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Questions and Answers

Name the two main sections of the skeleton.

Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

  • Hips
  • Legs
  • Arms
  • Spinal Column (correct)

How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton?

  • 300
  • 80
  • 126 (correct)
  • 206

Half of the bones in your body are found in the hands and feet.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the skull protect and house?

<p>The brain</p> Signup and view all the answers

What allows for some flexibility of the bones surrounding the brain?

<p>Fibrous connective tissue</p> Signup and view all the answers

What do the bones of the chest form?

<p>Thoracic cage</p> Signup and view all the answers

The thoracic cage is flexible due to cartilaginous connections that allow for movement during breathing.

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pairs 1 to 7 of ribs are called:

<p>Vertebrosternal (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Pairs 11 and 12 of ribs are called:

<p>Floating ribs (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

There are 24 pairs of ribs in total.

<p>False (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the spinal or vertebral column protect?

<p>The spinal cord</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

<p>7 (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

<p>12 (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

<p>5 (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

<p>3 to 5 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the appendicular skeleton formed by?

<p>Pectoral girdles, upper limbs, pelvic girdle (or pelvis), and lower limbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the upper and lower extremities?

<p>To make the body move and to protect the major organs of digestion, excretion and reproduction</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the definition of Arthritis?

<p>Arthr/ (= joint) + itis (=inflammation of) = inflammation of the joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to bone with increasing age and osteoporosis?

<p>Bone starts to break down, leaving it to be more porous.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are people with osteoporosis more at risk for?

<p>Fractures</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to bone density as people age?

<p>Loss of bone density</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the word 'skeleton' mean?

<p>Dried up body</p> Signup and view all the answers

Is bone considered connective tissue?

<p>True (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Mature bone cells are called:

<p>Osteocytes (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cells form bone?

<p>Osteoblasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

What cells tear down old bone cells?

<p>Osteoclasts</p> Signup and view all the answers

The ______ is made up of tough and fibrous connective tissue.

<p>periosteum</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the end of the bone called?

<p>Epiphysis</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the medullary cavity contain?

<p>Bone marrow</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are ligaments?

<p>Structures that hold most of our joints together</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which type of joint can move a lot and has synovial fluid?

<p>Synovial joints (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which joints are where your ribs meet your sternum?

<p>Cartilaginous Joints (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which type of joint do the bones of your skull fit together?

<p>Fibrous Joints (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Give an example of a hinge joint.

<p>Elbows or Knees</p> Signup and view all the answers

Give an example of where to find ellipsoidal joints.

<p>Wrists</p> Signup and view all the answers

Give an example of where to find a ball and socket joint.

<p>Shoulder or hip</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is flexion?

<p>A joint is bent, decreasing the angle between the involved bones</p> Signup and view all the answers

What Spinal cord does the spinal or vertebral column protect?

<p>The superhighway for information traveling to and from the central nervous system</p> Signup and view all the answers

The appendicular skeleton is formed by which main components?

<p>Pectoral girdles, Upper limbs, Pelvic girdle, Lower limbs</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does "arthr" refer to in the term arthritis?

<p>Joint</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is osteoporosis?

<p>When bone starts to break down, leaving it to be more porous</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the relationship between immobility and the muscular system?

<p>Immobility can result in contractures, which are permanent and disfiguring muscle contractions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A client reports experiencing pain and tenderness in their muscles. Which of the following conditions is most consistent with these symptoms?

<p>Myalgia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary difference between a sprain and a strain?

<p>A sprain involves a tear in a ligament, while a strain involves a tear in a muscle. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement best reflects the effect of weight-bearing exercise on the skeletal system?

<p>Weight-bearing exercise helps maintain bone density and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the goal of performing ROM exercises on a patient?

<p>To prevent contractures. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does smooth muscle's blood supply impact its ability to heal?

<p>Smaller blood supply means smooth muscle injuries heal slower. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The muscular system is directly responsible for which of the following processes?

<p>Generating heat through muscle contractions. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do vasodilation and vasoconstriction affect blood flow?

<p>Vasodilation increases blood flow, while vasoconstriction decreases it. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is an example of internal movement facilitated by the muscular system?

<p>Pumping blood throughout the body (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How is the contraction speed of smooth muscle different from that of skeletal muscle, and why is this significant?

<p>Smooth muscle contracts slower, primarily to regulate internal organ functions. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which characteristic is unique to smooth muscle compared to skeletal muscle?

<p>Involuntary control and location within internal organs (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a primary function of sphincter muscles, a type of smooth muscle, within the digestive system?

<p>Regulating the movement of food and waste through the digestive tract (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the role of the muscular system extend beyond just external movements like walking or lifting?

<p>It facilitates internal processes like digestion, circulation, and respiration. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of muscles described as 'donut shaped'?

<p>To act as selective barriers controlling the passage of materials. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is cardiac muscle considered involuntary?

<p>Its contractions are regulated by the autonomic nervous system without conscious control. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do skeletal muscles facilitate movement?

<p>By contracting and pulling on bones via tendons. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of actin and myosin filaments in muscle contraction?

<p>They slide past each other, shortening the muscle fiber and creating movement. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of muscle movement, what distinguishes an agonist from an antagonist?

<p>The agonist is responsible for creating a specific movement, while the antagonist opposes or controls that movement. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do synergist muscles contribute to overall movement?

<p>By providing additional support and stability to the movement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct result of the contraction of the biceps when bending the elbow?

<p>Shortening of the biceps muscle. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Tendons and ligaments both connect to bone, but how do their functions differ?

<p>Tendons connect muscle to bone, while ligaments connect bone to bone. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the primary function of the gyri and sulci found on the surface of the cerebrum?

<p>To increase the surface area of the brain, allowing for more complex processing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has difficulty understanding spoken language but can still speak clearly. Which lobe of the cerebrum is most likely affected?

