A320 Type Rating Exam.pdf

Exam Package Summary Title: A320 Type Rating Exam System ID: E180505082225747P9 Exam Version: 1.0.1 Exam Type: Exam Message - Welcome: Welcome to this A320 Type Rating Exam. You will need to answer 100 questions covering all ATA chapters. Passing grade is 75%. You have two hours to complete the exam and cannot pause or take a break. Message - Passed: Well done. You have passed! Message - Failed: You have not reached the required passing grade of 75%. Please contact your Training Department. Max Score: 100 Mastery Score: 75 Max Time Allowed: 02:00:00 Total Questions: 100 (852 available) Group 1 AIR COND/PRESS/VENT Q1.1 The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of: (1) Pack overheat, engine fire push button operation, engine start, ditching push button pressed (2) Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase (3) All Answers are correct (4) Takeoff when takeoff power is set and the main landing gear struts are compressed Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.2 With bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed value open or same pack operation) the pack flow is automatically selected to: (1) High (2) Normal (3) Low (4) ECON Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.3 The hot air pressure regulating valve closes automatically, if: (1) The duct overheats (2) The cockpit trim air valve fails (3) Both cabin trim air valves fail (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.4 The temperature of the cockpit can be regulated from: (1) The Cockpit (2) The Cabin (3) All Answers are correct (4) The temprature of the cabin is regulated via the CPC Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.5 The ram air inlet flap of the air conditioning pack: (1) Closes during takeoffwhen takeoff power is set and the main landing gear struts are compressed (2) Opens during landing they closes as soon as the main landing gear struts are compressed, as long as speed is at or above 70 knots (3) It opens 20 seconds after the speed drops below 70 knots (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.6 When the cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied, if the bleed pressure is too low, the zone controller sends a pressure demand signal to both Engine Interface Units (EIU) to: (1) Decrease the minimum idle and to raise the bleed pressure (2) Increase the minimum idle and to raise the bleed pressure (3) The zone controllers cannot send signals to the EIU to alter any engine parameter (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.7 What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin: (1) 0 PSI (2) - 1 PSI (3) - 2 PSI (4) + 1 PSI Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.8 In case of failure of one cabin pressure controller: (1) The transfer to the second controller is automatic and but the cabin v/s must be controlled manually (2) The transfer is automatic and the second controller (which was in standby) takes over (3) The transfer to the second controller must be executet manually by resetting the CABIN PRES MODE SEL pb for at least 10s (4) The transfer to the second controller is not possible inflight. They will only be switched automatically 70s after landing Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.9 On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber when the valve (1) is fully closed (2) open more than 95% during flight (3) is fully open on ground (4) is in transit Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.10 On ECAM CAB PRESS page the cabin altitude indication changes to red when cabin altitude (1) Goes above 14.000 ft (2) Goes above 8.500 ft (3) Goes above 9.550 ft (4) Goes above 12.000 ft Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.11 APU bleed supply on ground. With the pack flow selector on set to NORM, what is the actual pack flow? (1) LO with 80% pack valve flow (2) NORM with 100% pack valve flow (3) HI with 150 % pack valve flow (4) HI with 120% pack valve flow Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.12 What is the limiting factor for opening the RAM AIR valve? (1) Aircraft at or below 10’000ft (2) Cabin differential pressure below 1 PSI (3) Aircraft must be on ground (4) Aircraft must be fully depressurized Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.13 The FAULT light on the PACK 1 or 2 pb switch comes on amber: (1) If the pack flow control valve position disagrees with the selected position (2) In the case of compressor outlet overheat (3) In the case of pack outlet overheat (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.14 When the BLOWER pb is on OVRD: (1) The system goes to open circuit configuration (2) The system goes to closed circuit configuration (3) The blower fan will continue to run (4) The blower fan is de-energized for the remainder of the flight Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.15 The cabin pressurization system consists, among others, of: (1) One outflow valve, one cabin pressure controller and two safety valves (2) One outflow valve, two cabin pressure controllers and one safety valve (3) One outflow valve, two cabin pressure controllers and two safety valves (4) Two outflow valves, one cabin pressure controller and two safety valves Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.16 The two cabin pressure controllers receive signals from: (1) ADIRS only (2) ADIRS and FMGC only (3) ADIRS, FMGC, LGCIU and EIU (4) ADIRS, FMGC and EIU only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.17 Which answer about the two zone controller or ACSC (Air Conditioning System Controller) of the air conditioning system is correct? (1) Controller 1 regulates the cockpit temperature, controller 2 the temperature in the two cabin zones (2) Controller 1 regulates the temperature in the two cabin zones, controller 2 the cockpit temperature (3) Controller 1 regulates the cockpit temperature, controller 2 the temperature in the three cabin zones (4) Controller 1 regulates the temperature in the the three cabin zones, controller 2 the cockpit temperature Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.18 The zone controller or the air conditioning system controllers (ACSC) optimize temperature by acting on the? (1) Trim air valves (2) Skin air valves (3) Isolation valves (4) Pack valves Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.19 The PACK FLOW selector on an A320 is in LO position. Which statement is correct? (1) The pack valve flow selection is 80% (2) The pack flow can be automatically selected up to 100% when the cooling demand cannot be satisfied (3) With APU bleed supply or single Pack operation, HI pack valve flow is automatically selected (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.20 The avionics ventilation system is fully automatic. The normal operation configurations are: (1) Open-circuit configuration, close-circuit configuration, smoke configuration (2) Open-circuit configuration, close-circuit configuration (3) Open-circuit configuration, intermediate configuration, close-circuit configuration (4) Open-circuit configuration, partially-open configuration, bypass-circuit configuration Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.21 The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of …? (1) A hot air valve (2) A zone control valve (3) A pack valve (4) A trim air valve Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.22 Under what conditions should the pack flow controller on an A319 be set to HI? (1) In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range (2) If the number of Passengers is below 115 (3) For abnormal hot and humid conditions (4) If the number of occupants is above 138 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.23 The PACK FLOW controller is set to NORM and yet the ECAM display shows PACK FLOW to be high. How is this possible? (1) As the engines are not running the PACK FLOW indicators are at the position they were selected to at the last shut down (2) As no bleed air is available the PACK FLOW valves are spring loaded to the fully open position (3) HI flow is automatically selected regardless of PACK FLOW selector position because air is only being supplied by the APU (4) With cold outside air conditions the PACK FLOW is automatically increased to help increase the cabin temperature Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.24 Having manually set the LDG ELEV the cabin altitude is… (1) Only controllable manually through the MAN V/S CTL (2) Still controlled automatically through the outflow valve (3) Still controlled normally through the safety valve (4) Only controllable manually through the LDG ELEV selector Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.25 In AUTO, the cabin differential pressure is normally controlled by… (1) The SAFETY valve (2) The INLET valve (3) The EXTRACT valve (4) The OUTFLOW valve Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.26 The safety valves are … (1) Controlled with the MAN V/S CTL (2) Controlled with the MODE SEL pb (3) Controlled with the DITCHING pb (4) Cannot be controlled manually (independant) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.27 The MODE SEL pb sw in MAN mode allows you to use the MAN V/S CTL in order to… (1) Manually alter the air inlet valve setting (2) Manually adjust the pack flow valve (3) Manually adjust the outflow valve (4) Manually alter the pack outflow valve setting Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.28 Regarding Avionics Ventilation: When can we have an open circuit configuration in normal operation? (1) The aircraft must be on the ground with the thrust levers not at TO and the skin temperature above the on- ground threshold (2) The aircraft must be on the ground with the thrust levers at TO and the skin temperature above the on-ground threshold (3) The aircraft must be in the air with the thrust levers not at TO and the skin temperature below a given threshold (4) The aircraft must be in the air or on-ground with thrust levers at TO an the skin temperature above a given in- flight threshold Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.29 When can we have a closed circuit configuration in normal operation? (1) The aircraft must be on the ground with the thrust levers not at TO and the skin temp above a given threshold (2) The aircraft must be on the ground with the thrust levers at TO and the skin temp above a given threshold (3) The aircraft must be on the ground with both engines stopped and the skin temperature below a given threshold (4) The aircraft must be in the air, or on the ground with the thrust levers at TO and the skin temp below a given threshold Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.30 With both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbutton switches in AUTO, what ventilation configurations do you normally expect to see? (1) Closed configuration on the ground before applying TO power and open configuration after applying TO power and in the air (2) Intermediate Configuration on the ground and open configuration in the air (3) Open configuration on the ground and smoke configuration in the air (4) Open configuration on the ground before applying TO power and closed configuration after applying T/O power and in the air Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.31 With both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbutton switches in OVRD, what happens to the ventilation system? (1) The system goes into open configuration and the blower fan stops (2) The system goes into smoke configuration and the blower fan stops (3) The system goes into open configuration and the extract fan stops (4) The system goes into intermediate configuration and the extract fan stops Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.32 What would cause an amber PACK FAULT light on the PACK pb-sw to illuminate? (1) Pack outlet overheat (2) Compressor outlet overheat (3) Switch position disagreement in comparison to the pack flow control valve (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.33 When does the pack flow control valve close? (1) In case of pack overheating (2) During engine start (3) When operating fire or ditching P/B (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q1.34 The cabin pressure during lift-off and at touchdown is ________ ambient pressure. (1) Higher than (2) Lower than (3) Equal to (4) Irrespective to Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.35 When do you switch the pack flow selector on an A320 to HI? (1) If number of PAX is ≥ 115 (2) Never (3) For abnormally hot and humid conditions (4) If the number of Passengers is more or equal to 150 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.36 The RAM AIR INLET is powered via… (1) AC BUS 1 (2) AC BUS 2 (3) DC ESS BUS (4) DC BUS 1 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.37 Which statement is correct? Two independent pneumatic safety valves prevent cabin pressure from going… (1) Too high (8.6 psi above ambient) (2) Too low (1 psi below ambient) (3) Too high (8,6 psi above ambient) or too low (1 psi below ambient) (4) Too high (9 psi above ambient) or too low (1 psi below ambient) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q1.38 The input of the QNH in the FMGS for the approach influences, among others….. (1) The GS mini (2) The pressurization schedule of the CPC Cabin Pressure Controllers (3) The pressurization schedule and the GS mini (4) The BARO minimum for NON-PROC. Appr. