Chapter 6 Microbiology PDF

1\. Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism: A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factor E. trace element 2\. Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure:...

1\. Microorganisms require large quantities of this nutrient for use in cell structure and metabolism: A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factor E. trace element 2\. Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure: A. element B. macronutrient C. water D. growth factors E. trace element 3\. What compound has the highest concentration in a cell? A. CO2 B. CH4 C. H2O D. glucose E. NH3 4\. Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from A. inorganic compounds. B. minerals. C. water. D. organic compounds. E. salts. 5\. Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell? A. copper B. carbon C. hydrogen D. nitrogen E. oxygen 6\. An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is A. iron. B. zinc. C. calcium. D. magnesium. E. potassium. 7\. An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is A. iron. B. zinc. C. calcium. D. magnesium. E. potassium. 8\. The term autotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source. B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. 9\. The term photoheterotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source. B. utilizes inorganic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by metabolizing organic matter of dead organisms. E. does not need a carbon source. 10\. Calcium is required for bacteria because it A. stabilizes the cell wall. B. stabilizes the ribosomes. C. stabilizes the nucleoid. D. maintains cellular pH. E. makes strong bones. 11\. An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs would be called a/an A. heterotroph. B. autotroph. C. chemoheterotroph. D. saprobe. E. halotroph. 12\. The term photoautotroph refers to an organism that A. is a decomposer. B. must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. 13\. The term chemoheterotroph refers to an organism that A. uses CO2 for its carbon source. B. must obtain inorganic compounds for its energy source. C. gets energy from sunlight. D. gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E. does not need a carbon source. 14\. Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called A. saprobes. B. parasites. C. autotrophs. D. lithoautotrophs. E. phototrophs. 15\. Archea, as a group, are not pathogens. This is because A. they evolved without mammals. B. mammals evolved special defenses against them. C. mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements. D. they are out competed by natural flora. E. None of the choices is correct. 16\. Aerobic respiration is an example of A. photosynthesis. B. methanoheterophy. C. photoheterotrophy. D. chemoheterotrophy. E. photoautotrophy. 17\. Organisms called \_\_\_\_\_ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm. A. mesophiles B. thermophiles C. commensals D. parasites E. halophiles 18\. The term obligate refers to A. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B. existing in a very narrow niche. C. using chemicals for energy production. D. using light for energy production. E. using oxygen for metabolism. 19\. The term facultative refers to A. the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B. existing in a very narrow niche. C. using chemicals for energy production. D. using light for energy production. E. using oxygen for metabolism. 20\. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 21\. Diffusion of water through a semi-permeable membrane is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 22\. The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semi-permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 23\. The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semi-permeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 24\. The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called A. facilitated diffusion. B. diffusion. C. active transport. D. osmosis. E. endocytosis. 25\. Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would A. be in a hypotonic solution. B. gain water. C. be in an isotonic solution. D. shrivel. E. None of the choices is correct. 26\. Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? A. facilitated diffusion B. diffusion C. endocytosis D. osmosis E. None of the choices is correct. 27\. Contractile vacuoles are A. used to expel excess water from cells. B. found in bacterial cells. C. important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments. D. protein carriers in cell membranes. E. used to bring solutes into a cell. 28\. Nutrient absorption is mediated by the A. cell wall. B. peptidoglycan layer. C. proteins in the periplasmic space. D. cell membrane. E. nuclear membrane. 29\. Facilitated diffusion is limited by A. substrate concentration. B. carrier proteins in the membrane. C. size of the pores in the membrane. D. osmotic pressure. E. the size of the cell. 30\. When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. facilitated transport. D. facilitated diffusion. E. exocytosis. 31\. Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_ that will bind to the substance effecting a conformational change that allows movement across the membrane. A. protein carrier B. lipid carrier C. porin carrier D. All of the choices are correct. 32\. In \_\_\_\_\_ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting. A. hypertonic B. hypotonic C. isotonic D. All of the choices are correct. 33\. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37° C incubator, and on the shelf of a 50° C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37° C and 50° C, slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species? A. halophile B. mesophile C. anaerobe D. psychrophile E. capnophile 34\. Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar, and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an A. aerobe. B. anaerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. capnophile. 35\. A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37° C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called a/an A. extremophile. B. thermophile. C. psychrophile. D. facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. 36\. An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32° C is called a/an A. extremophile. B. thermophile. C. psychrophile. D. facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. 37\. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45° C to 60° C would be called a/an A. extremophile. B. thermophile. C. psychrophile. D. facultative psychrophile. E. thermoduric. 38\. Human pathogens fall into the group A. psychrophiles. B. thermophiles. C. halophiles. D. mesophiles. E. acidophiles. 39\. All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except A. psychrophiles. B. anaerobes. C. facultative anaerobes. D. mesophiles E. capnophiles. 40\. A microorganism that does not have catalase or super oxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with A. carbon dioxide. B. oxygen. C. high salt. D. temperatures above 37° C. E. high acidity. 41\. A microaerophile A. grows best in an anaerobic jar. B. grows with or without oxygen. C. needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. D. requires a small amount of oxygen but won\'t grow at normal atmospheric levels. E. None of the choices is correct. 42\. The toxic super oxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, A. catalase and hydrogen peroxidases. B. super oxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidases. C. super oxide dismutase and catalase. D. catalase and oxidase. E. super oxide dismutase and oxidase. 43\. An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a/an A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. 44\. An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygenless environments is a/an A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. 45\. An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a/an A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. 46\. An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a/an A. aerobe. B. obligate aerobe. C. facultative anaerobe. D. microaerophile. E. obligate anaerobe. 47\. What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes? A. blood agar B. thioglycollate C. sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine D. sodium chloride E. None of the choices is correct. 48\. A halophile would grow best in A. acid pools. B. fresh water ponds. C. hot geyser springs. D. arid, desert soil. E. salt lakes. 49\. A barophile would grow best in A. acid pools. B. the deep oceans. C. hot geyser springs. D. arid, desert soil. E. salt lakes. 50\. The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K for the body to use would best be termed a \_\_\_\_\_ relationship. A. parasitic B. saprobic C. commensal D. mutualistic E. None of the choices is correct. 51\. The production of antibodies is a form of antagonism called A. symbiosis. B. satellitism. C. antibiosis. D. mutualism. E. synergism. 52\. When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called A. symbiosis. B. satellitism. C. antibiosis. D. mutualism. E. synergism. 53\. When microbes are in a close nutritional relationship, and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called A. symbiosis. B. satellitism. C. commensalism. D. mutualism. E. synergism. 54\. The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the A. binary fission. B. growth curve. C. generation time. D. death phase. E. culture time. 55\. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. telophase. 56\. The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing, is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. prophase. 57\. The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the A. lag phase. B. log phase. C. stationary phase. D. death phase. E. prophase. 58\. In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each \_\_\_\_\_ represents one \_\_\_\_\_ from the sample. A. cell, cell B. cell, colony C. colony, cell D. species, colony E. generation, cell 59\. When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size, and differentiate between dead and live cells a \_\_\_ is used. A. Coulter counter B. flow cytometer C. SEM D. methylene dye indicator 60\. Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms. TRUE 61\. Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body conditions. FALSE 62\. Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen. FALSE 63\. Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy. TRUE 64\. Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host. FALSE 65\. Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism. FALSE 66\. Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources. TRUE 67\. Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane. TRUE 68\. In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited. TRUE 69\. Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 environment. TRUE 70\. The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. FALSE 71\. Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours. FALSE 72\. The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that specie\'s generation time. TRUE 73\. Binary fission results in 4 daughter cells from 1 parent cell. FALSE 74\. After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically. FALSE 75\. A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve. TRUE 76\. The degree of turbidity in a culture correlates to the amount of cell growth. TRUE 77\. The direct cell count, using a cytometer, can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample. FALSE 78\. A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size. FALSE 79\. Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria. TRUE A 24-year-old male arrives at the emergency department via air transport after sustaining a fall while rock climbing. The patient is minimally responsive with sluggishly reactive pupils upon arrival. He is requiring support with mechanical ventilation. A CT scan reveals multiple head bleeds and intracranial swelling. The patient has obvious fractures of his bilateral upper extremities and right leg. The patient is rushed to surgery with the plan to relieve the pressure of the intracranial swelling. 80\. The physician orders administration of an intravenous osmotic diuretic as the patient is en route to surgery. As the RN, you are familiar with the action of the drug, which increases the osmolarity of the blood. Which of the following do you anticipate as the therapeutic response to the administration of this medication? A. decreased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume B. decreased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume C. increased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume D. increased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume 81\. You administer the osmotic diuretic as ordered. Which of the following responses by the patient would indicate the therapeutic effectiveness of the drug? A. no response to painful stimuli B. minimal response to painful stimuli C. withdrawal to painful stimuli D. spontaneous movement 82\. Following the patient's surgical procedure, he is admitted to the neurological intensive care unit. Interventions are implemented to decrease intracranial pressure, including the administration of intravenous hypertonic saline. Which of the following do you anticipate as the therapeutic response to the administration of this medication? A. decreased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume B. decreased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume C. increased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume D. increased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume 83\. You are preparing to administer hypertonic saline. Which of the following solutions would you expect the physician to order to produce the desired physiological effect in the patient? A. 0.45% sodium chloride B. 0.9% sodium chloride C. 0.9% sodium chloride with dextrose D. 3% sodium chloride 84\. Because a hypertonic environment forces water to move out of a cell, it is said to have high osmotic A. pressure. B. diffusion. C. tension. D. leverage. An 85-year-old female in a long-term care facility is prescribed verapamil for blood pressure management twice daily. The medication is classified as a calcium channel blocker. 85\. As the RN, you are familiar with the action of calcium channel blockers. By inhibiting the passage of calcium through ion channels, the drug targets which of the following processes? A. diffusion B. active transport C. passive transport D. osmosis 86\. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers? A. relaxation of arterial smooth muscle B. relaxation of venous smooth muscle C. relaxation of venous smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction D. relaxation of arterial smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction 87\. Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport? A. involves the movement of water B. does not require the input of energy C. involves the movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration D. involves the use of carrier proteins 88\. Prior to administration of verapamil, which of the following is most important for you to assess? A. pupillary light reflex B. blood oxygen levels C. level of consciousness D. vital signs 89\. Prior to administration of the scheduled morning dose of verapamil, the patient's blood pressure is found to be low. What is the most appropriate action for you to take as the RN? A. administer the medication as ordered B. administer the medication and notify the physician C. reassess the blood pressure in 30 minutes D. administer a double dose of verapamil for the scheduled evening dose The hospital infectious disease team is involved with the study of a healthcare-associated infection that has spread to 10% of inpatients. The infected patients are exhibiting symptoms of severe abdominal cramping, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. As the infectious disease RN, you provide education to staff regarding the pattern of bacterial growth and infection control. 90\. The period of growth between inoculation and when the cells finally adjust to their new environment and begin growth at their maximum rate is called the A. lag phase. B. exponential growth phase. C. stationary growth phase. D. death phase. 91\. Which of the following is a characteristic of the death phase of bacterial growth? A. The patient is experiencing the most severe stage of infection. B. The cells are not metabolically active. C. The population of cells is rapidly increasing. D. The population of cells is slowly increasing. 92\. The most rapid increase in bacterial growth occurs during which of the following stages? A. lag phase B. exponential growth phase C. stationary growth phase D. death phase 93\. Antimicrobial agents are often most effective when given during which period of bacterial growth? A. lag phase B. exponential growth phase C. stationary growth phase D. death phase 94\. During which stages of bacterial growth is an infected patient most at risk of spreading the organism to others? A. lag phase and exponential growth phase B. exponential growth phase and stationary growth phase C. stationary growth phase and death phase D. exponential growth phase, stationary growth phase, and death phase