<p>Temporal lobe (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a person struggles with making rational decisions and demonstrating appropriate behavior, which lobe of the cerebrum is MOST likely to be impaired?

<p>Frontal lobe (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Damage to which area of the brain would MOST likely result in difficulty with motor control for speech?

<p>Broca's area (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Damage to Wernicke's area would most likely result in difficulty with which of the following?

<p>Understanding spoken language. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The longitudinal fissure divides the cerebrum into which two parts?

<p>Left and right hemispheres (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a person experiences a stroke that damages the precentral gyrus in their left hemisphere, what is the most likely outcome?

<p>Impaired motor control on the right side of the body. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient presents with impaired processing of sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Which lobe of the brain is MOST likely affected?

<p>Parietal lobe (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient has difficulty maintaining balance and exhibits uncoordinated movements. Which part of the brain is most likely affected?

<p>Cerebellum (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following cranial bones does NOT directly correspond to the name of a cerebral lobe?

<p>Sphenoid bone (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following functions is NOT directly controlled by the medulla oblongata?

<p>Hormone Levels (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A person is having trouble with sleep-wake cycles and maintaining a stable body temperature. Which area of the brain is most likely involved in these issues?

<p>Diencephalon (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the transverse fissure's primary role in the structure of the brain?

<p>Dividing the cerebrum from the cerebellum. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the corpus callosum?

<p>Connecting the two hemispheres of the cerebrum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which area of the brain acts as a relay station for visual and auditory impulses?

<p>Midbrain (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What would be the likely result of damage to the postcentral gyrus?

<p>Loss of sensory integration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the primary role of motor neurons?

<p>Relaying signals from the central nervous system to muscles or glands to initiate a response. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?

<p>The somatic nervous system governs voluntary movements, whereas the autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary functions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The autonomic nervous system controls the activity of...

<p>Smooth muscles in blood vessels. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Homeostasis is primarily maintained by which branch of the autonomic nervous system during periods of rest?

<p>The parasympathetic nervous system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which physiological response is most closely associated with the parasympathetic nervous system?

<p>Stimulation of digestion after a meal. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a scenario where a person is startled by a loud noise, which division of the autonomic nervous system would predominantly activate?

<p>Sympathetic nervous system. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the expected effect on blood pressure when the parasympathetic nervous system is activated?

<p>Decrease in blood pressure. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which bodily function is least likely to be directly influenced by the somatic nervous system?

<p>Secretion of hormones from the adrenal gland. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of neuroglia (glial cells) within nervous tissue?

<p>To protect, support, and maintain the overall health of neurons. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following accurately describes the direction of impulse transmission in a neuron?

<p>Impulses are received by dendrites and conducted away from the cell body by the axon. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the myelin sheath contribute to nerve impulse transmission along the axon?

<p>It facilitates faster impulse conduction by providing insulation and preventing ion leakage. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of neurotransmitters at a synapse?

<p>To transmit chemical signals that either excite or inhibit the receiving neuron. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the nervous system?

<p>Regulating blood glucose levels through hormone secretion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the functional distinction between sensory and motor neurons?

<p>Sensory neurons transmit signals from the periphery to the CNS, while motor neurons carry signals from the CNS to muscles or glands. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary distinction between the Central Nervous System (CNS) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?

<p>The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS consists of nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the nervous system facilitate the interpretation of sensory information to generate appropriate responses?

<p>By converting sensory input into electrical signals that are processed and integrated to form sensations, memories, and decisions. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which division of the nervous system integrates sensory information and coordinates conscious and unconscious activity?

<p>Central Nervous System (CNS) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What primary role does the peripheral nervous system (PNS) serve in relation to the central nervous system (CNS)?

<p>To transmit sensory information to the CNS and carry motor commands from it to the body. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, as divisions of the autonomic nervous system, maintain homeostasis?

<p>By working in opposition to each other, allowing a balance depending on the situation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way does the somatic nervous system differ from the autonomic nervous system?

<p>The somatic controls voluntary movements of skeletal muscles; the autonomic regulates involuntary functions. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the brain considered the control center of the nervous system?

<p>It processes sensory information, initiates responses, and higher-level cognitive functions reside there. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the urinary system in maintaining homeostasis?

<p>Controlling electrolyte and fluid balances in the body. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which sequence accurately describes the flow of urine after it is produced?

<p>Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If the kidneys were unable to perform their main functions, how quickly would life-threatening complications arise?

<p>A few days (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the function of the renal hilum?

<p>The point where the renal artery, renal vein, and ureter connect to the kidney. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the correct order of the three processes necessary for urine formation?

<p>Filtration, Reabsorption, Secretion (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where does the reabsorption of substances in the kidney primarily occur?

<p>Renal tubule (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A medication reduces the kidney's ability to secrete certain substances. What direct effect would this have on urine composition?

<p>Urine would contain lower levels of the secreted substances. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the most accurate description of a nephron's function?

<p>The functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the order in which filtrate flows through the structures of the nephron?

<p>Glomerular capsule → Proximal tubule → Nephron loop → Distal tubule → Collecting duct (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary determinant of which substances pass through the filtration membrane in the glomerulus?

<p>The size of the molecules (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does constriction of the afferent arteriole affect the filtration rate in the glomerulus, and why?

<p>Decreases filtration rate because it reduces blood flow into the glomerulus. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the composition of glomerular filtrate in a healthy kidney?

<p>Similar to blood plasma, but without blood cells, platelets, and large proteins (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the sympathetic nervous system influence urine formation during a 'fight or flight' response?

<p>Slows down urine formation to conserve fluid (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the nephron loop (Loop of Henle) in urine formation?

<p>Reabsorption of water and ions to concentrate urine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do changes in blood pressure affect the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) if autoregulation mechanisms are not fully effective?

<p>Increased blood pressure increases GFR, and decreased blood pressure decreases GFR. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Following the collecting ducts, what is the next structure that urine flows into?

