FINAL BLOCK 1.2 Solved Past Paper PDF

‫‪Final questions‬‬ ‫)‪Years (14-21‬‬ ‫‪Block 1.2‬‬ ‫‪Done by:‬‬ ‫فاطمة الطريفي‬ ‫دعاء العبدالكريم‬ ‫شيماء الماجد‬ ‫فاطمه الجابر‬ ‫فاطمة الصكاك‬ ‫حسن الراضي‬ ‫سارة السويلم‬ ‫الزهراء الحويكم‬ ‫‪Scientific Committee Med222‬‬  Guideline...

‫‪Final questions‬‬ ‫)‪Years (14-21‬‬ ‫‪Block 1.2‬‬ ‫‪Done by:‬‬ ‫فاطمة الطريفي‬ ‫دعاء العبدالكريم‬ ‫شيماء الماجد‬ ‫فاطمه الجابر‬ ‫فاطمة الصكاك‬ ‫حسن الراضي‬ ‫سارة السويلم‬ ‫الزهراء الحويكم‬ ‫‪Scientific Committee Med222‬‬  Guideline for lectures > ANATOMY > page 3 > MICROBIOLOGY > page 48 1) ABDOMEN 1 1) page 4 1) INFECTIOUS DISEASES 1) page 49 2) ABDOMEN 2 2) page 5 2) BACTERIA STRUCTURE 2) page 50 3) ABDOMEN 3 3) page 7 4) GIT DEVELOPMENT 4) page 10 3) BACTERIA PATHOGENICITY 3) page 53 >PATHOLOGY > page 11 4) BACTERIAL GENETIC 4) page 54 1) INFLAMMATION 1) page 12 5) MICROBAL ECOLOGY 5) page 55 2) LYMPHOPROLIFERATIVE 2) page 13 6) VIRAL STRUCTURE 6) page 56 > IMMUNOLOGY > page 16 7) VIRAL REPLICATION 7) page 58 1) INNATE IMMUNITY 1) page 17 8) VIRUS PATHOGENICITY 8) page 59 2) ANTIGEN PRESENTATION 2) page 19 9) VIRUS INFECTIONS 9) page 60 3) ANTIGEN RECOGNITION 3) page 21 10) PARASITES 10) page 62 4) LYMPHOID DEVELOPMENT 4) page 22 11) PARASITES PATHOGENESIS 11) page 64 5) CELLULAR IMMUNE 1 5) page 24 12) FUNGI 12) page 66 6) CELLULAR IMMUNE 2 6) page 26 13) STERILISATION 13) page 67 7) HUMORAL IMMUNE 1 7) page 28 14) ANTIBIOTIC RESISTANCE 14) page 68 8) HUMORAL IMMUNE 2 8) page 29 > PHARMACOLOGY > page 69 1) PHARMACODYNAMICS 1 1) page 70 9) MUCOSAL DEFENSE 9) page 30 2) PHARMACODYNAMICS 2 2) page 73 10) HYPERSENSITIVITY 1 10) page 33 3) PHARMACOKINETICS 1 3) page 77 11) HYPERSENSITIVITY 2 11) page 37 4) PHARMACOKINETICS 2 4) page 80 12) VACCINATION 12) page 40 5) ANTIBIOTICS 5) page 84 6) ANTIVIRAL DRUG 6) page 86 13) IMMUNE TOLERANCE 13) page 43 7) ANTIALLERGIC DRUG 7) page 87 14) AUTOIMMUNITY 14) page 46 8) ANTIFUNGAL-PARASITIC 8) page 89 9) DRUGS IN APD 9) page 91 >DERMATOLOGY > page 93 > PHYSIOLOGY > page 118 1) INTRODUCTION 1) page 94 1) SIGNAL TRANSDUCTION 1) page 119 2) ATOPIC DERMATITIS 2) page 96 2) GIT MOTILITY 2) page 122 3) PSORIASIS 3) page 98 3) SALIVA 3) page 125 4)ECZEMA 4) page 102 4) REGULATORY SYSTEM 4) page 127 > HISTOLOGY > page 106 5) JAUNDICE 5) page 130 1) LYMPHOID ORGANS 1) page 107 > GLOBAL HEALTH > page 134 2) GIT TRACT 1 2) page 108 3) GIT TRACT 2 3) page 111 4) SKIN STRUCTURE 4) page 114 ANATOMY Scientific Committee Med222  ABDOMEN 1 1- Which of the following is a posterior relation of the stomach? B19 A- Second part of duodenum B- Fundus of gallbladder C- Hepatic flexure of colon D- Transverse colon 2- Which of the following planes is at the levels of L-1 vertebra? B18 A- Lateral plane B- Subcostal C- Transpyloric  ABDOMEN 2 1- regarding hepatobillary system which one of the following statement is INCORRECT?B14 A- Cystic duct begins from neck of gall bladder B- Common bile duct joins the main pancreatic duct. C- Duodenal papillae are in the 1st part of duodenum. 2- Which part of the stomach is represented after the body of the stomach? B21 A. Pyloric antrum B. Pyloric sphinchter C. pyloric canal 3-Which of the following is a characteristic of jejunum as compared to ileum?B21 A. It has payers patches B. It has more artery arcades C. It has more mesenteric fat D. Thicker wall 4- Which of the following parts receive the opening of the bile and pancreatic duct in the duodenum ? B21 A. Ascending B. inferior C. Descending D. Superior 5- Which of the following organs is posterior to stomach? B18 A- Gallbladder B- Liver C- Pancreas D- Small intestine 6-Which of the following abdmonial planes through the inferior boreder of tenth ribs? B220 A. Subcostal B. Transpyloric 7- Which type of contraction is seen only in colon? B220  ABDOMEN 3 1- Which of the following in derivatives from foregut: B19 A- Stomach B- Ilium C- Transverse colon D- Jejunum 2- Which of the following in intra-peritoneal organ that’s completely covered with peritoneum: B19 A- Pancreas B- Kidney C- Suprarenal gland D- Stomach 3- Which organ relates anteriorly to the right kidney? B19 A- Pancreas B- Stomach C- Duodenum D- Spleen 4- The left supra-renal vein drains into which one of the following veins ?B14 A- Inferior vena cava B- Left internal iliac C- Left renal 5- A bare area of the liver is located in which of the following Lobe? B21 A. Right B. left C. caudal D. cuadrate 6-Which of the following is an important portosystemic anastomosis site in the gut ? B21 A. Duodenum B. stomach Important C. small intestine D. esophagus 7-what part of the primordial stomach makes the definitive greater curvature ? B21 A. the ventral border B. the dorsal border GIT Development C. the right side D. the left side 8- Which part of pancreas is related to spleen ?B220 A. Head B. Body C. Tail 5- What is the inferior boundary of caudate lope of the liver?B217 A- Inferior vena cava. B- Gallbladder C- ligamentoum teres. D- Portal heaptis. 6-Splenic artery is branch of which of the following artries?B217 A- Celiac trunk B- Left gastric C- Common hepatic 7-Which one of the following rib is crossed by the long axis of spleen?B217 A. 8th. B. 9th. C. 10th. D. 11th.  GIT DEVELOPMENT 1- Which of the following derivative from The caudal limb of the midgut? B21 A. Lower part of duodenum B. Jejunum C. most of the ilium D. terminal part of the ilium 2- Which of the following parts is derived from the hindgut ? B220 A. cecum B. terminal ileum C. ascending colon D. sigmoid colon 3- Which of the following is form from hindgut Sigmoid colon? B221 A- hindgut Consists of Left 1/3 of the transverse colon B- Left colic flexure (splenic flexure), Descending colon, Sigmoid (pelvic) colon, Rectum and * Anal canal Not understandable PATHOLOGY Scientific Committee Med222  INFLAMMATION 1- Which cell will be in alveoli in a patient has pneumonia for 24 hours?B217 A. Neutrophils. B. Macrophages. C. T cells. Lecture is not included in final LYMPHOPROLIFER ATIVE DISORDERS 1- Which type of lymphoma is associated with Epstein bar virus (EBV) infection? B220 A. Burkit lymphoma B. Follicular lymphoma C. B cell Lymphoblastic D. Lymphoma 2- Lymphoma which is derived from single cell is called:B217 A. Monoclonal. B. Polyclonal. 3- An 65 old male presentes with symptoms of renal ,on further investigation found lytic, anemia,hypercalacemia, as detcred M protein , what the better diagnosis? B21 A. Multiple Myeloma B. acute lymphoblastic C. lymphblastic D. hodkgin lymphomas 4- Which one of the following non-Hodgkin lymphomas is the most common in all world: B19 A- Diffused large B cell B- Follicular lymphoma C- Mantle lymphoma D- Burkitt lymphoma 5- After The infection is eliminated, which one of the following consequences is seen with the activated lymphocytes?B14 A- Cessation of antibody production. B- Death by apoptosis. C- continue proliferation. D- Changed to memory cell. 6-A 65 years old male presents with symptoms of renal impairment, in further investigations, he is found to have multiple lytic bone lesions, anemia, and hypercalcemia. As well as detected serum M protein. What is the most likely diagnosis? (B20) A. Chronic lymphocyte leukaemia B. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia C. Hodgkin lymphoma D. Multiple myeloma 7- Which one of these can develop lymphoproliferative disorder? b21 A. congenital immuonodefict B. sickle cell anime C. malaria 8- A person came to the clinic which lymphoma. After molecular investigations, a translocation in the cmyc gene was found, what is the diagnosis? b21 A. follicular lymphoma B. burkitt lymphoma C. diffuse large B cell lymphoma 9- Myeloproliferative diseases (MPDs) include which one of the following conditions? B14 A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia. C. Acute myeloblastic leukemia. D. Lymphoma. IMMUNOLOGY Scientific Committee Med222  INNATE IMMUNE SYSTEM 1- Which of the following complements pyproduct promots inflammation due to its chemotaxis for neutrophils?B21 A. C1a B. C2a C. C3a D. C4a 2- which of the following chemical mediators causes fever in acute inflammation? B21 A. IL-1 B. IL-8 C. IL-9 D. IL-12 3-Which of the following is antimicrobial peptides antibiotic? B18 A- Defnsin B- Mucin C- Ptyalin Lecture is not included in final 4- What is the cells that act as macrophages to the red blood cells? B220 A. Kupffer cel B- Sinusoidal cell C-Alveolar cell 5- Which one of the following is true regarding innate immunity? B18 A- It develops altered-source B- It is the initial defense barrier Lecture is not included in final  ANTIGEN PRESENTATION 1- Which of the following can be recognized by T cells: B19 A- Fat B- Peptide C- Polysaccharides D- Nucleicacid 2- Upon the second exposure, which of the following is activated? B19 A- Naive T cells B- Memory T cells C- Regulatory T cell 3-In lymphocytes maturation strong/positive interactions with self MCH peptide led to (b20) A- negative selection B- postive selection Lecture is not included in final 4- Which of the following functional class of lymphocytes expresses class ll MHC molecule? B220 A. B- lymphocytes B. T- lymphocytes C. Natural killer cells Lecture is not included in final  ANTIGEN RECOGNITION 1- Which of the following sets of molecules on T-lymphocyte deliver activation signals after antigen recognition by T-cell receptor(TCR)?B14 A- CD3 and ζ protein. B- CD4 and α protein. C- CD4 and β protein. 2- Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found in the highest concentration in the plasma?B14 A- Ig A. B-Ig D C- Ig G D-Ig M 3-Which one of the following immunoglobulins is found as a pentamer in the serum? B18 A- IgA. B-IgD C- IgE D- IgM Lecture is not included in final  LYMPHOID DEVELOPMENT 1- During T cell maturity in thymus, positive selection of T cells occurs due to which type of interaction between TCR and class 2 MHC + peptide:B19 A- Strong interaction B- Weak interaction C- No interaction 2- Which from the following is an example of peripheral autoimmune tolerance? B19 A- Clonal anergy B- Clonal expansion C- Clonal selection D- Clonal deletion 3-During maturation of B lymphocytes in bone marrow potential self reactive cells rearrange their light chain gene for a second time. This process mentioned as? B220 A. Affinity maturation B. Allelic exclusion C. Class switching D. Receptor editing- Lecture is not included in final 4- Strong interaction of self peptides MHC cmplex with TCR of an immature T lymphocytes? B220 A. Negative selection B. positive selection Lecture is not included in final  CELLULAR IMMUNITY 1 1- Which one of the following cytokines released first from the activated T cell ? B21 A. IL-2 B. IL-5 C. IL-4 D. IL-20 2- What is the receptor of T cell that binds to B7 on antigen presenting cell? B21 A. CD 28 B. CD 3 C. LFA-1 D. ICAM-1 3-Which of the following statements is correct regarding CD8+T cells.? B21 A. B cells play a s role in the activation of CD8+T cells. B. antigen presented to CD8 by class 2 MHC C. the type of antigen presented to CD8+T cells is cytosolic antigen D. NK cells can present antigens to CD8+T cells. 4- Dendritic cell after antigen exposure on epithelial cells, they migrate to lymph node by expressing which of the following? B220 A. SIP B. CXR5 C. CCR7 5- How to differentiate between the different subsets of CD4+ helper cell ? B18 A- Site of production B- Cytokine produced C- Morphology D- 6- Which of the following is a surface molecule on T lymphocyte is an inhibitory receptor for B7 in antigen presenting cell? b20 A. CTLA4 B. PD1 C. CD28  CELLULAR IMMUNITY 2 1- Which of the following sets of cytokines produced by T-helper 2(Th2) cells simulates phagocyte-independent, eosinophil mediated immunity against helminthes?B14 A- IL-1& IL-2. B- IL-4& IL-5. C- IL-7& IL-8 2- which of the following sets of substances are released from the granules of activated cytotoxic lymphocytes(CTL) to kill the targets cell?B14 A- Perforin and Granzyme B. B- reactive oxygen species (ROS) and lysozyme. C-proteolytic enzymes and Tumor necrosis Factor (TNF). 3-What is consequences of classical activation of macrophage? B21 A. Increase antimicrobal action B. Wound repire C. reduce inflammation D. Diapedesis 4- Which of the following is process is killing of infected cells with viruses by release of lytic substance? B18 A. CD4+ B. CD8+ C. Dendritic cell D. Eosinophils 5- Which one of the following immunoglobulins provide immunity against helminths? B217 A. IgA. B. IgE. C. IgD. D. IgM. 6- Which one of the complement system is activated with adaptive immunity?B217 A. Classical pathway. B. Alternative pathway. C. Lectin pathway. 7- Cytokines produced by regulatory t lymphocyte: A. IL2 B. If gamma C. TGF beta D. TNF  HUMORAL IMMUNITY 1 1- In germinal center reaction of humoral immune response, which of the following interleukin is responsible for heavy chain isotype switching of B lymphocytes to IgE antibody production: B19 A- IL 1 B- IL 2 C- IL 3 D- IL 4 2- Statement True about primary lymphocytes response,? B220 A- IgM more than IgG B- rapid response C- high peek immunoglobulin 3- Which one of the following immunoglobulins is called natural antibody:B217 A- IgM. B- IgG. C- IgE.  HUMORAL IMMUNITY 2 1- Which of the following immune cells are responsible for Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity? B19 A- T lymphocyte B- B lymphocyte C- Neutral killer cell 2- Byproduct of complement activation on microbe C 3d, also provide activation signal for B lymphocytes. Which one of the following is the receptor for C 3d on B- lymphocyte? B14 A- complement receptor 1(CR1). B- complement receptor 2(CR2). C- complement receptor 3(CR3). D- complement receptor 4(CR4). 3-The NK CELL ACTIVATED TO kill the antibody coated cell by which mechanism :B21 A. Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity D- Antibody secretions  MUCOSAL DEFENSE 1- Which of the following is antimicrobial peptides antibiotic? B19 A- Defensin B- Ptyalin C- Mucin 2- Which of the following forms the secretory component of igA: B19 A- J chain B- PolyIG receptor 3- Which of the following subsets of B-lymphocyte are present in large number in mucosal lymphoid tissue and responsible of producing IgA type of immunoglobulin? b21 A. Follicular B cells B. Marginal-zone B cells C. B-1 cells 4- which is the following is not a feature of immune exclusion by IGA in the mucosal surface? b21 A. inhabitation of microbial adherence to the epithelium B. complement-mediated lysis plays an important role C. mucophilicnature of iga enhance immune exclusion D. igA is staple and has prolonged function in secretion 5- beside IgA which immunoglobulin is secreted to the mucosal surface by (polymeric Ig receptor )? b21 A. IgM B. IgE C. IgD D. IgG 6- Which one of the following is an antimicrobial peptide (AMP) synthesized by the intestinal epithelial cells that play an important role in mucosal immunity?B14 A. Cathelecidins. B. Catecholamines. C. Chromaffin. 7- Which one of the following peptides in the structure of secretory IgA protects it from enzymatic degradation?B14 A. J chain. B. Secretory components. C. Fc fragment.  HYPERSENSI TIVITY 1- What of the following is not pre-formed: B19 A- Heparin B- Histamine C- Prostaglandins 2- A defect in the skin barrier is an important part of pathogenesis of which of the following? B19 A- Atopic dermatitis B- Contact dermatitis C- Seborrheic dermatitis D- Photodermatitis 3-In type 1 hypersensitivity which immunoglobulin is cross linked: B19 A- IgA B- IgE C- IgB D- IgM 4- Which of the following drugs is mast cell stabilizer? B19 A- Cromolyn Na B- Diphenhydramine C- Loratadine 5- Which one of the following mediators is responsible for the late phase reaction in type 1 hypersensitivity:B14 A- Cytokines B- Histamine C- Serotonin 6- Which of the following belong to the histamine? B18 A- Local mediator B- Contact depend it Signal transduction C- Neurotransmitters 7-Which types of immunoglobulins is responsible for type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? B217 A. IgA. B. IgE. C. IgD. D. IgM. 8- Which type of hypersensitivity is immune complex ? B21 A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 9- Immediate hypersensitivity reaction, Wich one of cytokine stimulate increase mucus secretion : b21 A. IL-10 B. LL-13 C. IL-17 D. IL-23 10- Which of the following is an example of atopy? b21 A. allergic cotact dermatitis B. Hay fever C. Serum sickness D. Tuberculosis-reaction 11- Which one of the following Ig mediate type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? B14 A. IgA. B. IgE. C. IgG. D. IgM. 12- Which one of the following mediators in type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is PERFORMED in the granules of mast cells?B14 A. Histamine. B. Platelet activating factor. C. Prostaglandins. D. Leukotrienes. 