Final exam tests (Microbiology).pdf

Choose one correct answer 1. The cell wall of Gram positive bacteria is composed of: a) Thin peptidoglycan layer b) Thick peptidoglycan layer c) Nucleic acids d) Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharide e) Periplasmic space 2. The cell wall of Gram negative bacteria contains: a) Inorganic components b...

Choose one correct answer 1. The cell wall of Gram positive bacteria is composed of: a) Thin peptidoglycan layer b) Thick peptidoglycan layer c) Nucleic acids d) Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharide e) Periplasmic space 2. The cell wall of Gram negative bacteria contains: a) Inorganic components b) Thin peptidoglycan layer c) Teichoic & lipoteichoic acids d) Thick peptidoglycan layer e) Nucleic acids 3. Pure culture of bacteria is represented by: a) The cells of one and the same genus b) The cells derived from different sources c) The cells of one and the same species d) Genetically different organisms e) Cells of different species 4. Facultative anaerobes are bacteria a) Which can produce energy only by fermentation b) Which carry out only respiration c) Which die in the presence of oxygen d) In which the final electron acceptor is molecular oxygen e) Which can proliferate regardless of presence of oxygen 5. Obligate aerobes are bacteria a) Which can produce energy from glucose by fermentation b) In which the final acceptor is organic substance c) Which require the presence of molecular oxygen for growth d) In which the final electron acceptor is nitrogen e) Which can proliferate regardless of presence of oxygen 6. Transformation as the mechanism for gene transfer a) Accomplishes several types of transfer for genes from donor cell into recipient cell b) Is mediated by the temperate bacteriophages c) Involves uptake of fragments of free DNA by competent cells d) Depends on the presence of a conjugative plasmid in the donor cell e) Requires viable donor cells 7. Conjugation as the mechanism for gene transfer a) Accomplishes different ways of transfer for genes from donor cell to recipient cell b) Is mediated by temperate bacteriophages c) Involves uptake of fragments of free DNA by competent cells d) Depends on the presence of a conjugative plasmid e) Requires inactivated donor cells 8. Probiotics are biopreparations for the correction of microflora which consist of: a) Live indigenous microorganisms b) Complex of live indigenous microorganisms with non-metabolizable substrates c) Toxoids d) Non-metabolizable non-absorbable substrates that are useful for growth of indigenous microbial flora e) Bacteriophages 9. Humoral components of innate (nonspecific) immunity defense is: a) Complement system proteins b) Insulin c) Macrophages d) Bacteriophages e) Endotoxin 10. Cell component of innate immunity defense is: a) Macrophages b) B-cells c) T-cells d) Normal antibodies e) Erythrocytes 11. Passive immunity refers a) To the protection based on the transfer of preformed specific antibodies b) To the protection based on the transfer of preformed cell-mediated immunity c) To the protection based on the transfer of preformed cytokines d) Provides local immunity e) Provides long-term protection 12. Active immunity refers a) To the protection based on the production of specific antibodies by the host afterimmunization or infectious disease b) To the protection based on activity of NK-cells c) To the protection based on the transfer of preformed cytokines d) Provides short-term protection e) To protection based on the transfer of preformed specific antibodies 13. Agglutination reaction in tubes a) Is interaction between specific antibody and soluble antigen resulting in formation of clumps b) Is interaction between specific antibody and particulate antigen resulting in formation ofsediment c) Is interaction between specific antibody and cytokine resulting in formation of clumps d) Positive result - formation of insoluble ring precipitate e) Negative result - hemolysis 14. Slide agglutination reaction a) Is a reaction of specific antibody with a soluble antigen resulting in formation of precipitate b) Is a reaction of specific antibody with a particulate antigen resulting in formation ofclumps c) Negative result - formation of clumps d) Positive result - change of color