<p>Major Calyces (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary mechanism by which the kidneys regulate fluid and electrolyte balance?

<p>Controlling the reabsorption and secretion of substances in the renal tubules. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the role of the peritubular capillaries in urine formation?

<p>They facilitate the exchange of substances during reabsorption and secretion. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In which part of the nephron does the reabsorption of water occur without the reabsorption of sodium chloride (NaCl)?

<p>Descending loop of Henle (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hormone, when released, would most likely lead to a decrease in urine production?

<p>A hormone that decreases the filtration rate in the kidneys. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the rugae in the urinary bladder?

<p>They enhance the bladder's ability to expand as it fills with urine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

During the urination reflex, what is the role of the spinal cord?

<p>It acts as a pathway for signals between the bladder and the brain to coordinate bladder contraction. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is experiencing frequent, painful urination along with cloudy urine, which of the following is the most likely cause?

<p>Urinary tract infection. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are individuals with urinary tract infections (UTIs) often advised to drink plenty of fluids?

<p>To dilute the urine and flush out bacteria from the urinary tract. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are urinary tract infections (UTIs) more common in women?

<p>The female urethra is in close proximity to the anus and is shorter than in males. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is drinking plenty of water recommended as a preventative measure against UTIs?

<p>Increased water intake promotes frequent urination, flushing out bacteria from the bladder. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to wipe the perineum from front to back to prevent UTIs?

<p>This wiping motion prevents the transfer of bacteria from the anal area to the urethra. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the loss of muscle tone in the bladder due to aging contribute to the risk of falls in elderly clients?

<p>Decreased muscle tone increases the need to rush to the washroom, leading to imbalance and falls. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does declining kidney function in elderly individuals increase their risk of dehydration?

<p>Declining kidney function impairs the production of hormones that trigger the sensation of thirst. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why are elderly individuals at increased risk for medication toxicity as kidney function declines?

<p>Decreased kidney function slows the excretion of medications from the body, causing them to accumulate. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the relationship between urinary incontinence and the risk of UTIs in elderly clients?

<p>Incontinence can result in the use of wet briefs, creating a moist environment conducive to bacterial growth. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does decreased kidney function impact medication management in elderly individuals, and what is a potential consequence?

<p>It slows down medication excretion, potentially leading to toxicity from drug accumulation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of the digestive tract, also known as the alimentary canal?

<p>To transport and process ingested materials through the body. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the function of 'mastication' in the digestive process?

<p>The mechanical breakdown of food through chewing. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the tongue contribute to the digestive process beyond taste?

<p>By manipulating food into a bolus and aiding swallowing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the uvula play during swallowing?

<p>It directs food toward the pharynx and prevents it from entering the nasal cavity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the autonomic nervous system regulate the salivary glands?

<p>By automatically controlling saliva production in response to various stimuli. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the bolus, and how is it formed?

<p>It is a ball-like mass of food formed by the tongue in the oral cavity to be swallowed. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following processes is NOT a primary function of the gastrointestinal tract?

<p>Secretion of hormones to regulate blood sugar (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the lingual frenulum?

<p>It prevents excessive tongue movement and aids in speech. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of peristalsis in the esophagus?

<p>To push food down the esophagus towards the stomach. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the epiglottis prevent food from entering the lungs?

<p>By covering the opening of the trachea during swallowing. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function is NOT a primary role of the stomach?

<p>Absorbing large quantities of nutrients after digestion. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of mucous cells in the stomach?

<p>To generate a thick layer of mucus to protect the stomach lining. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

After a meal, which type of food generally remains in the stomach for the longest period of time?

<p>Fats (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the composition of gastric juice?

<p>Hydrochloric acid (HCl), pepsinogen, and mucus. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where are the submandibular salivary glands located, and where do their ducts empty?

<p>Along the inner surface of the mandible; ducts empty into the upper portion of the oral cavity. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary role of the nasopharynx?

<p>To function as part of the respiratory system. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What potentially results from chyme moving too slowly through the digestive system?

<p>Erosion of the stomach lining due to the acidity of the chyme. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the small intestine considered the major organ of digestion?

<p>It is where most of the food is digested. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of segmentation in the small intestine?

<p>To mix chyme and digestive juices thoroughly. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the pyloric valve contribute to the function of the duodenum?

<p>It permits only small portions of chyme to enter the duodenum at a time. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which function is primarily associated with the large intestine?

<p>Absorbing water and compacting waste for elimination. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The walls of the small intestine secrete digestive enzymes. What is the role of these enzymes?

<p>To finalize the digestion of chyme in the small intestine (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What regulatory role do the hormones secreted by the walls of the small intestine perform?

<p>They decrease stomach activity while stimulating the gall bladder and pancreas. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why does the large intestine's design limit its nutrient absorption capabilities?

<p>The large intestine lacks villli. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the arrangement of the colon (ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid) facilitate its role in digestion?

<p>It provides a structured pathway for the absorption of water and electrolytes as waste moves through the large intestine. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the likely outcome if the internal anal sphincter fails to relax when the rectum is full?

<p>Constipation due to the inability to pass stool. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following best describes the interplay between the internal and external anal sphincters during defecation?

<p>The internal sphincter's involuntary relaxation triggers the urge to defecate, while the external sphincter allows for voluntary control over the timing. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might the surgical removal of a significantly inflamed appendix impact the patient's long-term digestive health?

<p>It may have minimal long-term impact, although there may be a temporary disruption of bowel flora. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas coordinate to facilitate effective digestion?

<p>They secrete enzymes and bile into the small intestine to aid in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

An individual is experiencing difficulty detoxifying certain drugs. Which organ is MOST likely impaired?

<p>Liver (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In what way does the liver's location inferior to the diaphragm contribute to its function?

<p>It allows close proximity to major abdominal organs for efficient metabolic processing and nutrient management. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How might significant damage to the liver affect the body's thermoregulation?

