Master Question Bank v12 - Portal Version (1).pdf

A320 Master Question Bank Revision 12 – September 2023 Training & Standards Category Question Question No AIRCON/PRESS 1 Hot air fault light illuminates on...

A320 Master Question Bank Revision 12 – September 2023 Training & Standards Category Question Question No AIRCON/PRESS 1 Hot air fault light illuminates on the air conditioning panel: (a) The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valves close (b) The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves open (c) The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close (d) The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valves open AIRCON/PRESS 2 In case of zone controller primary and secondary channel failure, what temperatures are pack 1 and 2: (a) 15˚C both (b) 25˚C both (c) 20˚C pack 1, 10˚C pack 2 (d) 24˚C pack 1, 15˚C pack 2 AIRCON/PRESS 3 In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilation system controls the temperature of the cooling air by: (a) Adding air-conditioned air to the flow (b) Extracting air overboard (c) Adding avionics bay air (d) Passing air through a skin heat exchanger AIRCON/PRESS 4 To enable ram air to the mixer unit, the ram air switch should be used: (a) At any time (b) Only when diff. press. is less than 1 psi (c) When press. is greater than 1 psi. diff. (d) Only after outflow valve is fully opened AIRCON/PRESS 5 Pack controller, primary channel failure: (a) The secondary computer operates as a back-up mode and regulation is not optimised (b) The secondary computer takes over (all functions as normal) (c) Pack is lost (d) Pack outlet temp. is controlled at 15˚C AIRCON/PRESS 6 Pack controller, secondary channel failure: (a) No effect on pack regulation back-up mode is lost (b) Pack is lost (c) No effect (all modes still available) (d) Pack outlet temp. is controlled at 15˚C A320 Master Question Bank V12 1 AIRCON/PRESS 7 Pack controller, primary and secondary channel failure (a) Pack outlet temp. is controlled at 5°C to 30°C in a maximum of 6 minutes by the ant-ice valve (b) The pack is closed (c) The packs deliver a fixed temperature of 20˚C (d) Both packs are controlled to 24˚C AIRCON/PRESS 8 Hot air press. reg. valve failed open: (a) Optimised regulation is lost (b) The temperature stays at the value selected when the failure occurred (c) No effect (d) Cabin temperature will be controlled at the upper limit 30˚C AIRCON/PRESS 9 Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is automatically selected: (a) High (b) Normal (c) Low (d) Econ. Flow AIRCON/PRESS 10 Trim air valve, each one optimises the temperature by: (a) Adding hot air (b) Adding fresh air (c) Modulation of pack flow (d) Adding recirculated air AIRCON/PRESS 11 Hot air pressure regulating valve: (a) Regulates the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs (b) Is spring loaded open in the absence of air (c) Opens automatically in case of duct overheat (d) Opens automatically if the cockpit trim air valve fails AIRCON/PRESS 12 Pack flow control valve: (a) Is pneumatically operated and electrically controlled (b) Electrically operated and pneumatically controlled (c) Opens automatically during engine starting (d) Is spring loaded to open AIRCON/PRESS 13 The temperature selectors are located in: (a) The cockpit (b) The cabin (c) The avionics bay (d) Only on the CIDS panel at the fwd. attendant station A320 Master Question Bank V12 2 AIRCON/PRESS 14 Pack flow may be selected from: (a) The cockpit (b) The cabin (c) The avionics bay (d) Only the CIDS panel at the fwd. attendant station AIRCON/PRESS 15 Engine pressure demand, when the cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied, if bleed pressure is low: (a) The minimum idle must be increased manually (b) The minimum idle is increased automatically (c) In any case, flight idle is sufficient (d) The APU must be used to supply additional air AIRCON/PRESS 16 What is the norm. max. cabin altitude: (a) 8,000 ft (b) 9,550 +/- 350 ft (c) 14,000 ft (d) 800 ft AIRCON/PRESS 17 What is the max. negative diff. pressure for the cabin: (a) 0 psi (b) -1 psi (c) -2 psi (d) -8.6 psi AIRCON/PRESS 18 Is it permissible to use simultaneously packs and LP ground unit during long stops in a hot airfield: (a) Yes (b) No (c) Yes, if external temperature is greater than 50˚C (d) Yes, provided the airflow supplied by the ground cart is less than 1.2 kg/s AIRCON/PRESS 19 Trim air valves are modulated by: (a) The zone controller (b) Anti-ice valve (c) Hot air pressure regulating valve (d) The pack controller AIRCON/PRESS 20 The mixing unit is connected to: (a) Packs, Cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector (b) Packs, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector (c) Packs and cabin air (d) Pack 1 and pack 2 only AIRCON/PRESS 21 Once set to ‘ON’ the air conditioning packs operate: (a) Automatically and independently of each other (b) Normally, but the output of one affects the other (c) Automatically, pack one as a master, pack two as a slave (d) Automatically, pack two as a master, pack one as a slave A320 Master Question Bank V12 3 AIRCON/PRESS 22 Emergency ram air inlet, when set to ‘ON’ the ram air valve will open and supply airflow: (a) In any case (b) Diff. press. < 1 psi. and ditching not selected (c) Provided ditching is not selected (d) Provided ditching is selected AIRCON/PRESS 23 Zone controller fault (primary channel failure): (a) Cabin zone at fixed temp (b) Packs at fixed temp (c) Secondary channel operates as back up and operation is as normal (d) The packs deliver a fixed temperature, 20˚C pack 1 and 10˚C pack 2 AIRCON/PRESS 24 Conditioned air is distributed to: (a) Cockpit, cargo bays and cabin (b) Cockpit, fwd. and aft. cabins (c) Cockpit, avionics bay and cabin (d) Cockpit, cabin and holds 1 & 2 only AIRCON/PRESS 25 The cabin zone temperature sensors are ventilated by: (a) Air extracted by the lavatory and galley fans (b) Air extracted from the avionics bay (c) Temperature sensors are ventilated by ram air (d) Temperature sensors are ventilated by discharge air to the outflow valve AIRCON/PRESS 26 Temperature control is automatic and is regulated by: (a) Zone controllers only (b) Pack 1 and 2 controllers only (c) Both the zone and pack 1 & 2 controllers (d) The pack flow control valves only AIRCON/PRESS 27 If a pack controller fails (primary and secondary channel failure), the pack outlet air temperature is