Microbiology Quiz on Pathogens and Infections
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Questions and Answers

What is the selective medium for isolating β-haemolytic streptococci?

  • Mannitol salt agar
  • Crystal violet blood agar (correct)
  • MacConkey agar
  • Blood agar

What is the generation time of Escherichia coli?

  • 30 minutes
  • 20 minutes (correct)
  • 12 hours
  • 5 hours

Which flea is responsible for transmitting bubonic plague?

  • Cat flea
  • Dog flea
  • Human flea
  • Rat flea (correct)

What is the main transmission method of pneumonic plague between humans?

<p>Droplet Infection (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which organism is responsible for causing plague?

<p>Yersinia pestis (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

How do humans most frequently become infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

<p>Inhalation (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the medusa head appearance of colonies indicate?

<p>Bacillus anthracis (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

The role of bacterial capsules in virulence is primarily related to their ability to interfere with which process?

<p>Antibody binding (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following is a carrier of infection for the plague?

<p>Ticks (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the causative agent of anthrax classified under?

<p>Bacіllaceae (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which microorganisms are obligate aerobes?

<p>Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of these bacteria are classified as obligate anaerobes?

<p>Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the optimum selective nutrient medium for inoculating material from a patient with gas gangrene?

<p>Kitt-Tarozzi medium (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Gas gangrene bacilli are categorized as which type of bacteria?

<p>Obligate anaerobe (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following statements about Chlamydia trachomatis is true?

<p>They are Gram negative (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic is unique to the Mycoplasma bacterial group?

<p>They lack cell walls (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which species of microbes in the intestine produce essential vitamins for the human body such as B1, B2, B12, and K?

<p>Escherichia coli (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of microbes can be identified from red colonies with a metallic shine on Endo medium?

<p>Escherichia (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Where can spores of bacilli be located?

<p>Centrally, subterminally, terminally (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What organism is indicated by dark red colonies with metallic shine that are gram-negative, small, straight rods in a patient previously diagnosed with cholera?

<p>Escherichia coli (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the first word in the name of microorganisms signify?

<p>Genus (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which vaccine is used for the prevention of diphtheria?

<p>DTP (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the main carrier site of potentially pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus in the human body?

<p>Throat (posterior nasopharynx) (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is a major difference between EHEC and EPEC?

<p>EHEC secretes a Shiga-like toxin, whereas EPEC does not. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement regarding HIV is not true?

<p>It is a DNA retrovirus (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

CMV retinitis in HIV patients occurs when the CD4 counts fall below which number?

<p>50 (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about HIV infection is not true?

<p>Dendritic cells do not support replication (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Reverse transcriptase sequence in HIV is best described as?

<p>RNA - DNA - RNA (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Multifocal tumor of vascular origin in a patient with AIDS is most likely?

<p>Kaposi sarcoma (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In a patient with HIV who presents with diarrhea and AFB positive organisms in stool, the most likely organism is?

<p>Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which investigation is best to rule out HIV in a patient with recent symptoms and sexual contact?

<p>P24 antigen assay (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

When compared to the Western blot technique, the ELISA test is described as?

<p>More sensitive, less specific (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about monkeypox virus is the most accurate?

<p>Clinical disease resembles smallpox. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What best describes the currently licensed vaccinia (smallpox) vaccines?

<p>Live vaccinia virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which option does not describe a key aspect of vaccinia virus replication in cultured cells?

<p>Newly formed virus particles mature by budding through the nuclear membrane. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which condition is NOT benefited by treatment with vaccinia immune globulin?

<p>Postvaccinial encephalitis (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which of the following does NOT fulfill the exposure criteria to vaccinia?

<p>Injection of vaccinia immune globulin (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which potential complication from smallpox vaccination is characterized as beneficial to vaccinia immune globulin therapy?

<p>Eczema vaccinatum (A)</p> Signup and view all the answers

In terms of leaping through the defense of the immune system, which characteristic of monkeypox is considered significant?

<p>Human monkeypox is more easily transmitted than smallpox. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What phenomenon is typically observed in the relation between smallpox and monkeypox in human infection scenarios?

<p>Previous smallpox vaccination influences susceptibility to monkeypox. (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about dengue virus is not true?

<p>There is a single antigenic type. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which disease occurring in the United States lacks a known vector?

<p>Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement about yellow fever is false?

<p>There is no animal reservoir. (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which statement is correct regarding hantaviruses in the United States?

<p>Infect human beings with a fatality rate that can be above 30%. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the most common adverse reaction after vaccinia vaccination?

<p>Generalized vaccinia (B)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which poxvirus infects only humans?

<p>Variola virus (D)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What characteristic distinguishes St. Louis encephalitis from other similar diseases?