e) Positive result - hemolysis 15. Killed viral vaccine is used for specific prophylaxis of a) Measles b) Mumps c) Hepatitis C d) Rubella e) Rabies 16. Live vaccines are used for specific prophylaxis of a) Diphtheria b) Hepatitis D c) Botulism d) Tetanus e) Tuberculosis 17. Live vaccine for specific prophylaxis against tuberculosis is called: a) MMR b) DTP c) HLA d) BCG e) DT 18. Positive result of ELISA is detected by: a) Hemolysis b) Change of color c) Formation of clumps d) Formation of sediment e) Flocculation formation 19. Live viral vaccines are used for specific prophylaxis of a) Diphtheria b) Rubella c) Hepatitis B d) Tetanus e) Tuberculosis 20. Toxoids are used for specific prophylaxis of a) Diphtheria b) Rubella c) Measles d) Mumps e) Tuberculosis 21. Choose the infection for which prophylaxis we can use live or inactivated vaccine due to immune state of recipient: a) Tetanus b) Rubella c) Mumps d) Measles e) Poliomyelitis 22. Salmonella Typhi a) Gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters b) Gram positive rods arranged in chains c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative rods arranged singly e) Gram positive pleomorphic rods with bulge or bifurcation at the end 23. Neisseria gonorrhoeae a) Gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters b) Gram positive rods arranged in chains c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative rods arranged singly e) Gram positive pleomorphic rods with bulge or bifurcation at the end 24. Neisseria meninditidis a) Gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters b) Gram positive rods arranged in chains c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative rods arranged singly e) Gram positive pleomorphic rods with bulge or bifurcation at the end 25. Mycobacterium tuberculosis a) Gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters b) Gram positive rods arranged in chains c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative rods arranged singly e) Gram positive immobile rods arranged singly 26. Staphylococcus aureus a) Gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters b) Gram positive rods arranged in chains c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative rods arranged singly e) Gram positive pleomorphic rods with bulge or bifurcation at the end 27. Streptococcus pneumoniae a) Gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters b) Gram positive rods arranged in chains c) Gram positive cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative rods arranged singly e) Gram positive pleomorphic rods with bulge or bifurcation at one end 28. Bacillus anthracis a) Gram positive cocci arranged in pairs b) Gram positive rods arranged in chains with central spores c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative rods arranged singly C) Gram positive rods with terminal spores 29. Clostridium tetani a) Gram positive cocci arranged in pairs b) Gram positive cocci arranged in grape-like clusters c) Gram positive rods arranged in chains d) Gram negative rods arranged singly e) Gram positive rods with terminal spores 30. Escherichia coli a) Gram positive cocci arranged in pairs b) Pleomorphic cells without cell wall c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative motile curved rods e) Gram negative motile rods arranged singly 31. Vibrio cholerae a) Gram positive cocci arranged in pairs b) Pleomorphic cells without cell wall c) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs d) Gram negative motile curved rods e) Gram negative motile rods not arranged in groups 32. Yersinia pestis a) Gram positive cocci arranged in pairs b) Gram negative non motile rods arranged singly c) Pleomorphic cells without cell wall d) Gram negative cocci arranged in pairs e) Gram negative motile curved rods 33. Bacteria can be divided into the groups by Gram staining as they have a) Thick or thin peptidoglycan layer (murein) b) Inclusions c) Capsule d) Outer lipopolysaccharide membrane e) Mycolic acids 34. Microscopical diagnosis method of tuberculosis is performed using a) Gram stain b) Ziehl-Neelsen stain c) Methylene blue stain d) Giemsa stain e) Silver stain 35. Which method may be used for detection of motile bacteria a) Brightfield microscopy of stained smears b) Electron microscopy c) Darkfield microscopy d) Immune electron microscopy e) Fluorescent microscopy 36. Direct immunofluorescent test a) Is the reaction between specific antibody and soluble antigen, b) Is the reaction between antibody labeled with fluorescent dye and antigen c) Is the reaction of antibody with a particulate antigen d) Is used to detect bacterial genomic dna e) Is used to detect bacterial ribosomal RNA 37. Gram staining is used to a) Detect capsule b) Differentiate gram positive and negative bacteria c) Differentiate acid fast and nonacid fast bacteria d) Stain spores e) Detect nucleic acids 38. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used to a) Detect capsule b) Differentiate gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria c) Differentiate acid fast and nonacid fast bacteria d) Stain spores e) Detect nucleic acids 39. Burry-Gins staining is used to a) Detect capsule b) Differentiate Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria c) Differentiate acid fast and nonacid fast bacteria d) Stain spores e) Detect nucleic acids 40. The cell wall of acid-fast bacteria is composed of a) Thick peptidoglycan layer without mycolic acids b) Thin peptidoglycan layer with mycolic acids c) Only teichoic & lipoteichoic acids d) Thick peptidoglycan layer with mycolic acids e) Nucleic and teichoic acids 41. Incompleted phagocytosis lacks the stage of: a) Chemotaxis b) Digestion c) Attachment d) Endocytosis e) Antigen presentation 42. The term "species of bacteria" means a group of organisms a) With a close genetic resemblance to one another b) Which are derived from a single cell c) Which are genetically different d) Which inhabit the same biological niche e) Which has similar phenotype but dissimilar genotype 43. Incompleted phagocytosis is typical to pathogenesis of: a) Tuberculosis b) Botulism c) Rubella d) Mumps e) Herpes 44. Incompleted phagocytosis is typical to pathogenesis of: a) Whooping cough b) Gas gangrene c) Rubella d) Gonorrhea e) Measles 45. Incompleted phagocytosis is typical to pathogenesis of: a) Plaque b) Diphtheria c) Tetanus d) Gas gangrene e) Botulism 46. Transduction as the mechanism of gene transfer a) Involves uptake of fragments of free DNA by competent cells b) Is mediated by bacteriophages c) Accomplishes only one-way transfer of RNA from donor cell to recipient cell d) Depends on the presence of a conjugative plasmid e) Depends on the presence of a non-conjugative plasmid 47. Choose the antibiotic which influence on the cell wall synthesis by inhibiting crosslinkage of peptidoglycan layers: a) Ampicillin b) Erythromycin c) Gentamicin d) Rifampin e) Polymyxin 48. Bacteriophages a) Are prokaryotic organisms; b) Are naked viruses infecting bacteria c) Are enveloped viruses infecting bacteria d) Have lipopolysaccharide membrane; e) Genome contains two types of nucleic acid simultaneously 49. Choose the group of infections which are transferred only between humans a) Sapronoses b) Zoonoses c) Anthroponoses d) Zooanthroponoses e) No correct answer 50. Choose the group of infections which are transferred to humans from the environment a) Sapronoses b) Zoonoses c) Anthroponoses d) Zooanthroponoses e) No correct answer 51. Choose the group of infections which are transferred to humans from animals a) Sapronoses b) Zoonoses c) Anthroponoses f) Zooanthroponoses g) No correct answer 52. Genetically engineered vaccines are used for specific prophylaxis of: a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B c) Hepatitis C d) Poliomyelitis e) Tuberculosis 53. Skin test with specific allergens is used for diagnosis of: a) Tuberculosis b) Enteric fever c) Staphylococcal infection d) Influenza e) Cholera 54. Choose a NON-serological reaction a) Complement fixation test b) Ring test c) Slide agglutination d) Tube agglutination e) PCR 55. Which of the following tests is serological reaction? a) Color probe b) Ring test c) Urease activity d) Hemagglutination of virus e) PCR 56. Choose the soluble factor of innate antibacterial immunity: a) Interferon b) Ig M c) Macrophages d) Lysozyme e) Urease 57. Choose a member of family Enterobacteriaceae a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa b) Clostridium perfringens c) Listeria interrogans d) Salmonella typhi e) Streptococcus pneumoniae 58. Name the main (basic) method