controlled by: (a) Ram air valve (b) Hot air pressure regulating valve (c) Anti-ice valve (d) Trim air valve AIRCON/PRESS 28 The zone controller optimises temperature by action on: (a) Pack anti ice valve (b) Trim air valve (c) Pack flow control valve (d) Hot air pressure regulating valve A320 Master Question Bank V12 4 AIRCON/PRESS 29 When the pack flow control knob is positioned to HI, airflow is: (a) 80% of normal (b) 150% of normal (c) 120% of normal (d) 102% of normal AIRCON/PRESS 30 When using APU bleed to supply the packs, with the pack flow selector at LO, the pack airflow is: (a) 80% of normal (b) Normal (c) 120% of normal (d) 102% of normal AIRCON/PRESS 31 The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of: (a) Pack overheat, engine starting, or operation of the fire or ditching push button (b) Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Trim air valve failure AIRCON/PRESS 32 In case of trim air system fault (zone controller primary channel failure), the secondary channel of the zone controller regulates the zone temperature at: (a) 14˚C (b) 24˚C (c) 15˚C (d) 10˚C AIRCON/PRESS 33 In case of total zone controller failure: (a) Hot air and trim air valves open and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature; 15˚C pack 1, 10˚C pack 2 (b) Hot air and trim air valves close and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature; 15˚C pack 1, 10˚C pack 2 (c) Hot air and trim air valves close and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature; 20˚C pack 1, 10˚C pack 2 (d) Hot air and trim air valves open and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature; 20˚C pack 1, 10˚C pack 2 AIRCON/PRESS 34 During landing run ram air inlet flaps open when speed is less than: (a) 77 kts (after 30 sec. delay) (b) 70 kts (after 3 mins) (c) 70 kts (after 20 sec. delay) (d) 140 kts (after 20 sec. delay) AIRCON/PRESS 35 When the APU is supplying the packs, the pack controller sends a demand signal to increase airflow when a zone temperature cannot be satisfied: (a) To the pack ram air inlet flap (b) To the APU ECB (c) To the pack flow control valve (d) To the engine interface units EIUs A320 Master Question Bank V12 5 AIRCON/PRESS 36 The ditching switch when selected: (a) The outflow valve closes when in MAN mode (b) Ram air inlet and ventilation extract valves open (c) The emergency ram air inlet opens (d) Outflow valve, ram air inlet & ventilation extract valves, & the pack flow control valves close AIRCON/PRESS 37 In flight with pressure controller 1 in use, if it fails: (a) You have to use the manual control (b) Transfers automatically to controller 2 (c) You have to select manually controller 2 (d) You have to set the landing elevation AIRCON/PRESS 38 In normal operation, pressurisation is: (a) Fully automatic (b) Manually controlled (c) Automatic, but landing elevation must be manually set (d) Remaining automatic only when CPC 1 is in use AIRCON/PRESS 39 The outflow valve is powered by: (a) One of two electric motors (b) One of three electric motors (c) Three mechanically linked electric motors (d) One of three pneumatic actuators AIRCON/PRESS 40 During ground function operation, the outflow valve is: (a) Fully open (b) Fully closed (c) Positioned according to FMGS demands (d) Operating in abort mode AIRCON/PRESS 41 To see the position of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call ECAM: (a) Cond. page (b) Bleed page (c) Press. page (d) Vent page AIRCON/PRESS 42 Two identical, independent, automatic digital pressurisation controllers are used for system control: (a) One controller active, one in standby (b) Both controllers monitored by FMGC (c) No controller for climb phase and No. 2 controller in cruise and descent (d) No. 1 controller for climb and No. 2 for descent A320 Master Question Bank V12 6 AIRCON/PRESS 43 Which controller position generates excess cabin altitude and pressure signals for ECAM indication in manual mode: (a) Both (b) No. 1 (c) No. 2 (d) Neither AIRCON/PRESS 44 When ram air P/B set to ON, (and ditching not selected), the outflow valve will open when: (a) Diff. press. >1.5 psi (b) Diff. press. < 3 psi (c) Diff. press. < 1 psi (d) Diff. press. > 1 psi AIRCON/PRESS 45 The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid: (a) Opening cabin doors whilst still pressuirsed (b) Rain entering avionics bay (c) Excessive positive pressure differential, and excessive negative differential (d) Landing with the aircraft pressurised AIRCON/PRESS 46 The safety valves are operated: (a) Electrically (b) Hydraulically (c) Pneumatically (d) By the FMGC AIRCON/PRESS 47 When landing elevation is set to auto, the landing elevation is sent to the controller from: (a) FMGS (b) FCU (c) ADIRS (d) F/O BARO ref AIRCON/PRESS 48 When mode selector is set to manual, the outflow valve is controlled by signals sent via controller 1 or 2: (a) True (b) False (c) Controllers 1 and 2 (d) Only controller 2 AIRCON/PRESS 49 On ECAM cab press. page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber if: (a) It is fully closed (b) It is fully open in flight (c) It is fully open on the ground (d) It is not fully open on the ground A320 Master Question Bank V12 7 AIRCON/PRESS 50 On ECAM cab. press. page, the safety valve indication changes to amber if: (a) Both safety valves are fully open (b) One safety valve is open (c) Both safety valves are fully closed (d) Both safety valves do not open AIRCON/PRESS 51 On ECAM cab. press. page, the cabin altitude indication changes to red when cabin altitude is: (a) > 14,000 ft (b) > 8,500 ft (c) > 9,550 ft (d) > 8,800 ft AIRCON/PRESS 52 Following a system 1 fault: (a) Master caution is activated, and the crew must take ECAM actions (b) System 2 must be selected by the crew (c) System 2 takes over automatically without any crew action (d) The crew must manually operate the system AIRCON/PRESS 53 Cabin pressurisation starts at: (a) Engine start (b) Take off power selection (pre-pressurisation) (c) Lift-off (d) Selection of climb power AIRCON/PRESS 54 The pressure safety valve opens at: (a) 8.06 psi (b) 8.6 psi (c) 9.0 psi (d) 7.6 psi AIRCON/PRESS 55 In fully automatic mode, cabin pressurisation is optimised by using information from: (a) FMGC, landing field elevation & destination QNH, ADIRS static press. baro. correction and EIU thrust lever angle info (b) Actual cruise level and selected landing elevation (c) Selected cabin altitude (d) Selected landing