A320 Technical Questions (910) - PDF

A320 TECHNICAL QUESTIONS (910) Last Updated 02nd June 2022 AIRCOND, PRESS & VENTILATION (108) ENGINES (64) AUTOFLIGHT (41) LANDING GEAR (67) DOORS (17) OXYGEN (12) INDICATING/RECORDING (51) EQUIPMENT (12) ELECTRICAL (74) COMMUNICATION (53) PNEUMATICS (45) FLIGHT CONTROLS (78) FUEL (27) NAVIGATION (66) ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION (38) FIRE PROTECTION (46) HYDRAULIC SYSTEM (46) AMBIGOUS QUESTIONS (30) APU (35) DISCLAIMER AIRCONDITIONING – PRESSURIZATION – VENTILATION Q 01: Conditioned air is distributed to: A: Cockpit, cargo bays and cabin B: Cockpit, fwd and aft cabins C: Cockpit, avionics bay and cabin D: Cockpit, cabin and holds 1 and 2 only Q 02: Hot air fault light illuminates on the air conditioning panel, A: The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valves close. B: The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves open. C: The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close. D: The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valves open. Q 03: Does the trim air provide the warm air or the cold air to the air conditioning system? A: Cold air B: Warm air Q 04: In case of zone controller primary and secondary channel failure, what temperatures are maintained by pack one and pack two? A: 15 deg C both B: 25 deg C both C: 20 deg C for pack one and 10 deg C for pack two D: 24 deg C for pack one and 15 deg C for pack two Q 05: In normal flight in closed circuit configuration, the avionics ventilation system controls the temperature of the cooling air by: A: Adding airconditioned air to the flow B: Extracting air overboard C: Adding avionics bay air D: Passing air through a skin heat exchanger Q 06: To enable Ram air to the mixture unit, The Ram air switch should be used: A: At any time B: Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi. C: When pressure is greater than 1 psi diff. D: Only after outflow valve is fully opened Q 07: Pack controller, primary channel failure. A: The secondary computer operates as a backup mode and regulation is not optimized B: The secondary computer takes over (all functions as normal) C: Pack is lost D: Pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 deg C Q 08: Pack controller, secondary channel failure A: No effect on pack regulation backup mode is lost B: Pack is lost C: No effect (all modes still available) D: Pack outlet temperature is controlled at 15 deg C Q 09: Pack controller, primary and secondary channel failure A: Pack outlet temperature is controlled to between 5 and 30 deg C by the anti-ice valve B: The pack is closed C: The packs deliver a fixed temperature of 20 deg C Q 10: Hot air pressure reg. valve failed open: A: Optimized regulation is lost B: The temperature stays at the value selected C: No effect D: Cabin temperature will be controlled at the upper limit 30 deg C Q 11: Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed valve open), the pack flow is automatically selected: A: High B: Normal C: Low D: Econ. Flow Q 12: Trim air valve, each one optimizes the temperature by: A: Adding hot air B: Adding fresh air C: Modulating of pack flow D: Adding re-circulated air Q 13: Hot air pressure regulating valve: A: Regulates the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs B: Is spring loaded open in the absence of air C: Opens automatically in case of duct overheat D: Opens automatically if the cabin trim air valve fails Q 14: Pack flow control valve: A: Is pneumatically operated and electrically controlled B: Electrically operated and pneumatically controlled C: Opens automatically during engine starting D: Is spring loaded to open. Q 15: Engine flow demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied: A: The minimum idle must be increased manually B: The minimum idle is increased automatically C: In any case, flight idle is sufficient D: The APU must be used to supply additional air. Q 16: What is the normal maximum cabin altitude? A: 8,000 ft B: 9,550 ft +/- 350 ft C: 14,000 ft D: 800 ft Q 17: What is the Max. negative Diff. pressure for the cabin? A: 0 psi. B: 1 psi. C: 2 psi. D: 8.6 psi. Q 18: It is permissible to use simultaneously packs and LP ground unit during long stops in a hot airfield A: Yes B: No C: Yes, if external temperature is greater than 50 deg C D: Yes, provided the airflow supplied by the ground cart is less than 1.2 kg/s Q 19: What are the different sources of air for air conditioning and pressurization? A: Engine bleed air and recirculated air (only on ground) B: Engine bleed air and recirculated air. C: Engine bleed air and recirculated air, or if selected, APU bleed air and recirculated air. D: Engine bleed air only. Q 20: During the exterior preflight on a warm day, in what position would you expect to find the avionics ventilation system INLET and EXTRACT valves to be in? A: Closed. B: Open. C: Closed or open regarding of the APU bleed valve. D: Closed or open Q 21: What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start? A: They must be selected off. B: They must be selected off on cold days only. C: They must be selected off on hot days only. D: They automatically close. Q 22: The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by means of: A: A HOT AIR valve. B: A ZONE control valve. C: A PACK FLOW VALVE. D: A TRIM AIR valve. Q 23: When does normal pressurization occur? A: After second engine start. B: Pressurization occurs during taxi C: Pressurization occurs during the takeoff roll. D: After rotation. Q 24: When does normal depressurization occur? A: 100 feet AGL above touchdown. B: It is complete 1 minute after touchdown. C: After flap retraction. D: On landing touchdown Q 25: Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to LO? A: With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and improve fuel efficiency. B: With a low passenger load to increase cabin temperature C: With a high passenger load to reduce cabin temperature D: In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range. Q 26: Which statement is correct regarding illumination of the amber AFT ISOL VALVE fault light? A: Automatically closes the aft cargo compartment isolation valves. B: Means that either the inlet or outlet isolation valve(s) disagrees with the switch position. C: Indicates that the extract fan has stopped. D: All of the above. Q 27: Pressurization controllers receive inputs from: A: LGCIU, ADIRU, FMGS, and EIU. B: LGCIU’s and the MCDU. C: LGCIU’s and pitot static sources. D: MCDU and LGCIU’s. Q 28: What computers control the cabin and cockpit conditioned air? A: Two zone controllers that pass information and requests to two pack controllers. B: Two pack controllers that pass information and requests to three zone controllers. C: Three zone controllers that pass information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones. D: One zone controller that passes information and instructions to two pack controllers for three zones. Q 29: When would you select RAM AIR ON? A: If additional cooling is required on the ground. B: Dual pack failure or smoke removal. C: When pack temperatures are too high. D: When there is smoke in the cabin. Q 30: What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted? A: A signal is sent to the zone controller requesting a different temperature. B: Nothing as there is no relationship between a temperature selector knob and the trim air valve. C: The associated trim air valve immediately moves to a different position. Q 31: With APU BLEED ON and engine BLEED switches ON with engines running, what is the position of the engine bleed valves? A: Closed B: Open C: Depends on the cross-bleed selector Q 32: Pressurization is normally automatic. Can you interfere with it? A: Yes, CABIN PRESS MODE SEL to OVERRIDE and MAN V/S CTL toggle switch. B: Yes, manually set landing elevation using the LND ELEV AUTO selector. C: Both are correct. Q 33: Under what conditions should the pack flow controller be set to HI? A: In cold conditions to achieve a higher cabin temperature range. B: With a low passenger load to increase cabin air flow. C: With a high passenger load in hot conditions in order to help reduce the cabin temperature. Q 34: What is the function of the ram air valve? A: Ventilation while on the ground. B: Emergency smoke removal and ventilation in the event of dual pack failure. C: Avionics cooling. D: Cargo ventilation & avionics cooling. Q 35: The Ram Air valve: A: Should be opened for increased ventilation while on the ground. B: Will open automatically after engine start. C: Should be opened for increased ventilation while in flight. D: Must be manually activated. Q 36: Both pressurization auto controllers are set by the active flight plan loaded in the MCDU. The QNH entry on the MCDU Approach Performance page refines the depressurization schedule for the landing. A: True. B: False. Q 37: During flight below _____, Ram Air Valve can provide an emergency source of conditioned air during non- pressurized flight. A: 5,000 feet B: 8,000 feet C: 10,000 feet D: 12,500 feet Q 38: What limitation is associated with the ram air valve? A: Do not open if cabin pressure is greater than 1 psi. B: Only open while on the ground. C: Will not open if the DITCHING switch is off. D: Operation is automatic. Q 39: With the pressurization system in the automatic mode, which valves are closed when the ditching push button is selected on? A: All valves below the water line. B: APU inlet. C: The engine bleed valves. D: Only the avionics cooling valves. Q 40: What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin? A: 0 psi. B: 1 psi. C: 2 psi. D: 3 psi. Q 41: The HOT AIR valve push button controls: A: The trim air valve. B: The hot air manifold. C: The engine bleed valves. D: The pack flow control valves. Q 42: Aft cargo indications may be found on which ECAM page(s)? A: Only the CRUISE page. B: Only the BLEED page. C: Only the CAB PRESS page. D: The CRUISE page and the COND page. Q 43: Avionics ventilation system indications may be found on which ECAM page(s)? A: Only the BLEED page. B: Only the CAB PRESS page. C: The in-flight ECAM cruise page. D: The in-flight ECAM cruise page and the CAB PRESS pages. Q 44: When APU is supplying the packs, the pack controller sends a demand signal to increase airflow when a zone temperature cannot be satisfied. This signal is sent to the: A: Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap. B: APU ECB. C: Pack Outflow Control Valve. D: Engine interface units EIU’s Q 45: In case of zone controller primary and secondary channel failure, what temperatures are maintained by Packs 1 and 2? A: 15 deg C for both. B: 25 deg C both. C: 20 deg C for Pack one and 10 deg C for Pack two D: 24 deg C for Pack one and 15 deg C for Pack two. Q 46: The PACK FLOW controller is set to NORM and yet the ECAM display shows PACK FLOW to be high. How is this possible? A: As the engines are not running the PACK FLOW indicators are at the position they were selected to at the last shut down. B: As no bleed air is flowing the PACK FLOW valves are spring loaded to the fully open position. C: HI flow is automatically selected regardless of PACK FLOW selector position because air is only being supplied by the APU. D: With cold outside air conditions the PACK FLOW is automatically increased to help increase the cabin temperature. Q 47: When would you select PACK FLOW to HI? A: Smoke removal or hot/humid conditions. B: When passengers are complaining it is too cold. C: Above FL 350. D: Above FL 250 Q 48: Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioned air? A: Conditioned air and trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone. B: Recirculated air, conditioned air and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each zone. C: Hot trim air is added to the mixing unit before distribution to each zone. D: Recirculating fans draw cabin air to a mixing unit where conditioned air is added. Q 49: How many temperature selectors are there on the A320? How many temperature zones are there? A: Three rotary temperature selectors and one zone. B: Three rotary temperature selectors, one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone. C: Two rotary temperature selectors, one for the cockpit and first class zone and one for the aft cabin zone. D: Four rotary temperature selectors and four zones. Q 50: The temperature selectors are located in: A: The cockpit B: The cabin C: Both D: Only on the CIDS panel Q 51: During normal flight, the avionics ventilation system controls the temperature of the cooling air by: A: Adding air-conditioned air to the flow. B: Extracting air over board. C: Adding an avionics bay air. D: Passing air through a skin heat exchanger. Q 52: Placing the avionics ventilation system in the smoke configuration: A: Opens the #1 GLC. B: Opens the cargo under-floor valve. C: Opens the #2 GLC. D: De-energizes the blower fan, extract fan runs, and opens the air conditioning extract valves. Q 53: How can you change controllers during flight? A: Cycle the LDG ELEV AUTO knob out of the AUTO position then back to AUTO. B: Cycle the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL pushbutton to the MAN position then back to AUTO. C: Cycle the cabin pressurization MAN V/S CTL switch Q 54: Hot air “FAULT” light illuminates on the air conditioning panel. A: The hot air press reg. valve opens and the trim air valves close. B: The hot air press reg. valve closes and the trim air valves open. C: The hot air press reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close. Q 55: How many trim air valves are there? A: One trim air valve. B: Three: one each for the cockpit zone, the forward cabin zone, and the aft cabin zone. C: Two: one for the cockpit and first-class zone, and one for the cabin zone. D: Four: one each for the cockpit zone, the first-class zone, and two for the aft zone. Q 56: What position do the pack valves go to in the event of a loss of the bleed system pressure? A: They remain in their last position. B: Full open. C: Mid position. D: Closed. Q 57: The RAM AIR switch should be used: A: At any time. B: Only when differential pressure is less than 1 psi. C: When differential pressure is more than 1 psi. D: Only after outflow valve is fully opened. Q 58: What is the function of the Pack Flow selector? A: Allows the pilot to increase pack flow but will not allow a manual decrease in flow if needed by the aircraft demands. B: Always allows high flow regardless of switch position when the APU is used for air conditioning. C: Both are correct. Q 59: Which configuration is the avionics ventilation system in while airborne with no abnormals present? A: Open. B: Smoke. C: Fire. D: Closed. Q 60: What is the maximum altitude associated with the pressurization system? A: 39,100 feet B: 39,500 feet C: 41,000 feet D: 41,100 feet Q 61: Trim air valves are controlled by: A: The zone controller. B: Anti-ice valve. C: Hot air pressure regulating valve. D: The pack controller Q 62: Which statement is TRUE concerning the cargo compartment ventilation? A: Both cargo compartments are pressurized and heated using both cabin air and hot trim air. B: Recirculated air, conditioned air, and hot trim air are mixed then distributed to each cargo compartment. C: Only the aft cargo compartment is heated and ventilated. Cabin ambient air is mixed with hot trim air and drawn through isolation valves by extraction fans. Q 63: The APU BLEED FAULT indicates that the main APU controller is in fault. A: True. B: False. Q 64: Aft cargo ventilation is controlled by: A: The aft cargo rotary selector knob. B: The cargo ventilation controller. C: The zone controller and the SDCU. D: The cargo ventilation controller and the aft cargo rotary selector knob. * Rotary selector is for temperature only Q 65: The vent fan runs any time there is a normal ships power and the isolation valves are open. A: True. B: False. Q 66: The cabin zone temperature sensors are ventilated by the air extracted by the lavatory and galley fans. A: True. B: False. Q 67: Pressurization indications are found on which ECAM page(s)? A: BLEED page. B: Only on the CAB PRESS page. C: The in-flight ECAM cruise page and the CAB PRESS page. D: On the CAB PRESS & BLEED pages. Q 68: How many outflow valves are there? A: One valve with one door B: One valve with two doors. C: Two valves with only one door visible. D: Two valves (one main + one back-up) with only two doors visible. Q 69: At what cabin altitude do you get an ECAM warning? A: 8,800 feet. B: 9,000 feet C: 9,550 feet D: 14,000 feet. Q 70: When the pack flow control knob is positioned to HI, air flow is: A: 80% of normal rate. B: 100% of normal rate. C: 120% of normal rate. D: 150% of normal rate. Q 71: If you select a position other than the AUTO detent on the LDG ELEV AUTO selector, how can you see the actual landing elevation value? A: On the ECAM CRUISE B: On the PRESS page C: On the ECAM CRUISE or the PRESS page. Q 72: What will cause the ENG BLEED fault light to come on? A: Overpressure (downstream of bleed valve) B: Bleed overheat C: Wing or engine leak on associated side. D: All of the above Q 73: What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR FAULT light indicate? A: A duct overheat is detected. B: The Aft Cargo Pressure Regulating valve closes. C: The system will reset if the ISOL VALVE switch is ON. D: All of above. Q 74: During Ground function operation, the outflow valve is: A: Fully open. B: Fully closed. C: Positioned according to FMGS demands. Q 75: The outflow valve is powered by: A: One of two electric motors. B: One of three electric motors. C: Three mechanically linked electric motors. Q 76: The purpose of the safety valve is to avoid: A: Excessive positive pressure differential. B: Excessive negative differential. C: Both are correct. Q 77: When landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is sent to the controller from: A: FMGS. B: FCU. C: ADIRS. D: Captain baro ref. Q 78: The mixing unit is connected to: A: Packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector B: Packs, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector C: Packs and cabin air D: Pack 1 and pack 2 only. Q 79: Once set to “ON” the air conditioning packs operate: A: Automatically and independently of each other B: Normally, but the output of one affects the other C: Automatically, pack one as a master, pack two as a slave D: Automatically, pack two as a master, pack one as a slave. Q 80: Emergency ram air inlet. When set to “ON” the ram air valve will open and supply airflow: A: In any case B: Diff. press < 1 psi, and ditching not selected C: Provided ditching is not selected D: Provided ditching is selected. Q 81: Cond. Zone regulator fault (primary channel failed): A: Cabin zone is at fixed temperature B: Packs are at fixed temperature C: Secondary channel operates as back up and operation is as normal D: The packs deliver a fixed temperature. 20 deg C for pack one and 10 deg C for pack two Q 82: Temperature control is automatic and is regulated by: A: Zone controllers B: Pack 1 and 2 controllers C: Zone controllers, pack 1 and 2 controllers D: The pack flow control valves only. Q 83: If a pack controller fails (primary and secondary channel failure), the pack outlet air temperature is controlled by: A: Ram Air Valve B: Hot air pressure regulating valve C: Anti-ice valve D: Trim air valve. Q 84: The zone controller optimizes temperature by action on: A: Pack anti-ice valve B: Trim air valve C: Pack flow control valve D: Hot air pressure regulating valve Q 85: When using APU bleed to supply the packs, with the pack flow selector at LO, the pack airflow is: A: 80% of normal B: Normal C: 120% of normal D: 110% of normal Q 86: In case of trim air system fault (zone controller primary channel failure), the secondary channel of the zone controller regulated the zone temperature at: A: 14 deg.C B: 24 deg C C: 15 deg.C D: 10 deg.C Q 87: In case of total zone controller failure: A: Hot air and trim air valves open and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature (15 deg.C pack 1 and 10 deg.pack2) B: Hot air and trim air valves close and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature (15 deg.C pack 1 and 10 deg.pack2) C: Hot air and trim air valves close and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature (20 deg.C pack 1 and 10 deg.pack2) D: Hot air and trim air valves open and packs deliver air at a fixed temperature (20 deg.C pack 1 and 10 deg.pack2) Q 88: During landing run, Ram Air Inlet flaps open when speed is less than: A: 77 kts (after 30 seconds delay B: 70 kts (after 1 minute delay) C: 70 kts (after 20 seconds delay) D: 85 kts (after 20 seconds delay) * Match the 0s. Q 89: The ditching switch when selected sends a closure signal to: A: Outflow valve B: Ram air inlet and ventilation extract valves C: The pack flow control valves D: All of the above Q 90: In flight with pressure controller 1 in use, if it fails: A: You have to use the manual control B: Transfers automatically to controller 2 C: You have to select manually controller 2 D: You have to set the landing elevation. Q 91: In normal operation, pressurization is: A: Fully automatic B: Manually controlled C: Automatic, but landing elevation must be manually set D: Remaining automatic only with CPC 1 is in use. Q 92: During ground function operation, the outflow valve is: A: Fully open B: Fully closed C: Positioned accordingly to FMGS demands D: Operating in abort mode Q 93: To see the operation of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call ECAM: A: Cond page B: Bleed page C: Press page D: Vent page Q 94: Two identical, independent, automatic digital pressurization controllers are used for system control: A: One controller active, one in standby B: Both controllers monitored by FMGC C: No controller for climb phase and No.2 controller in cruise and descent D: No.1 controller for climb and No.2 for descent Q 95: Which controller generates excess cabin altitude and pressure signals for ECAM indication in manual mode: A: Both B: No.1 C: No2 D: Neither Q 96: The safety valves are operated: A: Electrically B: Hydraulically C: Pneumatically D: By the FMGC Q 97: The purpose of the safety valves is to avoid: A: Excessive positive differential pressure B: Excessive negative differential pressure C: All of the above Q 98: When mode selector is selected to manual, the outflow valve is controlled by signals sent via controller 1 or 2 A: True B: False Q 99: On ECAM Cab. press page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber if: A: It is fully closed B: It is fully open on the ground C: It is fully open in flight D: It is not fully open on the ground Q 100: On ECAM Cab. press page, the safety valve indication changes to amber if: A: Both safety valves are fully open B: Both safety valves do not open C: Both safety valves are fully closed D: One safety valve is open. Q 101: On ECAM Cab. press page, the cabin altitude indication changes to red when cabin altitude is: A: > 14,000 ft B: > 12,500 ft C: > 10,000 ft D: > 9,550 ft Q 102: Following a system 1 fault: A: Master caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the crew B: The crew manually operates the system C: System 2 must be selected by the crew D: System 2 takes over automatically without any crew action Q 103: The pressure safety valve opens at: A: 8.06 psi B: 8.6 psi C: 9.0 psi D: 7.0 psi Q 104: After the engine start, the Pack Flow Control Valves automatically open, however on the ground, reopening of the valves is delayed for _____ after the first engine start. A: 30 seconds B: 45 seconds C: 50 seconds D: 60 seconds Q 105: The Ram Air Inlet Flaps remain open during takeoff and landing to allow extra airflow during high power situations. A: True B: False Q 106: The temperature of the air that exits the compressor section is displayed above the Pack Flow. It normally displays green, but displays amber for temperatures over: A: 180 deg.C B: 200 deg.C C: 230 deg.C D: 250 deg.C Q 107: The trim air valves are _____ controlled by the zone controller A: Electrically B: Pneumatically C: Hydraulically D: None of the above Q 108: The avionics ventilation system is not capable of using external air to provide cooling airflow A: True B: False Temperature Control Recap Temperature regulation for A320 is controlled by one zone