<p>It will decrease body temperature due to reduced metabolic heat production. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is directly aided by the liver's production of bile?

<p>Emulsifying fats into smaller droplets for easier digestion. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do bile salts facilitate the digestion process?

<p>By decreasing the surface tension of fats, allowing them to disperse in water. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the direct consequence of rapid movement of fluid contents through the large intestine?

<p>Reduced nutrient and electrolyte absorption, potentially causing dehydration. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What role does the gallbladder play in the digestive process?

<p>Storing and concentrating bile produced by the liver. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary function of buffers secreted by the pancreas into the duodenum?

<p>To neutralize the acidity of chyme, protecting the intestinal walls. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which process is directly facilitated by the liver's storage of glucose as glycogen?

<p>The regulation of blood sugar levels by releasing glucose when needed. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What physiological event triggers the vomiting reflex?

<p>Stimulation of sensory fibers due to irritation or overload in the digestive tract. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of intestinal hormones in relation to pancreatic secretions?

<p>They activate the pancreas's secretory action for digestion. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What agreement aimed to promote peaceful resource sharing around the Great Lakes?

<p>The Dish With One Spoon Wampum Belt Covenant (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to study anatomy and physiology together?

<p>Understanding normal body function (physiology) helps in identifying deviations caused by disease or dysfunction (pathology). (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does acknowledging the land's history recognize?

<p>The ongoing impact of colonial histories on Indigenous territories (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What should students do to maximize their learning in class?

<p>Actively participate and ask questions when unsure (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In the context of studying the human body, what is the significance of understanding medical terminology?

<p>It is necessary for communicating effectively with healthcare professionals and accurately understanding medical information. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A scientist is conducting a study on the arrangement of muscle fibers in the heart. Would this be considered microscopic or macroscopic anatomy?

<p>Microscopic anatomy, as it requires a microscope to study muscle fiber arrangement. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it important to be respectful to classmates during discussions?

<p>To create a positive, inclusive learning environment (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a student's responsibility regarding the course outline?

<p>Read and understand it from beginning to end (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A researcher is investigating how the kidneys filter waste products from the blood. Which field of study does this best represent?

<p>Physiology (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which practice ensures minimal disruption during class if a phone call is necessary?

<p>Muting the microphone and stepping outside the classroom (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios involves the study of pathology?

<p>Investigating the effects of a bacterial infections on the human body. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary reason for the policy against unauthorized recording or taking pictures during class?

<p>To protect academic integrity and respect privacy (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is Tkaronto?

<p>The Haudenosaunee word for Toronto (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the primary purpose of a course outline, according to the text?

<p>To offer students an overview of the course and enable them to function effectively. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the course outline, what is the weight of the midterm test in calculating the final grade?

<p>25% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In this course's evaluation system, on which day of the week will all tests and quizzes be conducted?

<p>Friday (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In this course, what is the maximum percentage of bonus marks that can be earned through Anatomy Learning Group participation?

<p>3% (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the course outline, what content do quiz 2 questions cover?

<p>Weeks 6 &amp; 9 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A student who has an attendance record for Anatomy Learning Groups and has completed all tests and quizzes by week 12 finishes with a final grade of 77% before the bonus is applied. What is the student's final grade after the maximum Anatomy Learning Group bonus is applied?

<p>80% (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the course outline, what weeks will the content of the final exam primarily focus on?

<p>Weeks 1-14, with more from week 7-14 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The course outline specifies several requirements for earning credits from Anatomy Learning Groups. Which condition MUST be met to receive the credit?

<p>Tests and quizzes MUST be completed by week 12. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term refers to pain in a joint?

<p>Arthr/algia (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the prefix 'tachy-' signify in medical terminology?

<p>Fast (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A surgeon is preparing to perform a procedure that involves cutting into the stomach. Which term accurately describes this procedure?

<p>Gastrotomy (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the anatomical relationship between the elbow and the wrist?

<p>The elbow is proximal to the wrist. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a doctor suspects a patient has an enlarged liver, which suffix would MOST likely be used in the diagnosis?

<p>megaly (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which term describes a condition or disease of the heart?

<p>Cardiopathy (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the term 'erythrocyte' refer to?

<p>Red blood cell (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A patient is diagnosed with 'dyspnea'. Based on your knowledge of prefixes, what condition is the patient experiencing?

<p>Difficult breathing (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What information, in addition to documentation, should a student provide in the email to the professor when requesting to miss a test?

<p>Their name, program, class, and section number. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstance might a student not be allowed to write a deferred evaluation?

<p>If the student does not follow the outlined instructions for arranging a deferred evaluation. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the latest point a student should inform the professor about their accommodations with the Assessment Centre before an evaluation?

<p>At least 7 days before the evaluation. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Besides attending class, what strategy is recommended for success in the course?

<p>Using the textbook and completing the readings. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What proactive steps should students take to remain on track with the course material?

<p>Completing readings and activities before they are discussed in class. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are ways to communicate your needs to professor?

<p>Via a 1:1 online meeting or email. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the implication of not arranging a deferred evaluation according to the outlined policy?

<p>The student may receive a grade of zero for the evaluation. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the main subjects covered in this unit?

<p>Anatomy, Physiology, Pathology, and Homeostasis. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is the study of anatomy and physiology often pursued together?

<p>Understanding the structure (anatomy) provides insights into its function (physiology), and vice versa. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of pathology in the context of medical terminology?

<p>The investigation of diseases, including structural and functional abnormalities. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following scenarios BEST illustrates the importance of understanding medical terminology?

<p>Being able to interpret complex medical reports by recognizing prefixes, roots, and suffixes. (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a patient is diagnosed with hepatomegaly, which organ is MOST likely affected?

<p>The liver (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which word root relates to the study of joints?

<p>Arthr/o (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

If a medical report mentions 'erythrocyte,' which characteristic of the cell is being highlighted?

