F24_Wright Practice Exam 3 Biol 107 PDF

BIOL107 PRACTICE EXAM 3 MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Evolution is ___________________________________________. A) just a theory that is not well supported b...

BIOL107 PRACTICE EXAM 3 MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Evolution is ___________________________________________. A) just a theory that is not well supported by scientific evidence B) descent with modification C) an attempt to explain the origin of life D) all of the above 2) The failure of homologous chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis is known as A) recombination B) nondisjunction C) ploidy D) reduction division 3) Assuming the population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the recessive phenotype (q2) in a population in which the frequency of the dominant allele is 0.6. A) 0.16 B) 0.36 C) 0.40 D) 1 4) The gene for normal ears in rabbits (E) is dominant over the gene for large floppy 'lop ears' (e). If a male rabbit with normal ears and a female rabbit with floppy ears has a litter of 8 bunnies, 6 with normal ears and 2 with floppy ears, what does this tell you about the genotype of the parents? A) The female is heterozygous. B) The female is homozygous dominant. C) The male is heterozygous. D) The male is homozygous recessive. 5) What is Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment? A) Alleles for different traits segregate together during the formation of gametes. B) The inheritance of one trait will affect the inheritance of another trait. C) Alleles for different traits segregate independently of one another during the formation of gametes. D) Alleles for the same trait will always separate during gamete formation.. 6) Which of the following is NOT a source of genetic variation in sexual reproduction? A) crossing over B) mutation C) independent assortment D) accurate DNA replication 7) What are the products of meiosis I? (hint: this question is asking specifically about meiosis I not meiosis in general) A) four genetically unique daughter cells B) two genetically identical daughter cells C) four genetically identical daughter cells D) two genetically unique daughter cells 8) In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of the recessive allele (q) is 0.2, what is the frequency of the dominant allele (p)? A) 0.60 B) 0.20 C) 1.0 D) 0.80 E).40 9) What is divergent evolution? A) The evolution of a species into a more complex form. B) The evolution of two species through hybridization. C) The evolution of two species with similar traits not from a common ancestor but due to similar selection pressures. D) The evolution of species with similar characteristics from a shared common ancestor. 10) What is the primary source of variation in both asexual and sexual reproduction? A) crossing over B) mitosis C) binary fission D) mutation 11) Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny from the cross BbTt × BBtt would be expected to have black fur and long tails? A) 1/16 B) 3/8 C) 9/16 D) 1/2 12) A fishing expedition targets a specific fish species, capturing and removing a significant portion of the population from a lake or river. The remaining fish breed and repopulate the area, but their genetic diversity is limited due to the small number of individuals that survived the fishing. What is this an example of? A) genetic drift B) founder effect C) bottleneck effect D) migration 13) Natural selection requires A) no variation within a population B) a high rate of mutation within a population C) unlimited resources to support a population D) heritable variation within a population 14) How does fertilization affect ploidy? A) It maintains the ploidy level as it was in the parents. B) It decreases the ploidy level by removing one set of chromosomes. C) It converts diploid organism into haploid organism. D) It increases the ploidy level by combining two haploid gametes to form a diploid cell. 15) Which of the following best defines crossing over? A) the exchange of genetic information between homologous chromosomes B) the movement of genes between nonhomologous chromosomes C) the pairing of non-homologous chromosomes D) the separation of sister chromatids during meiosis 16) _______________ is an example of an analogous trait. A) the hair or fur on different mammals B) the similar features between wolves and dogs C) the tails of household cats and tigers D) the wings of bats and birds 17) What is Charles Darwin best known for? A) discovering the structure of DNA B) disproving modern synthesis theory C) discovering evolution D) explaining the mechanism of evolution 18) A scientist discovers a new mammalian species with a diploid dominant life cycle. If it's karyotype reveals that a somatic cell has 52 chromosomes, which of the following is correct? A) 1n=52 B) there are 2 sets of chromosomes C) 2n=26 D) a gamete would have 13 chromosomes 19) Detachment, 180% rotation, and reinsertion of a piece of a chromosome is a(n) A) aneuploid B) deletion C) duplication D) translocation E) inversion 20) Which of the following happens in both mitosis and meiosis? A) sister chromatids separate B) multiple cell divisions C) crossing over during prophase D) increase in genetic diversity 21) Use the Punnett square shown below to calculate the