for laboratory diagnosis of staphylococcal infection a) Immunofluorescent method b) Bacteriological method c) Skin test d) Molecular genetic method e) Serological method 59. Choose the microorganism which produces toxin, acting on protein synthesis: a) Corinebacterium diphtheriae b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Listeria interrogans e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 60. Сhoose the soluble factor of innate antiviral immunity: a) Interferon b) Complement c) Macrophage sd) lysozyme E) protease 61. Choose the biopreparation, which is used for passive specific prophylaxis of infectious diseases: a) Hormones b) Probiotics c) Antibiotics d) Serums e) Vitamins 62. Choose the biopreparation, which is used for passive specific prophylaxis of infectious diseases: a) Hormones b) Probiotics c) Antibiotics d) Immunoglobulins e) Vitamins 63. Name the bacterium, which is used in probiotic preparations a) Lactobacillus b) Clostridium c) Staphylococcus d) Borrelia e) Mycoplasma 64. Name the bacterium, which is used in probiotic preparations a) Bifidobacterium b) Klebsiella c) Staphylococcus d) Leptospira e) Chlamydia 65. Which staining technique is used for detection of Corynebacterium diphtheriae? a) Neisser's stain b) Romanowsky-Giemsa stain c) Burry-Gins stain d) Silver impregnation e) Acid fast stain 66. Which immunoglobulin ensures local immunity? a) Immunoglobulins G b) Immunoglobulins M c) Immunoglobulins A d) Immunoglobulins E e) Immunoglobulins D 67. Which toxin changes water-salt balance? a) Choleragen b) Botulinum toxin c) Endotoxin d) Diphtheriae toxin e) Anthrax toxin 68. Which toxin is regarded to superantigens? a) Choleragen b) Botulinum toxin c) Endotoxin d) Diphtheriae toxin e) Staphylococcal enterotoxin 69. Superantigen is toxin which induces: a) Excessive production of proteolytic enzymes b) Excessive release of cytokines and T-cell proliferation c) Decrease nucleic acid and protein synthesis d) Causes endotoxic shock e) Change of water-salt balance 70. Which immunoglobulin is synthesized initially during primary infectious disease? a) Immunoglobulins G b) Immunoglobulins M c) Immunoglobulins A d) Immunoglobulins E e) Immunoglobulins D 71. Which immunoglobulin is synthesized during recurrent infection? a) Immunoglobulins G b) Immunoglobulins M c) Immunoglobulins A d) Immunoglobulins E e) Immunoglobulins D 72. Which method is used for detection of toxin in the clinical specimen? a) Serological method b) Immunofluorescent method c) Skin test d) Bacterioscopical method e) Electron microscopy 73. Which cells participate in innate and adoptive immunity simultaneously? a) B-cells b) Erythrocytes c) Macrophages d) Neutrophils e) NK-cells 74. Which microorganism can't be cultivated on artificial solid media? a) Treponema pallidum b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Escherichia coli d) Klebsiella pneumoniae e) Bacillus cereus 75. Which microorganism can't be cultivated on artificial solid media? a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Staphylococcus epidermidis c) Salmonella typhi d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis e) Bacillus anthrax 76. Antitoxic immunity is induced by inoculation of: a) Antibiotics b) Bacteriophages c) Probiotics d) Toxoids e) Live vaccines 77. Choose the combined live vaccine a) MMR b) DTP c) DT d) Pyobacteriophage e) BCG 78. Toxoid is used for specific prophylaxis of a) Tetanus b) Mumps c) Measles d) Tuberculosis C) Meningococcal infection 79. Toxoid is used for specific prophylaxis of a) Diphtheria b) Rubella c) Varicella d) Influenza e) Pneumococcal infection 80. Subunit vaccine is used for specific prophylaxis of a) Tetanus b) Mumps c) Measles d) Tuberculosis e) Meningococcal infection 81. Subunit vaccine is used for specific prophylaxis of a) Diphtheria b) Rubella c) Varicella d) Influenza e) Pneumococcal infection 82. Which serological reaction is used for diagnosis of typhoid fever? a) PCR b) CFT c) Tube agglutination d) Ring test e) RIA 83. Which serological reaction uses particulate antigen? a) Passive agglutination test b) Ring precipitation c) Flocculation test d) Ouchterloni method e) Ordinary diffusion in gel 84. Which method of laboratory diagnosis is useless for diagnosis of syphilis? a) Microscopy b) Serological