal C. Glucocorticosteroid cream with high potency- D. Cream/gel antibiotic 4. Phymatosus damage of skin can't be localized on the: A. Cheecks B. Front C. Nose D. Hands 5. Which dermatosis is associated with involvement eye: A. Perioral dermatitis B. Acne rosacea C. Acne vulgaris D. Seborrheic dermatitis 6. Treatment for dandruff is: A. Creams with antibiotics  B. Shampoos with antifungals C. Cream with antiviral agents D. Shampoos with antiseptics 7. Which unit is involved by the acne: A. Only Follicular part B. Nails C. Pilo sebaceous unit D. Pilo-sweat unit 8. Systemic isotretinoin is based: A. Decrease the number of Pacnes B. Decrease the size of sebaceous glands. C. Increase the process of keratinization in pilo-sebaceous unit D. Decrease the process of keratinization in pilo-sebaceous unit N8- Topic Papulosquamous diseases: psoriasis, lichen planus and pityriasis rosea: 1. For psoriasis is characteristic the: A. Revealing large populations of T cells within the psoriasis lesions. A. Revealing large populations of B cells within the psoriasis lesions B. Revealing large populations of T cells in blood circulation. 2. Cornerstone of topical treatment for psoriasis is: A. Topical antibiotics B. Topical antivirals C. Topical glucocorticosteroids D. Topical antiseptics 3. Flat-topped violaceous papules and plaque with slightly shiny surface on the side lighting are characteristic for: A. Psoriasis vulgaris B. Secondary syphilis C. Lichen planus D. Dermatitis herpeticum 4. Erythrodermic psoriasis is characterized by the: A. Rapidly spreading erosions B. Slowly spreading flaccid bullas C. Generalized erythema and scaling D. Firm bullas with erythema. 5. "Christmas tree" pattern is characteristic for: A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Pityriasis rosae C. Atrophic form of lichen planus D. Pityriasis versicolor 6. Environmental causative factors for psoriasis is: A. Streptococcal, staphylococcal infections B. Antimalarial drugs C. Calcic nervine inhibitors D. Streptococcal, staphylococcal infections and Antimalarial drugs 7. First line of choice for the systemic treatment of psoriasis is: A. Azathioprine B. Cyclosporin C. Methotrexate D. Tretinoin 8. Biologics are: A. Targeted immune modulators. B. General immunosuppressants. C. General immunostimulants. D. Targeted immunostimulants 9. Liquid of pustules of pustular psoriasis contains: A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Streptococcus epidermidis. C. Mycrosporum canis. D. It's sterile. N9-Topic Dermatological Manifestations of Connective tissue diseases. Bullous dermatoses: 1. Main factor for pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris is: A. Parakeratosis B. Hyperkeratosis C. Acantolysis D. Apoptosis 2. Clinical signs of pemphigus vulgaris is: A. Dry and crusted skin B. Flaccid, easily ruptured vesicle or bulla lead to the erosions that subsequently crust C. Pustular and urticarial eruptions D. Firm, tense bullas with hyperemia 3. Is bullous pemphigoid characterized by the positive Nikolsky's sign? A. Yes  B. No C. In severe cases only D. In mild form of bullous pemphigoid 4.In Pemphigus vulgaris autoantibodies are directed against: A. Desmoggin 5 B. Desmoglain 2 C. Desmoglein 1 and 3 D. None of them 5. Management of Bullous pemphigoid is involved: a. Systemic glucocorticosteroids b. Systemic antivirals c. Azathioprine d. Systemic glucocorticosteroids and / or Azathioprine 6. Eosinophilia is characteristic for: A. Pemphigus vegetans B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Pemphigus Folliaceum D. Bullous pemphigoid 7. Autoantibodies in bullous pemphigoid recognize by the following antigens: A. BPAGI B. BPAG2 C. desmoglein 3 D. BP180 N10-Topic - Vitiligo, Nail disorders, Alopecia, Paraneoplasia: 1. For hereditary alopecia is characteristic:  A. Hair loss alone B. Hair loss with skin inflammation C. Hair loss with change of its structure D. Skin inflammation on the hair loss area 2. Alopecia areata frequently meeting among: A. Adults B. Elder person C. Children D. Persons with diabetes mellitus 3. Malignant acanthosis nigricans may result of: A. Glioblastoma B. Gastric cancer C. Fibroblastomas D. Melanoma 4. Acquired ichthyosis is associated with: A. Neoplastic processes B. Urethritis C. Sarcoidosis D. Lupus erythematosis 5. Pruritus may associate with: A. Gastritis B. Cholelithiasis C. Nephrolithiasis. D. Renal insufficiency. 