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q1.39 Emergency evacuation checklist. Why do you have to check Δp = 0 if MAN CAB PR has been used? (1) Because the outflow valve does not open automatically at touchdown (2) To facilitate the opening of the cargo doors by fire brigade (3) Because the safety valves are closed (4) Because of an possible non indicated failure of the Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q1.40 SMOKE CONFIGURATION. By pushing both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pb to override, the following happens to the ventilation System: (1) Both fans stop and the air is extracted overboard (2) The blower fan stops and the air is extracted overboard (3) The extract fan stops and the air is extracted overboard (4) The Inlet & Outlet flap opens, blower fan stops and the air is extracted overboard Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Group 2 AFS Total Questions in the group: 10 (99 available) Q2.1 The pilot can cancel a preset HDG/TRK by: (1) Engaging the NAV mode using the DIR TO (2) Pushing in the HDG/TRK knob (arming NAV mode) (3) Disengaging AP/FD (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.2 During takeoff phase: (1) SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference up to the acceleration altitude. (2) SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft AGL (3) SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.3 The NAV mode disengages when: (1) Any other lateral mode is engaged. (2) The flight plan is lost or the aircraft enters a flight plan discontinuity. (3) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.4 The descent profile has a repressurization segment. When necessary, this produces a repressurization rate for the cabin during descent. It is a function of the destination airport altitude and the selected cabin rate ______________________. (1) (Defaulted to - 150 feet/min but this can be modified) (2) (Defaulted to - 250 feet/min but this can be modified) (3) (Defaulted to - 350 feet/min but this can be modified) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.5 When OP DES is engaged: (1) The FMA displays 'OP DES' (2) The managed LVL/CH dot on the FCU goes out (3) The system arms the ALT mode (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.6 When ALT is armed, the FMA displays the ALT message on its second line: (1) Blue when the target altitude is the FCU selected altitude and magenta if the target altitude is an altitude constraint. (2) Blue when the target altitude is the FCU selected altitude and white if the target altitude is an altitude constraint. (3) White when the target altitude is the FCU selected altitude and blue if the target altitude is an altitude constraint. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.7 The pilot can disengage the V/S mode manually by: (1) Pulling or pushing the altitude selector knob (2) Pushing the EXPED pushbutton or (3) Initiating a go-around (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.8 If FDs are engaged in DES or OPEN DES mode or EXP DES (if installed) and if the pilot does not follow the FD bars to maintain the commanded descent _______________, (pitch too high and autothrust in IDLE). (1) The aircraft accelerates. (2) The aircraft decelerates. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.9 During Climb, the FMGS automatically decreases the vertical speed to maintain VLS when VLS (or VLS-5 if the speed target is VLS) is reached. The target V/S does not change but is no longer followed. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.10 The AP/FD common modes on take off are: (1) Runway/Runway track associated to SRS vertical modes (2) ILS approach (LAND) or non-ILS approach (APP NAV FINAL) (3) Go around track associated to SRS vertical modes. (4) Only approach and go-around modes Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.11 With the autopilot on and the aircraft above the glide path, can it intercept the glide path if its trajectory does not cross the ILS G/S beam? (1) Yes (2) No Yes/No, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.12 Is this statement true or false: Autoland is authorized with CAT1 displayed on the FMA. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.13 At what approximate altitude will the FLARE mode be engaged (the precise value is a function of V/S) and the FMA displays 'FLARE' in green ? (1) 70 feet RA (2) 60 feet RA (3) 40 feet RA Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.14 If the autopilot is engaged while you are using the APP NAV/FINAL modes, it disengages automatically _______. (1) At 30 feet AGL (2) At 50 feet AGL (3) At Missed Approach Point (MAP) (4) MDA -50 feet Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.15 The autothrust (A/THR) is a function of the FMGS, it includes how many independent A/THR commands, and how many per FMGC ? (1) two / one (2) four / two Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.16 When one thrust lever is in the CL detent and the other one out of the detent, which amber message comes up until both levers are set in the CL detent (only with both engines operative) ? (1) LVR MCT (2) LVR CLB (3) LVR ASYM Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.17 When the A/THR is armed for takeoff or go around, the FMA displays 'MAN TOGA' (or 'MAN FLX') in _____ to remind the crew that the thrust levers have been positioned properly. (1) cyan (2) white Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.18 When the AP is engaged, the FMGS sends orders to the FAC to give: (1) Yaw damping during approach. (2) Yaw control for runway alignment in roll out mode. (3) Both answers are correct. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.19 The FMGS automatically strings additional types of legs, when departure or arrival procedures (SID-STAR- TRANS) are defined. Some of these legs are specific legs. The pilot ______ create these types of legs. (1) can (2) cannot Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.20 Two minutes after ALT CRZ engages, if the mach mode is operative, SOFT ALT mode engages. This allows the aircraft to _______ the target altitude, thereby minimizing thrust variations and reducing fuel consumption. (1) deviate ± 75 feet from (2) deviate ± 50 feet from (3) maintain (4) deviate ± 100 feet from Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.21 Does the FMGS logic allow the crew to modify the course of an ILS when its frequency is identical to the ILS selected in the F-PLN ? (1) does not allow. (2) allows Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.22 The SELECTED NAVAIDS page lists the navaids being tuned by the onside FMGC. Navaids _______ be modified on this page. (1) cannot (2) can Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.23 How many minutes does a normal alignment take; and how long does a fast alignment take? (1) Eight minutes / 30 seconds (2) Eight minutes / 20 seconds (3) Ten minutes / 30 seconds (4) Ten minutes / 20 seconds Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.24 For flight planning, the pilot inserts the following into the FMGS via the MCDU: (1) The intended lateral trajectory (lateral flight plan). (2) The intended vertical trajectory, which is a speed and altitude profile (vertical flight plan). (3) The intended cruise TAS/Mach. (4) The intended lateral and vertical trajectories Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.25 The FMGS computes the aircraft position continually, using stored aircraft performance data and navigation data. Therefore it can steer the aircraft along a preplanned route and vertical and speed profiles. This type of guidance is said to be ____ (1) Managed (2) Auto (3) Selected (4) Protected Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.26 The use of MCDU allows the flight crew to interface with the FMGC by selection of a flight plan for: (1) Lateral trajectories (2) Vertical trajectories (3) Speed profiles (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.27 How many FMGS operation modes are available: (1) two (2) three (3) four Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.28 The Flight Management and Guidance System (FMGS) provides predictions of flight time, mileage, speed, economy profiles and altitude. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.29 INDEPENDENT MODE: The system automatically selects this degraded mode under specific abnormal conditions (e.g. different database validity on both FMGS´s). Both FMGCs work independently and are linked only to peripherals on their own sides of the flight deck. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.30 When one FMGC fails, the corresponding MCDU displays 'OPP FMGC IN PROCESS' in white. The ND on the side with the failed FMGC may be set to a different range and mode as the other ND. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.31 When a pilot enters a RNP that is larger than the published value, one of the following messages is displayed: 'PROCEDURE RNP is XX.XX', or 'AREA RNP IS XX.XX'. When this occurs, the crew should: (1) verify the RNP value that was manually entered. (2) Use the default value. (3) None of the above. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.32 When the GPS function is lost, a 'GPS PRIMARY LOST' message is displayed on the ND and MCDU scratchpads. The MCDU and ND message can be cleared. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.33 When GPS primary is active, and either of the FMGC positions deviate from the GPS positions 1 or 2 by more than ________ of latitude or longitude, then the lower ECAM display unit displays the NAV FMS/GPS POS DISAGREE amber message and A/C POS. (1) 0.2 minutes (2) 0.4 minutes (3) 0.5 minutes Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.34 ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands TOGA thrust, regardless of the thrust levers' positions. This protection is available on approach from ? (1) Five seconds after lift-off to 100 feet RA. (2) Lift-off to 500 feet RA. (3) Lift-off to 100 feet RA. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.35 What does the autothrust system do, if it is active: (1) Maintains a specific thrust in THRUST mode (2) Controls the aircraft speed or MACH in SPEED/MACH mode (3) Uses ALPHA FLOOR mode to set maximum thrust when the aircraft angle of attack exceeds a specific threshold (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.36 The Auto Pilot: (1) Stabilizes the aircraft around its center of gravity (2) Acquires and tracks a flight path (3) Flies the aircraft to an automatic landing or go-around (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.37 The ALT mode disengages when any other vertical mode engages. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.38 The SRS mode automatically engages, when the thrust levers are set to the TOGA detent, or the MCT/FLX detent, if: (1) V2 is inserted in the MCDU PERF TO page. (2) Slats are extended. (3) The aircraft has been on the ground for at least 30 seconds. (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.39 The windshear detection function is operative during takeoff from _________________ and during approach, from ___________________. (1) 3s after lift-off up to 1500 feet / 1500 feet to 50 feet (2) 3s after lift-off up to 1300 feet / 1300 feet to touchdown (3) 3s after lift-off up to 1300 feet / 1300 feet to 50 feet Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.40 Each IRS computes a mixed IRS/GPS position called the GPIRS position. The FMS selects one GPIRS position based on a figure of merit and priority. The FMS uses the following hierarchy to perform the selection: (1) GPIRS 1, GPIRS 2, GPIRS 3 (2) Onside GPIRS position, GPIRS 3, Opposite GPIRS position (3) GPIRS 3, Opposite GPIRS position, Opposite GPIRS position (4) GPIRS 3, Opposite GPIRS position, GPIRS1 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.41 The system displays the EPU to the crew, and compares it with the required navigation performance (RNP). (multiple answers possible) (1) If the EPU does not exceed the appropriate criteria, accuracy is HIGH. (2) If the EPU exceeds the appropriate criteria due to loss of threshold update, accuracy is MED. (3) If the EPU exceeds the appropriate criteria, accuracy is LOW. (4) If the EPU exceeds the appropriate criteria, accuracy is MED. Multiple Response, Correct Answer: 1,3 Q2.42 Each FMGC autotunes one ILS frequency: (1) In the PREFLIGHT or TAKEOFF phase, when the takeoff runway has an associated ILS. (2) In the CLIMB-CRUISE-DESCENT, APPROACH, or GO-AROUND phase, when the type of approach in the flight plan is ILS. (3) One DME is linked to the ILS/DME. Multiple Response, Correct Answer: 1,2 Q2.43 During ILS approaches the system performs a lateral temporary updating using one of the following modes: ·IRS-GPS/LOC ·IRS-DME/DME-LOC ·IRS-VOR/DME-LOC ·IRS-LOC (1) TRUE (2) FALSE Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.44 Pilots may create via DATA PAGES in the FMGC: (1) Waypoints (2) Navaids (3) Runways (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.45 After takeoff the A/THR will not become active until... (1) The thrust levers are placed between CL and IDLE detents (2) The thrust levers are moved out of the TO/GA or FLEX/MCT detents (3) The autopilot is engaged (4) The A/THR pb is manually selected ON Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.46 The Flight Management part of the FMGC controls the following functions: (1) Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands (2) Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands (3) Navigation, flight planning, prediction and optimization of performance (4) AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.47 The FMGS has four modes of operation: (1) Dual mode, Independent mode, Single mode and Back-up navigation mode (2) Triple mode, Dual mode, Single mode and Independent mode (3) Normal mode, Abnormal mode, Emergency mode and Back-up navigation mode (4) Dual mode, Single mode, Normal mode, Abnormal mode Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.48 If the flight crew performs an automatic approach without autoland, the autopilot must be disengaged latest at? (1) 200 ft AGL (2) 150 ft AGL (3) 100 ft AGL (4) 80 ft AGL Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.49 The autoland red warning flashes in LAND mode when the radio altitude goes below ___ and both autopilots fail. (1) 500ft (2) 300ft (3) 200ft (4) 100ft Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.50 Which computer provides warnings for low-energy and windshear detection? (1) FAC (2) SEC (3) SFCC (4) ELAC Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.51 WINDSHEAR detection function is provided by the FAC in takeoff phase in the following conditions: (1) From 50 ft RA until 1.500 ft RA (2) 3s after liftoff, up to 1.300 ft RA (3) 5s after liftoff, up to 2.000 ft RA (4) From thrust setting at takeoff until lift-off Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.52 The predicted data for alternates in the FMS are based on: (1) A flight at FL100 for an alternate F-PLN distance less than 200NM. Cost index 7 (2) A flight at FL150 or an alternate F-PLN distance less than 300NM. Cost index 0 (3) Flight at FL100 and standard speed (270/M0.76) (4) A flight at FL100 for an alternate F-PLN distance less than 100NM or flight at FL220 for an alternate F-PLN length between 100 and 200NM or else at FL310 and with a cost index of 0 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.53 What happens if you switch off both FDs while one and AP is still ON? (1) Both FD are no longer displayed and the AP disengages (2) The AP remains engaged and the onside FD is still displayed (3) The AP remains engaged and the FDs are no longer displayed (4) The A/THR reverts to SPD/MACH mode Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.54 The pitch FD bar(s) start to flash permanently. What is the reason? (1) The GLIDE SLOPE tracking is out of tolerance (2) The transmission of the GLIDE SLOPE data was interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND mode above 100ft GND (3) There was a change of vertical mode (4) There was a change of lateral mode Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.55 While climbing with the V/S mode and autopilot ON, an excessive rate of climb value for the available engine thrust is set on the FCU. The indicated airspeed will decrease until: (1) Vαprot (2) Vls (3) Vαmax (4) Vls +10 kt Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.56 SRS mode is engaged. Which statement is correct? (1) A speed of V2+10 in normal engine configuration is maintained (2) A speed of V2 or current speed to max. V2+15 is maintained if an engine failure is detected (3) A pitch of maximum 18° aircraft nose up during normal T/O or maximum 22.5° aircraft nose up in case of windshear is maintained (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.57 The Flight Management Guidance System (FMGS) contains the following units: (1) 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2 FCU, 1 FAC (2) 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 2 FCU, 2 FAC (3) 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 1 FCU, 2 FAC (4) 2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 1 FCU, 1 FAC Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.58 MCDU annunciators (on the top of keyboard): IND (amber). This means: (1) The onside FM is failed (2) The onside FM detects an independent mode of operation while both FM are healthy (3) MCDU has passed its power up test after it was turned off using its DIM key (4) Indicates that the Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) has failed Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.59 LOW ENERGY WARNING: (1) Available between 100 and 2000 ft in CONF ≥ 1 (2) Available between 100 and 2500 ft in CONF ≥ 1 (3) Available between 100 and 2500 ft in CONF ≥ 2 (4) Available between 100 and 2000 ft in CONF ≥ 2 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.60 Each IRS computes a mixed IRS/GPS position called the GPIRS position. Of the three GPIRS positions that each FMGC receives, the FMS selects one GPIRS position based on a figure of merit and priority. The FMS uses the following hierarchy to perform the selection (1) Onside GPIRS position ‐ GPIRS 3 ‐ Opposite GPIRS position (2) Opposite GPIRS position ‐ GPIRS 3 ‐ Onside GPIRS position (3) GPIRS 3 - Onside GPIRS position ‐ Opposite GPIRS position (4) Onside GPIRS position ‐ Opposite GPIRS position - GPIRS3 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.61 The FMGS has different FM position update modes. Which has the highest priority? (1) IRS only (2) IRS-DME/DME (3) IRS-GPS (4) IRS-VOR/DME Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.62 The INIT B page of the FMS is available during following flight phases: (1) All flight phases (2) On ground, before engine start (3) During cruise phase (4) Only after engine shut down Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.63 The wind direction information displayed on the ND is: (1) Magnetic (2) True (3) Magnetic and true (4) Relative to longitudinal aircraft axis Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.64 What are the indications associated with a LOW ENERGY WARNING ? (1) An ECAM message, an AURAL WARNING, a MASTER CAUTION (2) An ECAM message, a Synthetic voice ”SPEED SPEED SPEED”, a MASTER CAUTION (3) A sytnhetic voice ”SPEED”, a MASTER CAUTION (4) A synthetic voice ”SPEED SPEED SPEED” only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.65 ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands ___ thrust, regardless of the thrust levers’ positions. This protection is available from lift-off to ___ ft RA on approach. (1) MCT / 100ft RA (2) TOGA / 100ft RA (3) MCT / 50ft RA (4) TOGA / 50ft RA Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.66 During an automatic approach with both autopilots engaged, which FMGC is master? (1) FMGC 1 (2) FMGC 2 (3) FMGC 2 as soon as AP2 is engaged (4) FMGC 1 or 2 alternatively Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.67 A standard disconnection of the A/THR system (1) Triggers a permanent ECAM message and caution light (2) Triggers a temporary ECAM message and caution light. A single chime sounds (3) Triggers a temporary master warning light that disappears after 3 seconds (4) Does not trigger any ECAM indication Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.68 A non-standard disconnection of the A/THR system (1) Triggers a temporary ECAM message and caution light. A single chime sounds (2) Does not trigger any ECAM indication (3) Triggers a master caution light and an ECAM message removed only by a flight crew action. A single chime sounds (4) There is no such thing as a non-standard disconnection of the A/THR system in the Airbus operational manuals Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.69 The RETARD mode of the A/THR system: (1) Is only available during automatic landing (AP engaged in LAND mode) (2) Is the mode the A/THR system uses to command the FADEC and ECU channels to unlock and activate the thrust reversers doors. This mode is not available in flight (3) Generates a RETARD callout at 40 feet during an automatic landing (4) Generates a RETARD callout at 30 feet during a manual landing Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.70 Which statement is correct? The ALPHA FLOOR protection mode of the Flight Guidance system (1) Is designed to protect the aircraft against high angles of attack in normal and alternate law. This angle of attack protection is not available in direct and unusual attitudes law (2) Commands MCT, regardless of the thrust levers' position (3) Can be exited by the flight crew by releasing the side stick from the full aft position in normal and alternate law (4) Is available from lift-off to 100 feet RA on approach Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.71 WINDSHEAR warning during T/O (1) Is not inhibited (2) Is inhibited between 80kts and 1’500ft after lift-off (3) Is inhibited between 80kts and lift-off (4) Is inhibited between 100kts and up to 50ft after lift-off Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.72 The Flight Guidance (FG) part of the FMGC performs the following functions: (1) Autopilot (AP) command, Flight Director (FD) command, Autothrust (A/THR) command (2) Autopilot (AP) command, Multipurpose control and display unit (MCDU) interface, Autothrust (A/THR) command (3) Autopilot (AP) command, Flight Director (FD) command, Multipurpose control and display unit (MCDU) navigation in vertical and horizontal (4) Autopilot (AP) command, Aircraft communcations addressing and reporting system (ACRAS) communication, Multipurpose control and display unit (MCDU) navigation in vertical and horizontal Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.73 The FAC computes the energy level for the low energy with the following inputs: (1) Aircraft Configuration (2) Horizontal decelration rate (3) Flight path angle (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.74 The low energy alert is inhibited when: (1) With Landing gear extended (2) With configurration 2, 3 and Full (3) TOGA is selected, or below 100 ft RA, above 2.000 ft RA, or Alpha-floor or GPWS alert is triggered, or in alternate law, or both radio altimeters fail (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.75 Which statement about windshear detection function of the FAC is correct (1) The windshear detection function is provided in all configurations below 1.300 ft RA (2) The windshear detection function is provided with at least CONF 1 selected and below 1.300 ft RA (3) The windshear detection function is provided with at least CONF 2 selected and below 1.300 ft RA (4) The windshear detection function is provided with at least CONF 1 AND gear down selected and below 1.300 ft RA Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.76 The flight augmentation computer (FAC): (1) Controls: rudder, rudder trim and yaw damper inputs (2) Computes data for the flight envelope and speed functions (3) Provides warning for low-energy and windshear detection if these functions are installed (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.77 The AMBER Characters displayed in the MCDU are indicating: (1) Mandatory data (boxes), Important messages, Constraints only (2) Mandatory data (boxes), Flight crew action required, Important messages, Missed constraint (3) Mandatory data (boxes), Flight crew action required, Non modifiable data, Missed constraint (4) Minor messages, Flight crew action required, Important messages, Constraint Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.78 The