<p>Its color (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

A doctor suspects a patient has inflammation of the stomach lining. Which term would MOST accurately describe this condition?

<p>Gastritis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is implied when anatomical directions are given, such superior, inferior, anterior and posterior?

<p>The body is in the anatomical position. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

Skeleton Sections

The main sections of the skeleton, including the axial and appendicular skeletons.

Axial Skeleton

Protects body organs, includes bones of the skull, thorax, spinal column, and middle ear. Contains 80 bones.

Appendicular Skeleton

Bones of the arms, legs, hips, and shoulders. Contains 126 bones.

Skull Function

Protects the brain and houses sensory organs (eyes, nose, ears).

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Fibrous Connective Tissue (Skull)

Connective tissue that allows flexibility in the skull bones.

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Thorax

Bones of the chest that form a protective cage for the heart, lungs, and blood vessels.

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Thorax Flexibility

Cartilaginous connections allow chest movement during breathing.

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Ribs

Attached by cartilage for movement during breathing. 12 pairs in total.

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True Ribs

Rib pairs 1-7 that connect to the sternum and thoracic vertebrae.

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False Ribs

Rib pairs 8-10 that connect to the costal cartilage of the superior rib and thoracic vertebrae.

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Floating Ribs

Rib pairs 11 and 12 that do not have an anterior attachment.

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Spinal Column

Protects the spinal cord, the information superhighway to the CNS.

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Cervical Vertebrae

7 vertebrae in the neck region.

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Thoracic Vertebrae

12 vertebrae in the chest region.

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Lumbar Vertebrae

5 vertebrae in the lower back region.

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Sacral Vertebrae

5 fused vertebrae in the mid-buttocks region.

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Coccygeal Vertebrae

3-5 fused vertebrae; the tailbone.

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Appendicular Skeleton Components

Pectoral girdles, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, and lower limbs.

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Appendicular Skeleton Functions

Movement and protection of major organs for digestion, excretion, and reproduction

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Arthritis Definition

Inflammation of the joint.

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Arthritis Causes

Cartilage hardens, and joints lose mobility.

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Osteoporosis

Bone breaks down faster than it forms, leading to decreased bone mass.

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Osteoporosis Risk

Decreased bone mass makes bones fragile.

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Osteoporosis Fracture Sites

Vertebral column, ribs, hip, and wrist.

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Aging Bone Changes

Loss of bone density.

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Low Bone Density Consequence

Increased risk of fractures.

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Low Bone Density Change

Develop postural changes.

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Pairs 1-7

True Ribs

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Pairs 8-10

False Ribs

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Pairs 11-12

Floating Ribs

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Skeletal System

The frame that supports the body.

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Skeletal System Components

Bones, cartilage, ligaments, and tendons.

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Bone

A type of connective tissue that is a main component of the skeletal system.

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Bone Classification

Classified by shape: long, short, flat, and irregular.

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Osteocytes

Mature bone cells.

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Osteoblasts

Cells that form new bone.

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Osteoclasts

Cells that break down old bone.

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Periosteum

Tough, fibrous connective tissue covering bones.

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Epiphysis

End of a bone.

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Medullary Cavity

The hollow space inside a bone that contains bone marrow.

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Cartilage

Connective tissue with a jelly-like matrix; flexible and withstands pressure.

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Joint

Area where two or more bones meet.

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Ligaments

Connective tissues that holds bones together at a joint.

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Synovial Joints

Joints that allow a lot of movement and contain synovial fluid.

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Cartilaginous Joints

Joints that allow a little bit of movement, like where ribs meet the sternum.

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Fibrous Joints

Joints that don't move at all, like the bones of the skull

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Gliding Joints

Joints that slide back and forth.

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Hinge Joints

Joints found in your elbows and knees.

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Saddle Joints

Joints found in your thumb.

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Pivot Joints

Joints that allow one bone to rotate or spin along another.

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Ellipsoidal Joints

Joints are at your wrists, where the metacarpals meet the radius and ulna.

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Ball and Socket Joints

Joints found at the shoulder and hips.

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Flexion

Bending a joint, decreasing the angle.

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Extension

Straightening a joint, increasing angle.

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Plantar Flexion

Bending the foot down towards the ground.

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Dorsiflexion

Bending the foot up towards the shin.

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Abduction

Moving away from the body's midline.

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Adduction

Moving toward the body's midline.

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Inversion

Turning inward.

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Eversion

Turning outward.

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Myalgia

Pain or tenderness in a muscle.

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Sprains

Tears in ligaments.

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Strains

Tears in a muscle.

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Tendinitis

Inflammation of a tendon.

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Contractures

Permanent and disfiguring contraction of muscles due to lack of use or stimulation.

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Muscular System

The system responsible for movement and locomotion.

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Muscular System Role

Muscles facilitate external movements (arms, legs) and internal movements (digestion, circulation, respiration).

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Muscle Definition

Contractile tissue responsible for movement.

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Muscle Tissue Types

Skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.

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Smooth Muscle

Involuntary muscle found in organs, blood vessels, and airways responsible for internal movement; lacks striations.

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Vasodilation

Enlarging the diameter of a blood vessel.

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Vasoconstriction

Decreasing the diameter of a blood vessel.

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Sphincter Muscle

A circular muscle found throughout the digestive system.

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Cardiac Muscle

Specialized striated muscle found only in the heart, responsible for involuntary heart contractions.

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Skeletal Muscle

Voluntary muscles attached to bones, responsible for body movement and appear striped.

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Tendons

Fibrous tissues connecting skeletal muscles to bones.

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Nervous System Signals

Trigger muscles to contract, which is how initiated movement occurs.

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Agonist Muscle

Muscle responsible for creating a specific movement, like the biceps when bending the elbow.

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Antagonist Muscle

Muscle that controls and fine-tunes movements initiated by the agonist, like the triceps when the elbow bends.