controller and two pack controllers. There are two channels in both type of controllers. Zone Controller In case of zone controller primary channel failure, the secondary channel regulates the zone temperature at 24C. In case of zone controller primary and secondary channel failure, temperature optimization and the backup mode are lost. In this case pack one maintains 20 deg C and pack two 10 deg C. Pack Controller In case of a pack controller primary channel failure, the secondary computer operates as a backup mode but regulation is not optimized. In case of a pack controller secondary channel failure, the backup mode is lost but there is no effect on pack regulation. In case of a pack controller primary and secondary channel failure, the pack outlet air temperature is controlled by anti-ice valve between 5 and 30 deg C. AUTOFLIGHT Q 01: The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements: A: Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands. B: Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands C: Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions D: AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation. Q 02: How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized? A: Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU. B: Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU. C: Both are correct. Q 03: What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND? A: The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard. B: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard. C: The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions. D: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard. Q 04: What information is supplied by the IR’s and displayed on the PFD? A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed. B: Heading, altitude, and vertical speed * C: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed. D: Heading, attitude, and altitude. * Some question banks have incorrectly marked B as correct. Q 05: How long does a normal IR alignment take? A: Approximately 3 minutes. B: Approximately 6 minutes. C: Approximately 10 minutes. D: Approximately 13 minutes. Q 06: The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean? A: Alignment has been completed. B: Air data output has been disconnected. C: The respective IR is operating normally. Q 07: An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that: A: Present position needs to be reentered. B: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode. C: A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred. Q 08: What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost: A: Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3. B: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3. C: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3. D: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1. Q 09: A/THR in white means that A/THR is: A: Disconnected. B: Armed. C: Active Q 10: The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean? A: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. B: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist. C: Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist. Q 11: What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date? A: Check Data Base Cycle. B: Check Data Base Date. C: Check Effective Date. D: Check the changeover date. Q 12: Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what? A: The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect. B: The respective ADIRU will become deenergized. C: Both AD and IR information will be disconnected. D: All of the above. Q 13: While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the Alpha Prot range: A: The flight controls revert to direct law. B: The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law. C: The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA. Q 14: What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA? A: 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off. B: 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop* * Normally FMGC1 is the source for the left side and FMGC2 for the right side. If both FMGCs are functional and FDs are on then 1FD2 should be displayed. If one FMGC fails then the other one becomes the source for both FDs e.g. If FMGC1 is inoperative then the display would be 2FD2 which means FMGC2 is the source for both FDs. If right FD is switched off then the display would be 2FD- as mentioned in the second scenario of the question. Q 15: What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean? A: FMGC 1 & 2 position difference exceeds limits. B: FMGC position & actual radio position difference exceeds limits. C: FMCG position & IR position difference exceeds limits. Q 16: The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust? A: Yes, by setting a higher speed target. B: Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent. C: No, because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust. Q 17: What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFD’s? A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed. B: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed. C: Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude. D: Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed. Q 18: Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland? A: Yes. B: No. Q 19: During the takeoff phase: A: SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference B: SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft. C: SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected. Q 20: If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF: A: AD and IR information will be disconnected. B: AD information will be disconnected. C: IR information will be disconnected. D: The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost. Q 21: Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law? A: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law. B: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law. C: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law. Q 22: Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL? A: Pitch attitude. B: VLS. C: ALPHA SPD (alpha speed) D: Alpha floor. Q 23: What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM? A: Speed brakes have a fault. B: Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0. C: Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle. D: All of the above. Q 24: If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach restrictions? A: No B: Yes, ILS approach only. C: Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden. Q 25: The DDRMI provides the pilot with: A: Bearing only for VOR 1. B: Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1. C: Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2. D: Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2. Q 26: The ON BAT light will illuminate amber: A: When one or more IR’s are operating on aircraft battery power. B: For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process. C: Both are correct. Q 27: If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer? A: FACs. B: SECs. C: Elevator and stabilizer revert to mechanical backup. D: Backup mode of ELAC’s Q 28: Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2? A: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. B: ADMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and UPPER ECAM. C: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM. D: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM. Q 29: While in flight operating in Normal law, movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command: A: A load factor proportional to stick deflection, then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch attitude. B: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and level flight. C: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its current attitude. Q 30: In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete list? A: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed. B: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and High speed. C: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, VLS, Alpha floor, and High speed. D: Protections, Load Factor and Pitch attitude. Q 31: When in alternate law, all protections except _______ protection will be lost. A: Roll attitude. B: Pitch attitude. C: Bank angle. D: Load factor. Q 32: When does the sideslip indicator change to a blue Beta target? A: Flaps configuration 1. B: Any EPR exceeds 1.25, and EPR’s differ by more than 0.30 * C: Heading differs from track by 20 deg or more D: Flaps configuration 1, 2. * For aircraft without EPR the corresponding values are: Any N1 > 80% and difference >35%. Q 33: High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities: A: Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft. B: Prohibit steep bank angles. C: Prohibit steep climb angles and bank angles. D: Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall the aircraft. Q 34: What is the function of the FACs? A: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations B: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs C: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and windshear protection D: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and windshear protection Q 35: What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line? A: The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped. B: DMC failure. C: No power. Q 36: Can the aircraft be controlled with a loss of all electrics? A: Yes. B: No. Q 37: The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that: A: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1. B: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI; ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2. Q 38: What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost? A: Nothing. B: Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3. C: Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3. Q 39: How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s) are installed? A: One B: Two C: Three D: Four Q 40: On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master? A: FMGC 1 B: FMGC 2 C: Both Q 41: After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units? A: Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable B: No action is needed as recovery is automatic. C: Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3. DOORS Q 01: How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked? A: The pin is engaged. B: The red ring below the release button should not be in view. C: The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was closed. D: The red ring below the release button should be in view. Q 02: Opening a passenger door from the outside disarms the door and the escape slide. A: True. B: False. Q 03: What does illumination of the red cabin pressure light represent on the main cabin door? A: This indicates that the evacuation slide is armed. B: This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door should not be opened. C: Both are correct Q 04: The cargo doors are powered by: A: The blue electric pump. B: The yellow hydraulic system before engine start and the green hydraulic system after engine start. C: The yellow hydraulic system. D: The blue hydraulic system before engine start and the green hydraulic system after engine start. Q 05: The forward and aft cargo doors can be opened from: A: The inside and the outside. B: The outside only Q 06: On the ECAM DOOR/OXY page, the SLIDE indication appears _____ when the slide is not disarmed. A: White. B: Amber. C: Green. D: Red. Q 07: Each passenger door has one CABIN PRESSURE warning light that: A: Warns of residual pressure in the cabin. B: Shows a possible unlocked door C: Both are correct. Q 08: Where does the Door and Slide Control System (DSCS) generate warnings? A: On ECAM. B: On the doors. C: Both are correct. Q 09: What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure? A: It operates normally on HOT BAT bus. B: It automatically unlocks. C: It automatically locks from outside but stays unlock from inside. Q 10: The cockpit windows can be opened both