FMS uses the following hierarchy to perform the selection of the GPIRS position: (1) 1. Opposite GPIRS position, 2. GPIRS 3, 3. Onside GPIRS position (2) 1. GPIRS 3, 2. Opposite GPIRS position, 3. Onside GPIRS position (3) 1. Onside GPIRS position, 2. GPIRS 3, 3. Opposite GPIRS position (4) 1. Onside GPIRS position, 2. Opposite GPIRS position, 3. GPIRS 3 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.79 Which statement about FM position computation is correct? (1) The FM position update at takeoff is inhibited when GPS PRIMARY is active (2) The FM position update at takeoff is performed at setting of takeoff thrust even when GPS PRIMARY is active (3) At takeoff the FM postion update is performed automatically at liftoff (4) The FM position update at takeoff is performed at setting of takeoff thrust. When GPS PRIMARY is active the FM compares the actual GPS position with the stored runway threshold position ot of its database and will generate a MCDU message when the check result is negative Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.80 When GPS Primary mode is lost: (1) The flight crew must enter the RNP value of 3.0NM on the PROG page (2) The flight crew must periodically (within cruise)/at 10.000 ft (in descent) check the position accuracy on the PROG page (3) The flight crew must tune manually VOR´s along ist route to ensure a constant correct positon computation of the FMGC (4) The flight crew must use the UPDATE AT function on the CRZ PAGE of the MCDU to ensure a proper FM postion update Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.81 The flight crew can cancel an offset routing in the FMGC by: (1) Perfom DIR TO a waypoint (the next waypoint, for example) (2) Clear the offset field (3) Enter a zero value in the OFFSET field (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.82 Which statement about the TRIP WIND insertion during F-PLN initialization is correct? (1) Trip wind function is intended for on-ground predictions only. If it is used for this purpose, the crew should then enter winds on WIND pages prior to departure. (2) All answers are correct (3) The FMGS does not consider the trip wind for alternate predictions (4) If the wind is inserted on the WIND pages the TRIP WIND field on INIT B page will be dashed Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.83 If the Database of the FM has expired. (1) The flight crew has to call the maintenance as the are not allowed to cycle the databases of the FM (2) Can cycle the database but must never do this in flight as it will erase the primary and secondary flight plans, as well as the stored data (3) Can cycle the database (on-ground and in-flight) as long as they can assure they have copied the active fligh plan to activate it again when the cycle is completed (4) Cycling of database during flight is not possible (prompt is not displayed during flight) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.84 Which statement for the interaction between AP/FD an A/THR modes is correct? (1) If an AP/FD pitch mode controls a vertical trajectory, the A/THR mode controls the target SPD/MACH (2) All answers are correct (3) If an AP/FD pitch mode controls a target SPD or MACH, the A/THR mode controls the thrust (4) If no pitch mode is engaged, the A/THR mode reverts to controlling the SPD/MACH mode Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.85 The FDs are removed when the aircraft pitch exceeds ___ ° up or ___° down, or Bank angle exceeds ___° (1) 30° / 15° / 45° (2) 45° /20° / 63° (3) 45° / 20° / 35° (4) 25° / 13° / 45° Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q2.86 The flight crew can engage AP 1 or AP 2 by pressing the corresponding pushbutton on the FCU if the aircraft has been airborne for at least: (1) 3 seconds (2) 50 ft RA (3) 5 seconds (4) 100 ft RA Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.87 The Autoland warning red light: (1) Will be active below 200 ft RA and will flash if: Both AP´s fail, difference between both RA greater than 15ft, Excessive deviationon in/or loss of: LOC (1/4 dot above 15 ft RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100ft RA) (2) Will be active below 100 ft RA and will flash if: Both AP´s fail, difference between both RA greater than 15ft, Excessive deviationon in/or loss of: LOC (1/4 dot above 15 ft RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100ft RA) (3) Will be active below 100 ft RA and will flash if: Both AP´s fail, difference between both RA greater than 50 ft, Excessive deviationon in/or loss of: LOC (1 dot above 15 ft RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100ft RA) (4) Will be active below 200 ft RA and will flash if: Both AP´s fail, if one RA fails, Excessive deviationon in/or loss of: LOC (1/4 dot above 15 ft RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100ft RA) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.88 The aircraft may deviate from the DES profile while DES mode is engaged if: (1) All answers are correct (2) Unexpected wind conditions are encountered (3) Anti-icing is turned on (4) The lateral flight plan is changed Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.89 The flightcrew can disengage the EXPEDITE mode manually during climb or descent with: (1) Pushing the EXPED pb on the FCU (2) Clear the EXPED CLB mode on the MCDU PERF Page (3) Pulling or pushing (if the conditions are met) the ALT knob on the FCU (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.90 Predictions are computed or displayed on the pages of the temporary flight plan. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.91 Five different color navigation compass displays (NDs) can be selected: -Arc (map mode), -Compass rose NAV (map mode), -Compass rose VOR, -Compass rose ILS, -Plan. Information displayed onto these modes uses aircraft position as a reference. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.92 The pilot uses the thrust levers to do the following: - Manually select engine thrust. - Arm and activate autothrust (A/THR). - Engage reverse thrust. - Engage the takeoff and go around modes. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.93 The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform four main functions: ·Yaw function ·Flight envelope function ·Low-Energy Warning function ·Windshear detection function (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.94 The vertical flight plan is divided into the following flight phases. Preflight - Takeoff - Climb - Cruise - Descent-Approach - Go Around - Done. All but preflight and done are associated with speed and altitude profiles. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.95 Below _____, the FMGS calculates ECON CRZ SPD instead of ECON CRZ MACH. (1) FL230 (2) FL250 (3) FL270 (4) FL300 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.96 If the pilot does not fly the flight plan, the MCDU predictions assume that: (1) The pilot will fly back towards the flight-planned route. (2) The pilot will immediately resume flying the FMGC-managed modes. (3) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q2.97 Predictions for alternates are displayed on the ALTERNATES page. They are based on a default cruise _______, if the airway distance is less than 200 NM. ________________. (1) Equal to FL230 / Otherwise, it is FL350 (2) Equal to FL220 / Otherwise, it is FL310 (3) Equal to FL210 / Otherwise, it is FL330 (4) Equal to FL200 / Otherwise, it is FL300 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q2.98 Speed control is: (1) Managed, when the target comes from the FMGS and Selected, when the target comes from the SPD/MACH FCU window (2) All answers are correct (3) Selected, when the target comes from the FMGS (4) Managed, when the target comes from the SPD/MACH FCU window Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q2.99 The selected speed target disengages: (1) When the managed SPD engages. (2) When the aircraft is on the ground at engine start. (3) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Group 3 COMM Total Questions in the group: 3 (32 available) Q3.1 The Cockpit Voice recorder retains the last ____ hour(s) of data. (1) 3 hours (2) 4 hours (3) 2 hours (4) 1 hour Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.2 When STBY NAV has been selected by the use of NAV key: (1) VHF function is lost on this ramp. (2) VHF is still available but only the last frequency selected can be used. (3) NAV key has no effect on radio com frequency selection. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.3 During EMER ELEC CONF which COM SYS is still working? (1) VHF 1&2 RMP 1&2 ACP 1&2 (2) VHF 1 RMP 1 ACP 1 (3) VHF 1 RMP 1 ACP 1&2 (4) The communication is lost Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.4 Can the crew switch to the third ACP if ACP 1 and 2 fail? (1) Yes. (2) No. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q3.5 If a microphone is in the emission position for more than ___________ , an interrupted tone sounds for 5 seconds, and the emission is turned off. (1) 45 seconds. (2) 90 seconds. (3) 120 seconds. (4) 30 or 60 seconds depending on configuration. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.6 During cockpit preparation the CAPT and CAPT&PURS switch is normally in the CAPT position. What happens in this configuration if one of the cabin EVAC CMD pb is pressed? (1) Nothing (2) Only the EVAC horn sounds in cockpit and cabin (3) The EVAC light within the COMMAND pb-sw flashes red and the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds (4) The EVAC light flashes red and the EVAC horn sounds in the cabin and cockpit Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.7 Which statement about the communication system is true? (1) Four identical VHF communication systems are installed (2) All system have one common antenna on the fuselage (3) VHF has an alarm which indicates if the microphone is stuck (4) Only VHF2 functions in EMER ELEC CONFIG Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.8 Which statement is correct? The audio management system includes: (1) An audio management unit (AMU) (2) Three audio control panels (ACPs) (fourth and fifth optional) (3) Sockets at each station (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.9 An EMER CALL from the flight deck will activate: (1) 3 HI LO chimes in the cabin (2) The red light flashes on all ACPs (3) The EMERGENCY CALL message appears on all AIPs (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.10 Which statement is true about the NAV pushbutton on the Radio Management Panel (RMP)? (1) It enables the pilots to select navigation receivers and courses through the RMP (2) It affects the selection of radio communication and their frequencies (3) When pressed repeatedly, it enables the selection of the different radio navigation options (4) Pressing this key will move the active VOR frequency to the standby window and the standby frequency to the active window Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q3.11 When is the cockpit buzzer combined with the interphone call from the cabin inhibited? (1) The buzzer is inhibited during take-off only (2) The buzzer is inhibited during landing only (3) The buzzer is inhibited during take-off and landing (4) The buzzer is inhibited when engines are running Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.12 Which statement about the cockpit voice recorder is correct? (1) Only the last 1 hour recording are retained (2) Only the last 30 minutes recording are retained (3) Only the last 2 hour recording are retained (4) Only the last 3 hour recording are retained Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.13 What is the procedure with a frozen RMP? (1) Reset RMP according QRH 80.18 (Pulll the CB of affected RMP for 5s and then push it back in) (2) There is no reset procedure (3) Reset RMP according QRH 80.18 (switch OFF the affected RMP for 5s, then switch it back on) (4) Call the maintenance Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.14 Which statement about the use of the HF/VHF radio is correct? (1) Check HF transmission and reception during cockpit preparation if required for the flight (2) Do not transmit on HF during refueling (3) Check VHF transmission and reception during cockpit preparation (4) All statements are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.15 The SEL indicator on both RMPs comes on amber when a transceiver, normally assciated with one RMP, is tuned by another: (1) VHF1, tuned by RMP1 (2) VHF1, tuned by RMP2 (3) VHF2, tuned by RMP2 (4) VHF3, tuned by RMP3 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q3.16 The CVR System is energized automatically: (1) On ground during the first 5 minutes after the