6. Spoon like nail deformation is characteristic for: A. Cardiovascular diseases  B. Nephrotic insufficiency C. Fe deficiency anemia D. Skin bacterial infections 7. Hair loss on the scalp is revealed in: A. Primary syphilis B. Secondary syphilis C. Latent syphilis D. Psoriasis 8. Café-au-lait macules is a predisposing sign for: A. Pityriasis versicolor B. Neurofibromatosis type 1 C. Postinflammatory hyperpigmentation D. Neurogliom 9. Splinter hemorrhages on the nails are characteristic for: A. Psoriasis B. Onychomycosis C. Lichen ruber planus D. Pityriasis rosea 10. Precipitating factor of erythema multiforme is: A. Typhus B. Secondary syphilis C. Herpes simplex virus infection D. Papilloma virus infection Topic N 11-Skin benign lesions and precancers: 1. Acrochordons mainly occur in sites of: A. Face  B. Scalp C. Friction D. Soles 2. Seborrheic keratosis mainly develops among: A. Children B. Young adults C. Elder persons D. It doesn't depend on age 3. Pyogenic granuloma is: A. Skin bacterial disease B. Skin viral disease: C. Skin benign lesion D. Skin malignancy 4. Risk factor for developing of actinic keratosis is: A. Person who has organ transplantation B. Sun bed users C. Elder persons D. All of them 5. Skin horn is the form of: A. Basal Cell Carcinoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Actinic keratosis D. Skin fibroma 6. Actinic keratosis is: a. Cancer b. Pre cancer c. Invasive Squamous cell carcinoma  d. Basal cell carcinoma 7. More adequate treatment for actinic keratosis is: a. Cryotherapy b. Electrocoagulation c. Surgery d. Calcineurin inhibitors N12-Topic Skin cancers and melanoma: 1. To diagnose melanoma, you need to perform: A. Cytology of the surface. B. Fragmental biopsy C. Excision biopsy which assesses the whole lesion 2. Clinical manifestation of basal cell carcinoma is: A. Pearly nodule with central depression B. Shallow ulcer with elevated margins C. Reddish patch with rough scale D. Plaque with silver scale 3. Metastasis is more characteristic for: A. Actinic keratosis B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Dermatofibroma D. Squamous cell carcinoma 4. Radiation therapy in cases of BCC is indicated when lesions are: A. Advanced and extended B. Superficial C. Pigmented D. Vascular 5. Dermoscopy is a device which: A. 10/20 folds magnified the image B. Epidermis becomes more transparent and easy to identify ABCD signs; C. It is possible to identify pigmented lesions from non-pigmented ones D. All above mentioned 6. Acral melanoma is: A. Lentigo malignant melanoma B. Melanoma on the hands and feet C. Ocular melanoma D. Amelanotic melanoma 7. ABCDE-rules is useful for distinguishing: A. Pigmented typical lesions from atypical ones B. Pigmented lesion from non-pigmented ones C. Metastatic lesions from non-metastatic D. Melanotic nevis from amelanotic ones 8. Nodular melanoma is mainly: A. Heterogenic in color B. Homogenic in color C. Primary horizontal growing D. Primary amelanotic lesion 9. Amelanotic melanoma is: A. High differentiated tumor when melanocytes continue to produce melanin. B. High differentiated tumor when melanocytes are not able to produce melanin.  