Hygiene MCQ PDF

PREVENTIVE and SOCIAL MEDICINE Department of Hygiene and Human Ecology Hygiene and Ecology (Tests 4 th semester) Preventive medicine. Hygiene and Ecology. Environmental factors and their effect оn the heal...

PREVENTIVE and SOCIAL MEDICINE Department of Hygiene and Human Ecology Hygiene and Ecology (Tests 4 th semester) Preventive medicine. Hygiene and Ecology. Environmental factors and their effect оn the health. 1. The concept of multifactorial causation of disease was propounded by (a) Hippocrates; (b) Robert Koch; (c) Winslow; (d)* Pettenkofer 2. Early diagnosis and treatment is a_____prevention (a) Primary; (b)* Secondary; (c) Tertiary; (d) Quartenary 3. According to WHO classification, mild mental retardation is IQ of (a) 60-70; (b) *50-70; (c) 35-49; (d) 20- 34 4. Severe mental retardation is classified as IQ of (a) 60-70; (b) 50-70; (c) 34-49; (d)* 20- 34 5. The primary objective of any acute communicable disease programmer should be (a) Diagnosis; (b) Treatment; (c) Rehabilitation; (d) *Prevention 6. The programmer to prevent deaths due to diarrhoea should stress on (a) Oral hygiene; (b) *Oral rehydration; (c) Antibiotics; (d) Milk hygiene 7. The world's first international health agency is (a) World Health Organization; (b) UNICEF; (c)* Pan American Sanitary bureau; (d) Red cross 8. World health organization was established in the year (a) 1942; (b) 1944; (c) *1946; (d) 1948 9. World Health Day is celebrated every year on (a) 1st Feb; (b) *7th April; (c) 31st May; (d) 1st December 10. The head quarters of WHO is at (a) Paris; (b) Rome; (c) *Geneva; (d) New York 11. All are true regarding organization of WHO except  (a)* It is subordinate to United Nations; (b) Has its own constitution; (c) Membership to WHO & UN is optional; (d) Has its own budget 12. UNICEF was established in the year (a) 1942; (b) 1944; (c) *1946; (d) 1948 13. UNICEF day is celebrated every year on (a) 1st Dec. (b) *11th Dec. (c) 21st Dec. (d) 31st Dec. 14. The headquarters of UNICEF is at (a) Paris; (b) Rome; (c) Geneva; (d)* New York 15. Hygiene as a science: a)* Studying the influence of natural external factors on man health. b) Find out the harmful factors. c)* Work out The preventives measures against the negative influence of external factors. d)* Work out the hygienic recommended standards. e) Studying the biological relation between the environment and the body. 16. Man ecology as a discipline: a) Studying the influence of the natural environment on man health. b) Find out the harmful external factors. c) Work out the hygienic recommended standards. d)* Studying the biological relation between the environment and the body. 17. Research methods which used in hygienic science are: a)*Physical; b)*Chemical; c)*Physiological; d)*Bacteriological. e)*Experimental; i) Psychological. 18. The manifestation of negative influence of ecological factors are: a)* Change of gasses content in atmosphere. b) Depletion of the ozone layer thickness. c) Change the climate. d) Increase the number of man morbidity. 19. Which of the following factors take part in formation of man health: a)*Genetic; b)*Endemic; c)*Nature and climate; d)*Epidemic. e)*Ecological. 20. Point out the real % of illness because of the ecological factors (WHO reports): a) 10%; b)*25%; c) 50%; d) 73% 21. The founder of ecology as a science: a)*Hekkel; b) Mebeos; c) Grinel; d) Vernandsky. Air: chemical and physical atmospheric factors. Air pollution. Problem of environmental pollution in the cities. 2 1. Coh units is used to express air pollution caused by (a) Sculpture dioxide; (b) Carbon monoxide; (c) *Smoke; (d) Oxidants 2. All are indicators of air pollution except (a) Soiling index; (b) *McArdle index; (c) Suspended particle count; (d) SO2 Concentration 3. CO2 content of air is measured by (a)* Pattern Kopfler's test; (b) Horrock's test; (c) Both the above; (d) None of the above 4. Leading source of air pollution is (a) Industry; (b) Power plants; (c)* Transport vehicle; (d) Crop spraying 5. Digestion, air drying, vacuum filtration and heat drying are associated with (a) Air pollution control; (b) Water purification; (c) Milk processing (d) *Sludge treatment 6. The layers of the earth atmosphere: a)*Troposphere. b)*Stratosphere. c) Vacuum sphere. d) Ion sphere. 7. An air pollution may cause: a)*An increase in the % of skin diseases; b) An increase in % of eye diseases; c)*An increase in % of lungs diseases; d)*An increase in % of cancers. 8. The hygienic values of CO2 in the air are: a) Take part in nature cycle of the elements. b)*Stimulate the breathing function. c)*Show the level of air pollution in the rooms. d)*High concentration of CO2 dangerous for the body. e) Has a narcotic effect. 9. The concentration of oxygen in different layers of the atmosphere is: a)*Decreasing in high layers. b) Increasing in high layers. c) Usually with out any change. 10. Influence of the air pollution on the health: a)*Increase the skin diseases. b) Increase the diseases of the eyes. c)*Increases the breathing systems diseases. d)*Increase the % of cancers. 11. Zones of the city a)*Residence zone; b)*Industrial zone; c) Sport zone; d)*Green zone 12. Prevention of air pollution 3 a)*Legal measures; b) Proper foods; c)*Health education; d)*Green zones 13. Meaning of sanitary protective zone is: a) Distance between industrials enterprises. b) Distance between houses. c)*Distance between residence zone and industrial zone. Meaning of the climate. The hygienic significance of sun light. 1. Unit of measurement of brightness of point source is (a)* Candela; (b) Lumen; (c) Lux; (d) Lambert 2. Flow of light is expressed as (a) Candela; (b)* Lumen; (c) Lux; (d) Lambert 3. Unit measuring amount of light reaching surf ace is (a) Candela; (b) Lumen; (c)* Lux; (d) Lambert 4. Unit measuring amount of light reemitted by surface is (a) Candela; (b) Lumen; (c) Lux; (d)* Lambert 5. The minimum illumination for satisfactory vision is _____ foot candles (a) 5-10; (b) 10-15; (c)* 15-20; (d) 20- 25 6. The integral flow of the sun light give off the following specters: a)*UV-rays; b)*Visible light; c)*Infrared; d) Cosmic rays 7. The biological importance of the sun rays are to: a)*Stimulate the body activity. b)*Increase the metabolism processes. c)*Carry out the vision functions d)*Has erithimic effect 8. Effect of infrared rays are: a)*Increase the skin heat (worming the skin); b)*Increase the body temperature; c)*Widening the skin capillary; d)*Increase the metabolism; e) Having bactericidal effect 9. The main signs of erythema (redness) causes by UV- rays: a) Clear border lining, b) Non distinctive border, c)*Skin inflation, d)*With high temperature. 10. Psychrometer measures: a)*Humidity; b) Temperature; c) Air velocity 4 11. Anenometer measures: a) Humidity; b) Air pollution; c) Temperature; d)*Air velocity 12. The main complications under high atmospheric pressure are: a) Rupture of spleen; b)*Air embolism; c) Nausea 13. The following are the result of effect of low pressure: a)*Increased respiration; b)*Increased cardiac output; c)*Increased concentration of Hb 14. Point out the UV-rays border in sun rays; a)*10-400 nm.; b) 200-400 nm.; c) 400-761 nm. 15. Point out the UV-rays border which produced by artificial sources (lamps) a) 10-400; b)*200- 400 nm; c) 400- 761 nm. 16. Conjunctivitis and keratitis is caused due to exposure to: a)*UV rays; b) Heat; c) Vibration 17. Which of the following is true about UV rays: a)*UV rays convert dihydrochollesterol in the skin to vitamin D; b)*Synthesize of melatonin pigments; c)*Bactericide effect 18. The indication for using UV rays lamps a)*The deficiency of vitamin D; b)*In winter time in the north area c) High atmospheric pressure; d) For those who worked underground 19. Contraindication agents using artificial source of UV rays: a)*Active pulmonary tuberculosis; b)*Thyroids; c)*Disease of the liver; d)*Disease of kidney The hygienic significance of microclimate. Disposal of wastes. 1. Anemometer measures (a) Humidity; (b) Heat stress; (c) Air pollution; (d)* Air velocity 2. Psycho meter measures (a)* Humidity; (b) Rainfall; (c) Frost; (d) Air velocity 3. For good ventilation, the door and windows should have____the floor area (a) ¼; (b) ½; (c)* 2/5; (d) 3/4 4. The minimum per capita cubic space is fixed at (a) 100 c.ft; (b)* 500 c.ft; (c) 1000 c.ft; (d) 1500 c.ft 5. Solid wastes in the cities are called 5 (a)* Refuse; (b) Garbage; (c) Litter; (d) Sewage 6. Solid wastes occurring in the country side is called (a) Refuse; (b) Garbage; (c)* Litter; (d) Sewage 7. Waste matter arising from waste food and vegetables is (a) Refuse; (b)* Garbage; (c) Litter; (d) Sewage 8. Waste water containing solid and liquid excreta is (a) Refuse; (b) Garbage; (c) Sullage; (d)* Sewage 9. All are features of septic tank except (a)* Ideal retention period - 48 hours; (b) Minimum capacity - 500 gallons; (c) Aerobic oxidation takes place outside; (d) Sludge is solids setting down 10. Amount of the light on the surface is measured as: a)*Lux; b) Lumen; c) Candle 11. What are the main sensitive body functions in relation to changing of microclimate conditions a)*Thermoregulation; b) Breathing; c) Digestion; d)*Cardiovascular-function. 