13- Which one of the following cell types expresses receptors for IgE on their cell surface in Type 1 hypersensitivity?B14 A- NK cells. B. Mast cells. C. Neutrophils. 14- Which one of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions involves a T cells response?B14 A- | B. || C. ||| D. |V  HYPERSENSI TIVITY 2 1- which one of the following hypersensitivity disease is characterized by skin vesicles?B14 A- Idiopathic. B-Pemphigus vulgaris. C-Pernicious anemia. D-Polyarthritis nodosa. 2- Tuberculin test is an example of which of the following type of hypersensitivity? B19 A- I B- II C- III D- IV 3- In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies will be produced against which from the following receptors? B19 A- Acetylcholine B- THS C- DNA 4- When should you do patch test? B19 A- Immediately after stabilizing the patient B- After 3 days from treatment C- After 3 weeks from the treatment 5- Which of the drugs use to treat hyperacidity H2 ? B220 A. Ranitidine B. Omperzole Drugs used in APD C. Magnesium hydroxide 6-Tuberculin test is an example of which of the following type of hypersensitivity? B220 A. I B. II C. III D. IV 7- Which one of the following is an example of hypersensitivity type3 ?B217 A. Serum sickness. B. Anaphylaxis. C. Atopy. 8-Gastroenteritis can cause pernicious anemia due to defect in Vitamin B12 absorption as a result of : B217 Saliva & Gastric Secretions A-Defect in the production of intrinsic factor. 9-Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reaction involves T-cell mediated? B217 A. I B. II C. III D. IV  VACCINATION 1- Which of the following CORRECT regarding to administration of vaccines? B19 A- Active natural immunity B- Active artificial immunity C- Passive natural immunity D- Passive artificial immunity 2- Which one of the following is an important limiting factor in the development of live vaccines against any infectious diseaseB14 A- attenuation is not possible. B- Lack of experimental animal models. C- Need for adjuvant. 3-The vaccine used for immunization against Hepatitis B virus infection is an example of which of the following types?B14 A- Live attenuated. B-Subunit. C-Toxoid. 4- The adaptive immunity acquired antibodies or lymphocytes from an individual who already has immune cells ?B21 A. Active immunity B. Autoimmunity C. Passive immunity D. Herd immunity 5- An example of subunit vaccine is polysaccharide capsule of encapsulated bacteria ,which bacteria infection can be prevented by this vaccine?B21 A. Hemophluis influenza B. Clostridium titani C. Escherichia coli D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 6-Liver attenuated vaccine are used for which of the infection : B21 A. HAV B. HBV C. Measles 7-Which of the following term describe the vaccination of large populations to decrease the susceptible host in community? B21 A. Herd immunity B. active immunity C. passive immunity- 8-Which of the following vaccination technique involves the use of live virus? B217 A- Attenuated. B- Inactivated. C- Subunit.  TOLERANCE & AUTOIMMUNITY 1- Administration of Which of the following doses of antigen may induce suppressor of T cells that induce the suppression of the immune system of both B and T lymphocytes: A- Both Low and high dose of antigen B- Low dose of antigen only C- High dose of antigen only 2- What term is used to describe decrease in responsiveness to a drug when it is used chronically B20 A. Hypersensitivity B. Supersensitivity Pharmacodynamics 2 C. Tachyphylaxis D. Tolerance 3-Which of the following is inhibitory cytokine released from T-reg cells? B220 A. IL-2 B. TGF-B C. TNF Cellular immune response 2 4- Which of the following terms is used to describe functional inactivity or unresponsiveness to self reactive lymphocytes? b21 A. Clonal selection B. Clonal deletion C. Yellow fever D. Clonal anergy 5- some macrobial antigens may cross reacting with self antigen resulting an autoimmune diseases : b21 A. Molecular mimicry B. Autotolerance 6- Which of the following are inhibitory cytokines produced by regulatory T lymphocytes? A. Interleukin - 2 B. interleukin- 10 C. interferon gamma D. toumer necrotic factor 7- During maturation of B lymphocytes, self-reacting cell will arrange their light chain genes, this process is called? A. Gene exclusion B. Signal transduction C. Anergy D. Receptor editing 8- Which one of the following mechanisms is responsible for elimination of T- cells during induction of central T-cell tolerance?B14 A- Strong recognition of self-antigens by immature T-cells in the thymus. B. Strong recognition of self-antigens by immature T-cells in peripheral lymphoid tissues. C. Strong recognition of non self-antigens by immature T-cells in the thymus. D. Strong recognition of non self-antigens by immature T-cells in peripheral lymphoid tissues. 9- Which of the following types of doses of antigens may induce suppressor T- cells that suppress immune response against both B and T lymphocytes? B14 A. Both low and high. B. Low. C. High. 10- Immune response against which one of the following types of antigens describes autoimmunity?B14 A. Self. B. Non-self.  AUTOIMMUNITY 1- Which of the following autoimmune disease that induced by cell mediated immunity in response to the myelin sheath? B19 A- Good pasture’s syndrome B- Grave’s disease C- Myasthenia grave’s D- Multiple sclerosis 2- Which autoimmune disorders priduce antibodies atack cell DNA ? b21 A. hemolytic anemia disease B. acute rheumatic fever C. Systemic lupus erythematosus 3- Which one of the following is exact cause of autoimmune disorders? B14 A- Environmental triggers. B. Genetic susceptibility. C. Immune regulation. D. Unknown. 4- Which one of the following is a characteristic clinical presentation of Grave’s disease? B14 A- Muscle weakness. B. Myocarditis. C. Hyperthyroidism. D. Acute rheumatic fever. 5- which of the following antigens is associated with immune complex disease of glomerulonephritis?B14 A- Staphylococcal B. Streptococcal C. Enetrococcal 6- which one of the following autoimmune disease is associated with the destruction of myelin sheath? B14 A- multiple Sclerosis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. systemic lupus erythematous MICROLOGY Scientific Committee Med222  INTRODUCTION INFECTIOUS DISEASE 1- What is the microorganism that classified as prokaryotic? B21 A. Bacteria B. viruses C. parasite D. fungi Lecture is not included in final  BACTERIAL STRUCTURE 1- The dormant form of the bacteria which is resistant to enzymes, heat, radiation and the action of chemical substances is known as: B19 A- Adhesin B- Glycocalyx C- Spore 2- What is the significant function of the bacterial plasma membrane: B19 A- Adhesion B- Protein synthesis C- Selective permeability D- Virulence factor 3-Which one of the following components of the lipopolysaccharide in the gram- negative bacterial cell wall is also known as into endotoxin? B14 A- Core polysaccharide B- Lipid A. C- Peptidoglycan. Lecture is not included in final 4- Which one of the following components of the bacterial cell is an important virulence factor by providing protection against phagocytosis? B14 A- Capsule B- Flagella C- Fimbria 5- Which of the following is a characteristic of gram positive bacteria cellular wall? B21 A. Capsule B. teichoic acid C. peptodoglycan D. outer membrane 6-What type of bacteria lacks cell wall? B220 A. Chlamydia B. streptococcus C. mycoplasm 7-Wich from the following is constitute bacterial flagellast? B220 A. Carbohydrate lipid B. Protien phospholipid “not sure” Lecture is not included in final 8- Which of the following is a characteristic of gram negative bacteria? B18 A- It doesn't have endotoxin B- Resistant to lysozyme Lecture is not included in final  BACTERIA PATHOGENICITY 1- Which one of the following components of the lipopolysaccharides in the gram-negative bacterial cell wall is also known as endotoxin: B19 A- Peptidoglycan B- Lipid A C- Core polysaccharides 2- How do capsulated bacteria facilitate invasive diseases by the bacterial capsule? B21 A. bind to the receptor of host cell B. inhibit phagocytosis by neutrophils C. inhibit IgA by blocking it D. produce platelet aggregation. 