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Cerebrum

The largest part of the brain, divided into right and left hemispheres.

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Longitudinal Fissure

The groove that divides the cerebrum into right and left hemispheres.

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Transverse Fissure

The groove that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum.

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Convolutions

Ridges (gyri) and grooves (sulci) that increase the surface area of the brain.

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Cerebral Lobes

Four major areas of the cerebrum, named after the skull bones that cover them.

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Frontal Lobe

Lobe responsible for motor activities, behavior, emotions, and conscious thought.

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Parietal Lobe

Lobe involved with body sense perception and language comprehension.

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Broca’s Area

Controls motor output for speech.

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Wernicke's Area

Area in the temporal lobe primarily involved in language comprehension and understanding.

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Precentral and Postcentral Gyri

Areas responsible for motor activity (movement) and sensory integration (sensation), respectively.

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Contralateral Brain Control

The right side of the body is controlled by the left side of the brain, and vice versa.

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Cerebellum

Involved in sensory/motor coordination, balance, and fine-tuning voluntary skeletal muscle activity.

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Brain Stem Functions

Relays visual and auditory impulses (midbrain), plays a role in respiration (pons), and controls heartbeat/respiration/blood vessel diameter (medulla oblongata).

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Diencephalon Function

Controls hormone levels, hunger, thirst, body temperature, sleep-wake cycles, and sends information around the brain.

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Corpus Callosum

Thick band of nerve fibers connecting the two cerebral hemispheres, enabling communication.

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Diencephalon Parts

Four main parts: thalamus, hypothalamus, pineal body, and pituitary gland.

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Nervous System Function

The nervous system is the body's rapid communication network, relaying messages for bodily functions.

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Nervous Tissue Cells

Neuroglia (glial cells) support and protect neurons. Neurons transmit nerve impulses and can be sensory, motor or interneurons.

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Neuron Extensions

Dendrites receive signals, while the axon conducts impulses away from the neuron's cell body. The axon is covered by a myelin sheath which helps speed transmission.

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Synaptic Transmission

Neurons communicate via SYNAPSES, where neurotransmitters are released to excite or inhibit the receiving neuron.

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Nervous System Divisions

The central nervous system (CNS) includes the brain and spinal cord. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) includes nerves outside the CNS.

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Sensory vs. Motor Function

Sensory neurons gather information and send signals to the CNS. Motor responses are the reaction to signals (impulses).

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Nervous System Functions

The sensory function gathers information, the processing function interprets it, and the motor function responds to signals.

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Neurotransmitters

Neurotransmitters are chemicals released at synapses that either excite or inhibit the receiving neuron.

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Homeostasis

Maintaining stable internal body conditions.

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Motor Neurons

Neurons that transmit signals away from the CNS to muscles or glands.

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Somatic Nervous System

Controls skeletal muscles and voluntary movement.

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Autonomic Nervous System

Controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and some endocrine glands.

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Efferent Nerves

Efferent nerves carry nerve impulses away from the central nervous system to effectors such as muscles or glands.

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Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

Controls the motor function of internal organs and glands; involuntary muscles.

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Parasympathetic Nervous System

Controls normal body functioning; 'resting and digesting'.

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Sympathetic Nervous System

Controls 'fight or flight' response.

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Nervous System

Coordinates body functions and relays messages via electrical and chemical signals.

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Central Nervous System (CNS)

The part of the nervous system encased in bone.

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Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)

Nerves outside the brain and spinal cord

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Neurons

Specialized cells within nervous tissue that quickly transmit electrical and chemical signals.

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Dendrites

Branchlike extensions that receive electrical signals.

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Kidneys

Filters blood and creates urine; bean-shaped organs in the dorsal abdominal cavity.

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Ureters

Tubes carrying urine from each kidney to the urinary bladder.

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Urinary Bladder

Expandable sac that holds urine.

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Urethra

Tube transporting urine from the bladder to outside the body.

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Kidney Main Functions

  1. Filter blood 2. Reabsorb/secrete ions 3. Produce urine
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Renal Hilum

Area where renal arteries, veins, and the ureter connect to the kidney.

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Urine Production

  1. Filtration 2. Reabsorption 3. Secretion
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Glomerulus

Blood vessels in the kidney where each afferent arteriole leads into a cluster of capillaries.

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Efferent Arteriole

Carries blood away from the glomerulus.

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Glomerular Filtrate

Fluid from the glomerulus that enters the renal tubule, eventually becoming urine.

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Proximal Tubule

The first part of the renal tubule receiving glomerular filtrate.

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Filtration (Kidney)

Kidney process where fluid and molecules move from glomerular capillaries into the glomerular capsule.

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Filtration Filter Size

The size of the capillary wall pores.

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Filtration Pressure

Forces substances through the kidney's filtration membrane.

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Afferent Arteriole Regulation

Regulates blood flow into the glomerulus, affecting blood pressure.

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Reabsorption

Movement of substances from renal tubule back into bloodstream.

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Secretion

Movement of substances from blood into the renal tubule.

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Kidney's Role

Controls fluid and electrolyte balance via urine volume/composition.

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Proximal Tubule Reabsorption

Water, glucose, sodium, amino acids.

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Proximal Tubule Secretion

Hydrogen ions (H+)

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Urination Reflex

Full bladder triggers reflex arc, leading to bladder emptying.

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UTI Symptoms

Frequent, painful urination; bloody/cloudy urine; pelvic pain.

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UTI Cause

Caused by fecal bacteria entering the urinary tract.

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Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)

Infection of the urinary system, more common in women due to anatomy.

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Why are UTIs more common in women?

Shorter urethra and proximity to the anus increase bacteria exposure.

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UTI Prevention

Drinking water, frequent voiding, and proper wiping prevents bacterial buildup.

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UTI Treatment

Antibiotics and increased fluid intake.