12. The main singes of body coolness are: a) Structure change in the cell; b)*Spasm of the peripheral blood vascular; c)*Decrease the body resistance; d) Increase the lung ventilation 13. What are the main singes of the body overheating: a)*Increase the lung ventilation; b)*Increase the body temperature; c)*Increase the pulse; d)*Widening the peripheral vascular 14. Which sings we need to assess the level of natural lighting on the work place: a)*Coefficient of the light; b)*Coefficient of the natural light; c)*Coefficient of the depth's; d) *Angle of the hole. 15. What are the hygienic demands for artificial source of the light: a)*Must not change the physical and chemical content of the air; b)*Must be safe for the bios; c)*Must be uniform light; d) Continua's by character. 16. The advantages of neon lamps are: a)*Economical source; b)*With more brightness; c)*Dispersed light; d)*With out sharp shadows 17. What are the main causes of stroboscopic effect: a) Light dispersion; b)*Incontinently lighting; c) Low bright lamps. 18. The causes of discomfort in an overcrowded poorly ventilated room are: a)*Temperature; b) CО2; c) Air change 19. The hygienic values of CО2 in the air are: 6 a) Take part in nature cycle of the elements. b)*Stimulate the breathing function. c)*Show the level of air pollution in the rooms. d)*High concentration of CО2 dangerous for the body. e) Has a narcotic effect. 20. Anenometer measures: a) Humidity; b) Air pollution; c) Temperature; d)*Air velocity 21. The main complications under high atmospheric pressure are: a) Rupture of spleen; b) * Air embolism; c) Nausea 22. Sanitary singes of soil a)*Sanitary number; b)*Coli–titer; c)*Number of rain worm in Im3 of soil 23. The pollutant sources of soil are; a)*Animal excreta; b)*Factories; c)*Wastes; d)*Transport 24. Singes of soil sanitary condition are: a)*Coli-titer; b)*Titer of anaerobe; c)*Sanitary number; d) Concentration of SiО3. 25. Sanitary number of the clean uncontaminated soil is: a)*1,0; b) 0,7; c) 0,2 Water: it is physiological, hygienic and epidemiological significance. The water-born diseases, quality of water. 1. Per capita allowance of water per day is recommended at (a) 70-80 lit; (b) 80-120 lit; (c) 120 -150 lit; (d)* 150 - 200 lit 2. Which is true of rain water? (a) Hard; (b) High mineral content; (c)* Erodes lead pipes; (d) Has pathogenic agents 3. Disadvantages of deep well water are all except (a) Much hard; (b) Requires pumping; (c) High mineral content; (d)* Grossy contaminated 4. Guinea worm disease is more prevalent in areas with (a)* Step well; (b) Dug well; (c) Artesian well; (d) no covering 5. A sanitary well should be located at least___feet from source of contamination (a) 15; (b) 25; (c)* 50; (d) 75 6. All are features of sanitary well except 7 (a) Parapet; (b) Drain; (c) Platform around the well; (d)* No covering 7. All the following cause permanent hardness except (a) Magnesium chloride; (b) Magnesium sulphate; (c) Magnesium nitrate; (d)* Magnesium bicarbonate 8. Level of hardness in soft water is____mEq / litre (a)* Less than 1; (b) 1-3; (c) 3-6; (d) Over 6; 9. Level of hardness in hard water is____mEq / litre (a) Less than 1; (b) l-3; (c)*3-6; (d) Over 6 10. Permutit process removes (a) Temporary hardness; (b) Permanent hardness; (c)* a + b; (d) None of the above 11. Sodium permuted contains all except (a) Sodium; (b)* Chloride; (c) Aluminium; (d) Silica 12. The method which softens water to zero hardness is (a) Boiling; (b) Clark's method; (c) Addition of Sodium Carbonate; (d)* Base exchange process 13. The optimum period of storage of river water is (a) 2-3 days; (b) 7-10days; (c)* 10-14days; (d) 2-3weeks 14. Recommended standard for bacterial water quality in small community supplies is (a) No coliforms; (b) No E. coli in 100 ml; (c)*Coliforms less than 10/100 ml; (d) Coliform less than 1/100 ml 15. Highest desirable level of chloride in water is (a) 5 mg/lit; (b) 75 mg/lit; (c) 100 mg/lit; (d)* 200 mg/lit 16. Highest desirable level of Total hardness in water is (a) l mEq/lit; (b)* 2 mEq/lit; (c) 3 mEq/lit; (d) 4 mEq/lit 17. Acceptable limit of gross alfa activity is (a) 1,0 Bc/l; (b) 2,0 Bc/l (c)* 0,1 Bc/l; (d) 5,0 Bc/l 18. Acceptable limit of gross beta activity is (a)10 Bc/l; (b) 20 Bc/l; (c)* 1 Bc/l; (d) 40 Bc/l; 8 19. Nitrates in excess of_____may cause infantile methaemoglobinaemia (a) 15 mg/l; (b) 25 mg/l; (c) 35 mg/l; (d)* 45 mg/l 20. All the following provide evidence of faecal pollution except (a) Faecal Streptococci; (b) Coliform; (c)* Cl. Tetani; (d) Enteropathogenic virus 21. The main causes of water-borne diseases are: a)*Fluoride; b) Iodine; c) Stroncy; d) Molybdenum. 22. Disadvantage of hard water: a)*Consumes more soap; b) Increased fuel consumption; c)*Difficult to cook the food 23. Hard drinking water causes: a) Diabetes; b) Malignancy; c)*Cardiovascular disease 24. The standards of quality of drinking-water are: a)*Transparency not less than 30 cm; b)*Hardness below 7,5 mg/l; c)*The level of fluoride not more than 1,5 mg/l 25. The main Source of fluoride is: a)*Water; b) Cheese; c) Bread 26. Fluoridation of water prevents: a)*Dental caries; b) Aneamie; c) Dental fluorosis 27. The safe concentration of fluoride in water is: a)*Not less than 0,7mg/lit; b)*Not more than 1,5 mg/lit; c) more than 3m g/lit 28. The normal level of hardness of water is: a) 7,5 mEq/l; b)* Less than 2 mEq/l; c) More than 10 mEq/l 29. The main causes of endemic water borne diseases is low concentration of: a)*Fluoride; b)*Iodine; c) Copper; d) Stroncy. 30. The character of sub soil water: a)*High concentration of minerals; b) High acidity; c) May easily contaminated by polluted soil. Purification of water. 1. Boiling for 5-10 minutes kills (a)* Bacteria; (b) Spores; (c) Virus; (d) None of the above 2. The contact period for chlorination is recommended at (a)15min; (b)30min; (c)* 1 hour; (d) 2 hours 9 3. Chlorination of water kills (a)* Bacteria; (b) Spores; (c) Protozoal cysts; (d) Helminthic ova 4. Horrock's apparatus estimates (a) Free chlorine; (b) Combined chlorine; (c)* a + b; (d) Chlorine demand 5. Free residual chlorine should not be less than (a)* 0,5 mg/lit; (b) 1 mg/lit; (c) 50 mg/lit; (d) 200 mg/lit 6. The type of filter which has silver catalyst is (a) Chamberl filter; (b) Candle filter; (c) Berkefeld filter; (d)* Katadyn filter 7. The most effective method for disinfecting well is by using (a)* Bleacing powder; (b) Potassium permanganate; (c) Iodine; (d) Chlorine solution 8. Which is not true of germicidal property of UV rays? (a) Very effective; (b) Turbidity of water interferes; (c) Expensive procedure; (d)* Good residual germicidal effect 9. Orthotolidine test determines (a) Free chlorine; (b) Combined chlorine; (c) Chlorine demand; (d)* Both free and combined chlorine 10. Free chlorine is estimated by (a) Orthotolidine test; (b)* OT arsensite test; (c) Both the above; (d) None of the above 11. WHO standard for viral quality is fixed at___plaque forming unit per litre (a)* l; (b) 2; (c) 3; (d) 5 12. The best method for supplying water to a community is (a) Boiling; (b) Ozonation; (c)* Chlorination; (d) KMnO4 13. Sewage is said to be strong if biological oxygen demand is more than (a) 50 ppm; (b) 100 ppm; (c) 200 ppm; (d)* 300 ppm 14. The best method of purifying turbid water is (a) Using activated charcoal; (b)* Rapid Sand filtration; (c) Ozonation; (d) Alum precipitation 15. Copper sulphate is utilized in water purification to decrease (a) Turbidity; (b) Inorganic iron; (c)* Odour producing algae; (d) Bacterial count 10 16. The action of chlorine in disinfection of water depends on (a) Time; (b) Temperature; (c) pH; (d)* All of the above 17. The upper limit of pH above which chlorine is not reliable as disinfectant is (a) 2-8; (b) 4-5; (c) 6; (d)* 8,5 18. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to____ion (a) Chloride; (b)* Hypochlorous; (c) Hypochlorite; (d) Hydrogen 19. The recommended amount of free residual chlorine at end of 30 min is (a) 0,05 mg/lit; (b) 0,08 mg/lit; (c) 0,1 mg/lit; (d)* 0.2 mg/lit 20. Strength of seawage is expressed in terms of (a) E. coli count; (b)* Biological oxygen demand; (c) Amount of nitrates; (d) Suspended solids 21. Drinking water is best made free of cyclops by (a)* Filtration; (b) Boiling; (c) Chlorination; (d) Ozonation 22. Action of slow sand filter depends upon: a) Zoogleal (biological) layer; b)*Size of sand particles; c) Sand compactness 23. The rapid sand filter is: a) More efficient than slow sand filter; b)*Filtration is 20 times rapid than that of a slow sand filter; c) Remove the organic matter 24. Chlorinating of water help in: a) Control the growth of algae; b)*Kills pathogenic bacteria; c) Helps in coagulation 25. Chlorination does effect in normal doses: a)* Salmonella; b) Virus; c)*Shigella; d) Helmentis 26. The normal doses of chloranation is: a)* 1-5 mg/l; b) 10 mg/l; c) 0,5-2 mg/l 27. Free chlorine level recommended in drinking water is: a)* 0,3-0,5 mg/l; b) 2 mg/l; c) 3 mg/l 28. The % of freshly made bleaching powder is: a) 25%; b)* 20%; c) 12% 29. Which one of the following are waterborne diseases: a)*Poliomyelitis; b)*Cholera; c) Kala-azar; d)*Infective hepatitis 11 30. Which of the following are the main methods for purification of water a) Softening; b) Desalting; c)*Coagulation; d)*Disinfecting 31. The physical methods for disinfection of drinking water are: a)*Boiling; b)*UV rays; c) Ozonation. 32. Chlorination does not effect in normal doses: a) Salmonella; b)*Virus; c) Shigella; d)*Helmenthis 33. For coagulation we used: a) Chlor; b) Bleaching powder; c)*Sulfur acidic aluminum; d)*Sulfur acidic ferrum. 34. Methods of filtration: a)*Rapid; b)*Slow; c) Moderate. Hospital Hygiene. 