3-Which of the following terms is used to describe the numerical capacity of a bacterial pathogenicity? B21 A. Colonization B. Commensal C. Disease affects D. Virulence Lecture is not included in final  BACTERIAL GENETICS 1- Through Which of the following processes of bacterial genetic transfer,The DNA fragments of a lysed bacterial cell would be transferred? B21 A. Transformation B. conjugation C. translocation D. transduction 2- small genetic element in the bacterial cytoplasm that replicates independently of the chromosome and can transfer important virulence genes among bacteria? B21 A. mesosome B. plasmid C. toxins D. Transpones 3-Which of the following is extrachromosomal material that replicate by its own?B18 A- Plasmid B- Mitochondria  MICROBAL ECOLOGY 1- A man who has reproductive cough, pain in chest. The gram stain was gram positive and diplococci? B221 A. Streptococcus pneumonia B. staphylococcus aureus Pneumococccal infections C. Mycobacterium pneumoniae D. klebsiella pneumoniae 2- Which of the following is a nose commensal in which it causes systemic infections and causes surgical wound infection? B21 A. Acinetobacter baumannii B. E. Coli C. Staphylococcus aureus D. pseudomonas aeruginosa 3- Which one of the following listed areas of the body does NOT have a resident microbial flora? B14 A- Ear. B. Eye. C. Upper respiratory tract. D. Urinary bladder.  VIRAl STRUCTURE 1- Naked viruses do NOT contain which of the following: B19 A- Capsid B- Envelope C- Genome 2- Virus classification is on the basis of which of the following structural components: B19 A- Enzymes B- Envelope spikes C- Proteins D- Nucleic Acid 3-which one of the following is a positive – strand RNA genome virus family? B14 A- Orthomyxoviridae. B- Rhabdoviridae. C-Retroviridae. D- Paramyxoviridae. Lecture is not included in final 4- What is incorrect about viruses: B21 A. obligate intracellular parasites B. have both RNA and DNA C. measured in nanometers 5- Which of the following family of virus has DNA genome? B18 A- Hepadnavirdae Lecture is not included in final  VIRAL REPLICATION 1- The time interval between the penetration of the virus into the host cell and the appearance of the daughter virion is called?B14 A- Eclipse phase. B-Incubation phase. C-Latent phase. 2- Which of the following viruses is DNA? B18 A- Viruses B- Retroviruses C- Orthomyxoviruses D- Hepadnviruzes 3-Which of the fowling is endocytosis of virus?B18 A- Penetrating B- Macromolecules synthesis C- Uncoating Lecture is not included in final  VIRUS PATHOGENICITY 1- Stainable structures seen in the cell affected with viruses is called: B221 A. Pathogenicity islands B. spikes C. Syncytia formation D. Inclusion bodies Lecture is not included in final  VIRUS INFECTIONS 1- Which one of the following lymphomas associated with Epstein par virus infection: B19 A- Follicular lymphoma B- Burkitt lymphoma C- Leukemia 2- which one of the following is an oncogenic virus? B14 A-Dengue. B-Hepatitis C. C- Measles. D- Rabies. 3-Which of following is latent infection: B21 A. herpes simplex virus B. influenza A virus C. poilo 4- Zoonotic virus infection mostly transmit through wich of the following route? A- Blood. B- Organ transplant. C- Insect bit. 5- By which of the following ways the HIV evades the immune system? A. Suppresses the antibody production. B. Destruction of CD4 cells. C. Destruction of CD8 cells.  PARASITES 1- Which of the following is flat segmented flat worm: B19 A- Nematode B- Trematoda C- Cestoda 2- Helminthes with a flattened, long ribbon like bodies that are segmented” proglottid” are known as :B14 A- Nematodes. B- Trematodes. C- Cestodes. 3- Among the parasite belonging the metazoa, which of the following is cestode? B21 A. Tape worm B. Round worm C. Pin worm D. Whip worm 4- Which one of the following parasites have no cystic form? B17 A. Trichomonasvaginalis B. balantidium coli Lecture is not included in final 4- Which of the following classifed as protoze and presented in sporozoa B21 A. Plasmodium B. balantidium coli 5- In the pathogenesis of amoebiasis , tissue destruction can be attributed to which of the following factors:B21 A. neurotoxin secretion B. production of cytotoxin Common parasites infections C. Toxin A and B- 6-Which of the following is a multicellular parasitic group ? B18 A- Nematoda B- Sporoa C- Amoebosa 7-Giardia lamblia is considered as? B18 A- Sporozoa B- Ciliates Common parasites infections C- Flagellates 8- Trans-placental transmission infection from the mother to the fetus is which type of the following? B18 A- Giardiasis B- Toxoplasmosis Common parasites infections  PARASITES PATHOGENESIS 1- which one of the following parasites is transmitted through the bite of an arthropod?B14 A- Entamoeba histolytica. B Strongyloides. C-Filarial worms. 2- Mechanical blockage of the intestine and bile duct, can occur with which of the following parasites?B14 A- Echinococcus. B- Ascaria. C-Wuchereria. D-Schistosomes. 3-Which one of the following parasite are transmitted by larvae penetration ? B21 A. Schistosoma B. Scars C. amoeba- Lecture is not included in final 4- Hydrolytic enzyme is a mechanism used by which parasite to induce tissue damage? B220 A. Leshmania B. Trypanosoma 'C. Entamoeba D. Ascaries 5- Which of the following is the mode of transmission of trichomoniasis? B221 A. Air borne B. Blood transfusion C. Food borne D. Sexual contact 6-Which one of the following parasites causes Elephantiasis? B17 A- Balantidium coli. B- Trichomonas vaginalis. C- Filariasis. Lecture is not included in final  FUNGI 1- A 35 year old man presented to the clinic With a white Patras in the mouth and the pharynx and was moist he also have genetic predisposition to diabetes uses antidiabetic drugs The m organsim produced by budding and had Psuedohypha and it is Gram positive? B221 A. Candida albican B. Aspergillus spp C. Cryptococcus pneumonia 2- How yeast reproduce? A- Budding B- Conidia C- Sporangiospres 3-Which of the following statement is correct regarding molds:B217 A. produce round, pasty, or mucoid colonies on agar. B. Produce pseudohyphae. C. Produce hyphae.  STERILISATION 1- Which of the following is used to clean the desks and tables from microbs ? B21 A. Sterilization B. disinfection 2- Which substance has intermediate germicidal effect could kill all microbial pathogens except bacterial endosporses? B21 A. glutaraldehyde B. hydrogen peroxide C. idophors 3-Which of the following bacterial spores test can used to monitor the effectiveness of sterilization by saturated steam under pressure? B217 A. Bacillus stearothermophilus. B. Bacillus subtilis.  