method c) Immunofluorescent method d) Biological method e) Genetic engineering method 85. Which method of sterilization is used for serums? a) Ultraviolet radiation b) Chemical exposition c) Filtration d) Hot air oven e) X-ray 86. Name the cellular factor of innate immunity: a) NK-cells b) T-lymphocytes c) B-lymphocytes d) Precursor cells e) Erythrocytes 87. Positive result in paired serum for diagnosis of infectious disease means a) 2-fold or more increase in antibody titer b) 4-fold or more increase in antibody titer c) 8-fold or more increase in antibody titer d) 16-fold or more increase in antibody titer e) 32-fold or more increase in antibody titer 88. Choose the method of rapid diagnosis for infectious diseases: a) Skin test b) Inoculation into animals c) Immunofluorescent method d) Bacteriological method e) Paired serums 89. Choose the microorganism which can form capsule a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae b) Chlamydia trachomatis c) Leptospira interrogans d) Bacillus anthracis e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 90. Choose the microorganism which lacks cell wall a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae c) Escherichia coli d) Treponema pallidum e) Brucella abortus 91. Choose the microorganism which can form capsule a) Mycoplasma hominis b) Chlamydia pneumoniae c) Clostridium perfringens d) Treponema pallidum e) Mycobacterium bovis 92. Choose the most rapid test of diagnosis among enumerated serological reactions a) Immunobloting b) ELISA c) Ouchterloni test d) Latex-agglutination e) Radioimmunoassay 93. Which serological reaction is used for measurement of activity of serums, which are applied in treatment of infections? a) ELISA b) Flocculation reaction c) Latex-agglutination d) Immunobloting e) Slide agglutinations 94. Which infectious disease is treated by antitoxic serum? a) Tuberculosis b) Brucellosis c) Syphilis d) Mycoplasmal pneumonia e) Botulism 95. Which infectious disease is treated by antitoxic serum? a) Trachoma b) Diphtheria c) Gonorrhea d) Brucellosis e) Typhoid fever 96. Which infectious disease is treated by antitoxic serum? a) Dysentery b) Gas gangrene c) Syphilis d) Leptospirosis e) Legionellosis 97. Which method is used for recommendation of rational treatment of infectious diseases? a) ELISA b) Disc diffusion test c) Biochemical activity of microorganism d) Production of pigment by microorganism e) Radioimmunoassay 98. Beta-lactamase activity is ensured by enzyme: a) Protease b) DNA-ase c) Hyaluronidase d) Penicillinase e) Lecithinase 99. Choose the infectious disease in which phage typing is widely used for epidemiological analysis: a) Dysentery b) Typhoid fever c) Coli-enteritis d) Botulism e) Campylobacteriosis 100. Choose the microorganism which can form spores a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae b) Chlamydia pneumoniae c) Leptospira interrogans d) Bacillus anthracis e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 101. Choose the microorganism which can form spores a) Mycoplasma hominis b) Chlamydia pneumoniae c) Clostridium perfringens d) Treponema pallidum e) Mycobacterium africanum 102. Choose the microorganism which lacks cell wall: a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae b) Klebsiella pneumoniae c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Chlamydia pneumoniae e) Actinomyces bovis 103. All prokaryotes lack: a) Ribosomes b) Fimbriae c) Mitochondria d) Inclusions e) Flagella 104. L-forms of bacteria lack: a) Plasmids b) Inclusions c) Cytoplasmic membrane d) Ribosomes e) Cell wall 105. Hepatitis A is diagnosed by: a) Biological method b) Skin test c) Bacteriological method d) Serological method e) Chicken embryo 106. Hepatitis B is diagnosed by: a) Bacteriological method b) Serological method c) Chicken embryo d) Biological method e) Skin test 107. Serums are sterilized by: a) Filtration b) Ultraviolet radiation c) Hot air oven d) Chemical sterilization e) Boiling 108. AIDS is diagnosed by: a) Bacteriological method b) Serological method c) Microscopy d) Biological method e) Skin test 109. AIDS is diagnosed by: a) Slide agglutination b) ELISA c) Latex agglutination d) Flocculation e) CFT 110. Escherichia coli is typical inhabitant of: a) Oral cavity b) Stomach c) Skin d) Small intestine