1. Nosocomial infection means (a) Infection of nose; (b)* Hospital acquired infection; (c) Notifiable disease; (d) New disease 2. The most effective sterilizing procedure is (a) Sunlight; (b) Boiling; (c) Hot air oven; (d)*Steam under pressure 3. Sharp instruments are best sterilized by (a) Boiling; (b) Radiation; (c)* Hot air oven; 4. All the following can be sterilized by Autoclaving except (a) Gloves; (b) Culture media; (c)* Plastics; (d) Linen 5. Commercial methods of sterilization using radiation use_____rays (a) Alpha; (b) Beta; (c)* Gamma; (d) Protons 6. Which is true of pure phenol? (a) Commonly used; (b) Effective; (c)* Used as standard for disinfectants; (d) Disinfects faeces 7. For effective disinfection of faeces, strength of crude phenol is (a) 1-2%; (b) 5%; (c)* 10%; (d) 25% 8. Crude phenol is effective against all except (a) Gram positive bacteria; (b) Gram negative bacteria; (c)* Acid fast bacilli; (d) Certain viruses 9. Which of the following is cresol emulsion? (a) Dettol; (b)* Lysol; (c) Savlon ; (d) Hibitane 10. The contact period for disinfectant activity of dettol is (a) 5 min. (b)* 15min. (c) 30min. (d) 60min. 12 11. The antiseptic which shows cumulative effect on skin is (a) Eresol; (b) Lysol; (c) Chlorhexidine; (d)* Hexachlorphane 12. Clinical thermometer are best disinfected in (a)*Savlon 1 in 6 spirit; (b) Savlon 1 in 20 aqueous; (c) Savlon 1 in 6 aqueous; (d) Savlon 1 in 20 spirit 13. The disinfectant recommended for sterilizing infants' feeding bottle is (a) Savlon - 5%; (b) 5% bleaching power solution; (c) *Freshly prepared hypo solution; (d) 1 - 2% iodine solution 14. The advantage of Betadine over Tincture iodine is (a) Cheap; (b) Quick action; (c) Effective; (d)*Does not stain skin 15. The only useful antiseptic with sporocidal action are (a) Phenol related compounds; (b) Quartenary ammonia compounds; (c)*Halogens; (d) Alcohols; 16. The strength of alcohol with good antiseptic action is (a) 100%; (b) 90%; (c)*70%; (d) 50% 17. Formaldehyde is effective against at except (a) Vegetative bacteria; (b) Fungi; (c) Many viruses; (d)* a, b, c 18. All are suitable for disinfection of faeces and urine except (a) 8% bleaching powder; (b) 1 % crude phenol; (c) 5% cresol; (d)* 1-2% formalin 19. Ideally, bedpans and urinals are sterilized using (a) 1% cresol; (b) Bleaching powder; (c)* Steam; (d) All of the above 20. Formaldehyde disinfection of rooms is effective at a) High temperature; (b) 80-90% humidity; (c) Room closed for 6 -12 hours (d)* All of the above 21. Agents which inhibit growth of micro-organisms are called (a) Disinfectants; (b)* Antiseptic; (c) Detergents; (d) Deoderants 22. Agents with capacity to kill the micro-organisms are called (a)* Disinfectants; (b) Antiseptic; (c) Detergents; (d) Deoderants 23. The system of hospital planing a)*Compound; b)*Non compound; c)*Mixture planing 24. For good natural lighting in hospital department the orientation must be a)*South-east; b) South-west; c) North-west 25. Optimum hygienic conditions in hospitals are: a)*Normal level of microclimate in the words; b)*Unpolluted air; c)*Normal level of lighting; d)*Absent of noise; e)*State of rest and comfort. 13 26. Create favorable condition for patient treatment depend upon: a)*Hospital planing system; b) Number of beds; c) Location of the hospital in relation to the populated area; d)*Word planning; e)*Well designed hospital area. 27. Advisable (expedient) number of beds in city hospitals: a)*25-50 beds; b) 100-200 beds; c) 250-300 beds; d) 600-1200 beds. 28. The causes of cross infection in the hospitals a) The carriers; b)*The medical staff; c)*Bad sanitary situation; d) The pipe line water 29. The particular feature of child hospital a)*Age differential of departments; b)*Complementary beds for mothers; c) The space of green zone not more than 10% of hospital area 30. The particular feature of the department of infection diseases are: a)*With special reception (Box); b)*With deferent highly secured and secured rooms; c)*The department in separated building; d) Having common hall for all patients. 31. Additional rooms in department of children's are: a)*Playing room; b) Dining room; c) Feeding room; d) Room for mothers. 32. There must be a good connection between the operational hall and: a) Reception; b) Physiotherapeutic department; c)*Department of surgical diseases; d) Roentgen cabinet. 33. The zones in hospital area are: a)*The main buildings; b)*Policlinic and administration centre; c) Thrifty zone; d)*Green zone; e) Sport zone. The Hygiene of children. 1. Prevalence criteria among preschool children for determining xerophthalmia problem include all except (a) Night blindness more than 1% (b) Bitot's spots more than 0.5% (c)* Conjunctival xerosis more than 0.01% (d) Keratomalacia more than 0.5% 2. Additional daily requirement of retinol during lactation is (a) 300mg (b) 400 meg (c) 500 meg (d)* 600 meg 3. Hygiene of children's as a science studying: a)*State health and physical development of children. b)*Organisation of time table in kinder- gardens and schools. c) Sport of children. d) Work activity of children and adolescents. e)*The sanitary conditions in child's establishments. 4. Point out the indexes used for assessment the child s health: 14 a)*Morbidity. b)*Child s mortality. c)*Physical development. d) Disability. e)*Demographic situation. f) The level of primary health care. 5. How many health groups in childrens: a) 3 groups. b) 4 groups. c)*5 groups. 6. The health of children s depend upon many factors: a) Health of there parents. b)*Genetic factors. c)*The nature and the climate. d)*Life style. e)*Epidemiological factors. 7. Negative factors which influencing the growth and development are: a) * Alcoholism and drugs adduction of the parents b)*Non sufficient nutrition. c)*Chronic diseases. d) Sport. e)*Bad social condition. 8. Siengs of growth and development are: a)*Somatometric signs b)*Physiometric signs c) Psychometric signs d)*Somatoscopic signs 9. Physiometric signs of the physical development are: a)*Pulmonary capacity b)*Muscular strength c)*Blood pressure and pulse d) Chest circumference 10. Somotoscopic signs of the physical development are: a) Height, Body weight and chest circumference b) Legs and hands muscles power. c)*Thickness of under skin fat. d)*Development of secondary sex signs. 11. Measure of growth are: a)*Weight b)*Height c) Head circumference 12. Estimations methods of growth and development are: a)*Sigmal deviation b)*Scale of regression c)* Complex method d) Screening test 13. Meaning of acceleration is: a) Improvement the signs of physical development. b)*Speed up of growth and development. 14. The principles of hardening a) Continuously b)*Individually c) Good food d) Positive reaction of the child 15. Types of hardening a)*With water b)*Air bath c)*Massage d) Radiation 16. The result of hardening a)*Improve the defense reaction of the body against external factors b) To improve the basic metabolism c)*To improve the immune system 17. In what time better to start hardening of the child: 15 a) Directly after birth. b) One month after birth. c)*3 months after birth. 18. Point out the factors which we consider when we chose the type of hardening method: a)*Age. b) Sex. c)*Health group. d) Condition of under skin fat. 19. Point out the starting temperature of water for hardening: a) Room temperature. b)*Body temperature. c) Legs temperature. 20. The major health problems seen in school children include (a) Malnutrition (b) Dental caries (c) Diseases of skin, eyes and ear (d)* All of the above 21. The school health committee in India recommends medical examination (a) Every 6 months (b) Every year (c) Once in 3 years (d)* Every 4 years 22. Medical examination of school children is done by (a) Teacher (b)* Doctor (c) Other school personnel (d) Any of the above 23. Recommended land area for higher elementary school is (a) 1 acre (b) 5 acres (c)* 10 acres (d) 15 acres 24. Recommended land are for primary schools is (a) 1 acre (b)* 5 acres (c) 10 acres (d) 15 acres 25. Ideal type of desk recommended for schools is (a) 'Plus' type (b) Neutral (c)* 'Minus' type (d) Zero type 26. All are true regarding window arrangement in classrooms except (a) Height from floor - 2 1/2 feet (b) Placed on different walls (c)* Door and window area -10% of floor space (d) Ventilator 2% of floor area 27. In schools, one urinal is recommended for every___students (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d)* 60 28. In schools, one latrine is to be provided for every____students (a) 50 (b)* 100 (c) 150 (d) 200 29. Duration of active attention in 7-10 years of age is: a) 10 minutes. b)*15-20 minutes. c) 30 minutes. 16 30. Duration of night sleeping time for children in junior classes is: a) 10-11 hours. b)*9-10 hours. c) 8,5 hours. 31. The adaptation period of children s in the school is: a) Up to 3 weeks. b) 3-4 weeks. c)*From 3 up to 16 weeks. d) More than 16 weeks. 32. Main indexes of child s adaptation in the school are: a)*Increase of body weight. b)*Morbidity. c)*Level of the visions. d) Level of blood Hb. 33. The optimum duration of writing work for children s in 1st class is: a) 2-4min. b)*5-8 min. c) Up to20 min. 34. The duration of reading work for children s in 1st class is: a) 3-6 min. b)*7-10 min. c) 15-30 min. 35. Primary symptoms of tire-out in schoolboys: a)*Change of behaviour. b)*Loss of appetite. c)*Irritability. d) Decrease the progress. 36. Point out the indexes used to define (to determine) sport groups in the school: a)*Schoolboy health. b)*The level of the growth and development. c) Level of physical preparedness. 37. Sport groups in the school are: a)*Primary (Main). b) Additional. c) Auxiliary. d)*Special. 