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Aging & Bladder Tone

Loss of bladder muscle tone leads to difficulty holding urine.

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Age-Related Kidney Decline

Kidney function declines ~1% per year after 40, impacting medication excretion and hormone production.

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Impact of Urinary Incontinence

Can cause embarrassment, falls, decreased fluid intake, and skin breakdown.

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Consequences of Declining Kidney Function

Reduced thirst leads to dehydration and increased infection risk; slower medication excretion causes toxicity.

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Gastrointestinal System

The system responsible for taking in, breaking down, absorbing, and eliminating food.

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Digestion

The physical and chemical breakdown of raw materials into usable elements.

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Alimentary Canal

A muscular tube containing the organs of digestion, starting at the mouth and ending at the anus.

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Ingestion

The act of taking food or drink into the body by mouth.

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Mastication

The process of chewing food to break it down into smaller pieces.

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Digestion

The dissolving and breaking down of food into smaller particles for absorption.

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Slow Chyme Movement

Slow chyme movement reduces nutrient absorption and may cause stomach lining erosion.

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Fast Chyme Movement

Fast chyme movement causes insufficient mixing with gastric juices, impairing digestion and can cause erosion of the intestinal lining.

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Small Intestine Function

Organ where most food is digested; it's long, but small in diameter.

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Small Intestine Parts

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum.

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Small Intestine Secretions & Absorption

Secrete digestive enzymes, hormones, and absorbs amino acids, fatty acids, simple sugars, vitamins, and water.

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Pyloric Valve Function

Allows small portions of chyme to enter the duodenum at a time for processing.

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Duodenal Muscular Action

Mixes chyme with digestive juices (segmentation) and propels food towards the large intestine (peristalsis).

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Large Intestine Functions

Absorbs water, absorbs specific vitamins made by bacteria, and compacts waste for elimination.

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Large Intestine Regions

The large intestine's regions: colon, rectum and anus.

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Appendix Function

Attached to the cecum, it may support the lymphatic system and bowel flora.

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Appendicitis

Inflammation or blockage of the appendix requiring antibiotics or surgery.

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Sections of the Colon

Ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid.

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Rectum Function

Opens to the anal canal for waste passage.

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Defecation Reflex

Triggers rectal muscle contraction and anal sphincter relaxation.

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Accessory Digestive Organs

Liver, Gallbladder, Pancreas.

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Liver functions

Detoxifies, creates body heat, and more.

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Submandibular Glands

Located along the inner mandible, these glands release saliva into the upper oral cavity.

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Pharynx

The throat area, serving as a passageway for air, food, and water. Contains the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.

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Nasopharynx

Part of the pharynx mainly for respiration, blocked by the soft palate during swallowing.

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Oropharynx & Laryngopharynx

These parts of the pharynx function as a passageway for air, food and water.

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Epiglottis

A flap that covers the trachea during swallowing to prevent food from entering the lungs.

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Esophagus

A tube connecting the pharynx to the stomach, using peristalsis to move food; no digestion occurs here.

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Peristalsis

The process of rhythmic contractions that push food down the esophagus towards the stomach.

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Stomach

An organ in the abdominal cavity that temporarily stores food, secretes gastric juices, regulates chyme release, and absorbs limited substances.

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Liver's Waste Management

Breaks down old blood cells, recycles usable parts, and eliminates waste like bilirubin (which colors feces).

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Liver & Blood Clotting

The liver makes factors essential for proper blood coagulation.

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Liver & Bile

Needed for fat digestion, the liver manufactures it.

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Liver & Glycogen

The liver stores glucose as this.

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Gallbladder Function

Temporarily stores bile produced by the liver.

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Bile Emulsification

A digestive function that helps break down fats into smaller droplets.

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Pancreas Digestive Role

Releases buffers to neutralize acidic chyme and digestive enzymes.

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Vomiting Reflex

A protective mechanism, ridding the digestive tract of irritants or overloads.

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Land Acknowledgement

Acknowledgement of the traditional territory of Indigenous peoples.

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Professor Contact

Contacting the professor during office hours or via email.

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Class Attendance

Arriving on time and being present in class.

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Listen Respectfully

Being respectful and attentive to others during discussions.

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Class Participation

Engaging actively to improve grasping of the material.

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Raise your hand

Raising you hand before speaking

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No Recording Policy

No unauthorized audio or video recordings are permitted during class.

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Course Outline Responsibility

Each student is fully responsible for reading the course outline from beginning to end

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Course Outline

A document providing an overview of a course, including general information, learning outcomes, content, and evaluation.

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Learning Outcomes

Statements describing what students should know, understand, or be able to do by the end of the course.

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Instructional Method

The methods used to deliver course content, such as lectures, discussions, or online activities.

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Assessment Tool

The tools used to measure student learning, like quizzes, tests, projects, and exams.

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Anatomy Learning Groups

Attending and participating in Anatomy Learning Groups to earn bonus marks.

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Bonus Mark Limit

Bonus marks earned from Anatomy Learning Groups are added to the final grade, with a maximum increase.

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Test Deadline

All tests and quizzes must be completed by this week to receive Anatomy Learning Group credit.

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Final Exam

A comprehensive assessment covering content from weeks 1-14, with emphasis on weeks 7-14.

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Anterior

Pertaining to the front.

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Posterior

Pertaining to the back.

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Distal

Further away from the point of attachment.

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Proximal

Closer to the point of attachment.

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Medial

Toward the midline of the body.

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Lateral

Away from the midline of the body.

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Superior

Above or higher than another structure.

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Inferior

Below or lower than another structure.

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Human Anatomy

The study of the internal and external structures of the human body.

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Physiology

The study of the functions and processes of the body's structures, and their relationships.

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A&P Importance

Understanding the normal functioning of the body helps identify when things are changing or not working correctly.

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Pathology

The study of disease, which is anything that disrupts the normal structure or function of body structures.