from inside and outside. A: True. B: False. Q 11: What does illumination of the white slide armed light represent on the main cabin door? A: This indicates that the slide has properly inflated and is safe for use. B: This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft. C: This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed. D: This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed but the slide is properly armed. Q 12: Can the flight compartment sliding windows be used as emergency exits? A: Yes, in the cockpit coat closet is a rope ladder that can be used in such an event. B: Yes, there are escape ropes mounted above each window behind an access panel. C: No. They are not approved emergency exits. D: No, they are too small. Q 13: When the electric pump is operating the FWD or AFT cargo doors, the only other yellow system devices that can operate are braking and engine 2 reverse. A: True. B: False. Q 14: When the slide arming lever, on the emergency opening system, is in the ARMED position, where is the slide connected? A: To the brackets on the underside of the fuselage. B: To the brackets above the door. C: To the floor brackets on both sides of the door. D: All of the above Q 15: When the Cargo door switch for the yellow hydraulic pump is in use, the flight controls are: A: Fully operational B: Inhibited C: Hydraulically locked by pressure from the electric pump D: Only operated by the green system. Q 16: When opened in an emergency, the passenger entry doors: A: Pneumatically assisted into the open position B: Will need two cabin crew to push them open C: Are assisted to the open position by slide inflation D: Are electrically assisted into the open position. Q 17: If door handle is lifted and the white indicator illuminates, what does this mean? A: The escape slide is armed and if you go on lifting the handle, door opens and slide will deploy. B: Pneumatic assistance of the door has failed C: The escape slide is in disarmed configuration D: The cabin is still pressurized INDICATING / RECORDING Q 01: What does a pulsing green engine parameter indicate? A: An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach the limit. B: An ADVISORY, the parameter is out of the limits C: A MEMO, the parameter has a faulty indication. D: A level 3 failure requiring immediate crew action. Q 02: On a bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean? A: It is a reminder to land as soon as possible. B: It indicates that there is a system page behind. C: It means that there is more information to be seen. Q 03: When should the EMER CANC push button be used? A: At the completion of an ECAM procedure for an abnormal procedure. B: Whenever a LEVEL 3 warning or LEVEL 2 caution occurs. C: Whenever a repetitive visual or aural warning, or caution is received that the crew has determined to be false. Q 04: The actual speed is indicated by the ______ reference line. A: yellow B: amber C: red D: white Q 05: If a PFD fails, does anything happen automatically? A: The ATT HDG switch must be used on the switching panel in order to recover PFD information. B: The image automatically transfers to the display formerly occupied by the ND. C: The image automatically transfers to the UPPER ECAM. D: It has to be manually activated. Q 06: Course information from the #1 ILS receiver will be displayed: A: On the captain’s PFD when the captain’s ILS push button is selected ON. B: On the FO’s PFD when his ILS push button is selected on and on the captain’s ND, when the captain’s ND is selected to ILS ROSE. C: On the captain’s PFD and ND when the captain’s ILS push button is selected ON. D: The first two statements are correct Q 07: Information from the #1 VOR receiver will be displayed: A: On the capt’s PFD when the captain’s VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR. B: On the capt ‘s ND when the capt ‘s VOR bearing selector is selected to VOR. C: VOR #1 course information is available on the captain’s PFD and ND when the captain’s ILS pb is selected ON. Q 08: What causes a display unit (DU) to go blank? A: Loss of power. B: Display unit internal failure. C: Both are correct. Q 09: What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line? A: DMC failure. B: No power. C: Both are correct. Q 10: The maximum speed to select next higher flap setting is indicated by two amber dashes. A: True. B: False. Q 11: VOR, ILS, and NDB raw data information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes? A: VOR, RMI and NDB information may be displayed in the ARC or ROSE NAV modes. B: VOR and ILS information can be displayed in the ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes respectively C: Both are correct Q 12: The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates: A: The VOR station currently tuned is out of range. B: The VOR station currently tuned is out of service. C: The # 1 VOR receiver is inoperative. D: The VOR station currently tuned is out of range. Q 13: What is the meaning of “9000” in blue at the top of the altitude scale? A: It marks the FCU selected altitude. B: It marks the airfield elevation. C: It marks the transition altitude. D: It marks the decision height. Q 14: How many DMC’s are there? A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4 Q 15: After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units? A: It is done automatically. B: Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable. C: Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3. Q 16: Where is information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC#2? A: DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#2, and upper ECAM. B: DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, PFD#2, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to ND#1, ND#2, and lower ECAM. C: DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#1, and upper ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#2, and lower ECAM. D: DMC#1 supplies data to PFD#1, ND#2, and lower ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data to PFD#2, ND#1, and upper ECAM. Q 17: If the lower ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information? A: By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM. B: By rotating ECAM/ND XFR switch on switching panel, lower ECAM page will be transferred to either Capt or FO’s ND. C: Both are correct. Q 18: If the UPPER ECAM DU fails, what will be displayed on the lower unit? A: System display page. B: Engines and Warning page (E/WD) C: Status page. Q 19: Weather radar can be displayed in what modes on the ND? A: ARC and ROSE NAV modes only. B: ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes. C: ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes. D: All modes except plan. Q 20: RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes? A: ARC and ROSE NAV modes only. B: ROSE VOR and ROSE ILS modes. C: ARC, ROSE and PLAN modes. D: ROSE VOR mode. Q 21: Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is the correct procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal presentation? A: Press the respective system push button again. B: It goes away by itself C: Press CLR on the ECAM control panel. D: Press twice CLR on the ECAM control panel. Q 22: After the engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message. What does it mean? A: It is an indication that at least one system requires crew attention. B: It is an indication that the aircraft has not been shut down correctly. C: It is a reminder that the status page holds a maintenance message. Q 23: The upper ECAM Display Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the DOOR/OXY page. How can you see it? A: You have to press and hold the DOOR key on the ECP B: You have to switch the EIS DMC to CAPT3 C: You have to press and hold the RCL key on the ECP. Q 24: Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications? A: Yes, the E/WD is automatically transferred to one of the NDs. B: No. The E/WD is lost until the aircraft can be repaired. C: Yes, to get E/WD information. It must be manually transferred to one of the NDs. D: Yes. E/WD information is automatically transferred to the the F/O’s PFD in the event of an ECAM warning. Q 25: How are the FMAs displayed on the PFD? A: There are 5 columns and 3 rows. B: There are 3 columns and 5 rows. C: There are 3 columns and 2 rows. D: There are 4 columns and 2 rows. Q 26: In case of a double FWC failure master caution light, master warning light, aural warnings and ECAM cautions and warnings are lost. A: True. B: False. Q 27: How did the PNF cancel the caution for the NAV ILS 1 FAULT before calling the STATUS page on the ECP? A: By pressing the EMER CANC pushbutton. B: By pressing the CLR key C: By pressing the STS key D: By pressing the ALL key. Q 28: How can the ILS 1 FAULT be restored from being a CANCELLED CAUTION? A: By resetting the appropriate circuit breaker. B: By pressing and holding any CLR key for more than 3 seconds. C: By pressing the EMER CAN pushbuttton for more than 3 seconds. D: By pressing and holding the RCL key for more than 3 seconds. Q 29: VLS is the lowest speed that the autoflight system (autopilot or A/THR) will fly the aircraft. This is a dynamic speed corresponding to an Angle Of Attack (AOA). A: VLS will change with wing configuration change. B: With speedbrake extension, VLS will increase C: Above FL200, VLS will provide a 0.2g buffet margin D: All of the above. Q 30: The Speed Trend Arrow is a dynamic information displaying the speed to which the aircraft will be in _____. A: 5 seconds. B: 8 seconds C: 10 seconds D: 13 seconds. Q 31: Of the three types of EIS displays, which one has the lowest priority? A: The ND B: The PFD C: The SED* * There is no SED display. If they mean SD then this should have the least priority. Q 32: As you approach a selected altitude, when will the yellow altitude window start flashing? A: As you approach within 750 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 250 ft. B: As you approach within 1000 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 150 ft. C: As you approach within 500 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 150 ft. D: As you approach within 900 ft of FCU selected altitude and stop when it is within 200 ft. Q 33: The Flight Path vector (FPV) represents the lateral and vertical trajectory of the aircraft with respect to the ground. On the lateral scale, it indicates the aircraft’s track. On the vertical scale, it indicates the aircraft’s flight path angle A: True. B: False. Q 34: When does the Side Stick Order indicator display? A: After first engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA B: After first engine start and disappears after rotation C: After second engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA D: After second engine start and disappears when passing 400 feet RA Q 35: When is the ‘Green Dot’ displayed? A: Only when flap handle is the zero position. B: Only when flap handle is the zero position, above FL80 C: Only when flap handle is the zero position, below FL80 D: Only when flap handle is the zero position, below FL85 Q 36: The green ‘S’ of the speedtape is the Minimum Slat Retraction Speed. It is only displayed when the flap handle position is in position 1 A: True. B: False. Q 37: Is the Side Slip indicator always yellow? A: Yes. B: No, it turns blue when it becomes a beta target (displaying optimum side slip for a given configuration) C: No, it turns orange when it becomes a beta target. Q 38: When will the Flight Director bars flash? A: When a reversion occurs. B: When loss of LOC or G/S signal in LAND mode. C: All of the above. Q 39: The Flight Director bars are out of view when Bank angle exceeds 67°. A: True B: False. * Out of view when bank angle exceeds 45° (and will return when bank is < 40°) Q 40: The Glide slope index will flash continuously when the deviation exceeds ______ above ______, A: 1/2 dot below 120 feet RA B: 1 dot above 100 feet RA C: 1 dot above 60 ft RA D: 1/2 dot below 100 feet RA. * Match 1 and 1 Q 41: When will the PFD Heading tape revert to TRUE heading? A: North of 73° North or South of 60° South B: South of 73° North or North of 60° South. C: North of 80° North or South of 73°South D: North of 78° North or South of 78°South Q 42: If the FPV (Flight Path Vector) symbol is right of center, where is the wind coming from? A: Right. B: Left. C: It depends of the Track followed Q 43: If the FPV is above the horizon line, what is the aircraft actually doing? A: Descending. B: Maintaining FL. C: Climbing. D: Cannot say. Q 44: Both LOC and glideslope will flash if, after capture, the signal is lost. A: True. B: False. Q 45: The lower end of a red and black strip along the speed scale defines the VMAX speed. A: It is the lowest of the following VMO (or MMO), VLE, VFE B: It is the speed corresponding to the stall warning (VSW) C: It represents the speed corresponding to the angle of attack at which alpha protection becomes active. Q 46: The SD displays the Gross Weight (GW) in green as soon as the second engine is started. A: True. B: False. * As soon as the first engine is started. Q 47: In case of PFDU failure, the PFD image is transferred to the NDU: A: Manually B: Automatically C: Either manually or automatically D: The PFD image cannot be displayed on the ND. Q 48: What is the basic role of the DMCs: A: They compute and elaborate displays B: Generation of audio warnings C: Generation of amber warnings D: Generation of synthetic voice messages Q 49: Do the Check ATT. Messages appear on both PFDs at the same time? A: Yes B: No C: Message only appears on the EWD D: Message only appears on ECAM Q 50: FACs calculate speed trend and VLS. The extremities of the trend vector and V1s segment indicate respectively; speed value at the next 10 seconds and 1.23 Vs 1 g with present configuration. Is this correct? A: Yes (for both cases) B: No (for both cases) C: No because VLS is not 1.23 Vs 1g D: No because the tip of the speed arrow is not the speed in 10 seconds time Q 51: With radar selected on, what can you read on ND about antenna setting? A: Tilt angle B: Tilt angle and gain mode C: Roll angle and tilt angle D: Nothing ELECTRICAL Q 01: The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _____ KVA. A: 50 B: 70 C: 90 D: 110 Q 02: The number 1 AC bus channel normally supplies power to _____ and to the _____ bus which supplies power to the ______ bus. A: TR2 / AC ESS SHED / DC ESS SHED B: TR1 / AC ESS SHED / DC ESS C: TR1 / AC ESS / AC ESS SHED D: TR1 / AC ESS / DC ESS SHED Q 03: The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC busses is: A: External power, engine generators then APU B: External power, APU, then engine generators C: APU, external power then engine generators D: Engine generators, external power then APU Q 04: The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by: A: DC BUS 2 B: DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 C: DC bus 1 through a DC tie control relay. D: DC bus 2 through a DC tie control relay. Q 05: The A-320 has _______ batteries in its main electrical system. A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 3 (4 when ETOPS capable) Q 06: When no other power is available in flight, the static inverter converts _____ power to AC power for the ______ bus; and ______ powers the _______ bus. A: BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / BAT2 / DC ESS B: BAT1 DC / AC ESS SHED / BAT2 / DC ESS SHED C: BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / BAT2 / DC ESS SHED D: BAT1 DC / AC ESS bus / DC ESS Q 07: An AC ESS FEED switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC ESS bus from: A: AC bus1 to AC bus 2 B: AC bus 1 to AC Grnd/Flt bus C: AC bus 2 to AC bus 1 Q 08: Which of the following AC busses can be powered by the emergency generator? A: AC bus 1 B: AC bus 2 C: AC ESS bus / AC ESS SHED bus Q 09: The RAT is connected directly (mechanically) to the Emergency Generator A: True B: False Q 10: After landing, in the emergency electrical configuration: the batteries automatically connect to the DC BAT bus when speed decreases below _______ knots. A: 50 B: 70 C: 90 D: 100 Q 11: The BAT FAULT light will illuminate when: A: Battery voltage is low B: Charging current increases at an abnormal rate C: Charging current decreases at an abnormal rate. Q 12: Do not depress the IDG DISCONNECT switch for more than _______ to prevent damage to the disconnect mechanism. A: 3 seconds B: 7 seconds C: 10 seconds D: 15 seconds Q 13: The IDG Fault light indicates: A: An IDG oil overheat B: IDG low oil pressure. C: IDG low oil pressure or IDG oil overheat D: IDG has been disconnected Q 14: If normal electrical power is lost; essential cockpit lighting is maintained for the: A: Captain’s instrument panel. B: Standby compass C: Right dome light (provided the dome selector is not off). D: All of the above. Q 15: You enter a dark cockpit, what action is necessary before checking the battery voltages? A: You have to check that the external power is on. B: You have to ensure that at least one battery is on. C: You have to ensure that both batteries are on. D: You have to verify that both batteries are off. Q 16: Having started the APU, how can you get the APU generator to power the electrical system? A: The APU generator must be switch on. B: By pushing the EXT PWR pushbutton thus disconnecting the external power. C: By pushing the BUS TIE pushbutton. D: You are unable to as the APU power output is outside normal parameters. Q 17: Are there any limitations associated with disconnecting an IDG? A: Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 30 seconds. B: There is no limitation C: Never disconnect an IDG in flight, or push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 5 seconds. D: Never disconnect an IDG unless the engine is running, nor push the IDG disconnect push button for more than 3 seconds. Q 18: Which voltage requires recharging or replacing the batteries? A: 20 volts or less. B: 24 volts or less. C: 25 volts or less. D: 26 volts or less. Q 19: The APU is supplying the electrical system. What is the order of priority for the different generators? A: Engines, external power, APU. B: APU, engines, external power. C: External power, engines, APU. D: APU, external power, engines. Q 20: What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers? A: Green collared circuit breakers are pulled when flying on battery power only. B: Green collared circuit breakers are monitored by the ECAM. C: Green collared circuit breakers are not to be reset. D: Green collared circuit breakers are AC powered. Q 21: If batteries are the only source of power in flight, how long will battery power be available? A: Between 22 and 30 minutes depending on equipment in use. B: Until the APU is started. C: Two hours and 30 minutes dependent on equipment in use. D: 45 minutes dependent on equipment in use. Q 22: What is the minimum voltage when conducting a BATTERY CHECK? A: 28 volts. B: Less than 60 amps in 10 seconds. C: Greater than 24 volts. D: Greater than 25 volts. Q 23: A battery fault light will illuminate when: A: The batteries have auto disconnected due to low voltage. B: Battery voltage drops below a predetermined level. C: Battery charging current increases at an abnormal rate. Q 24: Which flight control computer will be inoperative with gear extension while in the Emergency Electrical Configuration? A: FAC 1 and ELAC 1. B: SEC 1 C: SEC 1 and ELAC 1 D: FAC 1 Q 25: If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you charge them? A: You have to call a mechanic because the batteries can only be charged by maintenance. B: I have to check that the BAT pushbuttons are on and switch the external power on. C: I have to switch the external power to ON and switch the batteries off. D: I have to start the APU as the batteries can only be charged by the APU generator. Q 26: What is the function of APU GEN push button located on the overhead electrical panel? A: Push this button to automatically start the APU. B: When selected to OFF the APU generator field is de-energized. C: Both are correct. Q 27: Is it possible to parallel generators? A: Of course yes. B: Only with the RAT deployed. C: The electrical system will not allow “paralleling” of generators. D: Only one engine generator may be paralleled with the APU. Q 28: While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following control laws is in effect? A: Backup. B: Direct. C: Alternate. D: Backup or alternate Q 29: What cockpit lighting is available during an emergency electrical situation? A: Emergency path lighting only. B: Right side Dome light, main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the standby compass light. C: Located on normal circuit breaker panels. D: Right side dome light, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light. Q 30: What is the function of the GEN 1 LINE push button? A: When selected OFF the avionics compartment isolation valves close. B: When selected OFF the #1 generator powers all AC busses. C: When selected OFF generator # 1 is removed from all busses but continues to power one fuel pump in each wing. Q 31: During a routine flight, which of the following would result after the loss of Gen #2 and the subsequent start of the APU? A: The APU would now power both sides of the electrical system. B: All systems return to normal and the RAT must be restowed. C: Eng gen #1 continues to power AC bus #1 and downstream systems. The APU powers AC bus #2 and downstream systems. Q 32: When does the RAT automatically deploy? A: With the loss of two hydraulic systems. B: Electrical power to both AC BUS #1 & #2 is lost and the aircraft speed is above 100 knots. C: Both are correct. Q 33: During the five seconds it takes for the RAT to extend: A: The BATTERIES power both BATT HOT busses, ESS DC SHED, and ESS AC SHED through the STATIC INVERTER. B: The BATTERIES power both BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, and ESS AC through the STATIC INVERTER. C: The STATIC INVERTER powers both BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, and ESS AC through the ESS AC SHED busses. D: The BATTERIES power both BATT HOT busses. Q 34: The purpose of the AUTO BUS TIE is to allow either engine-driven IDG to automatically power both main AC buses in the event of a generator loss until either ground power or the APU generator is activated. A: True. B: False. Q 35: When will the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light illuminate? A: When the EMER GEN is not supplying electrical power, AC busses #1 & #2 are unpowered and the nose gear is up. B: When the RAT is deployed using hydraulic RAT MAN ON push button. C: Both are correct. Q 36: What is the significance of the circuit breakers on the overhead panel? A: They are not monitored by ECAM. B: Cannot be reset. C: They may be operational in the Emergency Electrical Configuration. D: They are mainly AC powered. Q 37: If both engine generators are powering the system, and one subsequently fails, are any busses unpowered? A: Only the AC ESS shed bus. B: No, but some loads are shed in both main galleys. C: Yes, those associated with the failed generator. Q 38: How many times can you reset a circuit breaker? A: Once. B: Once, if authorized by the procedures. C: Twice. D: Twice, if authorized by the procedures. Q 39: On the cockpit overhead panel, there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT Light switch. What lights are associated with this switch? A: Exit signs, emergency lights, and escape path lighting. B: Exit signs, emergency lights, main panel flood lights, and escape path lighting. C: Exit signs, emergency lights, dome lights, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light. Q 40: Which flight control computers are operational in the Emergency Electrical Power configuration (gear down and batteries powering the system)? A: All are operational. B: ELAC 1, SEC 1, and FAC 1. C: ELAC 1 and 2, SEC 1 and 2, FAC 1. D: ELAC 1 and SEC 1. Q 41: The emergency generator supplies power as long as: A: The landing gear is down. B: The RAT is deployed C: The RAT is deployed and the landing gear is down D: The landing gear is up* * This question and some others that relate landing gears with electrical emergency configuration and emergency generator are for older models in which RAT (probably located behind