38. Professional medical consultation provided with all schoolboys from: a) V class. b) VII class. c)*IX-X classes. 39. The % of green zone in the area of child s establishment must be: a) Not less than 50% of that area. b)*Not more than 50 % of that area. 40. The functional sections in kinder- gardens are: a)*Group cell. b) Music hall. c) Ages group. 41. Demands for school furniture are: a) * The size depend upon the height of schoolboys. b)*With bright tone colour. c) With dark tone colour. d) Easy to use. 42. The distance between the eyes and the book (notebook) at the time of reading and writing is: a) 20-25 cm. b)*25-35cm. c) 40-45 cm. 43. The size of the desk for schoolboys depends upon there: a) Age b)*Height c) Body weight 44. The main rooms in the school a)*Classes b) Workshops c) Kitchen d) Sport hall 17 45. Orientation of the group rooms in kinder-garden should be: a) South. b) North-east. c)*South- east. d) West. 18  PREVENTIVE and SOCIAL MEDICINE Department of Hygiene and Human Ecology Hygiene and Ecology (Tests, 5 th semester) Lesson 14. Nutrition and Health. 1. The protein content of cow's milk is (a) 1.2gm%; (b) 2.4gm%; (c)* 3.5 gm%; (d) 4.2 gm%. 2. The caloric yield per egg is (a) 50 Kcal; (b) 60 Kcal; (c)* 70 Kcal; (d) 80 Kcal. 3. The cooking oil with highest amount of Essential fatty acid is (a) Groundnut oil; (b)* Sunflower oil; (c) Coconut oil; (d) Castor oil. 4. Toxin causing Epidemic dropsy is (a) Arginine; (b)* Sanguinarine; (c) BOAA; (d) Pyruvin. 5. The ratio of Casein to albumin in Human milk is (a) 1.1; (b) 2.1; (c) 1:2; (d)* 7:1. 6. The litre of cow's milk provides____mg of calcium (a) 400; (b) 800; (c)* 1200; (d) 1600. 7. Additional protein requirement during lactation per day is (a) 5g; (b)10g; (c)14g; (d)*25g. 8. All are essential fatty acids except (a)* Oleicacid; (b) Linoleic acid; (c) linolenic acid; (d) Arachidonic acid. 9. The suggested fat intake is______per cent of total energy (a) 10; (b)* 20; (c) 30; (d) 40. 10. Proximate principles refers to all except (a) Proteins; (b) Carbohydrates; (c) Fats; (d)* Minerals. 11. The protein content in 100 g of pulse is (a) 7-12%; (b) 13-20%; (c)* 22-24%; (d) 40%. 12. The protein content of 100 g of Soyabean (a) 7 - 12%; (b) 13 - 20%; (c) 22 - 24%; (d)* 40%. 1 13. The protein content of 100 g of cereals is (a) *7 - 12%; (b) 13 - 20%; (c) 22 - 24%; (d) 40%. 14. The amino acid which interferes with conversion of tryptophan to niacin is (a) *Leucine; (b) Isoleucine; (c) Lysine; (d) Cystine. 15. The percentage of ingested protein absorbed after digestion is given by (a)* Digestibility co-efficient; (b) Biological value; (c) Protein efficiency ratio; (d) Net protein utilization. 16. Percentage of nitrogen retained, out of nitrogen absorbed is (a) Digestibility coefficient; (b)* Biological value; (c) Protein efficiency ratio; (d) Net protein utilization. 17. Product of digestibility coefficient and biological value is (a) Protein efficiency ratio; (b)* Net protein utilization; (c) Protein absorption ration; (d) Protein utilization rate. 18. All are essential aminoacids except (a) Leucine; (b) Isoleucine; (c) Phenylalanine; (d)* Leucine. 19. All the following proteins are biologically complete except (a) Egg; (b) Milk; (c)* Soyabean; (d) Fish. 20. The term 'reference protein' is used for (a)* Egg; (b) Milk; (c) Fish; (d) Meat. 21. Cereal proteins are deficient in (a) Methionine; (b)* Lysine; (c) Phenylalanine; (d) Leucine. 22. Pulse proteins are deficient in (a)* Methionine; (b) Lysine; (c) Threorine; (d) Leucine. 23. Limiting amino acids are (a) Methionine; (b) Lysine; (c) Threorine; (d)* All of the above. 24. The NPU of protein in Indian diet varies between (a) 10-20; (b) 30-50; (c)* 50-80; (d) 80- 100. 25. Recommended protein intake per day for Indian adult is (a)* l g/kg; (b) 1.5 g/kg; (c) 1.8 g/kg; (d) 2.3 g/kg. 26. Recommended protein intake per day for infant 0-3 months is (a) l g/kg; (b) 1.5 g/kg; (c) 1.8 g/kg; (d)* 2.3 g/kg. 27. Additional requirement of protein during pregnancy is 2  (a) 5 g; (b) 10 g; (c)* 14 g; (d) 25 g. 28. Adult requirement of Sodium per day is (a) 5mg; (b) 5-10mg; (c)*10-15mg; (d) 20mg. 29. The number of essential trace elements is (a) 5; (b)* 14; (c) 21; (d) 30. 30. All the following are considered as trace elements except (a) Iron; (b) Copper; (c)* Magnesium; (d) Manganese. 31. Suggested iron intake per day during pregnancy is (a) 24mg; (b) 32mg; (c)* 40mg; (d) 48mg. 32. The weight of an Indian reference man is (a) 45 kg; (b) 50 kg; (c)* 55 kg; (d) 60 kg. 33. The weight of an Indian reference woman is (a)* 45 kg; (b) 50 kg; (c) 55 kg; (d) 60 kg. 34. The caloric equivalent of 1 consumption unit is (a) 2000 Kcal; (b)* 2400 Kcal; (c) 2800 Kcal; (d) 3000 Kcal. 35. The additional daily caloric requirement during pregnancy is (a)* 300 Kcal; (b) 400 Kcal; (c) 500 Kcal; (d) 550 Kcal. 36. The additional calorie requirement during 3rd month of lactation is (a) 300 Kcal; (b) 400 Kcal; (c) 500 Kcal; (d)* 550 Kcal. 37. The additional calorie requirement during 6-12 months of lactatin is (a) 300 Kcal; (b)* 400 Kcal; (c) 500 Kcal; (d) 550 Kcal. 38. The calorie requirement of infant under 3 months of lactation is (a)* 120/kg; (b) 115/kg; (c) 110/kg; (d) 105/kg. 39. Calorie yield per 100 g of fresh cow's milk is (a) 60; (b)* 65; (c) 75; (d) 80. 40. The fat content in human milk (100 g) is (a) 7g; (b) 3.8g; (c) 4g; (d)* 3.1g. 41. The chief protein in milk is (a)* Casein; (b) Lactalbumin; (c) Lactoglobulin; (d) Albumin. 3 42. All the feature of Kwashiokar except (a) Skin changes; (b)* Mental alertness; (c) Edema; (d) Flag sign. 43. Milk has high content of all minerals except (a) Calcium; (b) Phosphorus; (c)* Iron; ( d) Sodium. 44. Fat content is highest in which animal protein? (a) Goat meat; (b) Fish; (c)* Egg; (d) Liver. 45. Trypsin inhibitor is present in (a) Hen egg; (b)* Duck egg; (c) Milk; (d) Fish. 46. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended upto (a) 1 - 3 months; (b)* 4 - 6 months; (c) 6 - 9 months; (d) 1 year. 47. All are principles in formulating mid day meal except (a) Low cost; (b)* Substitute to home diet; (c) Easily prepared; (d) Frequent change of menu. 48. The mid day meal should supply at least___of total energy requirement (a) One fourth; (b)* One third; (c) Half; (d) Two third. 49. The midday meal should provide at least__protein requirement per day (a) One third; (b)* Half; (c) Two third; (d) One fourth. 50. Milk should be covered so as to prevent decomposition of (a) Calcium; (b) Vitamin B1; (c)* Riboflavin; (d) Folic acid. 51. The energy supplied by 1 gm of protein is (a) 1Kcal; (b) 2 Kcal; (c) 3 Kcal; (d)* 4 Kcal. 52. All the following proteins are biologically complete except (a) Egg; (b) Cheese; (c)* Pulses; (d)Fish. 53. Of the following, which is an essential amino acid? (a) Glycine; (b)* Lysine; (c) Arginine; (d) Serine. 54. All are true regarding protein metabolism except (a) Have to be replaced every year; (b)* Re-utilization of amino acid contributes very little; (c) Amount of body protein is maintained constant; (d) For maximum utilization, calorie intake should be adequate. 55. Generally vegetable oil have low percentage of saturated fatty acid except (a)* Palm oil; (b) Cotton seed oil; (c) Groundnut oil; (d) Soya bean oil. 56. In which of the following vegetable oil, polyunsaturated fatty acid is lowest 4  (a)* Coconut oil; (b) Palm oil; (c) Soya bean oil; (d) Sunflower oil. 57. The oil of animal origin with high polyunsaturated fatty acid is (a) Meat; (b) Milk fat; (c)* Fish; (d) All of the above. 58. The dietary source of Arachidonic acid include all except (a) Milk; (b) Meat; (c) Egg; (d)* Soyabean. 59. Soyabean oil and leafy green provide source for which EFA? (a) Linoleic; (b)* Linolenic; (c) Arachidonic; (d) Eichosapentaenoic acid. 60. All are true regarding essential fatty acid except (a) Can be derived only from food; (b) Unoleic acid is the most important EFA; (c) Not all polyunsaturated fatty acids are EFA; (d)* Vegetable oil are a poor source of linoleic acid. 61. Food content the following elements: a)* Protein; b)* Fats; c)* Carbohydrate; d)* Minerals; e)* Water; f) Organic acids. 62. Point out the test (gustatory) elements: a) Carbohydrate; b)* Organic acids; c)* Ethier; d)* Dye; e) Tanned elements; f) Aromatic element 63. Point out the alien (foreigner) elements in food: a) Trace concentration of fertilizes; b)* Radioactive elements; c)* Heavy metals salts; d) Trace of vegetable origin; e)* Nitrozamine. 64. The main goals of hygiene of nutrition are: a)* Studying the quality and quantity of food in deferent's activities and live conditions. b)* Cultivation the measures to increase the value of the food. c)* Cultivation the methods to control the quality of foods. d)* Providing the measures against incidence of food poisoning. 65. Nutrition must be: a)* Healthy. b)* Rational. c)* Prophylactic. d)* Individual. e) Medical. 66. Point out the parameters by which may characterise the rational food: a)* Physiological standard norm. b)* Daily requirement. c)* Daily regime. 67. Which of the following metals its concentration controlled by international food trade: a) Antimony. b) Iodine. c) Floride. d)* Chromium. f)* Lithium. 68. The following are source of energy: a) Proteins; b)* Fats; c) Minerals; d) Vitamins. 69. The total number of essential amino acids for adults is: a)* 9, b) 15, c)12. 70. The essential amino acids are: a)* Treptophane; b)* Lysine; c) Tyrosine. 71. All of the following are source of proteins: 5  a)* Egg; b)* Milk; c)* Fish; d)* Soybean. 