<p>It typically results in a milder illness. (C)</p> Signup and view all the answers

Flashcards

What kind of bacteria produces essential vitamins in the human intestine?

A type of bacteria commonly found in the human intestine, responsible for producing essential vitamins like B1, B2, B12, and K.

What bacterial species causes sore throat?

A bacterial species known for causing sore throats.

Where is Staphylococcus aureus commonly found?

A type of bacteria often found in the nasal membranes.

What does red colonies with metallic sheen on Endo medium indicate?

Endo medium refers to a microbiological culture medium that allows for the differentiation of coliforms based on their metabolic properties. Red colonies with metallic sheen on Endo medium indicate the presence of Salmonella species.

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What type of medium is Endo medium?

Endo medium is a selective and differential medium used to detect coliforms. Red colonies with metallic sheen indicate the presence of Salmonella species which is capable of fermenting lactose.

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Describe Escherichia coli.

Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative, facultative anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium that is commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms.

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What does the first word in a scientific name represent?

The first word in a scientific name typically represents the genus to which the organism belongs.

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Where can spores be found within a bacterial cell?

The location of bacterial spores can vary depending on the species. They can be located at the end of the cell (terminal), near the end of the cell (subterminal), or in the middle (central).

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What is crystal violet blood agar used for?

A selective medium for isolating Staphylococcus aureus. This indicates how it works: crystal violet inhibits the growth of gram-negative bacteria, while blood provides nutrients for the staphylococcus.

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What is the generation time of Escherichia coli?

The time it takes for a single bacterial cell to multiply into two.

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How is bubonic plague transmitted?

This is how Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of plague, is transmitted from infected rodents (usually rats) to humans.

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How is pneumonic plague spread?

This happens when Yersinia pestis is spread from one person to another, typically through respiratory droplets.

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What causes plague?

This is the bacteria that causes plague.

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How are humans most commonly infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Inhalation is the most common means of acquiring Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis.

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Which bacteria is known for having medusa head colonies?

This bacteria colonizes and forms a characteristic spreading growth pattern on agar, resembling a spreading, branching structure.

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What is the role of a bacterial capsule in virulence?

Bacterial capsules play a crucial role in helping bacteria evade the host's immune system. Specifically, they obstruct the process of phagocytosis, which is the engulfment and destruction of bacteria by immune cells.

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What is HIV?

HIV is a type of retrovirus that contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase, which allows it to convert its RNA genome into DNA, which then integrates into the host cell's genome.

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What happens to CD4+ T cells in late-stage HIV?

A hallmark of late-stage HIV infection is a significant decrease in the number of CD4+ T cells, which are crucial for immune function.

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What is CMV retinitis and when does it occur?

CMV retinitis is a serious eye infection that can occur in individuals with HIV when their CD4+ T cell count falls below 50.

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What is the P24 antigen assay used for?

The P24 antigen assay is a blood test used to detect the presence of HIV, often during the early stages of infection.

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What is Kaposi's sarcoma?

Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer that develops in the lining of blood vessels and lymph nodes, commonly occurring in people with weakened immune systems, like those with AIDS.

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What is Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI) and what does it cause?

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI) is a type of bacteria that can cause severe infections in people with weakened immune systems, like those with AIDS. It can cause diarrhea, fever, and weight loss.

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How does ELISA differ from a Western blot in testing for HIV?

ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a widely used blood test for HIV. It is highly sensitive, but may not always be specific. Western blotting is a more specific but less sensitive test.

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What is H5N1?

"H5N1" refers to the avian influenza A virus, commonly called bird flu, which can spread from birds to humans.

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West Nile Virus

A viral disease spread primarily by mosquitoes, affecting humans and causing flu-like symptoms, encephalitis, and sometimes death. It is prevalent in North America.

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St. Louis Encephalitis

A mosquito-borne viral disease that causes encephalitis (inflammation of the brain). Symptoms include fever, headache, nausea, and confusion, often leading to neurological complications.

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Dengue Virus

A viral disease spread through mosquito bites, causing a range of symptoms from mild flu-like illness to severe dengue hemorrhagic fever. It affects people globally, primarily in tropical regions.

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Yellow Fever

A severe viral disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes, causing fever, headache, muscle aches, and jaundice. It can be fatal, with outbreaks still occurring globally.

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Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome

A viral disease transmitted through rodent droppings, causing respiratory illness with fever, cough, and shortness of breath. It can be fatal, especially in its severe form.

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Smallpox

A viral disease caused by a virus of the Poxviridae family, causing a characteristic skin rash and other symptoms. The disease was eradicated thanks to global vaccination efforts but remains a concern due to bioterrorism.

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Generalized Vaccinia

A rare but serious complication of smallpox vaccination, characterized by a widespread and extensive rash, often with systemic symptoms.