ANTIBIOTIC RESISTANCE 1- Which of the following is one of the consequences of antibiotic resistance: B19 A- Decreased morbidly and mortality rates B- Increased length of hospital stays of patients C- Decreased rate of untreatable infections D- Improved outcomes of immunosuppressive treatment 2- The number of drugs that are essential in DOTS (Directly observed treatment short course) strategy for treatment of Tuberculosis is: B14 A- 2 B- 3 Unknown C- 4 D- 5 PHARMACOLOGY Scientific Committee Med222  PHARMACODYN AMICS 1 1- Which of the following is NOT a drug target: B19 A- Enzyme B- Receptor C- Cytosol D- Ion channel 2- The action of drug to a particular specific tissue is called: B19 A- Affinity B- Efficacy C- Safety D- Specifity 3-A measure of dose-related drug activity required to preduce a pharmacological effect is called:B14 A- Potency B- Efficacy C- Affinity D- Intrinsic activity 4- Which statment is correct regradeing to drug- recpror reaction? B21 A. Antagonist have no affinity B. Agonist have no affnity C. Antagonist have moderate efficacy D. Partial agonists have sub-maximal efficacy' 5- The ability of adrug ro bind to a receptor to form drug receptor comlex defined as? B20 A. Affinity B. Antagonist C. Biavilibalty D. Effecay 6- Efficacy is defined as the drugs’s ability to elicit: B217 A. Receptor blockage. B. Response. C. Strong receptor binding. D. Weak receptor binding 7-Affinity is defined as the drug’s ability to elicit: B217 A. Receptor blockage. B. Response. C. Strong receptor binding. D. Weak receptor binding. 8-When drug receptor complex initial cascade of cellular responses leading to cell activation, the drug will be termed as: b20 A. Agonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Irreversible competitive antagonist D. Mixed against- antagonist  PHARMACOD YNAMICS 2 1- All the following are considered as second messengers EXCEPT: B19 A- CyclicAMP B- Diacylglycerol C- G protein D- Inositol triphosphate 2- What term describes the decrease in unresponsive to a drug that develops within few minutes: B19 A- Hypersensitivity B- Super sensitivity C- Tachyphylaxis D- Tolerance 3- Tachyphylaxis is :B14 A- A rapid onset of anaphylaxis. B- A form of rapid drug resistance. C- Rapid drug tolerance. D-A form of rapid but non-competitive drug antagonism 4- A decrease in response after repeated administration of a certain drug is termed as: B21 A. Hypersensitivity B. Idiosncarcy C. Supersensetivity D. Tolerance 5- Which of the following is a characteristic of drugs that act on nuclear receptors : B21 A. high lipid solubility B. high water solubility 6-Drugs act on G-protein activate which of the following enzymes? B18 A- Adenylyl Cyclase B- Phospholipase A C- Phospholipase C 7-Drugs act on Q-protein coupled receptors activate which of the following enzyme? B18 A- Adenylyl cyclase B- Guanylyl cyclase C- Phospholipase A D- Phospholipase C 8- Which of the following is a good example of life equilibrium?B217 A. Metabolism. B. Growth. C. Response to environmental stimuli. 9- Which of the following mechanism play a major role for transport of drug across the biological metabolism: b20 A. Active B. Endocytes C. Active diffusion D. Passive diffusion 10- Masking (internalization) of receptors contribute toward which one of the following activities? B14 A. Down regulation of receptors. B. Up regulation of receptors. C. Change in the affinity of an agonist. D. Change in the affinity of an antagonist. 11-Which one of the following types of receptors is expected to produce a delayed response due to gene regulation? B14 A. G-protein coupled. B. Tyrosine kinase. C. Ionotropic. D. Steroid.  PHARMACOKI NETIC 1 1- Which of the following route of administration has the highest uptake or fast action? B19 A- Intravenous route B- Intramuscular route C- Intradermal route D- Oral route 2- The fraction of a dose reaching system circulation in an unchanged form is called: B19 A- Bioavailability B- Biotransformation C- Biotransportation D- Bioequivalent 3- Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding drugs with high degree first- pass metabolism in liver? B19 A- Orally much larger dose of drug is needed B- Have a higher oral bioavailability C- Are contraindicated in liver dysfunction D- Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination 4- Acidic drugs bind to: B19 A- Albumin B- alpha-1 acid glycoprotein 5- Drug administrated through which of the following routers is most likely to subjected to first-pass metabolism? B18 -21 A- Oral B- Sublingual C- Subconscious D- Rectal 6-The volume of drug from which a drug can be completely removed per time unite (rate of drug removal)? B18 - 21 A- Distribution B- Clearance C- Metabolism D- Excretion 7-Which of following is a disadvantage of transdermal drug delivery system?B217 A. flucation in the drug concentration. B- Patient absorption is poor. C- presystemic metabolism. D- suitable for only lipophilic drug. Alkalization of the urine will accelerate the excretion of which of the following drug? B217 A. Weakly acidic drug. B. Weakly basic drug. C- presystemic metabolism. D- suitable for only lipophilic drug.  PHARMACOKI NETIC 2 1- A drug with a first-order elimination of t1/2 of 4 hours, was given at a certain dose to reach a peak plasma concentration of 20 μg/ml. The time required for this drug to reach a plasma drug concentration of 2.5 μg/ml would be?B14 A- 8 hours. B-12 hours. C-16 hours. D.-20 hours. 2-Which of the following is most common phase II drug metabolising reaction? B220 A. Conjugation B. Hydrolysis C. Methylation D. Acetylation 3- The time required to reduce the plasma concentration to one half its of initial value 50% ; B220 A- bioavailability B- biotransformation C- Plasma half Life (t1/2) D- 4-It refers to the volume of blood cleared of the drug in unit of time: B217 A. Excretion. B. Metabolism. C. Clearance. 5-Prodrug means drug metabolized to:B217 A. Active metabolic. B. Inactive metabolic. C. Toxic metabolic. 6-Which one of the pharmacokinetics parameters that determines the loading of dose of a drug? b21 A. Renal clearance B. Plasma half life C. First pass metabolism D. Volume of distribution 7- What is incorrect about excretion of kidney: b21 A. Lipid soluble drugs are efficiently excreted in urine B. Weak acid and weak basic drugs absorption is affected by urine PH C. Plasma protein binding drugs are impermeable in glomerular filtration D. Probenecid prevents tubular excretion of penicillin, thus prolong duration of action of penicillin 8- a drug metabolite produced due to phase II biotransformation is: B14 A. Disrupted intra-cellularly. B. Inactive. C. More active than original drug. D. Reabsorbed by renal tubules. 9-on the basis of volume of distribution (Vd), hemodialysis will be most effective in treating effects of overdose with which one of the following drugs?B14 A. Aspirin (Vd= 12 L/70 kg) B. Diazepam (Vd= 168 L/70 kg) C. Digoxin (Vd= 490 L/70 kg) D. Phenytoin (Vd= 44 L/70 kg) 10- A drug that is not bound to a plasma protein is characterized by being: A. The active fraction. B. Non-diffusible. C. Non-filtered. D. Non-metabolized. 11- A drug with a large volume of distribution (VD) suggests that the drug has: B14 A. High plasma concentration. B. High plasma protein binding. C. High tissue protein binding. \D. Large molecular size 12- Which one of the following drugs act as a hepatic microsomal enzyme inducer? :B14 A. Cimetidine B. Chloramphenicol C. Rifampicin 13- Which one of the following drugs inhibits Cytochrome P450 and also retards the metabolism of some drugs?B14 A- Aluminium Hydroxide. B. Bismuth subcirate. C. Cimetidine. D. Omeprazole.  ANTIBIOTIC 1- Norfloxacin acts through which of the following mechanisms of action: B19 A- Inhibits cell wall synthesis B- Inhibits DNA synthesis C- Inhibits Folic acid synthesis D- Inhibitsproteinsynthesis 2- Which one of the following classes of antibiotic acts by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis:B14 A- Cephalosporins. B-Teratocyclines. C-Penicillins. D-Quinolones. 3-Which of the following drug groups is contraindicated in patients with penicillin allergy B220 A. cephlosporins B. Aminoglycosides C. Quinolones 4- Which one of the following mechanism mainly involved in the termination of penicillin's action in the body?B217 A. enzymatic hydrolysis. B. metabolism in liver. C. secretion in bile. D. tubular secretion in kidney.  