e) Large intestine 111. Choose the antibiotic which inhibits cell wall synthesis a) Lincomycin b) Fluconasol c) Nalidixic acid d) Rifamycin e) Carbenicillin 112. Choose the antibiotic which inhibits cell wall synthesis a) Clindamycin b) Ciprofloxacin c) Chloramphenicol d) Vancomycin e) Polymyxin E 113. Choose the antibiotic which inhibits DNA synthesis a) Clindamycin b) Ciprofloxacin c) Chloramphenicol d) Vancomycin e) Polymyxin B 114. Choose the antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis a) Clindamycin b) Ciprofloxacin c) Cyclocerine d) Vancomycin e) Polymyxin E 115. Choose the antibiotic which is ineffective against Mycoplasma: a) Tetracycline b) Penicillin G c) Doxycycline d) Azithromycin e) Clarithromycin 116. Choose the antibiotic which is used for treatment of mycoses: a) Nafcillin b) Cefoxitin c) Clotrimazole d) Erythromycin e) Chloramphenicol 117. Choose the microorganism which lacks capsule: a) Bacillus anthracis b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Klebsiella pneumoniae e) Leptospira interrogans 118. Choose the microorganism which is monotrichous: a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella enteritidis c) Proteus vulgaris d) Vibrio cholerae e) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 119. Choose the microorganism which lacks endotoxin: a) Escherichia coli b) Salmonella enteritidis c) Neisseria meningitidis d) Streptococcus pyogenes e) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 120. Choose the microorganism which lacks O-antigen: a) Klebsiella pneumoniae b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Escherichia coli e) Salmonella enteritidis 121. Choose the enzyme which has antiphagocytic activity in virulent bacteria: a) Coagulase b) Lecithinase c) Hyaluronidase d) Collagenase e) DNA-ase 122. Choose the microorganism, producing neurotoxin: a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Bacillus cereus c) Proteus vulgaris d) Clostridium botulinum e) Brucella abortus 123. Choose the microorganism, producing neurotoxin: a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Bacillus subtilis c) Salmonella typhimurium d) Bacteroides fragilis e) Clostridium tetani 124. Choose the microorganism which possesses cord-factor: a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae c) Neisseria meningitidis d) Streptococcus pneumoniae e) Prevotella melaninogenica 125. Choose the method which is useful for retrospective diagnosis of infection after complete recovery of patient a) Bacteriological method b) Biological method c) PCR d) Serological method e) Microscopy 126. Choose the drug which is ineffective in treatment of viral diseases a) Penicillin G b) Ribavirin c) Acyclovir d) Amantadine e) Azidothymidine 127. Choose the drug which is used in treatment of herpesviral diseases a) Penicillin G b) Ribavirin c) Acyclovir d) Amantadine e) Azidothymidine 128. Choose the drug which is used in treatment of influenza a) Penicillin G b) Pyobacteriophage c) Acyclovir d) Amantadine e) Azidothymidine 129. Choose the drug which is used in treatment of AIDS a) Penicillin G b) Ribavirin c) Acyclovir d) Amantadine e) Azidothymidine 130. Choose the doubling time for Mycobacterium tuberculosis: a) 14-16 seconds b) 14-16 minutes c) 14-16 hours d) 14-16 days e) 14-16 days 131. Choose the family which contains naked virions: a) Picornaviridae b) Flaviviridae c) Rhabdoviridae d) Orthomyxoviridae e) Herpesviridae 132. Choose the viruses which possess the enzyme reverse transcriptase inside the virion: a) Retroviruses b) Picornaviruses c) Reoviruses d) Adenoviruses e) Orthomyxoviruses Correct answers: 1b, 2b, 3c, 4e, 5c, 6c, 7d, 8a, 9a, 10a, 11a, 12a, 13b, 14b, 15e, 16e, 17d, 18b, 19b, 20a, 21e, 22d, 23c, 24c, 25e, 26a, 27c, 28b, 29e, 30e, 31d, 32c, 33a, 34b, 35c, 36b, 37b, 38c, 39a, 40d, 41b, 42a, 43a, 44d, 45a, 46b, 47a, 48b, 49c, 50a, 51b, 52b, 53a, 54e, 55b, 56d, 57d, 58b, 59a, 60a, 61d, 62d, 63a, 64a, 65a, 66c, 67a, 68e, 69b, 70b, 71a, 72a, 73c, 74a, 75a, 76d, 77a, 78a, 79a, 80e, 81e, 82c, 83a, 84d, 85c, 86a, 87b, 88c, 89d, 90b, 91c, 92d, 93b, 94e, 95b, 96b, 97b, 98d, 99b, 100d, 101c, 102a, 103c, 104e, 105d, 106b, 107a, 108b, 109b, 110e, 111e, 112d, 113b, 114a, 115b, 116c, 117e, 118d, 119d, 120b, 121a, 122d, 123e, 124a, 125d, 126a, 127c, 128d, 129e, 130c, 131a, 132a