elevation AIRCON/PRESS 56 When the APU master switch is released, a normal APU shutdown occurs: (a) Without delay in all cases (b) With a delay in all cases (c) With a delay if the bleed air was in use (d) Only after the main batteries are switched off A320 Master Question Bank V12 8 AIRCON/PRESS 57 What are the APU manual shut down possibilities in the cockpit: (a) APU master switch push button, APU fire push button switch (b) APU master switch push button (c) APU fire push button switch, APU shut off push button (d) APU avail push button switch AIRCON/PRESS 58 Normal electrical system being available, you may restart the APU up to: (a) 31,000 ft (b) 20,000 ft (c) 41,000 ft (d) 45,000 ft AIRCON/PRESS 59 When the APU is running, the APU fuel pump: (a) Runs when the tank pump pressure is not sufficient (b) Runs all the time (c) Runs only in flight (d) Runs when the APU fuel pump is selected on AIRCON/PRESS 60 Normal APU rotation speed (N%) is (a) 99% (Ground, nil bleed demand, -18˚C ≤ OAT 950˚C AIRCON/PRESS 65 On ground, APU provides: (a) Electrical power & hydraulic power (b) Electrical power & bleed air (c) Hydraulic power & bleed air (d) Hydraulic power & electrical power AIRCON/PRESS 66 Air bleed extraction for wing anti-ice: (a) Is permitted (b) Is not permitted (c) Is permitted only on ground (d) Is permitted only in flight AIRCON/PRESS 67 Can you start the APU using the A/C batteries: (a) Yes (b) No (c) Only on the ground (d) Only in flight AIRCON/PRESS 68 The APU is supplied from the: (a) Left fuel feed line (b) Right fuel feed line (c) Centre tank always (d) Right inner tank always AIRCON/PRESS 69 If air bleed was used, after a manual shut down sequence the APU: (a) Stops immediately (b) Keeps running for four minutes (c) Keeps running for between 60 and 120 seconds (d) Keeps running for 10 mins AIRCON/PRESS 70 AVAIL light illuminates on start P/B when: (a) External power is disconnected (b) 2 seconds after APU “N” reaches 95% (c) APU electric power is used (d) Main engine generator is on-line AIRCON/PRESS 71 The APU has its own lubrication system: (a) Yes (b) No (c) No, it is lubricated and cooled by hydraulic fluid from the green system (d) No, it uses the same oil as engine no. 2 A320 Master Question Bank V12 10 AIRCON/PRESS 72 What determines the APU speed in accordance with air bleed demand: (a) Electronic control box (b) Air conditioning system (c) Air intake system (d) Main engine RPM AIRCON/PRESS 73 Besides the master switch on the cockpit APU panel, APU shutdown is possible by: (a) Switching off the left fuel pumps (b) Switching off the right fuel pumps (c) Turning off both main batteries (d) Pressing the APU shut off push button on the external interphone panel or pushing the APU fire pushbutton (o/head fire p/b) AIRCON/PRESS 74 The supply of electrical power has priority over bleed air supply: (a) No (b) Yes (c) Only above 25,000 feet (d) Only when the ditching pushbutton has been selected on AIRCON/PRESS 75 APU master switch ON, the: (a) APU starts (b) ECB is electrically supplied (c) Air intake flap closes (d) APU fuel pump starts immediately COM 76 What is the purpose of the RMPs: (a) VHF and HF radio communication systems only (b) Provide radio navigation systems only (c) Automatically tune navaids as required by the flight plan (d) Give the flight crew control of all VHF and HF radio communication systems, and to provide back up to the FMGCs for controlling radio navigation systems COM 77 In normal operation, RMP 1 is dedicated to: (a) HF 1 and HF 2 (b) VHF 1 and HF1 (c) VHF 2 (d) HF 2 COM 78 If RMP 1 fails: (a) The whole system is inoperative (b) VHF 2 and HF 2 frequencies cannot be controlled (c) The remaining RMPs control all VHF or HF transceivers (d) Only VHF 2 frequencies cannot be controlled A320 Master Question Bank V12 11  COM 79 The ON/OFF switch on the RMP controls: (a) Power supply to the RMP (b) The STBY NAV function of the RMP (c) The HF function of the RMP (d) Activates the beat frequency oscillator COM 80 If you select VHF 2 on RMP 1 the SEL light illuminates on: (a) RMP 1 & RMP 2 (b) RMP1, RMP 2 & RMP 3 (c) RMP 1 only (d) RMP 2 only COM 81 When would a green AM light illuminate on RMP 1: (a) Would not illuminate (b) If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF 1 and AM (c) If crew has selected HF1 and single side band mode (d) If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF 2 and AM COM 82 A VOR is tuned on RMP 1 using the STBY NAV function. Can this selection be seen on the MCDU RAD NAV page: (a) No - information on RAD NAV page is not available when the NAV P/B on RMP is pressed (b) Yes - information on RAD NAV page is always available (c) No - it is not possible to tune a VOR using STBY NAV function (d) Yes - MCDU RAD NAV page shows VORs tuned using STBY NAV function COM 83 Is it possible to tune a navaid with the STBY NAV function on RMP 3: (a) Yes (b) No - STBY NAV function is not available on RMP 3 (c) No - RMP 3 is not available for crew use (d) Yes - but only on the ground COM 84 How can a navaid tuned through the STBY NAV on RMP 1 or 2 be identified: (a) The IDENT appears on the upper ECAM display (b) You cannot identify navaids tuned through STBY NAV (c) By pressing a line select key on the MCDU (d) The IDENT appears on the ND and by pressing out the corresponding reception knob on the ACP COM 85 Can you select VOR 2 using the STBY NAV function on RMP 1: (a) Yes - RMP 1 can control all radios in STBY NAV (b) Yes - by selecting VOR 2 key on RMP 1 (c) No - with STBY NAV function VOR 1 can only be selected on RMP 1 (d) No - VOR 2 cannot be tuned through STBY NAV function A320 Master Question Bank V12 12  COM 86 If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, the SEL light illuminates: (a) On RMP 2 only (b) On RMP 1 only (c) On RMP 1 & 2 (d) On RMP 1, 2 & 3 COM 87 If RMP 1 fails: (a) Switch off RMP 1 and use remaining RMPs (b) Put AUDIO SWITCHING selector on overhead panel to CAPT 3 (c) HF is not available (d) STBY NAV function is not available COM 88 In the event of both FMGCs failing how can navaids be tuned: (a) By using RMP 1 only (b) By using RMP 1 & 2 (c) By using RMP 1, 2 & 3 (d) Navaids can only be tuned through the MCDU RAD NAV page COM 89 If the NAV key on the RMP 2 has been pressed to select STBY NAV: (a) VHF function is lost on the RMP 2 (b) VHF reception is lost on ACP 2 (c) VHF is still available but only the last selected frequency can be used if NAV is