gears) stalls with gears down. This is not the case with later models. Q 42: Which radios are inoperative with gear extension while in the emergency electrical configuration? A: DME 1 and transponder 1 * B: DME 1, DDRMI, and transponder 1. C: DME, and transponder 1. D: ILS 2, DME, and ADF. * This question and some others that relate landing gears with electrical emergency configuration and emergency generator are for older models in which RAT (probably located behind gears) stalls with gears down. This is not the case with later models. Q 43: While operating on Emergency Electrical Power with the landing gear lowered which of the following statements is correct? A: If the APU is not operating it should be started at this time. B: The APU will not start until the aircraft has come to a complete stop and all power has been removed for 15 seconds. C: On the ground at 100 knots, the DC BATTERY BUS automatically reconnects to the batteries allowing APU start. D: At 70 knots ESS AC is disconnected from the batteries. Q 44: If during a normal flight the BUS TIE push button is depressed to “OFF”, what effect would this have on power to the busses? A: None. B: All power would be lost and the aircraft would be powered by the batteries until the RAT was up to speed. C: The power transfer would switch to the opposite bus. D: This is not possible as the bus tie contactors are locked out during flight. Q 45: While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system, FAC #1 reset) which of the following control laws are in effect? A: Manual B: Alternate. C: Backup D: Manual and backup Q 46: Can you reconnect an IDG in flight? A: Yes, but only after contacting maintenance control. B: Yes, push and hold the IDG pb until the GEN fault light is no longer illuminated. C: No, it is not possible. Q 47: Which communication and navigation radios are operational in the Emergency Electrical Configuration with the EMER GEN powering the system? A: ACP 1 and 2, VHF 1, HF, RMP 1, VOR 1, and ILS 1. B: VHF 1, RMP 1, VOR 1. C: RMP #1 & #2, VHF #1, HF (if equipped), ACP #1, VOR #1 and ILS #1. D: All radios are lost. Q 48: What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light? A: External power is plugged in and parameters are normal. You must push the external power to connect it B: External power is available to the batteries only. C: The external power panel door has been opened D: External power is supplying the aircraft systems Q 50: What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean? A: External power is plugged in and parameters are normal B: External power is supplying the aircraft’s electrical system. C: There is a fault with the external power. Q 51: If EXTERNAL power is available and within limits: A: It will automatically close the bus tie contactors when connected by the ground crew. B: The green AVAIL light will illuminate on the EXT PWR push button. C: The BUS TIE push button illuminates. Q 52: Is it possible to determine the source of power for aircraft busses A: It is indicated on the electrical schematic overhead. B: No it is not possible. C: Yes, press the ECAM ELEC push button and view the electrical schematic on the ECAM D: Only when operating in the Emergency Electrical Configuration. Q 53: Both batteries are charged by the external power unit. Approximately how long does the charging process take? A: 10 minutes. B: 20 minutes. C: 30 minutes. D: Between 30 and 45 minutes. Q 54: The GALLEY FAULT light illuminates when any generator is exceeding 80% of its rated output. A: True. B: False. Q 55: While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) what should the crew accomplish prior to lowering the landing gear? A: Check to see that the FMGC has auto tuned the appropriate NAV facility for the approach to be accomplished. B: Depress the guarded RMP NAV push button and tune the appropriate NAV facility and course for the approach to be accomplished * C: Both are correct. * B marked correct in question banks. No clue about this one as it relates to older models that associate landing gears with electrical emergency configuration and emergency generator in which RAT (probably located behind gears) stalls with gears down. Q 56: What would cause the GALLEY fault light to illuminate? A: The flight attendants have all the coffee makers and ovens on at once. B: The Main Galley has shed. C: The load on any generator is above 100% of its rated output. D: The Aft Galley has shed. Q 57: While operating on Emergency Electrical Power (EMER GEN powering the system) how is it possible to properly complete the ECAM checklist with only an upper display? A: Depress and hold the specific ECAM page push button on the ECAM control panel. B: Transfer occurs automatically. C: This is not possible. Use the cockpit operating manual. Q 58: After IDG disconnection why do you get a GALLEY SHED indication on the SD? A: It is a reminder to push the GALLEY pushbutton to manually shed the main galley. B: It is a reminder to get the flight attendants to switch off galley equipment to decrease the load on the remaining generator. C: It is a reminder that the main galley has been shed automatically following the loss of one generator. Q 59: Which busses will be powered after the RAT is extended and the EMER GEN begins producing power? A: BATT HOT busses, ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED. B: The STATIC INVERTER would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the ESS AC SHED busses. C: The BATTERIES would power both HOT BATT busses, ESS DC and ESS AC through the STATIC INVERTER. D: ESS DC, ESS DC SHED, ESS AC and ESS AC SHED. Q 60: Engine #1 has just been started and the APU is inoperative. The EXT PWR push button blue ON light is illuminated. Which of the statements below is correct? A: External power is supplying all electrical needs. B: Engine Gen #1 is supplying AC bus #1 and the downstream systems, and AC bus #2 through the bus tie contactors. C: Gen #1 supplies AC bus #1 and (generally) the downstream systems; Ext power supplies AC bus #2. Q 61: In cruise, you have suddenly a Master Warning and caution comes on with ELEC EMER CONFIG and APP OFF. You notice a red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton. What do you think of this indication? A: The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system. B: The RAT has failed. You will have to turn the batteries to OFF. C: The FAULT light is always on when are in ELEC EMER CONFIG. D: The RAT has failed, you have to try to reconnect both IDG’s. Q 62: When are the Essential Shed buses powered by the battery? A: Never. The purpose of the shed buses is to reduce the load on the batteries. B: In case of double generator failure. C: After every IDG connection Q 63: The AC Essential bus is powered by the battery at speed above 50 kt. A: True. B: False. Q 64: In normal electrical configuration, how is DC ESS bus supplied: A: From TR 1 via DC Bus 1 and DC Bat Bus B: From ESS TR C: From TR 2 D: From Bat 2 Q 65: What happens in case of total loss of main generators? A: The RAT is automatically extended and powers the yellow system which drives the emergency generator B: The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the emergency generator C: The RAT has to be manually extended D: The RAT is extended and mechanically connected to the emergency generator. Q 66: DC Bat Bus can be supplied by: A: DC Bus 1 or batteries B: DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2 or batteries C: DC Bus 2 or batteries D: DC Bus 1 only Q 67: Normal minimum battery voltage before APU start is: A: No minimum B: 27.5 Volts C: 25.5 Volts D: 22.5 Volts Q 68: When disconnecting the IDG the button should be pressed: A: For no more than 5 seconds B: Until the fault light goes out C: For longer than 3 seconds D: For no more than 3 seconds Q 69: Where can the battery voltage be checked? A: On the ECAM elec. Page only B: On the elec. overhead panel and ECAM E/WD C: On the elec. overhead panel only D: On the elec. overhead panel and ECAM elec. Page Q 70: In flight on batteries only, the AC ESS Shed bus and DC ESS Shed bus are lost. A: Yes B: No C: Only A/C ESS Shed Bus is lost D: Only D/C ESS Shed Bus is lost Q 71: The static inverter works: A: Always B: When aircraft speed is > 50 kt and on batteries only * C: When one main generator fails D: Only when generator 2 fails Q 72: If a TR fails: A: The other TR automatically replaces the faulty one and the ESS TR supplies the DC Ess Bus B: The static inverter replaces the faulty TR C: The DC Bus on the faulty side is lost D: The Emergency generator supplies DC power on the faulty side. Q 73: In flight in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator not running, the DC ESS Bus is supplied by: A: Hot bus 2 B: ESS TR C: Hot Bus and ESS TR D: Hot Bus 1 Q 74: If AC Bus 1 fails the AC ESS bus is supplied by: A: Emer Gen. B: The RAT C: Static Inverter D: AC Bus 2 PNEUMATICS Q 01: Engine bleed air temperature is controlled by: A: Engine oil. B: A pre-cooler that uses fan air. C: Conditioned air from the mixing unit. Q 02: If BMC1 fails BMC2 takes over all monitoring functions except: A: Engine 1 and APU leak detection. B: Overheat detection. C: Automatic cross-bleed valve control. Q 03: Bleed air normally comes from the _______ of the engine. A: High pressure stage. B: Intermediate stage. C: Low pressure stage. Q 04: In flight if the air pressure is insufficient even with the HP valve open: A: The engine spools up automatically. B: Engine power has to be increased by the pilot. C: Push the High Pressure P/B on the ovhd panel. Q 05: The pressure regulating and shutoff valve will close if _______ pressure is _______ or _______ airflow occurs A: Downstream / low / reverse B: Downstream / High / reverse C: Upstream / low / reverse Q 06: The crossbleed valve has two electric motors; one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode: A: True B: False Q 07: The overheat detection system uses a single loop for: A: The pylons and APU. B: The wings and pylons. C: The wings and fuselage. Q 08: The APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates amber for an APU: A: Overheat. B: Malfunction. C: Bleed leak. Q 09: The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if: A: An engine bleed valve is open. B: The APU bleed valve is open. C: When engine start is selected. Q 10: Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to which area? A: The pneumatic duct; upstream of the packs. B: The avionics compartment. C: The Mixing unit. Q 11: Temperature regulation for the A320 is controlled by: A: One zone controller and two pack controllers. B: Two pack controllers and the BMC’s. C: The BMC’s Q 12: Should both channels fail in a zone controller: A: Temperature optimization is still available for that zone from another controller. B: Temperature optimization and the backup mode are lost. C: The pack is not affected. Q 13: The lavatory/galley extract fan operates: A: Only on the ground. B: Only in flight. C: Continuously when electrical power is available. Q 14: If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails; pack flow will go to what rate? A: Low. B: Medium. C: High. Q 15: What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON? A: The outflow valve opens immediately. B: The outflow valve opens if cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi. C: Normal outflow valve control is maintained. Q 16: When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches are in OVRD; air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air. A: True. B: False Q 17: How many motors are available for the outflow valve? A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 Q 18: Transfer between the two cabin pressure controllers is: A: Accomplished with a switch overhead. B: Automatic after landing or in case the operating controller fails. C: Automatically at each takeoff. Q 19: The maximum cabin descent rate is limited in automatic to: A: 300 ft/min. B: 750 ft/min. C: 1000 ft/min. Q 20: The third motor (manual) in the pressurization system is activated: A: Automatically if both automatic motors fail. B: In sequence after each landing. C: When