aircraft electrical network is energized (2) On ground with one engine running (3) In flight (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.17 The ELT transmits on the following frequencies: (1) 121.5 MHz (2) 243 MHz (3) 406.025 MHz (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.18 According normal procedures: What are the standard RMP settings ? (1) VHF 1: Active ATC, VHF 2: Inflight always 121.50 MHz (2) VHF 1: Active ATC, VHF 2: Company frequency (3) VHF 1: 121.50 MHz, VHF 2: Active ATC (4) VHF 1: Active ATC, VHF 2: 123.45 MHz Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q3.19 Which radio communcation equipment is still working after the completion of the emergency evacuation checklist? (1) VHF1 and 2, RMP 1 and 2, CAPT ACP, F/O ACP (2) VHF1, RMP1, CAPT ACP, F/O ACP (3) VHF1, RMP1, CAPT ACP only (4) VHF1, RMP1, CAPT ACP, F/O ACP, third ACP Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q3.20 What happens with the ATT light on the ACP after a call from the cabin, if it is not reset? (1) It flashes all the time (2) It stops flashing after 10 seconds (3) It stops flashing after 60 seconds (4) It comes on steady after 60 seconds together with the Master Caution light Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.21 CVR: The last _____ of recording are retained. (1) 30 minutes (2) 60 minutes (3) 2 hours (4) 24 hours Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.22 What would happen if your headset cable got stuck around the sidestick radio selector, thereby blocking it in the radio position for a longer period of time? (1) The system is of a fail safe type and will deactivate any transmission immediately for the remainder flight (2) After 30 seconds an alarm will sound only as a reminder for the crew (3) After 20 seconds an alarm will sound and the emission will be turned off (4) After 30 seconds an alarm will sound and the emission will be turned off. To reactivate the emission, you will have to to release and press the PTT button again Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.23 What happens when the side stick radio selector is pressed/squeezed and the INT/RAD switch on the ACP is on INT? (1) The radio function has priority over the interphone function (2) Both the radio and the interphone functions are operative (3) The interphone function has priority over the radio function (4) Only the ground crew will hear the transmission Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q3.24 What is the purpose of the AUDIO SWITCHING rotary switch? (1) It enables the crew to change audio reception from headset to loud speaker and vice-versa (2) It transfers the audio reception from the ACP 1 to the ACP 2 and vice-versa (3) The crew can switch to the third ACP if ACP1 or ACP2 fails. On CAPT 3 position, the captain uses his acoustic equipment and the third occupant's ACP (4) If ACP 1 or 2 fails, the crew can switch to the third ACP. On F/O 3 position, the copilot uses his acoustic equipment and the RMP 3 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.25 Which statement is correct regarding the cockpit voice recorder? (1) It is automatically energized when the battery pb's are selected (2) It is always active after DC electrical power is applied to the aircraft (3) It is automatically energized when the parking brake is set (4) It is automatically energized on the ground with one engine running or during the first 5 minutes after the aircraft electrical network is energized Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.26 How do you erase the CVR? (1) Press the CVR ERASE pb three times shortly when the aircraft is on the ground with the parking brake on (2) Press the CVR ERASE pb for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on the ground with the parking brake on (3) Press the CVR ERASE pb and CVR TEST pb for 2 seconds simultaneously (4) Press the CVR ERASE pb and CVR TEST pb for 2 seconds simultaneously with the parking brake on Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q3.27 On the ground, the CVR is stopped automatically _____ after the last engine shutdown. (1) immediately (2) 1 minute (3) 3 minutes (4) 5 minutes Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.28 In case of an Emergency Call from the cabin, what are the indications in the cockpit? (1) EMER pb-sw: the ON light flashes in white (2) CALL light flashes in amber (3) Three Buzzers will sound consecutively (for approx. Three seconds each) (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.29 With the EMER EVAC COMMAND pb (on Overhead Panel) ON, what happens in the Cockpit? (1) The EVAC light in the pb-switch flashes red and the cockpit horn sounds (2) The EVAC light in the pb-switch is steady red and the cockpit horn sounds (3) The EVAC light in the pb-switch flashed red only (4) The EVAC light in the pb-switch is flashes amber and the cockpit horn sounds Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q3.30 The cockpit voice recorder records announcements transmitted over the passenger address system, if _______ is selected on the third audio control panel. (1) VHF 3 reception (2) INT reception (3) CAB reception (4) PA reception Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.31 The range of the VHF system is: (1) From 2.8 to 24 MHz (2) From 24.0 to 136.975 MHz (3) From 118.0 to 131.95 MHz (4) From 118.0 to 136.975 MHz Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q3.32 Upon receiving a call by the SELCAL system: (1) The system advises the flight crew aurally and visually. (The aural warning is inhibited during takeoff and landing) (2) The system advises the flight crew aurally only (3) The system advises the flight crew visually only (4) Nothing happens, the system is deactivated on our aircraft Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Group 4 ELEC Total Questions in the group: 10 (42 available) Q4.1 If the RAT stalls, or if the aircraft is on the ground with a speed below 100kt, the emergency generation network transfers automatically to the batteries and the static inverter, and the system automatically sheds the: (1) AC SHED ESS BUS only (2) DC SHED ESS BUS only (3) AC SHED ESS BUS and DC SHED ESS BUS (4) AC ESS BUS only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.2 What do you have to consider if you have to disconnect an IDG? (1) Push the IDG pb-sw for at least 3 seconds (2) Disconnect the IDG only when the engine is running or windmilling (3) Push the IDG pb-sw for at at least 4 seconds (4) Nothing needs to be considered Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.3 If the IDG is disconnected once. (1) The IDG may be reconnected in flight (2) The IDG may be reconnected on ground only (3) The IDG may be reconnected in flight in idle thrust only (4) The IDG must be exchanged by maintenance Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.4 Which failure combination will trigger the EMER ELEC configuration automatically? (1) DC BUS 1 is not electrically supplied and DC BUS 2 is not electrically supplied and Aircraft speed is greater than 100 kt (2) AC BUS 1 is not electrically supplied and DC BUS 2 is not electrically supplied and Aircraft speed is greater than 100 kt or vice versa (AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1) (3) AC BUS 1 is not electrically supplied and AC BUS 2 is not electrically supplied and Aircraft speed is greater than 100 kt (4) AC ESS BUS is not electrically supplied and DC ESS BUS is not electrically supplied and Aircraft speed is greater than 100 kt Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.5 How is the emergency generator powered? (1) The ram air turbine (RAT) must be extended. This powers the blue hydraulic system, which drives the emergency generator by means of a hydraulic motor (2) The ram air turbine (RAT) must be extended. This powers the green hydraulic system, which drives the emergency generator by means of a hydraulic motor (3) By the yellow hydraulic power through the PTU to drive EMER ELEC GEN in the green hydraulic system (4) By one of the electric pumps, whichever is switched on Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.6 AC power can be generated by: (1) The 3 generators only (2) The 3 generators or an emergency generator (3) The 3 generators or an emergency generator or a static inverter supplied by batteries (4) By the two engine driven generators only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.7 How much is the power output of each engine driven generator? (1) 90 KVA (2) 45 KVA (3) 5 KVA Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.8 On ground with external power conected and MAINT BUS switch ON, the AC and DC GND/FLT buses are supllied by: (1) External power directly (2) APU or external power via AC BUS 2 (3) External power via AC BUS 1 (4) External power via AC BUS 2 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.9 The RAT extends automatically if (1) AC BUS 1 fails (2) AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 fail (3) DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 fail (4) AC BUS2 and DC BUS 1 fails Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.10 Which bus is not powerded during EMER ELEC in flight? (1) AC ESS BUS (2) DC ESS SHED BUS (3) DC BAT BUS (4) both AC ESS BUS & DC ESS SHED BUS Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.11 What would happen to the battery voltage if you switch off the main power supply (EXT PWR+APU) and left the BAT 1 and BAT 2 pushbuttons in the AUTO position? (1) The batteries would discharge completely (2) The automatic cut-off logic would prevent the batteries from discharging completely (3) Nothing, because the batteries are not connected to the DC BAT BUS (4) Only battery 2 would discharge completely Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.12 What does the BAT check of the PNF include during Preliminary Cockpit Preparation? (1) BAT 1+2 OFF, then ON, check currents drop below 60A within 10sec (2) BAT 1+2 ON, check voltage > 25.5 V (3) Check BAT 1+2 OFF, check voltage > 25.5 V (4) BAT 1+2 OFF, then ON, check voltage > 25.5 V Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.13 Which statement concerning COMPUTER RESET / CB policy is correct? (1) Do not pull the SFCC & LGCIU CBs (2) Do not pull the ECU & SEC CBs (3) Do not pull the EIU & FAC CBs (4) Do not pull the SFCC & ECU or EEC, EIU CBs Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q4.14 TRIPPED C/B RE-ENGAGEMENT A FUEL PUMP C/B has tripped by itself. Which statement regarding the re- engagement is correct? (1) On ground do not reengage the C/B of the fuel pump(s) of any tank. (2) In flight do not reengage the C/B of the fuel pump(s) of any tank. (3) both answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.15 IDG FAULT light lights up amber if: (1) The IDG oil outlet overheats or IDG oil pressure is low (2) The IDG is disconnected (3) The IDG outlet oil TEMP too low or IDG oil outlet overheats (4) The IDG is disconnected and IDG oil pressure is low Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.16 If both the AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 buses are lost and the aircraft speed is above ________, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) extends automatically: (1) 130 knots. (2) 100 knots. (3) 50 knots. (4) 150 knots Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.17 A Generator Control Unit (GCU) controls the output of each generator. The main function(s) of each GCU are: (1) Control the frequency and voltage of the generator output and protect the network by controlling the associated Generator Line Contactor (GLC) (2) Control the voltage of the generator output only (3) Control the frequency of the generator output only (4) Controls the revolutions of each generator drive gear in order to get constant Frequency Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.18 If AC BUS 1 fails, the AC ESS BUS is supplied by: (1) Emergency generator (2) AC BUS 2 (3) Battery 2 via the static inverter 2 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.19 In case of loss of all main generators, prior to RAT extension and emergency generator coupling, the emergency generation network (AC and DC power) is supplied by: (1) The static inverter (2) The batteries and the transformer rectifier (TR) (3) The batteries via the static inverter for AC power and the batteries for DC power (4) DC power by the batteries via the static inverter and AC power by the batteries Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.20 What happens when the GEN 1 pushbutton switch is set to the OFF position? (1) The generator field is de-energized and line contactor opens. The fault circuit is reset (2) The generator is still energized and line contactor