pressed (d) Selection of the NAV key does not affect the selection of communication radios and their frequencies COM 90 If an RMP fails: (a) The selected receiver is controlled by RMP 1 (b) The frequency displays appear (c) The green VHF or HF lights illuminates (d) The selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP COM 91 When a SELCAL is received on VHF 2: (a) CALL flashes in amber on the VHF 2 transmission key and a buzzer sounds (b) Three green bars come on in the VHF 2 transmission key and a buzzer sounds (c) White SELCAL appears on the VHF 2 transmission key and the VHF 2 reception knob (d) SELCAL flashes in amber on the VHF 2 transmission key and a buzzer sounds A320 Master Question Bank V12 13  COM 92 With the MECH transmission key on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) pressed: (a) The flight interphone channel is selected for transmission via the ACP RAD switch or the side stick radio selector (b) The cabin interphone channel is selected for transmission via the ACP RAD switch (c) You can speak to the ground mechanic via the handset (d) The mechanic will hear the external horn sound COM 93 How could you receive ATIS information from a VOR: (a) Pressing the ON VOICE key on the ACP (b) Pressing and releasing out the VOR reception knob and selecting the ON VOICE key on the ACP (c) Voice facility is not available through the ACP (d) Pressing the ATIS button on the Captain’s ACP COM 94 How do you cancel the ON VOICE green light: (a) By depressing the ON VOICE P/B (b) By pressing in the VOR reception knob (c) By pressing in the ATIS button on the Captain’s ACP (d) By pressing the RESET key COM 95 What is the function of the RESET P/B on the ACP? (a) To restart system operation (b) To cancel previous transmission key selection (c) To extinguish the CALL, MECH or ATT amber lights if illuminated (d) To cancel previous reception knob selections COM 96 When CAPT 3 is selected on AUDIO SWITCHING panel on the overhead panel: (a) The Captain uses his acoustic equipment and the third occupant’s ACP (b) The third occupant uses the Captain’s equipment (c) The Captain uses the third occupant’s headset (d) The Captain uses the third occupant’s headset and ACP COM 97 The aircraft interphone systems allow the flight crew members to communicate with: (a) Only cabin attendants (b) Only the Captain (c) Only the mechanic (d) The cabin attendants, the cockpit, and the mechanic A320 Master Question Bank V12 14  COM 98 Can you use the cabin interphone system in flight: (a) Yes - to communicate with the other occupants of the cockpit (b) No - service interphone is used only to communicate with mechanic on the ground (c) No - service interphone system deactivated in flight (d) Yes - to communicate with the cabin crew COM 99 Can you speak on VHF and the PA at the same time: (a) Never - because when PA transmission key is pressed the previous transmission key is deselected (b) Yes - by pressing RAD switch and PA key on ACP (c) Yes - by using sidestick radio switch and PA key on ACP (d) Yes - by using hand mic for PA and boom mic for VHF COM 100 Which selection must be made to communicate with the ground mechanic at the engine nacelle interphone jack: (a) ATT transmission key pressed, CAB reception knob released out, use RAD position on ACP (b) MECH transmission key pressed, INT reception knob released out, use RAD position on ACP (c) ENG transmission key pressed, use INT position on ACP (d) Use INT position on ACP, INT reception knob released out, and no transmission key necessary COM 101 On the overhead panel with the CAPT & PURS/CAPT switch in the CAPT & PURS position: (a) The evac alert may only be activated from the cockpit (b) The evac alert may be activated from any cabin crew station (c) The evac alert may be activated from the cockpit or the fwd. or aft attendant positions (d) The evac alert may be activated from the cockpit and any cabin crew position COM 102 CVR is energised: (a) GND CTL P/B is pressed ON (b) On the ground during first 5 minutes after energisation of the aircraft electrical network (c) In flight (d) All the above are correct COM 103 The CVR recording can be erased by: (a) Cannot be erased except by maintenance (b) Pressing the CVR ERASE P/B once (c) Pressing the CVR ERASE P/B for 2 seconds in flight (d) Pressing the CVR ERASE P/B for 2 seconds when aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is on A320 Master Question Bank V12 15  COM 104 How can the CVR be tested before engine start: (a) Pressing the CVR GND CTL P/B ON and pressing the CVR TEST P/B (b) Pressing the CVR GND CTL P/B ON and pressing the CVR TEST P/B with the parking brake set (c) Pressing the CVR TEST P/B with the parking brake released (d) Can only be tested after engine start COM 105 On the ground the crew can manually energise the CVR by pressing: (a) The CVR erase P/B (b) The ground control P/B (c) The CVR test P/B (d) It is not possible to manually energise the CVR COM 106 If an ELT is triggered by an impact in armed mode, signal transmission can be stopped by: (a) Pressing the ELT CUTOFF P/B on the overhead panel (b) Pressing the ELT shutoff P/B on the external power panel (c) Pressing the TEST/RESET P/B on the overhead panel (d) Transmission cannot be stopped COM 107 With ATC (transponder) mode selector at AUTO: (a) Selected ATC operate in flight, and on the ground with Mode S (b) Selected ATC operates when FLEX or TOGA power is set for take-off (c) Selected ATC operates as soon as one engine is running (d) TA/RA function is automatically selected COM 108 The ATC FAIL light illuminates on the ATC control panel on the pedestal: (a) Selected transponder has failed (b) TCAS not available (c) System 1 or 2 has failed (d) Incorrect ATC code set ELEC 109 In normal electrical configuration, how is DC ESS BUS supplied: (a) From TR 1 via DC BUS 1 and DC bat BUS (b) From ESS TR (c) From TR 2 (d) From Battery 2 ELEC 110 What happens in case of total loss of main generators: (a) The RAT is automatically extended and powers the yellow system which drives the emergency generator (b) The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the emergency generator (c) The RAT must be manually extended (d) The RAT is extended and mechanically connected to the emergency generator A320 Master Question Bank V12 16  ELEC 111 The electrical power system consists of: (a) A three phase 115/200 volt 400 hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28 