C. Low differentiated tumor when melanocytes continue to produce melanin D. Low differentiated tumor when melanocytes are not able to produce melanin 10. Lentigo maligna melanoma develops mainly on: A. sun protected areas B. face C. hands D. legs Previous 6 topics: 1. Please choose right answer: A. Atopic dermatitis has an adult onset rare. B. Atopic dermatitis has an adult onset often C. Course of atopic dermatitis depends on the general health D. Atopic dermatitis develops in persons with diabetes mellitus 2. Initial reddish-brown papule, then plaque with pressure of diascopy-looks like "apple jell" meets in case of: a. Leprosy. b. Cutaneous tuberculosis c. Borreliosis d. Rosace 3. Eczema herpeticum is associated with: A. Dermatitis seborrheicum B. Atopic dermatitis C. Dermatitis allergica D. Urticaria 4. Most frequently meeting causative factor of IgE-mediated urticaria is: A. Systemic D vitamin B. Insulin C. Cephalosporins D. Fluconazole 5. Less than 10% body surface area (BSA) detachment is characteristic for: A. Toxic epidermal necrolysis B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome C. Sweet syndrome D. Erythema multiforme 6. Sebaceous glands are found every area except of: A. Face B. Trunk C. Palms D. Scalp 7. Thickening (acanthosis) of the epidermis and accentuation of natural skin lines are characteristic for: A. Lichenification B. Erosion C. Nodular eruption D. Plaques 8. Scrofuloderma represents: a. Soft nodule b. Firm nodule c. Macular eruption d. Urticarial element 9. Which dermatose has wart clinical form: a. Psoriasis b. Atopic dermatitis c. Skin tuberculosis d. Pityriasis rosea 10. Blisters are characteristic for A. HPV B. Herpes virus-1 C. HIV D. Herpes virus - 4 11. Moluscum contagiosum represents: a. Pearly-white round papules b. Violet flat toped papules c. Reddish plaques with silver scales d. Pigmented macules 12. Brownish spots on the palms are characteristic for: a. Atopic dermatitis b. Psoriasis - palmar form c. Tinea nigricans d. Pityriasis versicolor 13. With which diseases should we differentiate psoriasis with scalp involvement A. Seborrhea B. Tinea corporis C. Allergic dermatitis D. Lupus erythematosus 14. Eczema herpeticum is: A. Type of atopic dermatitis B. Type of contact dermatitis C. caused by Herpes virus type 1 D. caused by Herpes virus type 3 15. In which main areas are located melanocytes? A. Dermo-epidermal junction B. In the lower layers of the epidermis C. Reticular dermis D. Stratum corneum 16. Merkel cells are specialized in the perception of: A. Pain B. Pressure C. Touch D. Heat 17. The specific distribution areas for scabies among infants are: A. Face, palms and soles B. Abdomen C. Interdigital areas D. Buttocks 18. Cream is: A. Water in wax B. Water in oil C. Water in alcohol D. Mixture of powder and ointment 19. Causative organism of blistering distal dactylitis:  A. Group A Streptococcus spp. or S. aureus B. Malassezia spp. C. Proprion bacteria Acne D. Trychophiton menthagraphites 20. Choose the wrong postulate: A. warts are benign growths of the skin. B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) can cause Intraepithelial dysplasia. C. HPV can cause growths on mucous membranes. D. HPV infection can present with a rash on the skin or mucous membranes. 21. Which of these clinical pictures corresponds to the histomorphological picture shown on the top? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. none of the ones here 22. Which one could be a melanoma: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 23. Which of these clinical pictures corresponds to the histomorphological picture shown on the top? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. none of the ones here 24. Which of these diseases is not caused by staphylococci:  A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. none of the ones here 25. which of these clinical cases is not a skin infection: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 26. Which of these clinical pictures corresponds to the histomorphological picture shown on the top?  