the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL switch is positioned to MAN. Q 21: When the cabin vertical speed exceeds _______ fpm; the vertical speed display on ECAM _______. A: 800 / flashes green B: 2800 / flashes green C: 1800 / flashes green Q 22: The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for: A: Air Conditioning, water pressurization and engine starting B: Wing anti-icing. C: Hydraulic reservoir pressurization. D: All of the above. Q 23: High pressure air has ______ sources. A: 2 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5 * Engine bleed systems, APU load compressor and HP ground connection. Q 24: With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illuminate when: A: The valve position differs from that of the push button. B: The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT. C: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN. D: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN or to SHUT. Q 25: Air bleed from the engines is: A: Not cooled prior to being used by the systems. B: Cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from Fan section. C: Cooled using ambient air. D: Only cooled in air conditioning part. Q 26: If a Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails: A: All systems associated with the failed BMC also fail. B: The associated bleed valves close. C: The remaining BMC will automatically assume most of the failed BMC’s functions. Q 27: A leak detection system detects any overheating in the vicinity of hot air ducts. A: True. B: False. Q 28: When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak: A: Only the engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost. B: The wing and engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost. C: The wing anti-ice on the associated side will be lost, and the engine anti-ice on the associated side will continue to function. Q 29: Each bleed valve is electrically operated and controlled pneumatically by its associated BMC. A: True. B: False. Q 30: If a BMC detects a bleed leak: A: The crew must isolate the affected leak. B: All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically close. C: All pneumatic valves close automatically. Q 31: If one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed system to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary: A: Overpressure B: Overtemperature C: Wing leak D: All of the above. Q 32: Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by: A: Detection loops associated with BMC #1. B: Detection loops associated with BMC #2. C: The APU BMC. D: All of the above. Q 33: With the loss of pneumatic system pressure, the engine bleed valve will: A: Remain in its current position. B: Assume the mid position. C: Assume the open position. D: Assume the closed position. Q 34: Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by: A: One bleed monitoring computer. B: Two bleed valve computers. C: Two bleed monitoring computers. Q 35: ECAM BLEED page: when is the GND symbol displayed? A: Whenever the aircraft is on the ground. B: All the time. C: Only when a ground air supply is connected. Q 36: In automatic mode, the crossbleed valve opens when the system is using APU bleed air. A: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except during engine start). B: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except in flight). C: It closes automatically if the system detects an air leak. Q 37: What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the corresponding engine bleed valve? A: HP valve closes. B: HP valve opens, if stage closed. C: HP valve opens, IP stage remains in the same configuration. Q 38: When additional pneumatic air is required for anti-ice, engine starting, or air conditioning: A: Additional pneumatic air will be requested by the BMC to the FADECs or the APU. B: The crew must observe minimum N1 limits. C: Both are correct. Q 39: When selected, APU bleed air: A: Will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb’s are selected OFF. B: Has priority over engine bleed air. C: Will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN. D: Does not have priority over engine bleed air. Q 40: With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X BLEED selector to AUTO, the APU will: A: Only supply bleed air to the left side. B: Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed valve automatically opens. C: Will supply bleed air only to the left side unless the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN. D: Only supply bleed air to the right side. Q 41: Which source controls the crossbleed valve? A: Pneumatic. B: Electric. Q 42: The crew may directly control the following bleed valves: A: Engine, engine high pressure, APU. B: Engine, intermediate pressure, APU. C: Engine, APU, crossbleed. D: Crossbleed. Q 43: APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system if the APU speed is above _____: A: 80% B: 85% C: 92% D: 95% Q 44: A check valve near the crossbleed duct protects the APU when bleed air comes from another source: A: True. B: False. Q 45: Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and limits the temperature at: A: 150°C B: 85°C C: 60°C D: 200°C FUEL Q 01: Refueling is possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power. A: True B: False Q 02: With the center tank pump mode SEL switch in AUTO; the center tank pumps: A: Run for two minutes after both engines are running. B: Will not restart untill slats are retracted in flight. C: Continue to run until five minutes after the center tank is empty. D: All the above. Q 03: Fuel transfer from the outer compartment to the inner compartment of the wing tanks occurs when the inner compartment quantity decreases to: A: 250 kilograms B: 450 kilograms C: 750 kilograms D: 5000 kilograms Q 04: What indication will you see on the overhead fuel panel if the center tank has more than 250 kilograms of fuel and the left or right wing tank have less than 5,000 kilograms. A: Auto feed fault. B: Fuel imbalance. C: Mode select fault. D: Fuel - Auto feed fault. Q 05: The Fuel Used indication on ECAM is reset: A: Manually by the pilot. B: Automatically at engine start on the ground. C: Automatically at electric power up of the aircraft. Q 06: The fuel quantity indication on ECAM for the outer cell is boxed amber if: A: One transfer valve fails to open. B: Outer cell fuel temperature is high. C: Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level. Q 07: An amber line appears across the last two digits of the ECAM FOB indication when: A: Fuel quantity is unreliable. B: The center tank pumps are switched off. C: The center tank pumps have failed. Q 08: The fuel crossfeed valve is controlled by 2 motors. A: True B: False Q 09: Which of the following would cause the fault light to illuminate on the MODE SEL push button? A: Fuel is being burned out of sequence. B: Crossfeed push button is ON. C: Center tank pumps do not stop after slat extension. D: Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached. Q 10: The message CTR TK FEEDG appears in the MEMO. What does this mean? A: The center tank fuel mode selector is OFF. B: The center tank pumps are OFF. C: At least one center tank pump is energized. D: A reminder to switch the center tank pumps OFF. Q 11: From which tanks will fuel gravity feed? A: Outer cell of the wing tanks, inner cell of the wing tanks, and/or center tank. B: Inner cell of the wing tanks, and center tank. C: Outer cell of the wing tanks, and inner cell of the wing tanks. D: The center tank only. Q 12: Center tank pumps do not stop 5 min after center tank low level reached. A: Yes, only on the refueling panel. B: It is not possible to determine their position C: Only on the ECAM Fuel page. Q 13: During normal operations when should the fuel transfer valves open? A: When a low level is sensed in the center tank. B: When a low level is sensed in either outer wing cell. C: When low level is sensed in either inner wing cell. Q 14: What does an amber line across the last two digits of the fuel quantity mean? A: The fuel quantity indication is inaccurate. B: The fuel quality is not good and should be checked. C: A disagreement between fuel measured and fuel entered on the MCDU has been detected. D: Not all the fuel aboard is useable. Q 15: The APU fuel system: A: Uses its own dedicated DC powered fuel pump. B: Obtains fuel from either center tank pump. C: Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the left side fuel pumps or if needed, the APU fuel pump. D: Obtains fuel from the left fuel manifold via the right side fuel pumps. Q 16: With fuel in the center tank, the CTR TK MODE SEL push button selected to AUTO and the CTR TK PUMP push buttons ON (lights out), the center tank pumps: A: Will operate for a short period after the first engine MASTER switch is selected ON and while slats are retracted. B: They will continue to run until the center tank is empty or slats are extended. C: Both are correct. Q 17: The AC powered auxiliary fuel boost pump for the APU operates whenever the APU is operating and no other pump is on. it has an alternate power source on the AC Static Inverter bus for battery-only starts. A: True. B: False. Q 18: After engine start, center tank fuel pumps run for ______ minutes regardless of slat position. A: 1 minute. B: 2 minutes. C: 3 minutes. D: 5 minutes. Q 19: The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does this mean? A: It is a reminder to show that a transfer valve is open. B: Fuel is transferring from the center tank to the inner tank. C: It is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve. D: Fuel is transferring from the inner tank to the outer tank. Q 20: The wing fuel transfer valves are: A: Manually controlled and open when the MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN. B: Are electrically held closed. C: Open automatically at the start of refueling. D: Automatically close if a low level is sensed in either main wing tank, they automatically close at the next fueling. Q 21: Why do the center tank pumps stop automatically when then slats are extended for takeoff? A: To keep the center of gravity as low as possible. B: Dumping takeoff, the center tank fuel is pumped to the rear to trim aircraft C: To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff (feeding segregation) D: During takeoff, the center tank fuel is gravity fed only. Q 22: What precaution should you observe when gravity feeding fuel? A: Operate the aircraft below 15,000 feet. B: Use center tank first. C: Open the crossfeed when above FL250 D: No precautions are necessary. Q 23: Refueling time at normal pump pressure is _____ minutes for the wing tanks and _____ minutes for all tanks. A: 15 & 25. B: 17 & 20. C: 15 & 20. D: 25 & 35. Q 24: After engine shutdown, what are your actions to close the fuel transfer valves? A: You have to switch the inner tank pumps off. B: You have to call maintenance to close the valves. C: No action is required. The valves will close automatically during the next refueling. Q 25: Fuel can be transferred from tank to tank: A: Only on the ground. B: In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN. C: In flight if the fuel X FEED push button is selected OPEN and center tank MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN. D: Fuel can never be transferred. Q 26: How has the fuel been transferred from the outer to the inner tanks? A: By setting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN. B: The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low lever sensor in the center tanks C: By setting the MODE SEL PB to AUTO D: The transfer valve has been opened automatically by the low level sensor in the inner tank. Q 27: What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff? A: 1,000 kg B: 1,200 kg. C: 1,500 kg D: 2,000 kg ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION Q 01: The ______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air. A: Slats B: Flaps C: Three outboard slats Q 02: Electrical heating is provided for the protection of: A: Pitots and Angle Of Attack (AOA) probes B: Pitots, static ports and TAT probes C: Pitots, static ports, AOA probes, and TAT probes. D: Pitots