volt DC system (b) A three phase 180/220 volt 400 hertz constant frequency system and a 28 volt DC system (c) A three phase 115/220 volt 400 hertz constant frequency system and a 28 volt DC system (d) A three phase 115/200 volt 400 hertz constant frequency DC system and a 28 volt AC system ELEC 112 DC battery BUS can be supplied by: (a) DC BUS 1 or batteries (b) DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or batteries (c) DC BUS 2 or batteries (d) DC BUS 1 only ELEC 113 AC BUS tie contactors enable the electrical system: (a) To be connected in parallel (b) To be supplied by any generator or external power (c) To be supplied by APU GEN or external power only (d) To be tied to external DC power ELEC 114 What happens during the emergency generator test: (a) The RAM air turbine is extended (b) The blue system is pressurised and the emergency generator comes on line (c) The green system is pressurised and the emergency generator comes on line, supplied by HOT BUS 2 (d) The emergency generator comes on-line and the yellow system is pressurised ELEC 115 Normal minimum battery voltage before APU start is: (a) 22V (b) 25.5V (c) 27.5V (d) No minimum ELEC 116 When disconnecting the IDG, the button should be pressed: (a) For no more than 3 secs (b) For longer than 3 secs (c) Until the fault light goes out (d) For no more than 5 secs A320 Master Question Bank V12 17  ELEC 117 On the emergency electrical power panel, a fault light illuminates under the ‘RAT and EMER GEN’ label. This means: (a) RAT is not extended (b) Emergency generator is not supplying when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered or DC battery BUS is not powered (c) Emergency generator is supplying but AC ESS BUS is not powered (d) Emergency generator is not supplying when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered ELEC 118 What happens when the GEN 1 line P/B is set to off: (a) AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered and emergency generator is automatically connected (b) AC BUS 1 is powered by the GEN 2, because the GEN 1 is deactivated (c) AC BUS 1 is powered by the GEN 2, because the GEN 1 line contactor is opened (d) AC BUS 1 is not powered because the GEN 1 line contactor is opened and transfer contactor is not closed ELEC 119 The battery voltage can be checked: (a) On the ECAM elec page only (b) On the elec overhead panel and the ECAM ELEC page (c) On the elec overhead panel and the ECAM E/WD (d) On the elec overhead panel only ELEC 120 AC essential BUS is normally supplied by: (a) AC BUS 1 (b) AC BUS 2 (c) Static inverter (d) Emergency generator ELEC 121 In flight on batteries only, the AC SHED ESS BUS and DC SHED ESS BUS are lost: (a) Yes (b) No (c) Only AC SHED ESS BUS is lost (d) Only DC SHED ESS BUS is lost ELEC 122 The static inverter works: (a) Always (b) When A/C speed is > 50kts and on batteries only (c) When one main generator fails (d) Only when GEN 2 fails A320 Master Question Bank V12 18  ELEC 123 On the ground what happens if the RAT & EMER GEN MAN ON P/B is pressed: (a) The RAT is extended (b) The emergency generator is activated (c) Nothing (d) The blue hydraulic system is pressurised and this causes the RAT to extend and rotate ELEC 124 The static inverter transforms the DC voltage from the battery BUS into: (a) Single phase 115V - 400 Hz AC (b) Three phase 115/200V – 400 Hz AC (c) 28V DC (d) 25.5V DC ELEC 125 In flight in case of loss of all main generators and with the emergency generator not yet running (batteries only), the static inverter supplies: (a) AC ESS BUS and engine ignition A (b) Engine ignition, AC ESS BUS & AC SHED ESS BUS (c) Engine ignition only (d) HOT BUS 1 ELEC 126 The external power has priority over the APU GEN: (a) Yes (b) No (c) Only in flight (d) No, APU GEN has priority over external power always ELEC 127 GEN 1 and GEN 2 when operating have priority over the APU GEN: (a) Yes (b) No (c) Only in flight (d) Only on the ground ELEC 128 With APU GEN available, if one main generator fails, the failed generator is replaced by: (a) The APU (b) The other computer (c) Bus tie takes place and the remaining main generator supplies both channels (d) The RAT ELEC 129 If a TR fails: (a) The other TR automatically replaces the faulty one & the ESS TR supplies the DC ESS BUS (b) The static inverter replaces the faulty TR (c) The DC BUS on the faulty side is lost (d) The emergency generator supplies DC power on the faulty side A320 Master Question Bank V12 19  ELEC 130 In flight in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator not running, the DC ESS BUS is supplied by: (a) HOT BUS 2 (b) ESS TR (c) Both (d) HOT BUS 1 ELEC 131 In flight in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator running, the DC ESS BUS is supplied by the: (a) HOT BUS (b) ESS TR (c) Both (d) DC BAT BUS ELEC 132 The IDG regulates the … of the generator (a) Speed (b) Voltage (c) Frequency (d) GLC (generator line contactor) ELEC 133 When switched to ALTN the AC ESS FEED P/B causes the AC ESS BUS to be: (a) Supplied from AC BUS 1 (b) Supplied from AC BUS 2 (c) Supplied from DC BUS 1 (d) Supplied from DC BUS 2 ELEC 134 If AC BUS 1 fails, the AC ESS BUS is supplied by: (a) EMER GEN (b) AC BUS 2 (c) Static inverter (d) The RAT ELEC 135 In case of total electrical loss, the AC ESS BUS is supplied by: (a) Static inverter (b) EMER GEN (c) Both (d) TR 1 ELEC 136 In emergency configuration, AC SHED ESS BUS is automatically shed: (a) If the RAT stalls or aircraft is on ground with speed 210 kts (c) Angle of attack is greater than alpha prot (d) Angle of attack > 8.6˚ or speed < 148 kts FLT CTL 215 In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when: (a) Landing gear down (or when Flap 2 selected if LGCIU 1+2 fault) (b) Landing gear down (c) Passing 50ft RA (d) Flap 3 selected A320 Master Question Bank V12 31  FLT CTL 216 Slat SYS 1 Fault on ECAM means: (a) SFCC 1 has failed (b) The slat channel in SFCC 1 has failed (c) The slat channel in one SFCC has failed (d) Both slat channels have failed FLT CTL 217 With Hydraulic G+Y failure (blue system only remaining) the flight control law is: (a) Alternate, after landing gear extension (b) Direct, before landing gear extension (c) Normal, before landing gear extension (d) Direct, after landing gear extension FLT CTL 218 In flight control normal law, the stall warning is activated: (a) At 148kts if slats are not extended (b) When alpha max is reached (c) When