A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. none of the ones here 27. Which of these diseases is not caused by herpes viruses? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 28. Which one is malignant: A. 1  B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Dermatology Midterm 1.Vesicular rash is characteristic for: A. Psoriasis B. Furunculosis C. Leprosy D. Herpes simplex 2. In which main areas are located melanocytes? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Subcutaeneus fatty layer D. Stratum corneum 3. Skin excrete the water via: A. Only diffusion B. With only sweat glands only C. With sweat glands and diffusion D. Radiation 4. Pustular rash is specific for: A. Herpes labialis B. Herpes genitalia C. Bacterial folliculitis 5. What is the prevention measure for contact dermatitis? A. To apply topical calcineurin inhibitors. B. To apply topical clobetasol propionate.  C. Identify and remove etiologic/pathogenic agent. D. To apply moisturizers 6. Frequently met allergens are: A. Nickel sulfate and formaldehyde. B. Gold and cobalt C. Silver. 7. Adult onset of atopic dermatitis is: A. Frequent. B. Rare C. Depends on the severity of AD D. Frequent among women 8. S. aureus is one of the eliciting factors for: A. Impetigo. B. Atopic dermatitis C. Erysipelas D. Pityriasis versicolor 9. "White" dermatographism is characteristic for: A. Urticaria. B. Impetigo C. Atopic dermatitis D. Irritant contact dermatitis 10. Acute form of atopic dermatitis should be treated by: a. Moisturizers. b. Antivirals. c. Wet dressings. d. Lotions. 11.Causative factors of anaphylactoid reactions are: A. Gastritis. B. Autoimmune and congenital diseases. C. Cardiovascular diseases. D. Hypertension 12. Urticaria is sometimes accompanied by: A. Impetigo. B. Angioedema. C. Erythema multiformis 13. IgE-mediated allergic reactions may associate with: A. Irritant contact dermatitis. B. Tinea pedis. C. Exzema herpeticum D. Urticaria 14. Physical urticarial syndromes are triggered by: A. Medications. B. Food. C. Sudden changes in body temperature. 15. Salicylic acid is used to treat: A. Scabies. B. Psoriasis. C. Eczema herpeticum. D. Irritant contact dermatitis 16. In cases of scabies feeling of itching increases: A. Midnight. B. Day time C. In the afternoon D. Every time 17. Mites of all developmental stages make burrow/tunnel into epidermis in cases of: A. Acne. B. Demodekosis C. Scabies. D. Pediculosis 18. Moisturizers are useful in cases: A. Pustular eruptions. B. Vesicular rash. C. Lichenification. D. Atrophic scars. 19. Preferable localization of erythrasma is? A. Natural fold of skin. B. Smooth areas of the skin C. Scalp D. Nails 20. Management - External Genital/Perianal warts: A. imiquimod. B. ivermectin. C. Lindan D. NSAD 21. HSV pharyngotonsillitis clinical picture is: A. Whitish rash on the tonsils. B. Leukoplakia on the pharyngeal area. C. Multiple vesicles and erosions on the tonsils and pharynges. D. Pustular rash on the tonsils. 22. Asymptomatic viral shedding is characteristic for: A. Herpes labialis. B. Herpes genitalia C. Herpes zoster D. Mosaic warts 23. Management of warts: A. Aciclovir. B. Cryotherapy C. Valaciclovir D. Pemciclovir 24. Alopecia areata is specific for: A. Tertiary syphills. B. Secondary syphilis. C. Primary syphilis D. Latent syphilis 25. Laboratory tests for VZV are: A. DFA and PCR. B. PCR and general IgE. C. General blood test and liver functions. D. Cytology 26. Pain is more characteristic for: A. Herpes zoster B. Herpes simplex C. Molluscum contagious D. Warts 27. Triggering factor of herpes gladiatorum: a. Respiratory infection b. Trauma c. Viral Pneumonia d. Uro-genital infections 28. Central umbilication of pearly-white round papule is: A. Verrucae vulgaris B. Verrucae mosaic C. Molluscum contagiosum D. Skin papilloma 29. Nail is filled with: A. Hyaluronic acid. B. Albumin. C. Keratin. D. Glycoproteins 30. Which