and static ports Q 03: When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves: A: Close automatically. B: Open automatically. C: Remain in position. Q 04: When either engine anti-ice valve is open: A: Maximum N1 is increased. B: Minimum idle rpm is increased. C: Minimum idle rpm is reduced. Q 05: Window heat operates at what power level in flight? A: Low B: High Q 06: On the ground the wing anti-ice valves will: A: Open during a test sequence (30 seconds); provided pneumatic supply is available. B: Not open at anytime. C: Open any time the switch is pushed “ON”. Q 07: Probe heat comes on automatically when: A: The AC ESS bus is powered. B: Electrical power is applied to the aircraft. C: When at least one engine is running * * Probe heat comes on automatically when at least one engine is running, or when the aircraft is in flight. Manually, when PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb is ON. On ground, TAT probes are not heated and pitot heating operates at a low level. Q 08: With reference to the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton, which of the following is true? A: The system should only be selected ON in icing conditions. B: When in AUTO mode, the windows are heated only when necessary. C: The system should only be selected ON after first engine start. D: Window heating comes on automatically after first engine start * * Window heating comes on automatically when at least one engine is running, or when the aircraft is in flight. Manually, when PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb is ON. Windshield heating operates at low power on the ground and at normal power in flight. Only one heating level exists for the windows. Q 09: The drain masts are heated after first engine start. A: True. B: False * * Drain masts are heated when electrical system is powered. Low level on ground and high level in flight. Q 10: Where do the wing anti-ice indications appear on ECAM? A: There is no indication on ECAM bleed page for wing anti-ice B: An amber triangle appears on the ECAM bleed page C: WING A.ICE appears on ECAM status page. D: ANTI-ICE appears in white on the ECAM bleed page and W A.ICE appears in green on the ECAM memo when the wing P/B is pressed Q 11: The Fault light on the engine anti-ice switches indicates the valve: A: Is closed. B: Position disagrees with switch position. C: Is open. Q 12: What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice fault lights? A: Both indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing light also could indicate low pressure. B: Both indicate low pressure, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing light might indicate valve in transit. C: Both indicate valve in transit, or low pressure. Wing light also could indicate valve position disagrees with selected position. D: Both indicate valve in transit, or overheat Q 13: If one engine anti-ice system fails, the second one takes over and provides anti-icing for both engines. A: True. B: False. Q 14: What happens when either engine anti-ice is open? A: Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, maximum idle RPM is increased. B: Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum RPM is increased. C: Minimum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum idle RPM is increased Q 15: In the event of loss of electrical supply the engine anti-ice valve: A: Opens when the engine is shut down. B: Closes when the engine is running. C: Opens when the engine is running. D: Open when the OAT is < 10 deg.C with the engine running Q 16: With the loss of electrical power the wing anti-ice valves: A: Fail in their current position. B: Fail to the open position. C: Fail to the closed position. Q 17: What is the speed limit to operate the windscreen wipers? A: 185 kts. B: 200 kts. C: 230 kts. D: 250 kts. Q 18: In the event of an electrical power loss: A: The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically, anti-icing is ensured. B: The engine anti-ice valves will close automatically, anti-icing is lost. C: The engine anti-ice valves will be controlled by the wing anti-ice controls. D; The engine anti-ice valves remain in the position they were before. Q 19: At what power level does window heat operate while airborne? A: High power while airborne. B: Shifts from low to high as window temperature requires. C: Low power above 18,000 ft. D: Low power above 25,000 ft. Q 20: What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open? A: There is a fixed RPM increase. B: The N1 limit for that engine is automatically increased. C: The N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced D: There is a fixed RPM increase (3% of nominal N1) Q 21: Window heat operation begins: A: Automatically after the first engine start. B: if the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is selected ON by the crew prior to engine start. C: Both are correct. Q 22: Rain protection is provided by: A: Warm bleed air blowing across the windshield. B: Rain repellent and Windshield wipers. C: Both are correct. Q 23: Can the wing anti-ice be tested on the ground? A: Yes, with valves only open for 30 seconds. B: Yes. Valves stay open till selected off. C: No. Q 24: Anti-ice and de-icing protection is provided for: A: The engine nacelle’s and three outboard wing slats. B: The engine nacelle’s, the horizontal stabilizer, and three outboard wing slats. C: The engine nacelle’s, the horizontal stabilizer, the vertical stabilizer and three outboard wing slats. Q 25: The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton. A: True. B: False. Q 26: What happens to the heat at the drain masts when the aircraft is on the ground? A: Nothing. B: The heat is reduced to prevent injury to ground personnel. C: Some of them are automatically switched off (pitot, AOA). Q 27: The RAIN RPLNT (rain repellent) pushbutton is inhibited on the ground when the engines stopped. A: True. B: False. Q 28: TAT probes are heated on the ground. A: True. B: False. Q 29: The ON light illuminates on the wing anti-ice P/B: A: When the anti-ice valves open B: When the P/B is set to ON C: When the fault light goes out D: When the anti-ice valves open and the fault light goes out. Q 30: How is window heating regulated? A: Manually by flight crew B: Window heat is not regulated! C: One Window Heat Computer (WHC) as master, the other as slave D: By two independent Window Heat Computers (WHC), one for each side Q 31: The Window Heat Computer provides two power levels for the windshield: A: High power when above 20,000 ft, low power when below 20,000 ft B: High power when OAT < 10 deg.C, low power when OAT> 10 deg.C C: High power in flight, low power on the ground D: High power in icing conditions (flight only), low power in other conditions. Q 32: The engine nacelle is anti-iced by: A: Air bleed from the high pressure compressor B: Air bleed from low pressure compressor C: AC system and air bleed from low pressure compressor D: DC system and air bleed from low pressure compressor. Q 33: When an engine anti-ice valve is open: A: N1 limit is automatically reduced and the idle N1 is automatically increased B: N2 of the associated engine is automatically decreased C: N2 limit is automatically reduced and N1 limit is automatically increased D: There is no change in the N1 and N2 limits. Q 34: In the event of a low air pressure: A: The engine anti-ice valve opens automatically B: There is no effect on the anti-ice valve position C: The engine anti-ice valve must be manually closed D: The engine anti-ice valve closes automatically Q 35: How can you check that engine anti-ice has been selected on? A: You can observe the ON light on the associated engine anti-ice P/B and the ENGINE ANTI-ICE message on the ECAM engine page B: You can observe the amber warning on the ECAM memo display and the amber anti-ice light on the overhead panel C: You can observe the ENGINE ANTI-ICE message on the ECAM STATUS page D: You can observe the blue ON light on the associated engine anti-ice P/B and the ENGINE ANTI-ICE memo on the E/WD Q 36: The electric windshield wipers are controlled: A: Automatically when in heavy rain B: By two individual pushbuttons C: By one rotary selector for both windshields D: By two individual rotary selectors Q 37: The wipers can operate at different speeds: A: Low speed and high speed B: Speed 1 and speed 2 C: Low, medium and high speed. D: Speed is automatically adjusted depending on rain intensity. Q 38: When the wiper is turned off: A: The PARK position must be selected to stow the wiper B: It continues to run for approximately 6 seconds C: The wiper may stop in the pilots view D: The wiper stops out of view HYDRAULIC SYSTEM Q 01: Fluid can be transferred between hydraulic systems. A: True B: False Q 02: Which hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps? A: Green and blue. B: Green and yellow. C: Blue and yellow. Q 03: The Load Alleviation Function (LAF) accumulators are pressurized by which hydraulic systems? A: Green and blue. B: Green and yellow. C: Blue and yellow. Q 04: The RAT pressurizes the Blue hydraulic system to approximately ______ psi. A: 1500 B: 2500 C: 3000 D: 3500 Q 05: How many pumps has the yellow system to provide pressure (not counting the PTU)? A: 1 B: 2 C: 3 D: 4 Q 06: The hand pump supplies yellow system pressure to the: A: Normal brakes. B: Alternate brakes C: Passenger doors. D: Cargo doors. Q 07: It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU when the parking brake is set. A: True B: False Q 08: The Eng Pump Fault light extinguishes when the engine pump switch is selected to off except for: A: Reservoir low level. B: Pump low pressure. C: An overheat. Q 09: With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO; the blue pump will be energized when: A: One engine is running. B: The BLUE PUMP OVRD switch has been pressed. C: First two statements are correct. Q 10: The PTU Fault light illuminates when the: A: PTU is inoperative. B: Green or yellow reservoir has low air pressure. C: PTU pump has overheated. Q 11: The PUMP identification number on the ECAM HYD page becomes amber when: A: System pressure is below 1450 psi. B: N2 is below idle. C: The reservoir level is low. Q 12: The _____ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction. A: Yellow. B: Blue C: Green Q 13: As long as the landing gear lever is up a hydraulic safety valve closes to cut off the hydraulic supply to the gear when the airspeed is: A: Greater than 260 KIAS. B: Greater than 230 KIAS. C: Less than 260 KIAS. D: Less than 230 KIAS Q 14: Autobraking is initiated by: A: Strut compression. B: Reverser action. C: Ground spoiler extension command. Q 15: When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only; the accumulator supplies: A: Partial brakes. B: At least seven full brake applications. C: Alternate brakes with antiskid. Q 16: The maximum degrees of nosewheel steering available when using the handwheel is ______. A: +/- 60 B: +/- 75 C: +/- 95 D: +/- 105 Q 17: The green DECEL light on the Autobrake switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration corresponds to ______ % of the selected rate. A: 80 B: 95 C: 100 D: 110 Q 18: The brakes pressure indication on TRIPLE PRESSURE INDICATOR reads which system pressure? A: Yellow B: Blue C: Green Q 19: To extend the landing gear with the Gravity Extension Handcrank requires _______ turns of the handle. A: 3 counter-clockwise B: 2 counter-clockwise C: 3 clockwise Q 20: The aircraft’s three hydraulic systems are normally pressurized by: A: Two engine driven pumps and one electric pump. B: Two electric pumps and one PTU. C: Two electric pumps and one engine driven pump. D: Two electric pumps and two engine driven pumps. Q 21: When will the yellow system electric pump operate? (AC power is available). A: During the second engine start. B: When the first engine MASTER switch is moved to the ON position. C: If any N2 RPM is less than 45%. D: When the yellow electric system ELEC PUMP push button is selected to ON or the ground crew activates a cargo door switch. Q 22: What are the major equipment losses with loss of Green system?

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