ANTIVIRAL DRYGS 1- Which of the following drugs is Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor? B18 A- Nevirapine B- Zidovudine C- Indinavir  ANTI-ALLURGIC DRUGS 1- Indication of administration for antihistamine include all of the following EXCEPT: B19 A- Bronchial asthma B- Common cold important C- Motion sickness D- Urticaria 2- Beside allergy antihistamine are indicated in the treatment of: B220 A. Common cold B. Dry mouth C. Hyperacidity D. Bronchial asthma 3-Which of the following drugs is used as first line treatment in anaphylactic shock? B18 A- Adrenalin B- Chlorphenarmine important C- Fexofenadine D- Cromoglycate 4- A case where the patient is presented with anaphylactic shock symptômes) which of the following is the first line drug used to treat him: b21 A- Adrenalin B- Toxoplasma 5- Corticosteroids are anti inflammatory due to inactivation of which enzyme? b21 A. Tyrosine kinase B. Phospholipase A2 C. Acetyl esterase 6- Cromolyn sodium Belong to which group of drugs: b20 A. Mast cell stabilizers B. Corticosteroids C. Antihistamine  ANTIFUNGAL & ANTIPARASITIC DRUGS 1- which of the following anti-fungal drugs inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol B21 A- Flucnazol B- Amphotericin 2- what is the anti-amoebic drug for asymptomatic people? B21 A. metronidazole B. tinidazole C. diloxanide 3-Testosterone is a hormone that is considered as: B217 A. Steroids. signal transduction B. Proteins. 4- Which of the following drugs is effective against malaria: b19 A. Artemisinin B. Acyclovir C. Omeprazole D. Streptomycin  DRUGS USED IN APD 1- Which of the following drugs is not anti H. Pylori? B18 A- Clarithromycin B- Amoxicillin C- Metronidazole D- Ciprofloxacin 2- What is the triple drug for treatment of H. pylori ? b21 A- amoxicillin, clarithromycin, omparzole 3- Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the acid suppressing action in proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)? B21 A. Reversible inhibition of H+ - K+ - ATPase B. Irreversible inhibition of H+ - K+ - ATPase C. Reversible inhibition of Na+ - K+ - ATPase D. Irreversible inhibition of Na+ - K+ - ATPase 4- Which of the following is not a cytoprotective effect exerted by the prostaglandins on the gastric mucosal functioning? b19 A. Increasemucusandbicarbonatesecretion B. Reducing the colonization of H.Pylori C. Increasing mucosal blood flow D. Reducingthegastricacidoutput 6- Constipation is an adverse effect of which one of the following anti-ulcer drugs?B14 A.. Aluminium Hydroxide. B. Cimetidine C. Magnesium Hydroxide. D. Omeprazole. 7- / Receptors of which one of the following substances are located on parietal cells and responsible for hydrochloric acid synthesis by increase in c-AMP level? B14 A. Cholecystskinin. B. Histamine. C. Somatostatin. DERMATOLOGY Scientific Committee Med222  INTRO TO DERMATOLOGY 1- Hereditary Angioedema is due to a deficiency of which enzyme: B19 A- C1esterase inhibitor B- CD3 2- A boy was playing and an insect bit him then a lesion appeared which was Itchy, transient, elevated lesion with variable blanching and erythema. Which of the following describes the lesion? B19 A- Vesicle B- Papule C- Scale D- Wheal 3-An 18 female presented with an itchy transient elevated lesion followed by an insect bite, what is the diagnosis? (B20) A- eczema B- psoriasis C- leishmaniasis D- urticaria 4- women come with transient elevated leision in her skin and branched erythema , after an insect bite what would be the cause of it ? b21 A. Leishmaniasis B. Urticaria 5- Which of the following is used as a serum test for inherited angioedema : b21 A. C1Q B. C2 C. C3 D. C4 6- A 50-year old male presented with edema in his eyelids and lips with burn sensation, which of the following the diagnosis? B21 A. Acquired angioedema B. Inherited angioedema C. Detmatitis 7- Deficiency / defect in C1 esterase inhibitor cause what lesion? b20 A. AngioEdema B. Papule C. Urticaria D. VESICLES  ATOPIC DERMATITIS 1- A defect in the skin barrier is an important part of pathogenesis of which of the following? B19 A- Atopic dermatitis B- Contact dermatitis C- Seborrheic dermatitis D- Photodermatitis 2- Which of the following histological feature describe spongiosis: B19 A- Epidermal edema B- Destruction of desmosome 3- A person has burning, and erythema caused by strong alkaline, what is the diagnosis for this lesion: B19 A- Atopic dermatitis B- Angioedema C- Irritant contact dermatitis D- Allergic contact dermatitis 4- What type of food is more likely to increase atopic dermatitis ? A-Nut B- vegetable C- fruit 5- A child present with rash in flexure of the limb, his family has a history of asthma, what is the diagnosis? B18 A- Atopic dermatitis B- Allergic contact dermatitis. C- Psoriasis 6-Which one of eczemas considered to be associated with defense in the keratinocyte barrier function?B217 A. Atopic. B. Contact. C. Photodermatitis.  PSORIASIS 1- A 28-year-old male present with salmon pink in the elbow and scaly silvery in knee with yellowish in the nails. Which one of these describe Auspitz’s sign: B19 A- Retention of nuclei in keratinocytes - stratum corneum B- Presence of pinpoint bleeding spots after scraping the lesions 2- Which of the following erythematous skin lesions with silvery-white scales are typically seen? B21 A. Atopic dermatitis B. Pemphigus C. Psorosis D. Contact dermatitis 3- A patient has a slivery scaling and erythema what is the diagnosis? B220 A. Psoriasis B- Atopic dermatitis C- urticaria 4- Lesion of psoriasis will not be present in? B18 A- Gentile B- Scalp C- Hair D- Penis 4- 32-year-old man came with salmon pink skin lesions covered by silvery plaque in knees and elbow along with yellowish color in nails. Which one describe Auspitz sign:B217 A. Point bleeding and after scarping the skin. B. Formation of new lesions at the site of injury 5- What layer is damaged in psoriasis? b21 A. Startum corneum B. Startum lucidum C. Startum granulosum 6- A surgeon noted a new pinkish raised lesion covered with silvery scales at the site of surgical scar, 2 weeks following an appendicectomy operation. There was a history of similar lesions on the elbows, scalp and knee of the same patient prior to surgery. What could be the cause of this new lesion? b19 A. Koebner’s phenomenon B. Auspitz’s sign C. Spongiform pustule D. Parakeratosis 7- the development of new lesions ( isomorphic lesion ) of psoriasis at the site of injury is called :B14 A. Auspitz sign B. Koebner's phenomenon C. oil drop sign D. Shwal sign 8- which one of the following findings is seen in the histopathology of psoriasis ? B14 A. Acantholysis B. Colloid bodies C. Hypergranulosis D. parakeratosis 9-Which of the following erythematous skin lesions with silvery-white scales are typically seen? B20 A. Atopic dermatitis B. Pemphigus C. Psorosis D. Contact dermatitis 10- all of the following conditions are associated with psoriasis EXCEPT :B14 A. Arthritis B. enteropathy C. Myopathy D. Pneumonitis 11- Auspitz sign is seen in which of the following skin disease : B14 A. angioedema B. eczema C. psoriasis D. Urticaria  ECZEMA 1- A 45-year surgeon presents to the dermatology clinic witch itching over both his hands, his symptoms increase whenever he wears surgical gloves, which of the is the most relevant investigation? B19 A- Pircktest B- Patch test C- Skin biopsy 2- A 50 years old women present with hand eczema, which of the following is true? B18 A- Atopic dermatitis B- Irritant contact dermatitis 3-A girl wear earring and she noticed a rash there, what is the best test for this case? B18 A- Patch test B- Prick test C- Serum IgE levels D- Complete blood count 4- A person has burning, and erythema caused by strong alkaline, what is the diagnosis for this lesion: B19 - 21 A- Atopic dermatitis B- Angioedema C- Irritant contact dermatitis D- Allergic contact dermatitis 5-A 35 old male patient with scaling and erythema over the scalp, face, beard, axilla and groins. Skin biopsy shows spongiosis and acanthosis with the presence of fungi in the skin. What the most likely diagnosis?B217 A. Atopic dermatitis. B. Contact dermatitis. C. Nummular eczema. D. Seborrheic dermatitis. 