layer is the superficial in epidermis? A. Stratum granulosum. B. Stratum corneum. C. Stratum spinosum D. Stratum lucidum 31. Skin morphologic element containing a cavity is: A. Pustula. B. Urtica C. Nodule D. Patch 32. Skin plaque elevation is a result of: A. Increased thickness of epidermis. B. Decreased thickness of dermis C. Increased thickness of dermis D. Increase thickness of sucutaneus tissue 35. Which dermatophytes may give the yellowish or orange glow under the wood's lamp? A. Tinea capitis B. Tinea nigircans C. Pityriasis versicolor D. Tinea cruris 37. Moisturizers is useful for: A. Exudative eczema; B. Bullous dermatitis; C. Atopic dermatitis D. Urticaria 38. Full-thickness loss of the epithelium (epidermis) is: A. Ulceration B. Erosion C. Lichenification D. Scars 39. Bullous eruption is specific for: A. Herpes simplex B. Impetigo C. Warts D. Furuncles 40. Lichenification is: A. Skin atrophy. B. Whitish coloration of the skin. C. Thickness of skin with accentuation of normal skin lines. D. Erosion of skin. 41.Causative factor of Anaphylactic shock is: A. Medications. B. Foods C. Insect bites D. All of them. 42. Instant therapy for anaphylactic shock is: A. Hydroxyzine. B. Adrenalin. C. Cimetidine. D. Ranitidine. 43.Stevens-Johnson syndrome is: A. Type IV (subtype C) hypersensitivity reaction. B. Type II hypersensitivity reaction. C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction. D. Type I hypersensitivity reaction. 44. Typical prodromal symptoms of Stevens-Johnson syndrome are: A. Abdomen pain. B. Chest pain C. Headache and malaise. D. High temperature. 45. The bottom of chancre is: A. Papule. B. Pustule. C. Erosion D. Plaque 46. The main morphologic element of primary syphilis is: A. Chancre. B. Gumma. C. Urticaria D. Fissure 47. Whiff test is a criterion for identification of: A. Trichomoniasis B. Gonorrhea C. Lymphogranuloma venerium D. Donovanosis 48. Treatment of genital warts is: A. Acyclovir B. Valacyclovir C. Imiquimod D. Zovirax 49. False-Positive Reactions in Nontreponemal Serologic Tests for Syphilis is developed in cases of: A. Cardio-vascular diseases. B. Hypo acid gastritis. C. Cholelithiasis. D. Drug abuse condition 50.Gonococcal infection involves: A. Small joints B. Large joints C. Interdigital joins D. Spinal part 51. Hutchinson teeth is specific for: A. Primary syphilis B. Secondary syphilis C. Congenital syphilis D. Latent syphilis 52. Multiple ulcerations on the genital areas are specific for: A. Herpes genitalia B. Primary syphilis C. Secondary syphilis D. Tertiary syphilis 53. Neisseria gonorrhea is: A. Gram positive bacteria B. Protozoal infection C. Anaerobic cocci D. Gram negative bacteria 54.For late latent syphilis the follow up is indicated at: A. 6, 12, and 24 months. B. 5, 10 and 16 months. C. Every month during 2 years D. Every other month during 2 years 55. Persons who were exposed > 90 days before the diagnosis of secondary partner should be treated: A. In 3 months if serologic test results are not available immediately and the follow-up is uncertain. B. In 1 month if serologic test results are not available immediately and the follow-up is uncertain. C. Presumptively if serologic test results are not available immediately follow-up is uncertain. D. in 6 months if serologic test results are not available immediately and the follow-up is uncertain. 56- Pregnant women with allergy to penicillin in cases of syphilis should be treat: A. Doxycycline. B. Garamycin C. Erythromycin D. Zynat 57. The first line of choice for the treatment of syphilis is: A. 1 it depends on the stage of syphilis B. Group of Penicillin C. Group of Tetracycline D. Group of Phtorchinolone. 58. Nerve deafness is specific for: A. Primary syphilis B. Secondary syphilis C. Latent early syphilis. D. Latent late syphilis. 