A320 Type Rating Exam
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Questions and Answers

During an emergency situation with smoke you always get an ECAM warning.

False

What should you check after turning BAT 1+2 OFF, then ON?

currents drop below 60A within 10sec

What voltage should be checked after turning BAT 1+2 ON?

> 25.5 V

What voltage should be checked after turning BAT 1+2 OFF?

<p>&gt; 25.5 V</p> Signup and view all the answers

What voltage should be checked after following the sequence of turning BAT 1+2 OFF, then ON?

<p>&gt; 25.5 V</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is it necessary to use the APU shut off pushbutton on the external power panel in case of APU fire auto extinguishing on ground?

<p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

Does SQUIB light up on the ENG FIRE Panel when an engine FIRE push-button is popped by the flight crew?

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

The FIRE TEST PB on the ENG FIRE panel tests the operation of the fire detection and extinguishing system.

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of:

<p>Pack overheat, engine fire push button operation, engine start, ditching push button pressed</p> Signup and view all the answers

With bleed air supplied from the APU (APU bleed value open or same pack operation) the pack flow is automatically selected to:

<p>High</p> Signup and view all the answers

The hot air pressure regulating valve closes automatically, if:

<p>All answers are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

The temperature of the cockpit can be regulated from:

<p>The Cockpit</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ram air inlet flap of the air conditioning pack:

<p>All answers are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied, if the bleed pressure is too low, the zone controller sends a pressure demand signal to both Engine Interface Units (EIU) to:

<p>Increase the minimum idle and to raise the bleed pressure</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin:

<ul> <li>1 PSI</li> </ul> Signup and view all the answers

In case of failure of one cabin pressure controller:

<p>The transfer is automatic and the second controller (which was in standby) takes over</p> Signup and view all the answers

On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber when the valve:

<p>open more than 95% during flight</p> Signup and view all the answers

On ECAM CAB PRESS page the cabin altitude indication changes to red when cabin altitude:

<p>Goes above 9.550 ft</p> Signup and view all the answers

APU bleed supply on ground.With the pack flow selector on set to NORM, what is the actual pack flow?

<p>HI with 120% pack valve flow</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the limiting factor for opening the RAM AIR valve?

<p>Cabin differential pressure below 1 PSI</p> Signup and view all the answers

The FAULT light on the PACK 1 or 2 pb switch comes on amber:

<p>All answers are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

When the BLOWER pb is on OVRD:

<p>The system goes to closed circuit configuration</p> Signup and view all the answers

The cabin pressurization system consists, among others, of:

<p>One outflow valve, two cabin pressure controllers and two safety valves</p> Signup and view all the answers

The two cabin pressure controllers receive signals from:

<p>ADIRS, FMGC, LGCIU and EIU</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which answer about the two zone controller or ACSC (Air Conditioning System Controller) of the air conditioning system is correct?

<p>Controller 1 regulates the cockpit temperature, controller 2 the temperature in the two cabin zones</p> Signup and view all the answers

V2+15 is maintained if an engine failure is detected

<p>All answers are correct</p> Signup and view all the answers

The Flight Management Guidance System (FMGS) contains the following units:

<p>2 FMGC, 2 MCDU, 1 FCU, 1 FAC</p> Signup and view all the answers

MCDU annunciators (on the top of keyboard): IND (amber). This means:

<p>The onside FM detects an independent mode of operation while both FM are healthy</p> Signup and view all the answers

LOW ENERGY WARNING:

<p>Available between 100 and 2000 ft in CONF ≥ 2</p> Signup and view all the answers

Each IRS computes a mixed IRS/GPS position called the GPIRS position. Of the three GPIRS positions that each FMGC receives, the FMS selects one GPIRS position based on a figure of merit and priority. The FMS uses the following hierarchy to perform the selection:

<p>Onside GPIRS position ‐ GPIRS 3 ‐ Opposite GPIRS position</p> Signup and view all the answers

The FMGS has different FM position update modes. Which has the highest priority?

<p>IRS-GPS</p> Signup and view all the answers

The INIT B page of the FMS is available during following flight phases:

<p>On ground, before engine start</p> Signup and view all the answers

The wind direction information displayed on the ND is:

<p>True</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the indications associated with a LOW ENERGY WARNING?

<p>A synthetic voice ”SPEED SPEED SPEED” only</p> Signup and view all the answers

ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands ___ thrust, regardless of the thrust levers’ positions. This protection is available from lift-off to ___ ft RA on approach.