72. Cereal proteins are deficient in: a)* Lysine; b) Leucine; c)* Tryptophan. 73. The saturated fatty acids are: a)* Palmitic acid; b) Oleic acid; c) Stearic acid. 74. Which of the following is rich in Linoleic acid: a)* Sunflower oil; b) Soyabean; c) Coconut. 75. Daily requirement of protein for adults is: a) 0,7 gm/kg; b)* 1,2 gm/kg; c) 2,3 gm/kg. 76. The biological role of proteins a)* To take part in hormones synthesis; b)* To take part in enzyme synthesis; c)* To take part in antibody 77. Which of the following is rich with proteins a)* Grains; b)* Meat; c)* Fish; d) Vegetables. 78. The % of animal protein in daily requirement is: a) For adults not less than 50%; b)* For childrens not less than 70%; c) For children's not less than 60%. 79. The biological function of fats a)* As a source of energy; b) As a source of vitamin B; c)* As a source of fat soluble vitamins. 80. Which of the following is rich in saturated fatty acids a)* Butter; b) Fish liver oil; c)* Sunflower oil. 81. The recommended daily intake of vegetables oil is: a) 10%-15%; b)* 25%-30%; c) 40%. 82. Shortage of the fats in the body cause: a) Weakness of the immune mechanism. b)* Disturbance of the nervous signals flow. c)* Weakness of internal organs protect on self (kidney). 83. The biological functions of carbohydrate a)* Source of energy; b)* Formation of bones and tissues; c) Source of vitamin C. 84. Biological role of glycogen is: a)*Regulate the blood sugar level; b)* As a reserve of carbohydrate. 85. Biological role of cellulose are: a)* Stimulate the intestinal peristaltic; b) Depress the intestinal micro-flora; c)*Adsorb the sterins. 86. Point out the sources of cholesterol: a) Vegetable oil; b) Brain; c) Fish paste; d)* Chickens eggs. 87. WHO define the following as a diseases of civilisation: a)* Vitamin C shortage (hypovitamin); b) Vitamin Bl shortage c)* Excess of carbohydrate in food. 6 88. In milk. Main protein is: a)* Casein; b) Lactglobulin; c) Lactalbumin. 89. Carbohydrate present in milk is: a) Galactose; b) Fructose; c)* Lactose. 90. Milk is content: a)* vit. D; b)* vit. C; c)* Protein; d)* Vit. A. 91. The % of protein in cow's milk is: a) 1.4 gm; b) More thane 4%; c)* About 3.4%. 92. 100 gm. Of milk gavis: a) 90 Кcal.; b)* 67 Кcal.; c) 30 Кcal. 93. The methods for pasteurisation of milk are: a)*Long term method; b)Ultra high temperature method; c)*Instant term time method. 94. The recommended temperature to preserve of milk a) +12 − +15; b)* +4 − +6; c) 0-2. 95. Which of the following is rich with proteins a) Grains; b)* Meat; c)* Fish; d) Vegetables. Lesson 15-16. The hygienic value of Vitamins and Minerals. 1. Pellagra is widely prevalent in (a) W. Bengal; (b)* AP; (c) UP; (d) Bihar. 2. Jaggery is rich in (a) Folic acid; (b)* Iron; (c) Vitamin C; (d) Phosphorus. 3. Highest source of Vitamin C is (a) Orange; (b)* Amla; (c) Lemon; (d) Grapes. 4. Highest source of Vitamin A is seen in (a)* Cod liver oil; (b) Green leafy vegetable; (c) Papaya; (d) Carrot. 5. Daily requirement of Vitamin A is (a) 200 IU; (b) 400 IU; (c) 2000 IU; (d)* 4000 IU. 6. Daily requirement of Vitamin C is (a)* 40 mg; (b) 100 mg; (c) 200 mg; (d) 500 mg. 7. The most potent form of Vitamin A is (a) Carotene; (b)* Vitamin A l (c) Vitamin A 2; (d) Beta Carotene. 8. The features of Hypervitaminosis A are 7  (a) Alopecia; (b) Anorexia; (c) Pseudotumor cerebri; (d)* All of the above. 9. Daily requirement of iodine is (a) 50 mg/day; (b)100 mg/day; (c)* 150 mg/day; (d) 200 mg/day. 10. The concentration of iodine in iodized salt in India is (a) 1 in 200; (b) 1 in 2000; (c) 1 in 4000; (d)* 1 in 40,000. 11. Total body iodine is approximately (a) 20 mg; (b) 30 mg; (c) 40 mg; (d)* 50 mg. 12. The percentage of iodine in thyroid gland is (a) 50%; (b) 60%; (c) 80%; (d)* 90%. 13. Egg has all the following Vitamins except (a) A; (b) B6 (c)* C; (d) E. 14. Recommended daily allowance of Thiamine is (a)* 0.5 mg / 1000 Kcal; (b) 1 mg / 1000 Kcal; (c) 6.6 mg / 1000 Kcal; (d) 12 mg / 1000 Kcal. 15. Recommended daily allowance of Niacin is (a) 0.5 mg /1000 Kcal; (b) 1 mg / 1000 Kcal; (c)* 6.6 mg / 1000 Kcal; (d) 12 mg / 1000 Kcal. 16. Recommended of daily allowance of Riboflavin is (a) 0.5 mg /1000 Kcal; (b)* 0.6 mg / 1000 Kcal; (c) 1 mg/ 1000 Kcal; (d) 6.6 mg / 1000 Kcal 17. Richest source of niacin is (a)* Sheep liver; (b) Meat; (c) Fish; (d) Milk. 18. Total dependence on___could cause pellagra (a) Rice; (b) Wheat; (c)* Maize; (d) Ragi. 19. Endemic Goitre is more prevalent in (a)* Bihar; (b) Bengal; (c) Manipur; (d) Orissa. 20. Total body calcium is (a) 250-600 g; (b) 500-850 g; (c)* 850-1400 g; (d) 1400-2000 g. 21. Total body content of phosphate is (a) 250-400 g; (b)* 400-700 g; (c) 600-1000 g; (d) 850-1500 g. 22. All are rich sources of Vitamin E except (a) Vegetable oil; (b) Wheat germ oil; (c)* Coconut oil; (d) Egg yolk. 8 23. Daily requirement of Vitamin D is (a)* 100 IV; (b) 200 IV; (c) 300 IV; (d) 400 IV. 24. Daily requirement of vitamin D durign pregnancy and lactation is (a) 100 IV; (b) 200 IV; (c) 300 IV; (d)* 400 IV. 25. All are common vitamin deficiencies, in man except (a) Folic acid; (b) B6; (c)* Pantothenic acid; (d) B12. 26. All are good sources of vitamin B12 except (a) Meat; (b) Egg; (c)* Vegetables; (d) Milk. 27. All are rich sources of calcium except (a) Sitapal; (b) Ragi; (c)* White rice; (d) Dates. 28. Recommended intake of Calcium during pregnancy is (a) 400-500 mg; (b) 500-600 mg; (c) 700-800 mg; (d)* 1000 mg. 29. Milk has rich content of all vitamins except (a) Riboflavin; (b) C; (c)* A; (d) D. 30. Vitamin which is required in additional amounts during lactation (a) Folic acid; (b)* C; (c) A; (d) D. 31. Blood pyruvate level is used to detect deficiency of (a) Iron; (b) Protein; (c)* Vitamin B; (d) Iodine. 32. The first dose of Vit. A under the Vitamin A control programme is currently given at (a) 6 months; (b)* 9 months along with measles vaccine; (c) 1 year; (d) 18 months. 33. Iron content in folifar tablet is (a) 30 mg; (b)* 60 mg; (c) 100 mg; (d) 120 mg. 34. Excess of fluorine intake causes all except (a) Genu Valgum; (b) Dental fluorosis; (c) Skeletal fluorosis; (d)* Dental caries. 35. Fluoridation of water prevents (a) Bacterial growth; (b) Dental fluorosis; (c)* Dental caries; (d) All of the above. 36. The safe limit of fluoride content in water is (a) 0.1 - 0.5 mg/lit; (b)* 0.5 - 0.8 mg/lit; (c) 0.8 -1.2 rag/lit; (d)l - 2mg/lit. 37. Vanaspati is fortified with_____IU of vitamin A (a) 1000; (b) 1500; (c) 2000; (d)* 2500. 9 38. The amount of vitamin D fortified in vanaspati is (a) 125 IU; (b) 150 IU; (c)* 175 IU; (d) 200 IU. 39. The carbohydrate reserve of a human adult is about (a)* 500 g; (b) 1 Kg; (c) 1.5 Kg; (d) 2 Kg. 40. Which of the following has highest retinol content? (a)* Halibut liver oil; (b) Cod liver oil; (c) Ox liver; (d) Margarine. 41. The vegetable win highest retinol content per 100 gram is (a)* Carrot; (b) Spinach; (c) Green leaves; (d) Papaya. 42. The first clinical sign of Vitamin A deficiency is (a) Night blindness; (b)* Conjunctival Xerosis; (c) Bitot's spots; (d) Corneal Xerosis. 43. All the following are true regarding Vitamin E except (a) Richest source - vegetable oils; (b) Alpha tocopherol - most potent; (c)* Dietary deficiency – very; (d) Requirement -10 mg/day. 44. All the following cause loss of thiamine except (a) Prolonged storage of fruits; (b)* Parboiling of rice; (c) Toasting of bread; (d) Cooking of cereals with banking soda. 45. The most common symptom of infanite beri beri (a)* Peripheral neuritis; (b) Heart involvement; (c) Convulsions; (d) Absence of knee jerk. 46. Daily requirement of thiamine is (a)*0.5 mg/1000 Kcal; (b) 0.6 mg/1000 Kcal; (c) 6.6 mg/1000 Kcal; (d) 10 mg/1000 Kcal. 47. In India, riboflavin deficiency is widespread (a) In wheat eating areas; (b)* Where rice is staple food; (c) Where maize is consumed; (d) In areas where Jowar is used. 48. Recommended daily requirement of Vitamin B12 during pregnancy and lactation is (a) 0.2 meg : 1 meg; (b) 1 meg : 1.5 meg; (c)* 1.5 meg : 1.5 meg; (d) 1.5 meg : 3 meg. 49. Of the following which is a poor source of Vitamin C? (a) Green leaves; (b) Fresh meat; (c) Fish; (d)* Cereals. 50. Daily requirement of Vitamin C for an adult is (a) 20 mg; (b) 40 mg; (c)* 60 mg; (d) 100 mg. 51. All the following are called major minerals except (a) Sodium; (b) Pottassium; (c) Magnesium; (d)* Iron. 10 52. Which of the following is not true regarding mineral elements (a) Phytic acid interferes with iron absorption; (b) Dietary fibre in large amounts may decrease absorption; (c)* Deficiency is common in vegetarians; (d) Excessive amounts causes injurious effects. 53. Which of the following is not true of availability of calcium? (a) Ragi is a rich source; (b) Rice is very deficient; (c)* Oxalic acid in green leaves aids absorption; (d) Phytic acid in cereals decreases bio availability 54. Green leaves are rich sources of all the following except (a) Vitamin C; (b) Vitamin B12; (c) Calcium; (d)* Iron. 55. Meat is poor in (a) Iron; (b) Zinc; (c)* Calcium; (d) Phosphorous. 56. Source of calcium are: a)* Milk; b) Cereals; c) Green leafy vegetables. 57. Role of Iron in the body: a) Brain function; b) Regulation of body temperature; c)* Synthesis of nucleic acids 58. The protein content of 100 gm of cereals a) 3-5%; b)* 7-12%; c) more thane 20%. 59. Rice is a source of: a)* Vit. D; b) Vit. E; c)* Zinc; d) Vit. B. 60. The sources of calcium are: a) Banana; b) Lime; c)* Fish; d) Orange. 61. Meat is a source of: a) Zinc; b) Calcium; c)* Phosphorus. 