59. Ichthyosis vulgaris is associated with: A. Contact dermatitis B. Urticaria C. Mastocytosis D. Atopic dermatitis 60. Which antihistamine is preferable to use in atopic dermatitis: A. Clemastin B. Desloratadine C. Loratadine D. Hydroxyzine 61. Atopic dermatitis is: A. Type II hypersensitivity reaction. B. Type 1 (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity reaction. C. Type III hypersensitivity reaction D. Type I hypersensitivity reaction. 62. Which areas are more affected in contact dermatitis is: A. Trunk. B. Lower extremities C. Scalp D. Hands 63. Mechanism of acute irritant contact dermatitis is based on: A. Direct cytotoxic damage to keratinocytes. B. Results from repeated exposures that cause slow damage to the cell membranes. C. Type II hypersensitivity reaction. 64. Dermoscopy is mainly useful for distinguish: A. Moles from melanoma. B. Bullous dermatoses from none bullous. C. Verrucae vulgaris from molluscum contagiosum. D. Impetigo from ecthyma 66.For description of eruption is important the follows except of: A. Type of morphologic element. B. Distribution of morphologic elements. C. Localization of morphologic elements. D. Aerodynamic of morphologic elements. 67. Wood lamp is useful in case of: A. Pityriasis versicolor. B. Psoriasis C. Herpes simplex D. Herpes zoster 68. Under the microscopic examination in cases of skin fungal disease we can see: A. Sphere form leucocytes B. Neutrophils. C. Tube like spores. D. Staphylococcus 70. Drying agent is useful for more: A. Moisture area B. Scaling area C. Area with fissures D. Hyperkeratotic area 71. Acute form of urticaria lasts up to: A. 1 week. B. 6 weeks. C. 1 month. D. 1 year 72. Urticaria is diagnosed: A. Clinically. B. By general blood test. C. By assessment of liver function D. By assessment of function of thyroid gland. 73. Lotion with alcohol is useful in cases of: A. Rosacea. B. Acne vulgaris. C. Psoriasis. D. Allergic dermatitis. 74. The formulation of ointment is useful in cases of: A. Acne vulgaris. B. Impetigo C. Herpes simplex D. Psoriasis 75. The formulation Spray is useful to treat: A. Large body surface area B. Small body surface area C. Only on the legs D. Only on the scalp. 76. Lymphadenopathy in primary syphilis is: A. Painful. B. Purulent C. Itching D. Unilateral 77. Preferable localization of condylomata lata (flat topped condylomas) is: A. Face B. Genital area C. Palms D. Scalp 78. Treponema pallidum crosses placenta on the: A. 4th month of pregnancy. B. 5th month of pregnancy. C. 3rd month of pregnancy D. 8th month of pregnancy. 79. Cellulitis is the infection of the: A. Deep dermis and subcutaneous tissue. B. Epidermis. C. Sebaceous glands D. Sweat glands 81. Laboratory examination for diagnosis of Cutaneous Tuberculosis is: A. Blood test on biochemistry. B. Dermatopathology and culture. C. Only dermatopathology. D. General blood test. 82. Causative organism of blistering distal dactylitis: A. Group A Streptococcus spp. or S. aureus. B. Malassezia spp. C. Proprion bacteria Acne. D. Trychophiton menthagraphites 84. Main skin manifestation for Boreliosis: A. Papula B. Erythema C. Papulo-pustular eruption D. Lichenification 88. The significant borderline of damage areas specific for: A. Bacterial folliculitis. B. Fungal folliculitis. C. Viral infections D. Skin parasitic diseases. 89. One of the most causative factor of Majochi granuloma is: A. Long term use of topical antifungals. B. Short term use of antibiotics. C. Long term use of topical corticosteroids. D. Long term use of antivirals. 91- for dry skin is useful to use : A. Ointment. B. Cream. C. Lotion. D. Powder. 92- crusted scabies is typical among : A. elder persons. 97. Boreliosis is transmitted to humans via tick bites: A. Mosquito B. Sarcoptes hominies C. Genus ixode D. Scorpion 98.Deeper form of impetigo is: A. Bacterial folliculitis B. Pityrisporum folliculitis C. Echthyma D. Infectious cellulitis 99. Abrupt onset of high temperature, pain and erythematous rush on the leg is specific for: A. Infectious cellulitis B. Erysipelas C. Carbuncle D. Furuncle 100. Crater-like depressions on weight-bearing regions are specific for: A. Tinea pedis-moccasin type B. Tinea pedis-Bullous form C. Pitted keratolysis D. Eczema palms and soles 101. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction occurs: A. At the end of any therapy for syphilis. B. During the first day after the initiation of any therapy for syphilis. C. At the end of any therapy for gonorrhea. D. At the end of any therapy for trichomoniasis 102. Choose the correct diagnosis for this picture:  A. Impetigo B. Herpes zoster C. Abscess D. Herpes simplex 103. Choose the correct diagnosis for this picture: A. Warts B. Skin bacterial disease C. Cutaneus tuberculosis D. Leprosy 104. Choose the correct diagnosis for this picture: A. Impetigo B. Herpes simplex  C. Herpes zoster D. Skin fungal disease 105. Choose the correct diagnosis for this picture: A. Herpes zoster B. Impetigo C. Fungal disease D. Herpes simplex 106. Choose the correct diagnosis for this picture: A. Bacterial folliculitis B. Fungal disease C. Molluscum contagiosum D. Impetigo 107. Choose the correct diagnosis for this picture: A. Viral disease B. Onychomycosis C. Nail bacterial disease  D. Yellow nail syndrome 108. Choose the correct diagnosis for this picture: A. Secondary syphilis B. Autoimmune allopecia C. Tinea capitis D. Primary syphilis Allergology & immunology midterm& quizzes question: angioedema and urticaria is example of: A. Type II B. Type III C. Type I D. Type IV question: Symptoms of BA (Bronchial Asthma) are: A. Wheezing B. Cough C. Prolonged expiration D. All listed above Question: Asthma exacerbation first line medicine is: A. SABA inhalation  B. Adrenalin l/m C. H1 blockers D. H, H2 blockers Question: common side effects of Inhaled Bronchodilators: A. Tachicardia B. Bradicardia C. Abdominal colic D. Neither of them Question: Etiology of acute urticaria may be: A. Vaccination B. Stinging or biting insects C. Latex exposure D. All listed above Question: Allergy skin prick or intradermal skin tests detect: A. IgM antibodies B. IgG antibodies C. IgE antibodies D. IgA antibodies Question: Short-Acting b 2-Agonists: A. Can be given in nebulized, MDI, or oral forms B. Onset of bronchodilation occurs within minutes, peaks at about 15 min, and has a duration of action of about 4-6 hours C. Are indicated for the immediate, as-needed control of asthma symptoms D. All listed are correct. Question: Second generation of antihistamines should be stopped before skin prick tests at list: A. 4 weeks B. 4-6 days C. 4-6 hours D. Needn't to stop Question: Which side effect of H1 blockers may be used successfully: A. Sedative B. Dry mouth C. Weakness D. Neither of them Question: For Anaphylactic reactions first line medicine is: A. First generation H1 blocker B. Epinephrine i/m C. H2 blocker D. Second generation H1 blocker Question: Allergy skin prick or intradermal skin tests are recommended when we suspect: A. Hypersensitivity Type I B. Hypersensitivity Type II C. Hypersensitivity Type III D. Hypersensitivity Type IV QUESTION: Urticaria is characterized: A. Spontaneously manifested wheals B. Pruritic wheals  C. Short-lived wheals D. All listed above are correct Question: bronchial asthma is: A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III Question: What test can prove anaphylaxis: A. Eosinophils in CBC. B. Coombs test C. Spirometry. D. Serum tryptase Question: For Br. Asthma attack treatment not recommended: A. Oral systemic corticosteroids. B. SABA alone C. H2 blockers D. Ipratropium Question: Symptoms of allergic rhinitis are all listed below, except: A. Breathing problem through nose B. Running nose C. Nose bleeding D. Nose rubbing, itching Question: Urticaria is characterized: A. Lesions last >24 hr B. Lesions last 48 hr C. Lesions last