genotypes and phenotypes from the following cross: Aa x Aa What would be the expected outcome shown in the box labeled 4? A) Aa or AA B) AA C) aa D) Aa 22) Using the Punnett Square shown above, what percentage of the progeny would be expected to have the dominant phenotype? A) 50% B) 100% C) 75% D) 25% 23) During which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur? A) metaphase I B) prophase I C) prophase II D) metaphase II 24) In the cross shown below, what mode of inheritance is seen? (note: this NOT what actually causes cats to have gray fur) A) incomplete dominance B) codominance C) polygenic D) complete dominance 25) A canine, diploid somatic cell contains 38 pairs of autosomes AND a pair of sex chromosomes. After meiosis, how many total chromosomes (i.e. both autosomes and sex chromosomes) will be in a single gamete? A) 36 chromosomes B) 20 chromosomes C) 19 chromosomes D) 39 chromosomes E) 78 chromosomes 26) If the frequency of homozygous dominant individuals in a population is 0.49, what percentage of the population are carriers (i.e. heterozygous)? (hint: p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1) A) 21% B) 70% C) 30% D) 42% 27) In a population of 1,000 individuals, 250 exhibit the recessive phenotype for a particular trait. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the frequency of the recessive allele? (hint: the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype is q2) A) 0.60 B) 0.20 C) 0.80 D) 0.40 E) 0.50 28) All of the following are evolutionary advantages of asexual reproduction EXCEPT: A) genetically identical offspring B) genetic diversity C) rapid increase in population size D) rapid generation time 29) Interpret the karyotype shown in the image below. The karyotype indicates that the patient has A) a normal karyotype B) an extra sex chromosome C) a trisomy D) only one sex chromosome 30) Assuming independent assortment of these 4 genes, what is the probability of having an offspring that is heterozygous for all four loci from the following cross? Parents: AaBBccDd x aaBbCcDd A) 1/16 B) 1/8 C) 1/2 D) 1/32 31) According to Lamarck's theory of acquired inheritance, which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of evolution? A) Traits acquired during an individual's lifetime are passed on to offspring. B) Evolution occurs through random mutations in DNA. C) Offspring inherit a blend of traits from both parents. D) Organisms adapt to their environment by natural selection. 32) A true-breeding black mouse is crossed to a true-breeding brown mouse. All of the offspring in the F1 generation are black. What does this tell you about the gene that determines fur color in mice? A) Brown and black are codominant. B) Black is dominant, and brown is recessive. C) Brown is dominant, and black is recessive. D) Brown is incompletely dominant. 33) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) no selection B) infinite population size C) high mutation rate D) no gene flow 34) Use the diagram shown below to answer the following question. Each image represents a cell (2n=4) at a different stage during meiosis. Which phase of meiosis is cell D in? A) anaphase II B) anaphase I C) prophase II D) prophase I 35) Sister chromatids are separated during _______________. A) anaphase I B) prometaphase II C) anaphase II D) prometaphase I 36) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between genotype and phenotype? A) Genotype and phenotype are interchangeable terms that describe the same aspect of an organism's traits. B) Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an organism, while phenotype refers to its observable traits. C) Genotype refers to the physical characteristics of an organism, while phenotype refers to its genetic makeup. D) Genotype is influenced by environmental factors, while phenotype is determined solely by genetics. 37) Use the diagram shown below to answer the following question. Which letter is NOT appropriately matched with the structure A) Homologous chromosomes B) Sister chromatids C) Chiasmata D) Cytoskeleton E) Centrioles 38) Which of the following best describes Mendel's experiments? A) Mendel crossed pea plants with different traits and observed the inheritance patterns in the offspring over multiple generations. B) Mendel performed biochemical assays to analyze the activity of enzymes involved in DNA replication. C) Mendel used microscopes to study the structure of chromosomes in fruit flies. D) Mendel conducted field studies to observe the behavior of animals in their natural habitats. 39) Albinism in mammals, such as this hedgehog, is caused by a gene that blocks the production of pigment from another gene. What is this an example of? A) counter inheritance B) epistasis C) pleiotropy D) codominance 40) Which of the following best defines recessive? A) A trait that is always expressed in the phenotype B) A trait that is more common in populations C) A trait that is always beneficial for the organism D) A trait that requires two copies of the allele to be expressed  1) B 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) C 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) D 18) B 19) E 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) E 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) B 37) D 38) A 39) B 40) D