62. Daily requirement of calcium for adults is: a) 100 mg; b)* 1000 mg; c) 200 mg. 63. Which of the following is rich in carbohydrate a) Meat; b)* Grains; c) Milk; d)* Sugar and sweets. 64. Biological role of fermium: a)*Support breathing and blood cells formation. b)*Component of deferent's enzymes. 65. Point out the food with high concentration of nitrate: a)* Greens; b)* Root fruits; c) Berry; d) Melon field fruits. 66. Point out the foods which may content high concentration of benzaperine: a) Milk; b) Meat; c)* Mollusc and oyster; d) Kidney e) Liver; f)* Mushrooms. 67. The main functions of the vitamins are: a)* Building; b) A source of energy; c)* Specific. 11 68. The causes of hypovitamines divided in to: a)* Externals; b)* Internals; c)* Climetologicals. 69. Which of the following is a energy vitamin: a)* Vitamin C; b) Vitamin D; c) Vitamin B1. 70. All are fat soluble vitamins except: a) A; b)* B; c) D; d) E. 71. Performed vitamin A is: a)* Retinol; b) Alpha-carotene; c) Beta-carotene. 72. Function of vitamin A are: a)* Anti- infective; b) Anti- allergic; c) Support skeletal growth. 73. Sources of vitamin A: a)* Dark green leafy vegetables; b)* Mango; c) Bread; d)* Egg. 74. Clinical sign of vitamin A deficiency: a)* Conjunctival xerosis; b)* Night blindness; c) Keratomalacia. 75. Daily dosage of vitamin A for adults: a) 100 iu; b) 400 iu; c)* 1000 iu. 76. Functions of vitamin D: a)* Absorption of calcium and phosphorus; b) Reabsorption of phosphate in kidney; c)* Bone resumption 77. Sources of vitamin E: a) Vegetable oil; b)* Egg yolk; c)* Milk; d) Butter. 78. Biological functions of tokofirol are: a)* Stimulate the organs muscles activity; b) Improve the muscles ability to work; c) Has vitamin activity. 79. Daily dosage of vitamin E: a) 5 mg; b)* 10 mg; c) 50 mg. 80. Clinical picture of pellagra: a)* Diarrhoea; b)* Dermatitis; c)* Dementia. 81. Strict vegetarian diet cause a deficiency of: a) B1; b) B12; c)* D. 82. Most heat labile vitamin is: a) B12; b)* C; c) A. 83. Biological complex of vitamin C content: a)* Ascorbic acid; b) Tannic elements; c) Vegetables pigments; d) Organic vegetables acid ; e) Silver ion. 84. Sources of vitamin C: a)* Orange; b)* Wild rose; c) Lime; d) Cabbage. 85. The daily dosage of vitamin C for adults is: a) 40 mg; b)* 100 mg; c) 200 mg. 86. Which of the following is rich in vitamin B2 12  a)* Liver; b) Tomato; c)* Eggs. 87. Which of the following is rich with vitamin D a) Vegetables; b) Grains; c)* Fish liver; d)* Eggs. 88. The main sources of vitamin B1 are: a)* Vegetable; b) Milk; c)* Cereal. 89. The main source of vitamin B6: a)* Animal source; b)* Plant source. Lesson 18. Food Hygiene and foodborne diseases. 1. Pasteurization of milk is an example of disinfection (a)* Precurrent ; (b) Concurrent; (c) Terminal; (d) Absolute. 2. The incubation period of Salmonella food poisoning is (a) Few minutes; (b) 6 hrs − 8 hrs; (c)* 12 – 24 hrs; (d) 48 hrs. 3. Following are true of Staphylococcal food poisoning except (a) Onset within 6 hrs; (b)* High grade fever; (c) Death uncommon 4. Following food poisonings are due to performed exotoxin except (a) Staphylococcal; (b) Botulism; (c)* Clostridial; (d) Bacillus cereus. 5. Following are true of Botulism except (a) Bloody diarrhea; (b)* Absence of fever; (c) Dysphagia; (d) No loss of consciousness 6. The drug used in treatment of Botulism is (a) High dose crystalline penicillin; (b) ORS; (c)* Guanidine; (d) All of the above. 7. Following are true of food poisoning except (a)* Incubation period - 6 hrs; (b)Deaths uncommon; (c) Bloody diarrhea; (d) Common with meat foods. 8. Nitric acid test detects the presence of (a) Aflatoxin; (b)* Argemone oil; (c) Fusarium toxin; (d) BOAA. 9. All are tests to detect inadequate pasteurisation except (a) Phosphate test; (b) Standard plate count; (c)* Methylene blue reduction test; (d) Coliform count. 10. The prevention of food adulteration Act was enacted in (a) 1950; (b)* 1954; (c) 1976; (d) 1977. 11. All the following are caused by ingestion of contaminated meat except (a) Cysticercosis; (b) Actinouycosis; (c)* Helminthiasis; (d) Trichenella infection. 13 12. The freshment milk is measured by a)* Reductase test; b) Acidity; c)* Specific gravity. 13. The % of nonbacterial food poisoning incidences in relation to all incidences of food poisoning is: a)* 1%; b) 2%; c) 5%. 14. Which of the following diseases can be caused by ingestion of contaminated meat: a)* Anthrax; b)* Trichinella spiralis; c) Helmenthisis. 15. Which of the following infection can be transmitted by fish: a)* Cholera; b) Clostridium botulinum; c)* Typhoid fever. 16. Food borne infections are: a)* E. Coli diarrhea; b) Typhoid fever; c)* Leptospirosis. 17. Fish borne diseases a)* Fish toxin; b) Malaria; c) Tapeworm; d) Tuberculosis. 18. Aflatoxin is produced by: a)* Aspergillus flavus; b) Aspergillus niger; c) Aspergillus fumigatus. 19. The clostridium botulinum can be transmitted by a) Milk and milk products; b)* Canned meat; c)* Home bottled vegetables and mushroom; d)* Cold smoked fish. 20. Which of following symptoms toward to early (first) symptoms of botulism: a) Ptosis, Strabismus (cross-eye) and widening of eyes pupil; b) Difficulty of swelling; c) Speech disruption; d) General weakness; e)* Headache and dizziness. 21. Types of foods which may cause staphylococcal food poisoning are: a) Eggs; b)* Stuffing meat; c)* Cake and pastry with cream. 22. Which of the following diseases are mikotoxicosis: a)* Ergotism; b) Botulism; c)* Afalatoxicosis; d) Sallminlsos; e) Ochratoxicosis. 23. Clinical picture of Ergotism is: a)* Acute; b)* Sub acute; c) Chronic. 24. Point out the foods as source's of afalotoxine; a)* Meat; b)* Fish; c)* Milk, cheese, and crude; d) Grapes, peach and apples. 25. Preventive measures agenst mikotoxicosis a) Preserving food with proper temperature; b)*Health education; c) Vaccination; d)* Regular food inspection. 26. Acute toxic food poisoning caused by: a)* Ingestion food polluted by toxins of specific. b) Ingestion food which content high number of living microbes. 27. Most incidence of botulism in Russia related to following types: a) C,D,E; b)* A,B,E; c) E,F,G. 28. Staphylococ food poisoning characterized by: a)* Short incubation period (2-4 hours); b)*Symptoms of gastroenteritis; c) High temperature. d) Difficult incidence with vomiting and intoxication. 14 29. All of the following are source of proteins: a)* Egg; b)* Milk; c)* Fish; d)* Soybean. 30. Point out the food as a source of fusarium toxin: a) Meat; b) Fish; c) Milk; d)* grain products. 31. Diseases as contraindication for working in food premises: a)* Gastritis; b) Tonsillitis; c) Boil in the wrist. Lesson 11. The hygienic value of Radiation. 1. The most harmful radiation is (a) X-rays (b) Beta particles (c)* Alpha particles (d) Gamma rays 2. Which of the following is deep penetrating radiation? (a) Alpha (b) Beta (c)* Gamma rays (d) Photons 3. Tha amount of radiation absorbed ir air is measured by (a) *Rontgen (b) Rad (c) Rem (d) Gray 4. The unit measuring amount of radioactive energy absorbed per gram of tissue (a) Rontgen (b)* Rad (c) Rem (d) *Gray 5. 100% fatality occurs with exposure to___Rontgens (a) 100 - 200 (b) 400 - 500 (c)* 600 - 700 (d) 800 - 900 6. The maximum permissible dose of radiation should not exceed (a) 1 rad / yr (b) 1 rad / month (c)* 5 rad / year (d) 10 rad / year 7. The PD for first сatygory per year a)*20mZv b) 5mZv c)10mZv 8. The natural sources of radiation: a)* Cosmic rays b) *Atmospheric radiation c) Artificial source d) Explosion of nuclear weapon 9. Most harmful radiation is: a) Beta particles b)*Alpha particles c) Gamma rays 10. Unit of absorbed dose of radiation is a) Roentgen b) *Rad c) Joule per kg 11. Which of the following types of radiation has deepest penetrating ability a) Alpha particles b)*Gamma rays c) Beta particles 12. Ionising radiation can used as a)*Opend source b)*Closed source c) Mixed source 15 13. The protections principles which are used by workers with closed ionizing sources a)*Time b)*Distance c)*Screens d)*Activity of the source 14. The main protection method which is used by workers with open source a) *Time b) Distance c) Individual protection methods 15. Unit of radioactivity a) Reontgen b)*Bekerel c) Rad 16. In medicine the radioactive isotope used for: a)*Radio isotop diagnostic proposes. b)*Internal radiotherapy. c)Telegamma therapy. d) Flourography. 17. The level of external radiation dose depend upon: a) Type and energy of radiation b)*Exposure time. c)*The activity of that source. d)*The distance from that source. 