open (3) The generator field is de-energized and line contactor remains closed (4) The generator field is energized and the line contactor closes if electrical parameters are normal Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.21 The BAT FAULT light illuminates if: (1) The battery voltage is less then 25V (2) The battery pb-sw is set to off in flight (3) The charging current for the corresponding battery is outside limits (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.22 The aircraft has two types of C/Bs: (1) Monitored (green), non-monitored (black) (2) Monitored (green), non-monitored (red) (3) Monitored (black), non-monitored (green) (4) Monitored (red), non-monitored (green) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.23 The two batteries are connected to the DC BAT BUS if they need charging. When they are fully charged the battery charge limiter: (1) Disconnects them (2) Maintains a trickle charge (3) Remains connected (4) Disconnects them, but after a time delay of exactly 20min they will be connected again Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.24 On the emergency electric power panel, a fault light illuminates under the 'RAT and EMER GEN' label. What does it mean? (1) RAT is not extended (2) The emergency generator is not supplying when AC bus 1 and 2 are not powered (above 100 kts) or DC bat bus is not powered (3) The emergency generator is supplying but AC ess bus is not powered (4) The emergency generator is not supplying power when AC bus 1 and 2 are not powered Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q4.25 When the aircraft main electrical system is not powered, the battery voltage can be checked: (1) On the ECAM electrical system page (2) On the electrical section of the overhead panel (3) There are no indications (4) Both on the ECAM electrical system page and on the electrical section of the overhead panel Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.26 The AC essential bus is normally supplied by: (1) The AC BUS 1 (2) The AC BUS 2 (3) The static inverter 1 (4) The TR 2 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.27 When the aircraft speed is above ________, the static inverter is automatically activated, if nothing but the batteries are supplying electrical power to the aircraft, regardless of the BAT 1 and BAT 2 pb-sw positions. (1) 100 knots (2) 50 knots (3) 75 knots (4) 72 knots Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.28 What are the priorities in the electrical power supply of the A/C? (1) GEN 1 and 2 over APU and over EXT PWR. External power has priority over APU generator when the EXT PWR pb switch is ON (2) APU over EXT PWR over GEN 1 and 2 (3) EXT PWR over GEN 1 and 2 over APU (4) APU over GEN 1 and 2 over EXT PWR Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.29 The RAT extends automatically when: (1) The MAN ON pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel has been pressed and both DC BUS 1 and 2 have failed (2) The MAN ON pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is guarded and AC BUS 1 is not electrically supplied (3) The MAN ON pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is guarded, the aircraft speed is above 72 kt and AC BUS 2 in not electrically supplied (4) The MAN ON pb on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is on AUTO, AC BUS 1 and 2 are not electrically supplied and the aircaft speed is greater than 100 kt Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q4.30 Which statement concerning the electrical generators is correct? (1) One engine generator can supply the entire network (2) The generators cannot be connected in parallel (3) All answers are correct (4) The APU generator or external power can supply the entire network Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.31 While operating in emergency electrical configuration with the landing gear extended, which of the following control laws is active? (1) Direct law (2) Alternate law (3) Backup law (4) Mechanical law Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.32 Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN begins producing electrical power? (1) DC ESS, DC ESS SHED, AC ESS and AC SHED (2) The STATIC INVERTER would power both HOT BAT busses, DC ESS and AC ESS through the AC ESS SHED busses (3) The batteries would power both HOT BAT busses, DC ESS and AC ESS through the STATIC INVERTER (4) HOT BAT busses, DC ESS, DC ESS SHED, AC ESS and AC ESS SHED Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q4.33 During an emergency electrical configuration what happens after landing? (1) Below 100 kt, DC BAT BUS is automatically connected to the batteries and below 50 kt the AC ESS BUS is no longer powered, leading to the loss of all display units (2) Below 100 kt, DC ESS BUS is automatically connected to the batteries and below 50 kt the DC ESS BUS is no longer powered, leading to the loss of all display units (3) Below 100 kt, AC ESS BUS is automatically disconnected and below 50 kt the DC ESS BUS is no longer powered from the ESS TR, leading to the loss of all display units (4) The DC BAT BUS is automatically connected to the batteries below 50 kts Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.34 Which statement about the IDG is correct? (1) Pushing the IDG pb-sw for more than 3 seconds may damage the IDG disconnection mechanism (2) Push the IDG pb for at least 3 seconds to disconnect the IDG (3) The IDG can be reconnected at anytime (4) The FAULT light on the IDG pb remains ON after disconnection of the IDG Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.35 The time for the ECAM to trigger the C/B TRIPPED warning for Monitored C/Bs is: (1) 1 min (2) 2 min (3) 3 min (4) 4 min Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.36 The generator indications on the ECAM page are: (1) Load (%), voltage (V) and frequency (HZ) (2) Load (A), voltage (V) and frequency (HZ) (3) Load (A) and frequency (HZ) only (4) Voltage (V) and frequency (HZ) only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q4.37 The EMERGENCY GENERATOR is driven by: (1) Directly by the RAT (2) Electrically by the DC bus (3) By a hydraulic motor in the BLUE hydraulic system (4) By a hydraulic motor in the YELLOW hydraulic system Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q4.38 The EMERGENCY GENERATOR supplies : (1) DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 (2) AC BUS 1 (3) AC BUS 2 (4) AC ESS BUS Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q4.39 To disconnect the IDG press the guarded IDG DISCONNECT pb-sw for: (1) At least 3 seconds (2) A maximum of 3 seconds (3) At least 10 seconds (4) A maximum of 10 seconds Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.40 If the GEN 1 LINE pb-sw is switched to OFF: (1) AC BUS 1 disconnects and GEN 1 is switched OFF (2) AC BUS 1 channel is supplied from GEN2 through bus tie contactors. The inner tank pumps 1 are supplied directly by IDG and pump relays by DC ESS (3) AC BUS 2 disconnects, GEN 1 is still working and supplies AC BUS 1 (4) AC BUS 1 disconnects, GEN 1 is still working and supplies AC BUS 2 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.41 What is the important thing to remember, to avoid damaging the disconnection mechanism of the IDG, when the IDG pb-sw will be pushed? (1) To push the IDG pb-sw until the GEN FAULT light comes on and then for at least 3 more seconds (2) To push the IDG pb-sw for a maximum of 3 seconds but make sure that the engine is running or windmilling (3) To push the IDG pb-sw for at least 10 seconds to ensure the disconnection (4) To push the IDG pb-sw until the GEN FAULT light comes on, but only for a maximum of 5 seconds Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q4.42 After an IDG disconnection, why do you get a GALLEY SHED indication on the SD? (1) It is a reminder to push the GALLEY pb to manually shed the main galley. (2) It is a reminder to get the flight attendants to switch off galley equipment to decrease the load on the remaining generator. (3) It is a reminder that the main galleys have been shed automatically following the loss of one generator. (4) It indicates that the APU generator powers the galley equipment Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Group 5 EQUIP Total Questions in the group: 2 (6 available) Q5.1 The cockpit is equipped with: (1) 2 windshields / 2 fixed side windows / 2 sliding windows (2) 4 windshields / 2 fixed side windows / 2 sliding windows (3) 2 windshields / 4 fixed side windows / 2 sliding windows (4) 4 windshields / 4 fixed side windows / 2 sliding windows Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q5.2 Which statement about pushbutton positions is correct? (1) Pressed In: ON / OFF / AUTO / OPEN (2) Pressed In: ON / AUTO / OVRD / OPEN (3) Pressed In: OFF / MAN / ALTN / SHUT (4) Pressed In: MAN / ALTN / OVRD / OPEN Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q5.3 The C/B panels 121VU and 122VU on the right rear panel of the flight deck (behind the first officers seat) contain: (1) The secondary circuit breakers (2) The primary circuit breakers (3) The maintenance circuit breakers (4) The circuit breakers that are still powered in an electrical emergency configuration Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q5.4 Which statement about color coding of pushbutton switches is correct? (1) GREEN: For normal operation of a system used temporarily (2) WHITE: For an abnormal pushbutton position (3) AMBER: A failure requiring immediate action (4) BLUE: For normal system operation Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q5.5 Which statement about pushbutton positions is correct? (1) Released Out: ON / OFF / AUTO / OPEN (2) Released Out: ON / AUTO / OVRD / OPEN (3) Released Out: OFF / MAN / ALTN / SHUT (4) Released Out: MAN / ALTN / OVRD / OPEN Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q5.6 Regarding pushbutton positions and associated lighting. Certain pushbutton lights have two dots, indicating that: (1) The corresponding switches will only be used by maintenance personnel (2) The corresponding switches are only used as indicators and do not have a switched function (3) The corresponding switches are not remain pressed in. These are referred to as Momentary Action pushbuttons (4) The corresponding part of the pushbutton is not used Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Group 6 FIRE Total Questions in the group: 4 (53 available) Q6.1 Is it necessary to use the APU shut off P/B on the external power panel in case of APU fire auto extinguishing on ground ? (1) Yes. (2) No. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.2 When the smoke detector in the air extraction duct of the avionics ventilation system detects smoke for more than 5 seconds: -A single chime sounds. -The MASTER CAUTION lights, on the glareshield, light up. -The ECAM displays a caution on the E/WD. -The SMOKE light, on the EMER ELEC PWR panel, lights up. -The BLOWER and EXTRACT FAULT, on the VENTILATION panel, light up (1) TRUE (2) FALSE Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.3 What additional external warnings are activated in case of an APU fire on ground only? (1) APU fire light accompanied by an external horn warning. (2) An external horn warning. (3) A fire bell warning. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.4 Where are the engine fire detectors located? (1) In the fan and the turbine. (2) In the pylon, the fan and the core. (3) In the core and the gearbox. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.5 The agent pushbutton becomes active when: (1) The corresponding 'DISCH' light is on. (2) Engine FIRE pushbutton illuminates. (3) Engine FIRE pushbutton is popped out. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.6 The engine and APU fire protection system includes: (1) 1 fire agent bottle for each engine - 1 fire agent bottle for the APU. (2) 2 fire agent bottles for the engines - 2 fire agent bottle for the APU. (3) 2 fire agent bottles for each engine - 1 fire agent bottle for the APU. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.7 When engine FIRE pushbutton is released out, which corresponding valves are closed? (1) The low-pressure and the high pressure fuel valve (2) The low-pressure fuel valve, the hydraulic fire shut off valve, the engine bleed valve and the pack flow valve (3) The crossfeed fuel valve, the hydraulic fire shut off valve, the pack flow valve and the engine bleed valve (4) The high-pressure fuel valve, the hydraulic fire shut off valve, the engine bleed valve and the outflow valve Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.8 Does SQUIB light up on the ENG FIRE Panel, when an engine FIRE PB is popped by the flight crew? (1) Yes (2) No Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.9 The APU TEST PB on the APU FIRE panel permits the flight crew to test the operation of the fire detection and extinguishing system for the APU. When the flight crew presses it: (1) A triple low chime sounds. The MASTER WARN come on white and APU FIRE warning flashes on the ECAM. (2) On the APU FIRE panel: The APU FIRE pushbutton lights up red, the SQUIB light comes on white, and the DISCH light comes on amber. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.10 The FIRE light identifies the engine to be shutdown because of fire. The light flashes for five seconds then comes on red when an engine fire warning is triggered. (1) True. (2) False. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.11 Each lavatory wastebin has ____________ fire extinguishing system. (1) an automatic (2) a manual (3) a semi-automatic Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.12 The FIRE TEST PB on the ENG FIRE panel permits the flight crew to test the operation of the fire detection and extinguishing system: A continuous repetitive chime sounds, the MASTER WARN lights flash, ENG FIRE warning appears on ECAM. On the FIRE panel: The ENG FIRE P/B lights up red, the SQUIB lights come on white if discharge supplies are available, the DISCH lights come on amber. On the ENG panel (pedestal): The FIRE lights come on red. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.13 The lavatory smoke detection system consists of: (1) Two smoke detectors in each lavatory (2) One smoke detector in each lavatory (3) Three smoke detectors in each lavatory Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.14 When smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct the SMOKE light on the GEN 1 LINE push-button comes on along with a warning on ECAM. Which color does the SMOKE light have? (1) red (2) flashing amber (3) amber (4) flashin red Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.15 When engine FIRE PB is released out, the following sequence occurs: ·Silences the aural fire warning ·Arms the fire extinguisher squibs ·Closes the low-pressure fuel valve ·Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve ·Closes the engine bleed valve ·Closes the paclk flow control valve ·Cuts off the FADEC power supply ·Deactivated the IDG (1) TRUE (2) FALSE Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.16 How many sensing elements does the APU fire detection system have? (1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Four Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.17 When the engine fire push button is released out, which aircraft systems are isolated? (1) Fuel, Electricity and Air Systems (2) Fuel, Hydraulic and Air Systems (3) Fuel, Air, Electricity and Hydraulic Systems (4) Fuel system only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.18 The FIRE TEST PB on the ENG FIRE panel is pushed to test the operation of the fire detection and extinguishing system. One of the white SQUIB lights will not illuminate. What does that mean? (1) one loop is faulty (2) both loops are faulty (3) the fire detection unit fails (4) the discharge supplies are not available Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.19 When engine FIRE push-button is pushed and released, an electrical signal is sent to perform among others following for the corresponding engine : (1) Arms the fire extinguisher squibs and closes the low-pressure fuel valve, hydraulic fire shut off valve and engine bleed valve (2) Shuts down the APU and closes the low-pressure fuel valve, hydraulic fire shut off valve and engine bleed valve (3) Cuts off the FADEC power supply and closes the high-pressure fuel valve, hydraulic fire shut off valve and engine bleed valve (4) Shuts down the APU, deactivates the IDG, closes the low-pressure fuel valve, hydraulic fire shut off valve and engine bleed valve Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.20 Which statement is NOT true? The fire warning ( ENG ) appears in case of: (1) a fire signal from both loop A and B (2) a fire signal from one loop when the other is faulty (3) breaks in both loops occurring within 20 seconds of each other (flame effect) (4) a test performed on the control panel Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.21 In case of perceptible smoke, the SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE checklist requires that you select the BLOWER an EXTRACT push buttons to override. This action brings the avionic ventilation to a: (1) close-circuit configuration. The purpose is to starve the fire from oxygen. (2) open-circuit configuration. The purpose is to add fresh air from the outside. (3) intermediate configuration (4) smoke configuration. The air conditioning system supplies cooling air, which is then exhausted overboard Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.22 A lithium battery catches visible fire in the cockpit: (1) Cockpit/Cabin communication should be established (2) PF shall use his QDM (3) PM shall to use the smoke hood (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.23 A fire warning (ENG) appears in case: (more than one answer may be correct) (1) of a fire signal from both loops A and B (2) of breaks in both loops occuring within 5 seconds of each other (flame effect) (3) a break in loop A occurs Multiple Response, Correct Answer: 1,2 Q6.24 Which statement is not true? The fire warning ( ENG ) appears in case of : (1) a fire signal from both loop A and B (2) a fire signal from one loop when the other is faulty (3) breaks in both loops occurring within 1 min of each other (flame effect ) (4) a test performed on the control panel Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.25 A fire extinguishing system protects the FWD and AFT cargo compartments. One fire bottle supplies ___ nozzles ( ___ in FWD and ___ in AFT compartment ): (1) 4 nozzles ( 2 FWD / 2 AFT ) (2) 2 nozzles ( 1 FWD / 1 AFT ) (3) 3 nozzles ( 1 FWD / 2 AFT ) (4) 3 nozzles ( 2 FWD/ 1 AFT ) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.26 The lavatory has __ smoke detector(s) and __ automatic fire extinguishing system(s) for the wastebin: (1) 1 smoke detector and 2 extinguishing systems (2) 2 smoke detectors and 1 extinguishing system (3) 1 smoke detector and 1 extinguishing system (4) 2 smoke detectors and 2 extinguishing systems Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.27 In case of perceptible smoke, the SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE checklist requires that you select the BLOWER an EXTRACT pushbuttons to override. This action brings the avionic ventilation to a: (1) close-circuit configuration. The purpose is to starve the fire from oxygen. (2) open-circuit configuration. The purpose is to add fresh air from the outside. (3) intermediate configuration (4) smoke configuration. The air conditioning system supplies cooling air, which is then exhausted overboard. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.28 During the preflight check, you verify that: (1) a red disk is present outside at the rear of the fuselage, signaling that the APU extinguishing agent is not discharged overboard due to bottle overpressure. (2) a green disk is present outside at the rear of the fuselage, signaling that the APU extinguishing agent is available for fire protection. (3) a red disk is not present at the rear of the fuselage indicating that the APU extinguishing agent is not discharged overboard due to bottle underpressure (4) a green disk is not present at the rear of the fuselage indicating that the APU has been shut down automatically on ground following an APU fire Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.29 The engine 1(2) fire is triggered when: (1) all three loops detect a fire (fan, pylon and hot section area) (2) a temperature of more than 725 degrees C is detected in the turbine hot section (3) a fire is detected by both loops or by one loop, the other one being faulty, or when there is a break in both loops within 5 seconds (4) a fire is detected by on loop, followed by the second loop within maximum 10 seconds Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.30 The fire protection for engines, APU and cargo entails (1) two extinguisher bottles for the engine, one extinguisher bottle for the APU and one fire bottle for the cargo compartments (2) two extinguisher bottles for the engine, one extinguisher bottle for the APU and two fire bottles for the cargo compartments (3) one extinguisher bottle for the engine, one extinguisher bottle for the APU and two fire bottles for the cargo compartment (4) A CIDS, one extinguisher bottle for the engine, one extinguisher bottle for the APU and two fire bottles for the cargo compartment Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.31 Aircraft Fire Protection Systems are comprised of: (1) Fire and overheat protection for engines, fire and smoke detection for APU, smoke detection for cargo compartments, avionic bay and lavatories (2) Fire and overheat protection for engines and APU, overheat protection for avionic bay, smoke detection for cargo compartments and lavatories (3) Fire and overheat protection for engines and APU, fire detection for wheels, smoke detection for cargo compartments, avionic bay and lavatories (4) Fire and overheat protection for engines and APU, smoke detection for cargo compartments, avionic bay and lavatories Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.32 Which statement is correct in case of APU fire on ground? (more than one statement may be correct) (1) The APU shuts down and the APU fire warnings operate (2) A horn in the nose gear bay sounds (3) The APU fire extinguisher discharges Multiple Response, Correct Answer: 1,2,3 Q6.33 Which situation does not cause a fire warning? (1) A fire signal from both loop A and B (2) A fire signal from loop A and a faulty loop B (3) Failure of loop B after a dispatch with a faulty loop A (4) Breaks in both loops occurring within 5s of each other Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.34 Which ECAM alert causes a master warning? (1) ENG 1 FIRE DET FAULT (2) AVNCS SMOKE (3) LAVATORY SMOKE (4) FWD CRG BTL 1 FAULT Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.35 How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine? (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.36 What happens if an APU fire is detected on ground? (1) Nothing happens. (2) The APU will automatically shut down. (3) The APU will automatically shut down and the extinguisher is ready to discharge. (4) The APU will automatically shut down and the extinguisher will discharge. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.37 Which statement is correct? (1) The cargo compartments have a smoke detection system. (2) The cargo compartments have a fire and overheat detection system. (3) The cargo compartments have a smoke and fire detection system. (4) The cargo compartments have a smoke, fire and overheat detection system. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.38 Which of the following components is not equipped with extinguishing system: (1) Cargo compartments (2) Lavatories (3) Avionic bay (4) APU Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.39 Smoke detection systems are installed in: (1) Avionics bay and cargo compartments only (2) Avionics bay, cargo compartments and lavatories only (3) Avionics bay, cargo compartments, lavatories and engine nacelles (4) Avionics bay, cargo compartments, lavatories and galleys Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.40 The engine and APU fire detection system consists of: (1) 3 fire detection loops on each engine and 2 fire detection loops attached to the APU which are monitored by the FWC (Flight Warning Computer) (2) 3 or 4 (depending on configuration) fire detection loops on each engine and 2 fire detection loops attached to the APU which are directly wired to the FWC (Flight Warning Computer) (3) 3 fire detection loops on each engine and 2 fire detection loops attached to the APU which are monitored by the FDU (Fire Detection Unit) (4) 2 fire detection loops on each engine and 2 fire detection loops attached to the APU which are monitored by the FDU (Fire Detection Unit) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.41 Which answer about the fire detection system is correct: (1) A fault in one loop does not affect the warning system (2) If the system detects an APU fire while the aircraft is on ground, it shuts down the APU automatically but the extinguisher must be discharged manually (3) The engine fire detection system consists of 4 sensing elements: pylon nacelle, engine core, turbine section and gear box section (4) The fire warning will be triggered in case of one of two operative loops has detected a fire / presence of heat Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.42 The Fire warning appears in case of: (1) A fire signal from loop A and B (2) Breaks in both loops occuring within 5s of each other (3) A fire signal from one loop when the other is faulty (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.43 Which statement about the cargo smoke detection and cargo fire extinguishing system is correct: (1) The cargo smoke detection consists of 6 smoke detectors (3 Cavities - 1 fwd & 2 aft). The extinguishing system of one extinguishing bottle is connected to 1 nozzle in fwd and two nozzles in aft cargo compartment (2) The fire extinguishing bottle must only be used in case of confirmed cargo fire (ECAM warning: FIRE FWD (AFT) CARGO FIRE) (3) The cargo smoke/fire detection system senses smoke via the smoke detectors located in the ventilation system outlet and heat sensing elements installed in the roof of each cargo compartment (4) The fire extinguishing bottle can be discharged in both cargo compartments simultaneously if needed. But only if both DISCH pb are pushed within 3 seconds Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.44 The DISCH pb for cargo smoke illuminates amber when: (1) Smoke is detected in the associated cargo compartment (2) Fire is detected in the associated cargo compartment (3) The agent bottle has fully discharged (60 seconds after pressing the DISCH pb) (4) The agent bottle is armed and ready for dischargement Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.45 If the system detects an APU fire while the aircraft is in flight, how is the APU fire extinguisher bottle discharged? (1) Manually, via the APU FIRE pb on the external power panel (2) Manually, via the AGENT pb on the APU FIRE PANEL located on the overhead panel (3) Manually, via the APU FIRE pb on the APU FIRE PANEL located on the overhead panel (4) The fire bottle is discharged automatically Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.46 If you have an APU FIRE which statement is correct? (1) On the ground, an APU AUTO shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically. (2) On the ground you have to perform the ECAM actions to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire from the cockpit. (3) On the ground an APU AUTO shut down will occur but you have to discharge the APU fire bottle manually. (4) In the air, an APU EMER shut down will occur and the APU fire bottle will be discharged automatically. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q6.47 Where is NO fire extinguishing system installed ? (1) In the Cargo compartments (2) In the Engine No. 1 Cowling (3) In the APU compartment (4) In the Avionics compartment Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q6.48 ENG 1 LOOP B is inoperative. According to this failure… (1) One fire detection loop has failed. Fire detection for both engines is not available. (2) One detection loop for engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for both engines is still available. (3) One fire detection loop of engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative. (4) Both fire detection loops of engine 1 have failed. Fire detection for engine 1 is inoperative. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.49 With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true? (1) There are two fire bottles, one for the FWD compartment and one for the AFT. (2) There is only one fire bottle; pressing either DISCH pb discharges it into both compartments. (3) There is only one fire bottle, when it is discharged both amber DISCH lights come on. (4) There are two fire bottles, when the DISCH pb is pressed they are both discharged into the appropriate compartment. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.50 One smoke detector in the air extraction duct of the avionics ventilation system detects smoke in the avionics compartment. When it detects smoke for more than 5 s: (1) The ECAM displays a warning on the E/WD (2) The ECAM displays a caution on the E/WD (3) The ECAM displays an advisory on the E/WD (4) There is no warning on the E/WD Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.51 The cargo compartments have a smoke detection system. Cavities in the cargo compartment ceiling panels each hold two smoke detectors. Each detector is linked to one of the two detection loops (dual loop principle). (1) The aft cargo compartment has one cavity, the forward has two cavities. (2) The forward compartment has one cavity, the aft has two cavities. (3) Both forward & aft compartments have two cavities. (4) Both forward & aft compartments have one cavity. Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q6.52 During the approach at 600ft AGL, smoke in the avionic bay results in... (1)... a red warning on the E/WD (2)... an amber warning on the E/WD (3)... no warning on the E/WD Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q6.53 During an emergency situation with smoke you always get an ECAM warning. (1) True (2) False True/False, Correct Answer: 2 Group 7 F/CTL Total Questions in the group: 10 (78 available) Q7.1 Above which speed, do the armed ground spoilers extend automatically upon a rejected T/O? (1) 80 kt (2) 72 kt (3) 55 kt (4) 90 kt Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q7.2 ALTERNATE LAW - high-speed stability: Above VMO or MMO, _____________ is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed. (1) A thrust reduction demand (2) A nose up demand (3) A thrust increase demand (4) A nose down demand Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q7.3 In order to avoid overshooting the altitude, due to speedbrake retraction in ALT* mode, retract the speedbrakes at least _________ before the selected altitude. (1) 1'000ft (2) 1'500ft (3) 2'000ft (4) 2'500ft Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q7.4 Which memory items define to retract the speedbrakes? (1) Unreliable speed indication, GPWS warnings, Stall recovery (2) Stall recovery, Loss of braking, Emergency descent (3) GPWS warnings, Emergency descent, TCAS warnings (4) Unreliable speed indications, Windshear ahead, Stall warning at lift-off Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q7.5 Which statement about landing with slats or flaps jammed is correct? (1) The flap lever is useless due to jammend slats and flaps and have to maintain at the last selected position (2) The autopilot must not be used for this kind of abnormal configuration (3) The autopilot may be used down to 500ft AGL. As it is tuned for abnormal configurations, ist behavior can be less than optimum and must be monitored (4) The autopilot may be used up to the maximum indicated landing capability with possibility for autoland if indicated Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q7.6 Is there any crosswind limitation for landing with jammend flight controls? (1) Yes, 20kt for LANDING WITH SLATS OR FLAPS JAMMED (2) No, there are no crosswind limits for a landing with jammend flight controls (3) Yes, 15 kt for RUDDER JAM (4) Yes, 25 kt for F/CTL L(R) SIDESTICK FAULT Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q7.7 Which statement about the FLAP SYSTEM is correct? (1) The pilot cannot select an intermediate lever position (2) Before selecting any position, the pilot must pull the lever out of the detent (3) Balks at position 1 and 3 prevent the pilot from calling for excessive flap/slat travel with a single action (4) All answers are correct Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q7.8 Flight control surfaces are all: (1) Electrically-controlled and Hydraulically-activated (2) Hydraulically-controlled and Electrically-activated (3) Electrically-controlled and Mechanically-activated (4) Mechanically-controlled and Electrically-activated Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q7.9 How many flight control computers process pilot and autopilot inputs? (1) 7 (2 ELACs, 3 SECs, 2 FACs) (2) 6 (2 ELACs, 3 SECs, 1 FAC) (3) 5 (2 ELACs, 2 SECs, 1 FAC) (4) 4 (2 ELACS, 1 SEC, 1 FAC) Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q7.10 To control the aircraft about the roll axis the following Flight controls will are used: (1) Aileron, rudder and spoilers (2) One aileron and four spoilers on each wing (3) Aileron and rudder (4) Ailerons only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q7.11 Mechanical control of the flight controls is available for? (1) Elevator and aileron (2) Rudder and elevator (3) Stabilizer and rudder (4) Aileron and stabilizer Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q7.12 What is the ALPHA/SPEED LOCK FUNCTION ? (1) This function inhibits flap retraction at HIGH angles-of-attack and LOW speeds (2) This function inhibits slat retraction at LOW angles-of-attack and LOW speeds (3) This function inhibits flap retraction at HIGH angles-of-attack and HIGH speeds (4) This function inhibits slat retraction at HIGH angles-of-attack and LOW speeds Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q7.13 With the autopilot engaged, the FMGC computes the rudder trim orders. The rudder trim rotary switch and the rudder trim reset pushbutton_____________. (1) Are not active (2) Are active as long as the flight control system is in NORMAL LAW (3) Operate with limited range (Dependig on the aircraft speed within the envelope) (4) Are active as long as the flight control system is in ALTERNATE LAW only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q7.14 TAKEOFF IN CONFIGURATION 1 + F If the flight crew does not select configuration zero after takeoff, the flaps retract automatically at ___ kt: (1) 200 kt (2) 205 kt (3) 210 kt (4) 220 kt Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q7.15 What is the mechanical back-up in the flight controls system? (1) It consists of cables between the cockpit controls and the flight controls surfaces in the pitch and roll axis in case of a total loss of both ELAC computers (2) It enables the pilot to control the aircraft during a temporary complete loss of electrical power. It does this in pitch by manually applying trim to the THS (3) It enables the pilot to control the aircraft when the pitch attitude exceeds 50° nose up or 30° nose down and when bank angle exceeds 125° (4) It enables the pilot to control the aircraft during ELEC EMER configuration. The PFDs display USE MAN PITCH TRIM Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q7.16 RUD TRIM RESET pb: By pushing the RESET pb on the ground, the zero trim position is ordered at 1.5 °/s. After the reset, an indication of up to ___ ° (L or R) may be observed in the rudder trim position indication: (1) 2.5 (2) 2.0 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.3 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 4 Q7.17 Mechanical backup enables the pilot to control the aircraft during a temporary complete__________. (1) Loss of both engines (2) Loss of hydraulic power (3) Loss of electrical power (4) Loss of rudder control Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q7.18 In normal operation, which hydraulic system(s) drive the elevator jacks? (Not in damping mode) (1) Yellow and Green (2) Yellow and Blue (3) Green and Blue (4) Yellow only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 1 Q7.19 Which spoilers are used as speedbrakes? (1) 1,2 and 3 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (3) 2, 3 and 4 (4) 3, 4 and 5 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 3 Q7.20 Which spoilers are used as ground spoilers? (1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (3) 2, 3 and 4 (4) 3, 4 and 5 Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q7.21 Four hydraulically-operated Wingtip brakes (WTBs) are installed to lock the flaps or slats in case of: (1) Asymmetry, mechanism overspeed and slow movement (2) Asymmetry, mechanism overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement of the surfaces (3) Asymmetry and overspeed only (4) Symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement only Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q7.22 Under NORMAL LAW, when the angle-of-attack becomes greater than ____, the system switches elevator control from normal mode to a protection mode, in which the angle-of-attack is proportional to sidestick deflection. (1) ALPHA FLOOR (2) ALPHA PROT (3) ALPHA MAX (4) ALPHA PROT +1° Multiple Choice, Correct Answer: 2 Q7.23 When is the ALPHA FLOOR function activated? (1) Under NORMAL LAW with the A/THR available from lift-off to 100ft RA before landing (2) ALPHA is greater than ALPHA FLOOR (3) Sidestick deflection is greater than 14° nose up, with eithe

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