<p>TOGA / 100ft RA</p> Signup and view all the answers

During an automatic approach with both autopilots engaged, which FMGC is master?

<p>FMGC 1</p> Signup and view all the answers

A standard disconnection of the A/THR system

<p>Triggers a temporary ECAM message and caution light. A single chime sounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

A non-standard disconnection of the A/THR system

<p>Triggers a master caution light and an ECAM message removed only by a flight crew action. A single chime sounds</p> Signup and view all the answers

The RETARD mode of the A/THR system:

<p>Is only available during automatic landing (AP engaged in LAND mode)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is correct? The ALPHA FLOOR protection mode of the Flight Guidance system

<p>Is available from lift-off to 100 feet RA on approach</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

A320 Type Rating Exam

Air Conditioning and Pressurization System

  • The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of pack overheat, engine fire, engine start, or ditching.
  • With bleed air supplied from the APU, the pack flow is automatically selected to high.
  • The hot air pressure regulating valve closes automatically if the duct overheats or the cockpit trim air valve fails.
  • The temperature of the cockpit can be regulated from the cockpit.
  • The ram air inlet flap of the air conditioning pack opens during takeoff and closes during landing.
  • When the cooling demand in one zone cannot be satisfied, the zone controller sends a pressure demand signal to both Engine Interface Units (EIU) to increase the minimum idle and raise the bleed pressure.
  • The maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin is -1 PSI.
  • In case of failure of one cabin pressure controller, the transfer to the second controller is automatic.
  • On the ECAM CAB PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes to amber when the valve opens more than 95% during flight.
  • The cabin altitude indication changes to red when the cabin altitude goes above 9,550 ft.

Pack Flow Control

  • With APU bleed supply on the ground, the pack flow is automatically selected to high.
  • The limiting factor for opening the RAM AIR valve is cabin differential pressure below 1 PSI.
  • The FAULT light on the PACK 1 or 2 pb switch comes on amber if the pack flow control valve position disagrees with the selected position.
  • When the BLOWER pb is on OVRD, the system goes to closed-circuit configuration.
  • The cabin pressurization system consists of one outflow valve, two cabin pressure controllers, and two safety valves.

Zone Temperature Control

  • The two cabin pressure controllers receive signals from ADIRS, FMGC, LGCIU, and EIU.
  • The zone controller or ACSC optimizes temperature by acting on the trim air valves.
  • The PACK FLOW selector on an A320 is in LO position, which means the pack valve flow selection is 80%.
  • The avionics ventilation system is fully automatic and has open-circuit, closed-circuit, and smoke configurations.

Safety Valves and Manual Control

  • The safety valves are independent and cannot be controlled manually.
  • The MODE SEL pb sw in MAN mode allows manual adjustment of the outflow valve.
  • When can we have an open circuit configuration in normal operation: on the ground with the thrust levers not at TO and the skin temperature above the on-ground threshold.
  • When can we have a closed circuit configuration in normal operation: on the ground with the thrust levers at TO and the skin temperature below a given threshold.

Ventilation System

  • With both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbutton switches in AUTO, the ventilation system normally expects to see open configuration on the ground and closed configuration after applying TO power and in the air.
  • With both the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbutton switches in OVRD, the system goes into smoke configuration and the blower fan stops.
  • An amber PACK FAULT light on the PACK pb-sw illuminates if there is pack outlet overheat, compressor outlet overheat, or switch position disagreement in comparison to the pack flow control valve.
  • The pack flow control valve closes in case of pack overheating, during engine start, or when operating fire or ditching P/B.

Cabin Pressure

  • The cabin pressure during lift-off and at touchdown is higher than ambient pressure.
  • Two independent pneumatic safety valves prevent cabin pressure from going too high (8.6 psi above ambient) or too low (1 psi below ambient).

Automatic Flight System (AFS)

  • The pilot can cancel a preset HDG/TRK by engaging the NAV mode using the DIR TO, pushing in the HDG/TRK knob (arming NAV mode), or disengaging AP/FD.
  • During takeoff phase, SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference up to the acceleration altitude.
  • The NAV mode disengages when any other lateral mode is engaged or the flight plan is lost or the aircraft enters a flight plan discontinuity.

Descent Profile

  • The descent profile has a repressurization segment, which is a function of the destination airport altitude and the selected cabin rate (-350 feet/min but this can be modified).