alpha prot is reached (d) Angle of attack corresponding to stall warning cannot be reached in normal law FLT CTL 219 The pitch normal law provides: (a) Load factor limitation, pitch attitude protection and high speed protection (b) Load factor limitation, high angle of attack and high speed protection (c) Load factor limitation, high angle of attack, and high speed and pitch attitude protection (d) Load factor limitation, pitch attitude protection and low speed stability FMGS / NAV 220 What does it mean when the ADR fault light illuminates steady on the ADIRS CDU: (a) The respective IR is lost (b) No present position entry after 10 mins (c) Alignment has been completed (d) A fault is detected in air data reference FMGS / NAV 221 On the pedestal mounted switching panel, the ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors are at NORM, meaning: (a) ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2, ND 2 (b) ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1 and RMI / VOR DME. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2, ND 2 (c) ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2 (d) ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1 & ND 2. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2 & ND 1 A320 Master Question Bank V12 32 FMGS / NAV 222 Tuning of VOR / DME and ILS is provided by: (a) Automatic tuning / Manual tuning / Back up tuning (b) Automatic tuning / Manual tuning (c) Automatic tuning / Back up tuning (d) Manual tuning / back up tuning FMGS / NAV 223 In case of failure of FMGC 1 & 2 (back up tuning): (a) VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 & 2 can be tuned through RMP 1 (b) VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 can be tuned through RMP 1 (c) RMP1 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 1. RMP 2 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 2 (d) VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 and 2 can be tuned through either RMP FMGS / NAV 224 The align light flashes: (a) Within 5 mins of NAV mode selection when present position has not been entered (b) IR alignment fault or no present position entry after 10 mins or difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1 deg. of lat. or long. (c) When alignment has been completed (d) When the ADIRS switches are off FMGS / NAV 225 The FMGS consists of the following main components: (a) 2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 2 FCU control panels (b) 2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 1 FCU control panel (c) 2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 2 ECAM (d) 2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 ECAM - 1 FCU control panel FMGS / NAV 226 Normal electrical power supplies the aircraft, and the MCDU CRT is dark, without any other warning or message, it means: (a) The FMGC has been switched off with the ON / OFF key on the key-pad (b) The FMGC has failed (c) The MCDU CB is pulled (d) The MCDU ‘BRT’ knob is dimmed FMGS / NAV 227 On the ground, when electrical power is initially supplied to the aircraft, the MCDU will normally automatically display: (a) AIRPORT page (b) INIT A page (c) DATA INDEX page (d) A/C STATUS page (for database validity check) FMGS / NAV 228 What does a steady align light indicate on an ADIRU: (a) The system can only be used in ATT mode (b) The system is unable to enter NAV mode to compute co- ordinates, switch it off (c) The respective IR is operating normally in align mode (d) The system has not aligned and must be reset A320 Master Question Bank V12 33 FMGS / NAV 229 These messages appear on the First Officers side ND; ‘Select offside range/mode’ & ‘Map not available’: (a) The IRS’s have not reached complete alignment (b) The flight plan entered in Captains FMGC has not been transferred into First Officers FMGC (c) Single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels are not set at the same range and mode (d) The FMGCs are in independent mode of operation FMGS / NAV 230 Engines running, ready to taxi, a message appears; ‘Check GW’, access to INIT ‘B’ page is no longer available: (a) T/O performance page (b) Progress page (c) Fuel prediction page (d) INIT ‘A’ page FMGS / NAV 231 Aircraft on runway centerline, ready for take-off; to preset a heading of 233 deg: (a) Pull HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 233 deg and press HDG knob to engage (b) Turn HDG knob, set 233 deg and pull to engage (c) Turn HDG knob, set 233 deg, pull HDG knob when ATC clears to turn to 233 deg (d) Write H233 onto MCDU ‘scratchpad’ and when cleared by ATC perform a lateral revision at the current waypoint to turn onto HDG 233 deg FMGS / NAV 232 One of the SRS disengagement conditions is not true: (a) Disengages automatically at FCU altitude (b) Disengages automatically at acceleration altitude (c) Disengages manually by pulling the speed knob (d) Disengaged by setting a new FCU altitude FMGS / NAV 233 Control of the aircraft can be automatic or manual. Guidance of the aircraft can be managed or selected: (a) FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purpose, the pilot flies through the side stick, speed is adjusted in the FCU window (b) The autopilot follows the flight plan, the pilot sets the necessary data for longitudinal and lateral control of the aircraft, the target speed is computed and displayed by the FMGC (c) Managed guidance means the autopilot is engaged (d) Selected guidance means the pilot is flying through the side stick A320 Master Question Bank V12 34 FMGS / NAV 234 A hold has been entered in the flight plan, speed and NAV are managed. To leave this hold: (a) Use the CLR key (b) Hold is automatically cancelled when overflying the holding fix (c) Activate the ‘IMM EXIT’ prompt (d) Clear any discontinuity after the holding fix and the aircraft will leave the hold next time over the holding fix FMGS / NAV 235 For aircraft position determination, FMGC uses data from: (a) GPS only (b) Clocks and Ground speed computation (c) ADIR 1 only (d) DME, VOR, GPS or ILS systems and 3 ADIRS FMGS / NAV 236 In flight, following a manual position updating of the FMGC: (a) It is also necessary to update the IRS position (b) An IRS cannot be updated during A/C motion (c) It is also necessary to realign the ADIRs at the new position (full align) (d) It is necessary to realign the ADIRs using the quick align method FMGS / NAV 237 How long does a normal IR alignment take: (a) Approximately 