6- which of these following types of eczema is endogenous? b21 A. atopic dermatitis B. photodermatitis C. radiation dermatitis D. contact dermatitis 7- A 24 years old female devolved a hypersensitivity reaction after wearing earrings for two months , What the type of hypersensitivity she developed? A.I B. II C. III D. IV 8- Patch test is indicated for which one of the following type of eczematous conditions? B14 A. Atopic dermatitis B. Contact dermatitis C. Nummular eczema D. Seborrheic dermatitis 9- formation of vesicles in eczema is best explained by which one of the following histological features?B14 A. Acanthosis B. dilated dermis vessels C. Focal hypogranulosis D. spongiosis 10- A 20-year-old patient presents with a history of itching over body flexures of 10 years duration. On examination hyperpigmented thickened skin lesions with increased skin markings are seen mainly over elbow flexures. Which stage of eczema does the patient have?B14 A. acute B. sub-acute c. chronic 11- All eczema are dermatitis, but all types of dermatitis are not eczema? B14 A. True B. False HISTOLOGY Scientific Committee Med222  LYMPHOID ORGANS 1- Which of the following cell types is NOT residing in the medulla of thymic lobule: B19 A- Dendritic B- Macrophage C- Mature t lymphocytes D- Thymocytes 2- During the process of affinity maturation occurring in terminal Center of peripheral lymphoid organs, which one of the following cells play an important role in selection of high Affinity antibodies?B14 A- Resident macrophage. B- Follicular dendritic cells. C- Interdigitating cell 3-Which one penetrate and around the lymphocytes in the spleen: B21 A. Pulp vein B. Central arteries  DIGESTIVE TRACT 1 1- Which of the following layers of gastrointestinal tract contains mucosal glands: B19 A- Serosa B- Adventitia C- Lamina propria D- Submucosa 2- Which of the following part of the digestive track contains micro-fold cells and payer’s patches? B19 A- Colon B- Ilium C- Stomach 3-Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of which of the following vitamins? B19 A- B1 B- B2 C- B6 D- B12 4- In the digestive system, you can “ myenteric plexus “ in which layer ? B21 A. Mucosa B. submucosa C. muscularis mucosae D. muscularis Extrna 5- Which of the following cells of gastric gland secrete pepsinogen ? B220 A. Cheif cell B. Goblet cell C. Entroendocrine D. Parietal cell 6-Which of the following cells secrete intrinsic factors ?B18 A- chief cells B- parietal cells C- goblet cells D- M cell 7-Which mucosal cell in the large intestine consider as unicellular mucus gland? B18 A- Chief cell B- Goblet cell C- Parietal cell 8-Lipids are absorbed through which of the following vessels in the villi?B217 A. Arteries. B. Veins. C. Lymph (Lacteals). 9- Which type of the cell presented in intestine that secrete mucin: b21 A- Entrocyte B- parietal cell C- goblet cell 5- Which factors increase the mucosal surface area of the small intestine more ? B20 A. Pilica circulares B. Microvilli  DIGESTIVE TRACT 2 1- Which of the following is a feature of exocrine part of pancreas? B19 A- Centro-acinar cell B- Intercalated duct C- Mucous acinus 2- All of the following in the portal space EXCEPT: B19 A- Branch of portal vein B- Branch of hepatic artery C- Branch of hepatic vein D- Bile ductule 3- Perisinusoidal space is located between: B19 A- Adjacent hepatocytes B- Adjacent endothelial C- Bile canaliculi and hepatocytes D- Endothelial and hepatocytes 4- Which of the following is enzymes for present carbohydrates on mouth? B220 A. lipase B. amylase C. proteinas 5- Which of the following liver cells phagocytosis RBC? B220 A. Endothelial cells B. Hepatocytes C. Ito cells D. kupffer cell 7- In the structure of classical hepatic lobule, which of the following radiate from it? B18 A- Hepatic arterioles B- Portal venules C- Central vein D- Bile duct 8- Which of the following contain Centro acinar cells? B18 A- Pancreas B- Parotid C- Sublingual D- Submandibular 9- Which histological features is unique in submandibular gland? B21 A- Inclated duct B- Myoepithelial C- striated duct D- serous demlune  SKIN STRUCTURE 1- Which type of collagen presents in the basal lamina? A- I B- II C- III D- IV 2- Which of the following anchors the hemidemosomal plaque of the epidermis to the underlying basal lamina: B19 A- Integrin B- Selectin 3- A 34-year-old male came complaining of blisters in the mucus membrane of the mouth and skin. They were filled with fluid. Some ruptured and caused painful erosions. a direct immunofloricance of skin biopsy detected desmoglein-3 antibodies deposited on desomsome: What would be the diagnosis? b21 A. Pemphigus vulgaris B. Bullus pphigoid C. Anaphylaxis D. Psoriasis 4- Which of the following layer of skin has a lot of ribosomes and characterized by mitotic activity? B18 A- Basal B- Spinous C- Horny 5- Which of the following is correct regarding menlocyte ? B18 A- They have well developed Golgi B- They are connect to keratinocyte by desmosomes C- Store melanin 6-Epidermal layer that has prickles ? B220 A. Attached to adjacent cell through desmosome" B-separated from each other to make a space C- form the basal layer 7-Which one of the following epidermal layers has high free ribosomes?B217 A. Basal. B. Spinous. C. Granule. D. Horny. 8- At which of the following stage in melanin production, the tyrosine activity is lost?B217 A. StageI B. Stage II C. Stage III D. StageIV 9- which organelles in the melanocyte enhance the melanin synthesis ? b21 A. free ribosome B. golgi apparatus C. lysosomes D. smooth endoplasmic reticulum 10- Which epidermal cell is an antigen presemting cells? b21 A. Langerhans cells B. Melanocytes C. merckle cells D. keratenocyts 11- Langerhans cell is located in ? B18 A- Skin B- Liver C- Blood D- kidneys 12- : the main type of auto-antibody seen in pemphigus is :B14 A. IgA B. IgD C. IgM D. IgG 13- In which one of the following epidermal layers if the melanocytes located?B14 A. Stratum basale. B. Stratum corneum. C. Stratum granulosu. D. Stratum spinosum. 14- the epidermis is attached to the dermis by which of the following junctions? B14 A. Desmosome B. Gap junction C. Hemidesmosome D. Tight junction 15- which of the following terms describes the level of skin blistering in pemphigus vulgaris? B14 A. intradermal B. subdermal c. suprabasilar PHYSIOLOGY Scientific Committee Med222  SIGNAL TRUNSDUCTION 1- The extracellular signal is often converted into intracellular signal which alter various mechanisms inside the cell. This process is? B19 A- Signal transduction B- Signal translation C- Signal transfusion 2- Insulin is produced by Beta-cells of the pancreas. It regulate the glucose uptake by cells all over the body. This type of cell- cell communication belongs to which of the following? B21 A. Endocrine B. Neuronal C. Direct Contact D. Paracrine 3-Which one of the Signaling molecule is a local mediator?B21 A. Insulin B. Penicillin C. Nitric oxide D. Testosterone 4- They are called molecular switches off enzymes. (proteins) They are inactivated when phosphate is removed. Which of the following is responsible for such mechanism? B19 A- ATPase B- Phosphatase C- Phosphorylase D- Protein kinase 5- Which of the following screating pathway the signal stays in the neighborhood? B221 A. Paracrine B. Endocrine C- autocrine 6-What is the signal molecule ( protein ) B220 A. Insulin B. histamin C. testesteron D. cortison 7-Response of cortisol belongs to which of the following? B217 A. Cell surface receptor. B. Ion channel receptor. C. Enzyme coupled receptor. D. Intracellular receptor. 8-Cholera affect which of the following: B217 A. Phospholipasec B. G protein  GIT MOTILITY 1- Which of the following events occurs as a consequence of pyloric spasm: B19 A- Decreased the acidity B- Diarrhea C- Vomiting 2- Regarding the autonomic nerves in GIT, Parasympathetic neurons affect the smooth muscle by: B19 A- Myentericplexus B- Ganglion C- Submucosal plexus 3-The percentage of parasympathetic fibers present in the vagus nerve is:B14 A- 25 B-50 C- 75 D- 100 4- which one of the following activates occurs during retropulsion?B14 A- Antral contents are squeezed towards the funds. B-Opening of the pylorus enlarges. C-Peristaltic wave passes down toward the pylorus. D-pyloric muscle contracts. 