Autoland

  • Autoland is authorized with CAT1 displayed on the FMA.
  • The autopilot disengages automatically at the Missed Approach Point (MAP).
  • The autothrust (A/THR) is a function of the FMGS and includes two independent A/THR commands, one per FMGC.### Flight Management and Guidance System (FMGS)
  • The FMGS computes the aircraft position continually, using stored aircraft performance data and navigation data, and can steer the aircraft along a preplanned route and vertical and speed profiles. (Managed guidance)
  • The system provides predictions of flight time, mileage, speed, economy profiles, and altitude.

Autothrust System

  • In THRUST mode, the autothrust system maintains a specific thrust.
  • In SPEED/MACH mode, the autothrust system controls the aircraft speed or Mach.
  • In ALPHA FLOOR mode, the autothrust system sets maximum thrust when the aircraft angle of attack exceeds a specific threshold.

Autopilot

  • The autopilot stabilizes the aircraft around its center of gravity.
  • It acquires and tracks a flight path.
  • It flies the aircraft to an automatic landing or go-around.
  • The FMGS uses IRS, GPS, and DME/VOR to compute its position.
  • The system has different FM position update modes, with the highest priority being IRS-GPS.
  • The system displays the EPU (Estimated Position Uncertainty) to the crew, and compares it with the required navigation performance (RNP).

Lateral and Vertical Modes

  • The FMGS has various lateral modes, including:
    • Lateral navigation (LNAV)
    • VOR tracking (VOR)
    • Localizer tracking (LOC)
  • The system has various vertical modes, including:
    • Vertical speed (VS)
    • Altitude capture (ALT)
    • Glideslope capture (GS)

Approach and Landing

  • The system provides guidance for automatic approaches, including ILS and GPS approaches.
  • The autopilot can disengage at 80 ft during an automatic approach.
  • The autothrust system commands TOGA thrust during approach.

Windshear Detection

  • The system provides windshear detection during takeoff and approach.
  • The windshear detection function is available from 3s after lift-off up to 1300 ft RA.
  • The system warns the crew of low energy during takeoff and approach.

MCDU and FMGC

  • The MCDU (Multipurpose Control and Display Unit) is the interface between the crew and the FMGC (Flight Management and Guidance Computer).
  • The FMGC has four modes of operation: Dual, Independent, Single, and Back-up navigation mode.
  • The system can compute the aircraft position using IRS, GPS, and DME/VOR.### Flight Management System (FMGS)
  • Can cycle database on-ground and in-flight as long as the active flight plan is copied and reactivated after completion
  • Cycling database during flight erases primary and secondary flight plans, as well as stored data

Autopilot and Flight Director (AP/FD) Modes

  • AP/FD pitch mode controls vertical trajectory, while A/THR mode controls target speed or Mach
  • If no pitch mode is engaged, A/THR mode reverts to controlling speed or Mach
  • Interaction between AP/FD and A/THR modes is correct if pitch mode controls target speed or Mach, and A/THR mode controls thrust

Flight Director (FD)

  • Removed when aircraft pitch exceeds 25° up or 13° down, or bank angle exceeds 45°
  • Engaged by pressing corresponding pushbutton on Flight Control Unit (FCU) if aircraft has been airborne for at least 5 seconds

Autoland Warning

  • Active below 200 ft RA and will flash if both APs fail, difference between both RA greater than 15 ft, excessive deviation in or loss of LOC (1/4 dot above 15 ft RA) or GLIDE (1 dot above 100 ft RA)

Vertical Flight Plan

  • Divided into preflight, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach, go-around, and done phases
  • All but preflight and done are associated with speed and altitude profiles

Prediction and Navigation

  • Predictions computed or displayed on temporary flight plan pages
  • Five different color navigation compass displays (NDs) can be selected: Arc (map mode), Compass rose NAV (map mode), Compass rose VOR, Compass rose ILS, and Plan
  • Information displayed on these modes uses aircraft position as a reference

Thrust Levers and Autothrust (A/THR)

  • Used to manually select engine thrust, arm and activate A/THR, engage reverse thrust, and engage takeoff and go-around modes
  • Speed control is managed when target comes from FMGS and selected when target comes from SPD/MACH FCU window

Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs)

  • Perform four main functions: yaw function, flight envelope function, low-energy warning function, and windshear detection function

Communication

  • Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) retains last 3 hours of data
  • Audio Management System includes audio management unit (AMU) and three audio control panels (ACPs) (fourth and fifth optional)
  • Communication equipment still working after emergency evacuation checklist: VHF1, RMP1, CAPT ACP, F/O ACP

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