18. The effective dose is: a)*Zivert. b) Rad. c) Roentgen. Lesson 12 - 13. Occupational health. Occupational diseases 1. Respirable dust consists of particles less than (a) 0.1 micron (b) 1 micron (c)* 5 microns (d) 10 microns 2. All the following are insoluble dusts except (a) Silica (b)* Cotton (c) Coal (d) Asbetos 3. Important hazards related to cold are (a) Chilblains (b) Immersion foot (c) Frostbite (d)* All of the above 4. All the following are Pneumoconiosis except (a) Siderosis (b) Bagassosis (c) Farmer's lung (d)* Hydatidosis 5. Prolonged exposure to coal dust causes (a)* Anthracosis (b)Silicosis (c) Asbestosis (d) Siderosis 6. Inhalation of sugarcane dust could cause (a)* Bagassosis (b) Byssinosis (c) Tobacosis (d) Farmer's lung 7. Byssinosis is caused by inhalation of (a) Sugar cane (b)* Cotton (c) Jute (d) Benezene 8. Inhalation of mouldy hay dust causes 16 (a) Siderosis (b)* Farmer's lung (c) Bagassosis (d) All of the above 9. The dust particles which cause maximum health hazard are (a) 0.5 micron (b)* 0.5 - 3 micron (c) 3 - 6 micron (d) 6 -10 micron 10. Incidence of silicosis depends on (a) Size of particle (b) Duration of exposure (c) Individual susceptibility (d)* All of the above 11. Silicotics are most prone to develop (a) Brucellosis (b) Leptospirosis (c)* Tuberculosis (d) Hydatidosis 12. All are featurs of Silico-tuberculosis except (a)* High sputum AFB +ve (b) Children of such cases do not get disease (c) Impaircment of total lung capacity (d) Nodular fibrosis 13. Best control measure available to combat silicosis is (a)* Rigorous dust control measures (b) Periodic X-ray chest (c) Preplacement examination (d) Legilation 14. Silicosis is at present notifiable under (a) Factories act (b) Mines act (c)* Both of the above (d) None of the above 15. Thermoactinomyces saachari has been associated with (a) Byssinosis (b)* Bagassosis (c) Anthracosis (d) Farmer's lung 16. Contol measure of bagasse includes spraying with (a) Water (b)* 2 % propionic acid (c) Saline water (d) All of the above 17. Micropolyspora faeni is the main cause for (a) Byssinosis (b) Bagassosis (c) Anthracosis (d)* Farmer's lung 18. Micropolyspora faeni is a (a) Thermophilic fungi (b)* Thermophilic actinomycete (c) Thermophobic fungi (d) Thermophobic actinomycete 19. Least toxic lead compound of the following is (a) Lead arsenate (b) Lead oxide (c) Lead carbonate (d)* Lead sulphide 20. Greatest source of environmental lead is (a) From lead pipes (b)* Gasoline (c) Lead paint (d) Pottery 21. Lead poisoning in industries commonly occurs by (a)* Inhalation (b) * Ingestion (c) *Skin absorption (d) Conjunctival route 17 22. The lead compound which is absorbed through skin is (a) Lead arsenate (b)* Tetraethyl lead (c) Lead sulphide (d) Lead oxide 23. Toxic effects of inorganis lead exposure includes all except (a) Abdominal colic (b) Blue line on gums (c) Wrist drop (d)* Mental confusion 24. Useful screening test for lead is measurement of (a)* Coproprophyrin (b) Amino laevulinic acid in urine (c) Iead in blood (d) Lead in urine 25. The substances associated with lung cancer include (a) Asbestos (b) Nickel (c) Coal tar (d)* All of the above 26. The type of cancer particularly noticed in aniline industry is (a) Skin cancer (b) Lung cancer (c)* Ca bladder (d) Ca rectum 27. Which of the following are bladder carcinogens? (a) Beta napthylamine (b) Benzidine (c) Auramine (d)* All of the above 28. All are characteristics of occupational cancer except (a) Appear after prolonged exposure. (b) Age incidence earlier than for cancer in general (c)* Cessation of exposure arrests cancer (d) Localization of tumor for any one occupation is fairly constant 29. The most common occupational disease is (a) Asbestosis (b) Dermatitis (c)Silicosis (d)*Plumbism 30. Which of the following disease may be encountered as occupational hazard? (a) Glanders (b) Brucellosis (c) Anthrax (d)* All of the above 31. The rationale behind notification of occupational diseases is (a) Workman's compensation (b) Initiate measures for prevention (c) Investigate working condition (d)* All of the above 32. Which of the following is undesirable condition for a lead industry? (a) Anaemia (b) Hypertension (c) Nephritis (d)* All of the above 33. Ideal periodical examination of worker in an industry is done every (a) Day (b) Month (c) Year (d)* Depends on type of exposure 34. Of the following exposure, which requires daily examination of workers? (a) Lead (b) Toxic dye (c)* Dichromate (d) Radium 35. Phossy jaw is caused by (a) Phosphorus sesquisulphide (b) White phosphorus (c)* Both (d) None 36. Workmen Compensation Act was enacted in 18 (a)* 1923 (b)1933 (c) 1948 (d) 1953 37. The Indian Factories Act of 1948 was subsequently amended in (a) 1970 (b) 1972 (c) 1974 (d)* 1976 38. The Employees State Insurance Act of 1948 was later amended in (a) 1975 (b) 1984 (c)* Both (d) None of the above 39. Factories Act 1976 defines factory has an establishment where (a) 10 or more workers where power is used (b) * Both the above (с) None of the above 40. Factories Act applies to whole of India except (a) AP (b)* Jammu and Kashmir (c) Assam (d) Rajasthan 41. A welfare officer has to be provided, if no. of workers exceed (a)* 500 (b) 1000 (c) 2000 (d) 5000 42. Recommended working hour per week per worker should not exceed (a) 40 (b)* 48 (c) 56 (d) 60 43. Total working hours per week per day per workers in a factory should not exceed (a) 40 (b) 48 (c) 56 (d)* 60 44. ESI corporation works (a) Under Ministry of Labour (b) Under Ministry of Health (c)* As an autonomous body (d) Under respective State Government 45. Under ESI act, service dispensaries are established in areas where employees family unit is more than (a) 500 (b)*1000 (c) 1500 (d) 2000 46. Part time ESI dispensaries are established in areas where employees family unit is around (a) 500 (b)*750 (c) 750 -1000 (d) 1000 47. Restricted medical care' under medical benefit of ESI means (a)* Out patient care (b) Hospitalization (c) Ambulance services (d) All of the above 48. All are diseases for which extended sickness benefit is payable for 309 days except (a) Tuberculosis (b)* Leprosy (c) Malignant diseases (d) Ankylosing spondylitis 49. The best method for arthropod control involves (a)* Environmental measures (b) Chemical (c) Biological control (d) Genetic control 19 50. Which of the following sciences work out prophylactic measures ageinst tired and tire-out: a)*Professional hygiene. b)*Professional physiology. c) Professional psychology. d)*Ergonomica. e) Technical esthetics. f) Seintific labour organisation. 51. Point out types of intellectual labor: a) Operation. b)*Administration. c)*Teaching. d)*Medical. e)*Creative. 52. Point out the external unfavorable factors which may cause professional Damage: a)*Increase or decrease the air temperature. b)*Increase or decrease the relative humidity. c) Increase or decrease atmospheric presser. d)*Polluted air. e)*Industrial Poisson's. f)*Radio active pollution. 53. Point out the prophylactics measures agenst harmful production factors: a)*Hygienic standardization (setting of norms). b)*Change in technology. c)*Mechanization and automation of production processes. d)*Good local and general ventilation. e)*Using individual protective means. 54. The clinical picture of professional poisoning mainly is: a)*Acute. b)*Chronic. c) Combine. 55. Point out the main pathological changes in the body as a result of industrial poisoning: a)*Inflammations. b) Dystrophy. c)*Sensibilisation. d)*Fibrosis. e)*Cancer. 56. What types of industrial poisonous related to there action in the body: a) *Irritant. b)*Neurotropics. c)*Allergic. d)*Mutant. e)*Carcinogenic. 57. The physical health hazard in industries is: a) *Heat b) *Humidity c)*Noise d)*Ionising radiation 58. Pneumoconiosis is caused by: a) * Inorganic dust b) Organic dust c) Soluble dust d) Solvent dust 59. Size of respirable dust is below: a) 0,1 micron, b) *5 micron, c)10 micron 60. All the following are organic dust: a)Silica, b) Coal, c) * Cotton 61. All the following are pneumoconiosis a)*Asbestosis b) Conjunctivitis c)*Siderosis 62. Protection against Pneumoconiosis a)*Respiratory mask b) Special cream c) Eye glasses 63. All the following are pneumoconiosis a)*Silicoses b) Conjunctivitis c) Bronchitis 64. Incidence of pneumoconiosis depend on: a)*Size of particle b)*Duration of exposure c)*Concentration of the dust in air 65. Byssinosis is spread in: a) Cement factories b)*Textile industries c) Grain fields 20 66. Farmers lung results from exposure to: a) Tobacco b)*Grain dust c) Cotton fibre dust 67. Point out the complications of silicosis: a)*TB. b)*Pneumonia. c)*Bronchitis. d) Spontaneous pneumothorax. e)*Cancer. 68. Usually the main complication of asbestosis is: a) Lungs TB. b)*Lungs tumor. 69. Types of dust particles a)*Visible b) Non visible c)*Microscopice d)*Ultra microscopic 70. Types of diseases caused by industrial dust a) *Pneumoconiosis b)*Allergic reaction c)*Chronic bronchitis d) *Dermatitis e) * Conjunctivitis 71. The size of industrial dust which may caused silicosis a) More than one microne b) 1-2 microne c)*5-10 microne 72. The main complications of silicousis a)*TB b) Pneumonia c)*Bronchitis d)*Cancer 73. Preventive measures agenst diseases caused by dusts a)*Hygienic standardisation b)*Change of technology c) * Individual protective methods d)*Sanitary and health car 74. Lead poisoning in industries commonly occurs by: a)*Inhalation b) *Skin absorption c) *Ingestion 75. The clinical pictures of lead poisoning a)*Abdominal colic b) Wrist drop c)*Blue line on gums d) Mental confusion 76. The main sources of vibration are; a)*Transept b)*Boring and drilling d) Conveyer line 77. Prophylactic methods against vibration a)*Massage b)*Special glove c) Earmuff 78. Meaning of vibration is: a)*Mechanical deflection in ifra sound and voice frequency spectrum b) Mechanical deflection in ultra sound frequency spectrum. 79. Meaning of noise is: a) Un sequence sound with deferent frequencies and intensity. b)*Mechanical fluctuation with frequency from 16 Hrz. To 2000Hrz. c) Sequence alternation of tone with deferent frequency and power. 80. The harmful influence of the noise on the body depend upon: a)*Duration of influence. b)*Intensity of the noise c)*Noise frequency. d) Individual character of the body. 81. The specific influences of noise are: a)*Tire- out of hearing organs. b)*Professional hard of hearing. c)*Professional deafness. d) Cortife tumor. 