7 minutes (b) Approximately 2 minutes (c) Approximately 10 minutes (d) Approximately 5 minutes FMGS / NAV 238 What are the basic modes of the AP/FD (Flight engagement): (a) Pitch and roll (b) HDG V/S or TRK/FPA (c) ALT and NAV (d) SPD and HDG FMGS / NAV 239 The engagement of both autopilots is possible: (a) When ‘LAND’ illuminates in green on the FMA (b) When A/C is stabilised at G/S interception altitude (c) As soon as the LOC has been intercepted (d) After APPR P/B switch is pressed and illuminates FMGS / NAV 240 Can you read the heading on the PFD: (a) Yes (b) No (c) Only in ‘PLAN’ mode (d) Only when not in ‘PLAN’ mode A320 Master Question Bank V12 35 FMGS / NAV 241 A/C is in clean configuration and normal law, when the FAC detects a too high angle of attack: (a) Stall warning is activated (b) THR LK flashes on FMA (c) Alpha floor function operates (d) LAF load alleviation function becomes active FMGS / NAV 242 During a CAT III ILS approach, with CAT 3 fail passive displayed on the FMA, one engine fails below 100 ft. RA. Will this cause a landing capability downgrade and require a go-around: (a) Yes, a downgrade will occur and you must go-around (b) No, a downgrade will not occur and you may continue to land (c) Yes, a downgrade will occu but a go-around is not required (d) Yes, a downgrade will occur and you may land or go-around FMGS / NAV 243 During an ILS approach the NAV mode will be deactivated at: (a) Glideslope capture (b) Localizer capture (c) LOC & glide must be captured (d) MDA FMGS / NAV 244 Can you display FD bars and FPV at the same time, for cross checking on different PFDs: (a) Yes, Captain and F/O can each have HDG V/S or TRK FPA (b) No, the FD presentation on both PFDs will always be the same (c) Yes, different presentations are possible but standard operating procedure requires both to be the same (d) Yes, both presentations are possible and standard operating procedure permits both at the same time FMGS / NAV 245 Certified FMGS limitations, max wind conditions for CAT III automatic approach, performed in managed speed guidance and with autothrust for the A320 CEO are: (Headwind/ Tailwind/ Crosswind) (a) 30 kt/ 10 kt/ 20 kt (b) 40 kt/ 10 kt/ 15 kt (c) 20 kt/ 10 kt/ 15 kt (d) 40 kt/ 15 kt/ 20 kt FMGS / NAV 246 The continuous cavalry charge audio identifies only one of the following situations: (a) Over speed for the actual A/C configuration (b) Fire or oil low pressure on one engine (c) Autopilot disengagement (d) Excess cabin altitude A320 Master Question Bank V12 36 FMGS / NAV 247 Setting the thrust levers at idle will disengage the auto thrust mode, auto thrust will re-engage and become active: (a) As soon as the thrust levers position is changed (b) When the A/THR push button is pressed and the levers are back in the climb (c) As soon as the levers are back in the climb detent (d) Provided the levers are moved from the idle position FMGS / NAV 248 In one of the cases listed below, A/THR does not disengage: (a) When the two thrust levers are set at the idle position (b) Pressing the A/THR pushbutton on the FCU (c) When the aural warning announces ‘retard’ (d) Pressing the instinctive disconnect button FMGS / NAV 249 The LOC P/B on the FCU is pressed to arm LOC mode, this mode is used for: (a) Performing a published localizer approach (b) Tracking a VOR beam during an approach (c) Performing non-precision approaches VOR / ADF / RNAV (d) Performing a published localizer approach or approaching on an ILS before intercepting the glideslope FMGS / NAV 250 What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach: (a) A level 3 warning to the crew (b) A primary failure is occurring, prepare for go-around (c) Flaps are set at 3 and the landing gear is not down (d) Landing capability downgrade warning FMGS / NAV 251 Following a dual engine generator failure, emergency generator supplies the A/C: (a) FMGC 1 only is available (NAV function only) (b) FMGC 2 only is available (c) Both FMGCs are available (d) No FMGC is available FMGS / NAV 252 In which case are AP/FD, ATS and landing capacities totally lost: (a) 2 IRS’s failure or 2 ADR’s failure (b) 2 RA’s failure (c) 2 ILS’s failure (d) Both FAC’s failure FMGS / NAV 253 The mandatory parameter used by the Alpha Floor detection is: (a) A/C minimum speed (b) A/C weight (c) A/C maximum speed (d) A/C angle of attack A320 Master Question Bank V12 37 FMGS / NAV 254 Rudder travel limitation is a function of: (a) FAC only (b) FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate (c) ELAC only (d) ELAC in Normal and FAC in alternate FMGS / NAV 255 The display data selector on the ADIRU is placed in the HDG position and the display SYS selector knob: (a) Aircraft heading and track in relation to magnetic north, based on the average of the inputs from all three IR’s (b) Aircraft heading and track in relation to true north, based on the average of the inputs from all three IR’s (c) Aircraft heading in relation to true north as determined by IR 1 (d) Aircraft heading in relation to magnetic north as determined by IR 1 FMGS / NAV 256 The ELAC safety tests (power up test) are automatically performed: (a) On ground at computer power up (b) In case of discrepancy between two computers (c) In flight when a failure occurs (d) In flight at autopilot engagement FMGS / NAV 257 The electric standby horizon normally draws current from: (a) The AC ESS BUS in case of total electrical failure, the horizon remains unusable for 5 minutes (b) The DC ESS BUS in case of total electrical failure, the horizon remains usable for 5 minutes (c) The DC ESS BUS in case of total electrical failure, the horizon remains unusable for 10 minutes (d) The DC ESS BUS in case of total electrical failure, the horizon remains unusable for 5 minutes FMGS / NAV 258 The FMGC functions are: (a) Flight guidance and flight envelope protection (b) Flight management and flight envelope protection (c) Flight management and flight guidance (d) Flight envelope protection and yaw axis control FMGS / NAV 259 The trim function of the FAC is: (a) Pitch trim (b) Rudder trim (c) Aileron trim (d) Pitch trim and rudder trim FMGS / NAV 260 The AFS computers are: (a) FMGC and ELAC (b) FMGC and SEC (c) FMGC and FAC (d) ELAC and SEC A320 Master Question Bank V12 38 FMGS / NAV 261 With AP 1 and AP 2 not engaged, FD 1 and FD 2 engaged and A/THR active: (a) FMGC 1 controls engine 1, FMGC 2 controls engine 2 (b) FMGC 1 controls both engines (c) FMGC 2 controls both engines (d) Flight controls and engines are controlled by only one FMGC FMGS / NAV 262 Which of the following will NOT cause the autopilot to disengage: (a) Side stick deflection in roll (b) Side stick deflection in pitch (c) Rudder pedal deflection (d) Deflection of NWS tiller FMGS / NAV 263 In normal operation, with the two MCDU showing the same page, a modification made by the pilot on MCDU 1 is sent to MCDU 2: (a) Directly (b) Via FMGC 1 (c) Via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2 (d) Via FMGC 1, FMGC 2 and RMP 2 FMGS / NAV 264 The flight guidance functions are: (a) Autopilot, flight plan, autothrust (b) Autopilot, performance, flight plan (c) Autopilot, flight director, autothrust (d) Flight management, autopilot, autothrust FMGS / NAV 265 The position of the aircraft, used in the flight plan is computed by: (a) FG part of the FMGC (b) FM part of the FMGC (c) The DMC (d) The MCDU FMGS / NAV 266 The flight director is engaged: (a) By pressing the FD P/B on the FCU (b) Automatically at system power up (c) By selecting a mode on the FCU (d) By selecting the Init page on the FCU FMGS / NAV 267 With autopilot engaged, the rudder is normally controlled by: (a) The FMGC (b) The FAC (c) The ELAC (d) The SEC FMGS / NAV 268 The normal FMGC operation is: (a) Only one FMGC can operate at a time (b) FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC 2 is in standby (c) FMGC’s operate according to a master slave principle (d) FMGC’s operate independently A320 Master Question Bank V12 39 FMGS / NAV 269 The FCU allows: (a) Modification of the flight plan (b) Selection of flight guidance functions / modes (c) Selection of radio nav frequencies (d) IRS alignment FMGS / NAV 270 In cruise lateral AP orders are executed by: (a) Ailerons and spoilers (b) Ailerons and rudder (c) Rudder and spoilers (d) Ailerons, spoilers and rudder FMGS / NAV 271 With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, the A/THR mode: (a) Can be chosen by the pilot on the FCU (b) Can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU (c) Depends on the AP lateral mode (d) Depends on the AP vertical mode FMGS / NAV 272 With the aircraft in flight, A/THR not engaged, thrust levers in CLB detent, alpha floor is detected: (a) A/THR does not get engaged because the engines are already in CLB thrust (b) A/THR automatically engages but is not active (c) A/THR automatically engages and controls the engines with CLB thrust (d) A/THR automatically engages and controls the engines with TOGA thrust FMGS / NAV 273 The FAC computes rudder travel limit: (a) Only when AP is engaged (b) Only at low speed (c) Only in case of ELAC failure (d) At any time FMGS / NAV 274 On the FMA, on the second line of the longitudinal zone: (a) ALT can be only in green or magenta (b) ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is active (c) Alt in cyan indicates that ALT mode is armed (d) ALT in cyan indicates that ALT mode is active or a FM altitude constraint FMGS / NAV 275 With the thrust levers in the climb gate, A/THR disengages due to a failure, the engines thrust: (a) Equals the climb thrust limit (b) Is frozen at the existing thrust (c) Corresponds to the thrust lever position (d) Progressively becomes equal to the thrust lever position A320 Master Question Bank V12 40 FMGS / NAV 276 When take-off mode is engaged: (a) A/THR automatically engages and is active (b) A/THR automatically engages but is not active (c) A/THR does not automatically engage, and the engines are controlled by the thrust levers (d) A/THR does not automatically engage, and the engines are controlled by the last thrust target FMGS / NAV 277 ADIRU 3 can supply information to: (a) DMC 1 and DMC 2 only (b) DMC 1 and DMC 3 only (c) DMC 2 and DMC 3 only (d) DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3 FMGS / NAV 278 Air data modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRU’s from: (a) All pitot probes and static ports (b) The pitot probes only (c) The static ports only (d) The Captain's and F/O's pitot probes and static ports only FMGS / NAV 279 ADIRS 3 receives TAT information from: (a) The Captain's TAT sensor (b) The F/O’s TAT sensor (c) The Captain's and F/O’s TAT sensors (d) The standby TAT sensor FMGS / NAV 280 The barometric correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU via: (a) The master FMGC (b) The FCU (c) The RMPs (d) The DMCs FMGS / NAV 281 Each ADIRU receives two analogue inputs; they are: (a) Angle of attack (AOA) and total air temperature (TAT) (b) Angle of attack (AOA) and baro. correction or reference (c) Total air temperature (TAT) and baro. correction or reference (d) FMGC status and baro. correction or reference FMGS / NAV 282 In normal operation the ADIRUs are aligned using information from: (a) The ADIRS CDU (b) The CFDS (c) The FCU (d) The MCDU A320 Master Question Bank V12 41 FMGS / NAV 283 If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is: (a) Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT/3 (b) Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to F/O/3 (c) Set ATT HDG selectors to CAPT/3, AIR DATA selector to F/O/3 (d) Set ATT HDG selectors to F/O/3, AIR DATA selector to CAPT/3 FMGS / NAV 284 In normal operation ADIRU 1 supplies information to: (a) The Captains PFD and the First Officers ND (b) The Captains ND and the First Officers PFD (c) The Captains PFD and ND (d) The First Officers PFD and ND FMGS / NAV 285 In Rose NAV mode with VOR 1 selected, the ND displays what VOR information: (a) Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer (b) Bearing pointer only (c) Deviation bar and selected course only (d) Deviation bar and bearing pointer only FMGS / NAV 286 In Rose ILS mode, the ND displays what ILS information: (a) G/S and LOC scales (b) Deviation bar and selected course (c) Deviation bar, selected course and G/S scale (d) Deviation bar, selected course, G/S and LOC scales FMGS / NAV 287 In the event of no ADF 1 reception, with ADF 1 selected on ND: (a) The bearing pointer goes out of view and ADF flag is displayed (b) The bearing pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by red crosses (c) The bearing pointer goes red and station ID is replaced by frequency (d) The bearing pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by frequency FMGS / NAV 288 In Rose VOR mode, in the event of VOR receiver failure: (a) The VOR flag flashes red for nine seconds then remains steady (b)