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Medical Terminology Importance

Medical terminology is crucial for understanding anatomy and physiology, enabling clear communication and comprehension of medical concepts.

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Missing a Test

Contact the professor BEFORE the test via email, including your name, program, class, and section.

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Deferred Test Documentation

Provide official documentation, like an MD note, to validate your absence for a missed test.

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Deferred Evaluations Format

Deferred evaluations will be in person, with dates posted on Blackboard or emailed to students.

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Accommodation Deadlines

Communicate accommodation needs to the professor at least 7 days before the quiz/test.

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Keys to Success

Attend class, read the textbook, and come prepared by completing readings and activities beforehand.

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Preparation Strategies

Download weekly notes from D2L, participate actively, and form a study group.

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Anatomy

The study of the structure of the body.

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Abdomin/o

Abdomen

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Angi/o

Vessel

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Arthr/o

Joint

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Erythr/o

Red

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Anatomical Position

A standard reference point where the body is erect, feet forward, arms at sides, palms facing forward, and thumbs point away from the body.

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Study Notes

Role of the Muscular System

  • The skeletal system provides the body with a framework.
  • The Muscular System is fundamental for movement and locomotion
  • Muscles can either be:
  • Voluntary, and consciously controlled
  • Involuntary, working automatically, and are not consciously controlled
  • Muscles perform three critical functions:
  • enabling movement,
  • maintaining posture
  • producing body heat.

Muscle Motion

  • Motion includes internal movements, like the digestive, cardiovascular, and respiratory systems working.
  • Diverse muscle types facilitate both external and internal bodily movement.

Muscle Tissue Types

  • Muscle tissue is the contractile tissue of the body.
  • The major types of muscle are skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.
  • A table describes each tissue by cellular appearance, location, and if it's striated or non-striated, and voluntary or involuntary.

Smooth Muscle

  • Visceral muscles, also known as smooth muscles are involuntary and contract slower comparative to skeletal variety.
  • Distinguished by a non-striped appearance, these muscles constitute internal organs, blood vessels, and the airways.
  • Smooth muscle can change the blood vessel diameters.
  • With a reduced blood supply, this muscle repairs slowly following an injury.

Vasodilation and Vasoconstriction

  • Vasodilation refers to enlarging the diameter of a blood vessel,
  • Vasoconstriction is the constricting of a blood vessel

Sphincter muscles

  • Sphincter muscles are specialized smooth muscles, in the digestive system.
  • Donut-shaped, acting as gateways; contraction closes, relaxation opens them.

The Cardiac Muscle

  • Found exclusively in the heart, cardiac muscle is a specialized muscle with a striated appearance and is involuntary.
  • Each contraction promotes a heartbeat.
  • They receive a richer blood supply than other muscles in the body which also have short fibers.

Skeletal Muscles

  • Voluntary muscles controlled consciously, they are attached to bones providing movement.
  • This striated muscle type attaches to bones with fibrous tendons.
  • Tendons attach skeletal muscles to bones.
  • Ligaments connect bone to bone.
  • Muscles can attach directly to bone or soft tissue without a tendon.

Skeletal Muscles and Movement

  • Voluntary movement relies on skeletal muscles to move bones.
  • When a movement begins, signals from the nervous system trigger the muscles to contract.
  • Muscle fibers contain actin and myosin, slide for contraction, shortening muscle during contraction, and facilitate movement
  • The biceps contract when bending the arm, the triceps engage when straightening.

Muscle Motion Dynamics

  • Agonist perform specific movements, like the biceps when bending the elbow to lift.
  • Antagonist work in contrast, controlling and fine-tuning movements.
  • Triceps function as antagonists for smooth bending elbow motion.
  • Synergist provide Body Stabilization by way of support, synergistic actions with other muscle tissue

Immobile Atrophy

  • All systems of the body can be negatively impacted by immobility.
  • The skeletal system will develop osteoporosis if weight isn't bared enough.
  • Lack or diminished stimulus to muscle causes long time contracture
  • Contractures cause disfiguring contraction of muscles
  • Range of motion exercises with assistance an independence help prevent contractures.

Additional Muscle Groups

  • Myalgia relates to the constant and consistent ache and pain the body causing tenderness
  • Sprains related strains can be caused due to ligament tears, which in flame tendinitis
  • Pectoralis Major often referred to as the "pecs" found to be is in the anterior is used in flexing and it's upper chest muscles
  • Deltoid covers shoulder and connects the support with abs
  • Gluteus Maximus are commonly used for walking, and the glibness maintaining Balance
  • Biceps Brachii are the muscles to upper arm that help you flex
  • Pectoralis Major is often referred to as the "pecs" found in the anterior upper chest which adducts medial rotates the am to aid flexing and extension of the arm
  • Deltoid covers shoulder and abducts extending to flex adding support.
  • Gluteus Maximus are commonly referred to as glutes used for walking, and maintaining balance
  • Triceps Brachii is that extends the elbow
  • Tibialis anterior dorsiflexis
  • Quadriceps group extends knees aid in hip flexing
  • Harminstring group extends the leg
  • Gastrocnemius plantar flex
  • Intercostal muscles are located between ribs.

Key Muscle Actions

  • Biceps Brachii flexes the elbow and supinates the forearm.
  • Triceps Brachii extends the elbow
  • Pectoralis Major adducts, medially rotates the arm and assists in also flexing the shoulder joint
  • Deltoid abducts the arm also helping to flex and extend the shoulder
  • Intercostal muscles assist in respiration by elevating or depressing the ribs during breathing
  • Gluteus Maximus extends and laterally rotates the hip and is involved in maintaining an upright posture.

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Description

Explore the skeletal system's two main divisions: axial and appendicular. Learn how the axial skeleton protects organs with 80 bones and the appendicular skeleton supports movement with 126 bones. Key bones of the skull, along with the bony structures of the thorax are also discussed.

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