21 82. Preventive measures against vibration a)*Strict day time work b)Vitamin C and Bl c) Exposure of UV - rays tow time yearly 83. Contraindication to work in noisy factory a)*Disease of nervous system b) Stone in kidney c) Diabetes 84. Prophylactic measures against noise; a) Respiratory mask b)*Earmuff c) Special glove 85. Preventive measures against noise are; a)*Individual protective measures (earmuff) b)*Health education c)*Reduction of noise transmission d) Massage. 86. The influence of industrial chemical agents on the body depend upon: a)*There chemical structure b)*Level of there dispersion c)*There level of solubility in the body liquids d) There solubility in lipids. e)*There volatility. 87. Preventive measures against the influence of professional factors a)*Hygienic standardisation b)*Change of technology c)*General and local ventilation d)*Individual protection methods e)*Health education 88. Point out the groups of chemical poisonous which used in agricultural: a)*Phosphor- organic. b)*Chlor- organic. c)*Mercury - organic. d) Carbamide acid. 89. Types of vibration a)*General b)*Local c)*Complex 90. Vibration may cause a)*Disturbance of blood microcirculation b) Decreased number of white blood cell's c)*Disturbance of sensitivity function 91. The main sources of noise a) *Street b)*Factory c) Household noise d) School 92. Effect of the noise on health a)*Effect on nervous systems b) Disturbance of lipids metabolism c)*Acoustic damage 93. The main factors which caused professional diseases in reongelogyst a)*Physical factors b) Chemical factors c) Biological factors d) Cotton 94. The main factors which caused professional diseases in doctors of infections diseases: a) Physical factors. b) Chemical factors. c)*Biological factors. d) Psychological factors 95. Maximum permissible level of radiation exposure per year is set at (a) l rem (b)* 5 rem (c) 10 rem (d) 15 rem 96. Normal conversation produces noise of (a) 55-60 dB (b)*60 - 65 dB (c) 65 – 70 dB (d) 70 - 75 dB 97. Whispering produces a sound of 22 (a)* 20 - 30 dB (b) 30 - 40 dB (c) 40 - 50 dB (d) 50 - 60 dB 98. Audiometer measures (a) Intensity of sound (b) Noise in octave band (c)* Hearing ability (d) All of the above 99. Audiotory fatigue appears at (a) 80 dB (b) 85 dB (c)* 90 dB (d) 95 dB 100. Temporary hearing loss occurs in frequency range of (a) 2000 - 4000 Hz (b)* 4000 - 6000 Hz (c) 6000 - 8000 Hz (d) 8000 -10000 Hz 101. All are physiological changes caused by noise except (a) Visual disturbance (b)* Pupillary dilation (c) Colour perception changes (d) Reduced night vision 102. For good speech intelligibility, Speech Interference Level (SIL) should be more than (a) 5 dB (b)* 12 dB (c) 30 dB (d) 45 dB 103. Noise induced hearing loss shows characteristic dip at (a) 3000 Hz (b) 3500 Hz (c)* 4000 Hz (d) 4500 Hz 104. Daily tolerance limit of noise is (a) 75 Hz (b)* 85 Hz (c) 95 Hz (d) 100 Hz 105. Point out the main measures against negative effect of electromagnetic waves: a)*Hygienic standardization. b)*Rational placement of the equipment's. c)*Used protective instruments. d)*Preliminary and periodical medical examinations. 23  The Hygiene of children. 1. Prevalence criteria among preschool children for determining xerophthalmia problem include all except (a) Night blindness more than 1% (b) Bitot's spots more than 0.5% (c)* Conjunctival xerosis more than 0.01% (d) Keratomalacia more than 0.5% 2. Additional daily requirement of retinol during lactation is (a) 300mg (b) 400 meg (c) 500 meg (d)* 600 meg 3. Hygiene of children's as a science studying: a)*State health and physical development of children. b)*Organisation of time table in kinder- gardens and schools. c) Sport of children. d) Work activity of children and adolescents. e)*The sanitary conditions in child's establishments. 4. Point out the indexes used for assessment the child s health: a)*Morbidity. b)*Child s mortality. c)*Physical development. d) Disability. e)*Demographic situation. f) The level of primary health care. 5. How many health groups in childrens: 24 a) 3 groups. b) 4 groups. c)*5 groups. 6. The health of children s depend upon many factors: a) Health of there parents. b)*Genetic factors. c)*The nature and the climate. d)*Life style. e)*Epidemiological factors. 7. Negative factors which influencing the growth and development are: a) Alcoholism and drugs adduction of the parents b)*Non sufficient nutrition. c)*Chronic diseases. d)*Sport. e)*Bad social condition. 8. Siengs of growth and development are: a)*Somatometric signs b)*Physiometric signs c) Psychometric signs d)*Somatoscopic signs 9. Physiometric signs of the physical development are: a)*Pulmonary capacity b)*Muscular strength c)*Blood pressure and pulse d) Chest circumference 10. Somotoscopic signs of the physical development are: a)*Height, Body weight and chest circumference b) Legs and hands muscles power. c)*Thickness of under skin fat. d)*Development of secondary sex signs. 11. Measure of growth are: a)*Weight b)*Height c) Head circumference 12. Estimations methods of growth and development are: a)*Sigmal deviation b)*Scale of regression c) Complex method d)*Screening test 13. Meaning of acceleration is: a) Improvement the signs of physical development. b)*Speed up of growth and development. 14. The principles of hardening a) Continuously b)*Individually c) Good food d) Positive reaction of the child 15. Types of hardening a)*With water b)*Air bath c)*Massage d) Radiation 16. The result of hardening a)*Improve the defense reaction of the body against external factors b) To improve the basic metabolism c)*To improve the immune system 17. In what time better to start hardening of the child: a) Directly after birth. b) One month after birth. c)*3 months after birth. 18. Point out the factors which we consider when we chose the type of hardening method: a)*Age. b) Sex. c)*Health group. d) Condition of under skin fat. 19. Point out the starting temperature of water for hardening: a) Room temperature. b)*Body temperature. c) Legs temperature. 20. The major health problems seen in school children include (a) Malnutrition (b) Dental caries (c) Diseases of skin, eyes and ear 25 (d)* All of the above 21. The school health committee in India recommends medical examination (a) Every 6 months (b) Every year (c) Once in 3 years (d)* Every 4 years 22. Medical examination of school children is done by (a) Teacher (b) Doctor (c) Other school personnel (d)* Any of the above 23. Recommended land area for higher elementary school is (a) 1 acre (b) 5 acres (c)* 10 acres (d) 15 acres 24. Recommended land are for primary schools is (a) 1 acre (b)* 5 acres (c) 10 acres (d) 15 acres 25. Ideal type of desk recommended for schools is (a) 'Plus' type (b) Neutral (c)* 'Minus' type (d) Zero type 26. All are true regarding window arrangement in classrooms except (a) Height from floor - 2 1/2 feet (b) Placed on different walls (c)* Door and window area -10% of floor space (d) Ventilator 2% of floor area 27. In schools, one urinal is recommended for every___students (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d)* 60 28. In schools, one latrine is to be provided for every____students (a) 50 (b)* 100 (c) 150 (d) 200 29. Duration of active attention in 7-10 years of age is: a) 10 minutes. b)*15-20 minutes. c) 30 minutes. 30. Duration of night sleeping time for children in junior classes is: a) 10-11 hours. b)*9-10 hours. c) 8,5 hours. 31. The adaptation period of children s in the school is: a) Up to 3 weeks. b) 3-4 weeks. c)*From 3 up to 16 weeks. d) More than 16 weeks. 32. Main indexes of child s adaptation in the school are: a)*Increase of body weight. b)*Morbidity. c)*Level of the visions. d) Level of blood Hb. 33. The optimum duration of writing work for children s in 1st class is: a) 2-4min. b)*5-8 min. c) Up to20 min. 34. The duration of reading work for children s in 1st class is: a) 3-6 min. b)*7-10 min. c) 15-30 min. 35. Primary symptoms of tire-out in schoolboys: a)*Change of behaviour. b)*Loss of appetite. c)*Irritability. d) Decrease the progress. 26 36. Point out the indexes used to define (to determine) sport groups in the school: a)*Schoolboy health. b)*The level of the growth and development. c) Level of physical preparedness. 37. Sport groups in the school are: a)*Primary (Main). b) Additional. c) Auxiliary. d)*Special. 38. Professional medical consultation provided with all schoolboys from: a) V class. b) VII class. c)*IX-X classes. 39. The % of green zone in the area of child s establishment must be: a) Not less than 50% of that area. b)*Not more than 50 % of that area. 40. The functional sections in kinder- gardens are: a)*Group cell. b) Music hall. c) Ages group. 41. Demands for school furniture are: a) * The size depend upon the height of schoolboys. b)*With bright tone colour. c) With dark tone colour. d) Easy to use. 42. The distance between the eyes and the book (notebook) at the time of reading and writing is: a) 20-25 cm. b)*25-35cm. c) 40-45 cm. 43. The size of the desk for schoolboys depends upon there: a) Age b)*Height c) Body weight 44. The main rooms in the school a)*Classes b) Workshops c) Kitchen d) Sport hall 45. Orientation of the group rooms in kinder-garden should be: a) South. b) North-east. c)*South- east. d) West. Edition: 1. Indian Examination tests “ PREVENTIVE and SOCIAL MEDICINE”, (2000). 2. Park K. Preventive and Social medicine (17th edition, 2002), Jabalpur, India. 3. Pivovarov Y.P., Alsabounchi A.A. Short textbook of preventive medicine (2th edition, 2004), Moscow, Russia. 27