5- Which one of the following is facilitated by pyloric spasm? B20 A. Diarrhea-facilitation of emptying the stomach B. Vomiting of acidic content 6- What is the function of the submucosal plexus? B18 A- GIT motility B- GIT secretion C- Acidity 7- Which of the following hormone is an interdigestive myoelectric? B18 A- Gastrin B- Histamine C- Motilin D- Secretin 8-The pattern of electrical and motor activity in gastrointestinal tract during periods of fasting is called:B217 A. Migrating motor complexes. B. Interdigestive myoelectric complexes. C. Activation of vagus nerve. 9- Which of the following is the type of movement occurs in colon? b21 A. Haustration and mass movement. B. Primary and secondary perstalsis C. Retropulsion and propulsion D. Segmentation and perstalsis 10-Which part of colon absorption of water occurs? b21 A. approximal part B. distal part C. all part of the colon D. middle part  SALIVA AND GASTRIC SECRETIONS 1- Which of the following causes the gall bladder to contract: B19 A- gastrin B- CCK C- secretin D- GIP 2- Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding saliva?B14 B17 B18 A- Is acidic in nature. B-contains enzyme for digestion of proteins. C-Lays no role in maintaining oral hygiene. D- Facilitates speaking. 3-Pepsinogen is primarily activated by:B14 B18 B17 A- Hydrochloric acid. B-Pepsin. C-Protein meal. D-Mucus. 4- which one of the following hormones decreases the motility of small intestine?B14 A- gastrin B- CCK C- secretin D- Motilin 5- Which taste stimuli elicit cupious amount of saliva production and secretion under the basal conditions? b21 A. Bitter B. Salty C. Sour D. Sweet 6- The distraction of parietal cell in stomach to patient have chronic gastritis will result in any type of anemia : A- Gastric ulcer B- pernicious anemia 7- In which part of small intestine the vitamin B12 & intrensic factors are absorbed? b21 A. first part of deudenum B. jejuneum C. terminal part of illum D. second part of deudenum  REGULATORY SYSTEMS 1- Positive feedback mechanism is NOT seen in which of the following events: B19 A- Childbirth B- Gastric secretion C- Luteinizing hormone (LH) surge D- Thrombus formation 2- What is the effect of parasympathetic nerve system on bronchi: B19 B20 A- Constriction B- Dilation C- None 3-symptomatic cholinergic nerve endings are found in which one of the following organs?B14 A- Heart. B- Sweat glands. C-Supra-renal glands. D- Pancreas. 4- The cell body of each Pre-ganglionic neuron in spinal cord is located in which one of the following “horns” in its grey matter?B14 A- Ventral. B-Dorsal. C-Intermediolateral. 5- Which one of the following actions is mediated by Acetylcholine at the nicotinic receptor?B14 A- Contraction of skeletal muscle. B-Decrease in heart rate. C-Secretion of saliva. D-Contraction of pupil. 6-What will be the effect of para-sympathetic stimulation on blood vessels? b20 A- contraction B- no effect C- construction D- dilation 7- Which feedback-control system is involved in childbirth oxytocin secretion? b21 A. feed forward B. negative feedback C. positive feedback 8- Which of the following is correctly paired regarding the distribution of autonomic reseptors and their functions: b21 A. autonomic ganglia: muscaric cholinergic reseptor B. apocrin gland: no autonomic effect C. sweat glands: increase secreion by adrenergic receptor D. bronchi: dilated by adrenergic receptors  PANCREAS, BILE & JAUNDICE 1- Perisinusoidal space is located between: B19 A- Adjacent hepatocytes B- Adjacent endothelial C- canaliculi and hepatocytes D- Endothelial and hepatocytes 2- Which of the following is the cause of obstructive jaundice? B19 A- Gall bladder stones B- Excessive breakdown of RBCS 3- Which of the following is not a function of pancreatic juice: B19 A- Fat emulsification B- Protein digestion C- Scratch digestion D- Neutralize the acidity 4- Which one of the following statements is CORRECT regarding lipid absorption in small intestine?B14 A- Facilitated by presence of the bile salts. B-Is an example of secondary active transport. C-Linked to the absorption of Na+. D-Occurs by active transport. 5- The enzyme amylase is produced by which of the following organs?B14 A- Liver and duodenum. B-Duodenum and pancreas. C-Salivary glands and liver. D-pancreas and salivary glands. 6- Which one of the following processes as is an exocrine function of the hepatocyte?B14 A- Excretion of substances after detoxification. B-Formation and release of plasma proteins. C-Formation and secretion of bile. D-Production of urea. 7- In hemolytic jaundice, the concentration of unconjugated bilirubin is (b20) A. Increase B. Decrease C. Normal 8- Which type of gall stones is common with patients who have sickle cell anemia?B220 A. increased B. decreased C. normal 9-Which one of the following describe the exocrine portion of pancreas?B217 A. Contain Insulin and glucan. B. Contain enzyme for digestion all kind of food. C. Are secreted only from pancreatic acini. 10-The common type of gallstones in people with sickle cell disease?B217 A- Pigment stones. 11- which of the following functions of hepatocytes help in emulsification of adsorbed fat? B21 A. synthesis of albumen B. synthesis of bile C. deamination D. storage of triglycerides 12- A 57 patient male with chrons disease, he has been unresponsive to the drug therapy and undergo the ileal resection. After the surgery he will has steatorrhea , because: b21 A. the liver increase bile poor B. chylomicrons will not be made at the intestinal luman C. micelles will not be made at the intestinal luman D. pancreas does not secrete lipase global health Scientific Committee Med222 1- Countries with which one of the following income groups accounted for approximately 40% of the Burden of communicable in year 2001?B14 A. High & middle. B. High & low. C. Low & middle. D. Low & upper-middle. 2- Enhancements of new product development in relation to essential drugs can be achieved through:B14 A. Pull mechanism. B. Push mechanism. C. Increase drug price. D. Product development partnership(PDP) 3- The percentage of Sub-Saharan African children accounting for Malaria deaths worldwide is:B14 A. 39. B. 44. C. 75. D. 82. 4- The effectiveness of anti-tuberculosis vaccine against adult pulmonary tuberculosis is:B14 A. Not yet proven. B. 100%. C. Variable. 5- In a city, incidence of covid-19 has been reduced to zero.. which term best describes this? B221 A. control of infection B. elimination of infection C. eradication of infection 6- Which statement is true about Essential Medicine : b21 A. Essential medicine care about medications costs B. They satisfy the priority health 7- Regarding essential medicine, which of the following is NOT an ideal characteristic of essential vaccine : B21 A. Affordable B. Require few doses C. Heat labile D. Provide life long immunity 8- Deworming strategy can be used to eliminate which of the following : b21 A. tuberculosis B. leprosy C. ascaris D. malaria 9- Which of the following is not an ideal characteristic of drug: A. Affordable B. Safe C. Provide lifelong immunity D. Easy to be transferred UNKNOWN Scientific Committee Med222 1- Schizogony is a reproductive mechanism in which of the following parasites: b19 A. Entamoeba B. Balantidium coli C. Plasmodium vivax D. Giardia lamblia 2- acetylcholine regulate the following gastrointestinal tract events except? B14 A. Lower oesophageal tone. B. Myentric lexus excitation. C. Peristalsis. D. Receptive relaxation of stomach. 3- In patients with celiac disease, diet free of which one of the following nutrients could be helpful in its management? A. Fat. B. Gluten. C. Lactose. D. Protein. 4- Use of which of the following classes of drugs would be appropriate for the treatment of achalasia? A. Antibiotics. B. Antimenetics. C. Antispasmodics. D. Prokinetics. 5- Type 1 diabetes mellitus is mainly associated with which one of the following conditions? A. Insulin resistance. B. Complete insulin deficiency. C. Obesity. 6- Low fiber diet can contribute to which of the following disease of the colon? A- Colon polyps.  BEST OF LUCK FUTURE DOCTORS SCIENTIFIC COMMITTEE MED222