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Eczema Vaccinatum

A complication of smallpox vaccination that occurs in individuals with eczema, resulting in a widespread and severe rash.

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What are the primary carriers of plague bacteria?

Fleas are the primary carriers of plague bacteria, which are transmitted to humans through flea bites.

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Which family does the anthrax causative agent belong to?

The causative agent of anthrax is a bacterium belonging to the family Bacillaceae. It's a rod-shaped bacterium forming spores.

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What are obligate aerobes?

Obligate aerobes are organisms that require oxygen to survive and grow. Examples include Mycobacterium tuberculosis (causing tuberculosis) and Micrococcus spp. (found in the environment).

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What are obligate anaerobes?

Obligate anaerobes are organisms that cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. They thrive in oxygen-free environments. Examples include Clostridium tetani (causes tetanus) and Clostridium botulinum (causes botulism).

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What is the Gram reaction and shape of Clostridium tetani?

Clostridium tetani, the causative agent of tetanus, is a gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium. It's an obligate anaerobe, meaning it cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.

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How are vaccines sterilized?

Vaccines are sterilized by heat inactivation, a process that exposes them to controlled heat to eliminate harmful microbes while preserving the vaccine's effectiveness. This method is used to remove any potentially contagious agents from the vaccine.

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What is true about Chlamydia trachomatis?

Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium that can cause infertility in both men and women. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can also affect the eyes.

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What is unique about Mycoplasma bacteria?

Mycoplasma bacteria are unique because they lack a cell wall, a rigid structure that surrounds most bacteria. This makes them resistant to certain antibiotics that target cell walls.

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What is Monkeypox?

Monkeypox is a viral disease that resembles smallpox, but it is less severe. It is primarily found in Africa, and can be transmitted through contact with infected animals (like rodents) or from human to human.

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Is smallpox vaccination protective against monkeypox?

Smallpox vaccination provides some protection against monkeypox, although the level of protection is not as high as it is against smallpox itself.

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How is the smallpox vaccine made?

The vaccinia virus is a live attenuated virus, meaning it's a weakened version of the original virus. This weakened virus is used to make the smallpox vaccine.

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How does vaccinia virus replicate?

Vaccinia virus replication starts in the cytoplasm of the cell, unlike some viruses that use the nucleus. It requires a newly synthesized viral protein for the uncoating process, an important step in releasing its genetic material.

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When is vaccinia immune globulin (VIG) used?

Vaccinia immune globulin (VIG) is a treatment used for complications from smallpox vaccination. It is most effective for cases like severe generalized vaccinia or eczema vaccinatum, where the body's immune response is overreacting.

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What condition is vaccinia immune globulin NOT effective for?

Vaccinia immune globulin helps to prevent or reduce the severity of complications from vaccinia virus exposure. However, it does not offer protection against postvaccinial encephalitis, an inflammation of the brain related to vaccination.

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What are the different ways to be exposed to vaccinia?

Exposure to vaccinia virus can occur through direct vaccination with smallpox vaccine, close contact with someone recently vaccinated, or even intrauterine exposure during pregnancy. VIG injections are considered a form of vaccinia exposure.

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Study Notes

Microbiology, Bacteriology, and Virology Exam Questions (2024-2025)

  • Live vaccines contain attenuated bacteria.
  • Killed corpuscular vaccines contain inactivated bacteria.
  • Subunit vaccines contain immunogenic components of the bacteria.
  • Immunofluorescence test is a serological reaction using labels.
  • Standard quantitative method includes both slide and tube agglutination methods.
  • The interaction between somatic antigens and antibodies results in rapid, large flocculi in 2-4 hours, which break down upon shaking.
  • Agglutinogen is the antigen that causes agglutination.
  • Epidemic diseases spread rapidly, involving many people in an area at the same time.
  • Plasma cells produce antibodies.

Additional Exam Questions

  • Attenuated vaccines include those for dysentery, cholera, and polio (Salk).
  • Best antigens are proteins.
  • Natural killer cells are large granular lymphocytes of the innate immune system.
  • Exotoxins are active in minute doses and have specific tissue affinities.
  • Cross infections are subsequent infections with the same organism in a host.
  • Pandemic diseases spread through many areas of the world, involving many people in a short period.
  • Transcription is the process where genetic information in bacterial DNA is transferred to mRNA.
  • Gene is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide.
  • Transformation is the transfer of genetic information through free DNA.
  • Plasmid is a genetic element outside the bacterial chromosome.
  • Translation is the process where genetic information in mRNA is used to synthesize a protein.
  • Replication is the process of producing identical copies of DNA.
  • R-plasmids determine the production of toxins.
  • Col-plasmids determine the production of colicins.
  • F-plasmids determine the production of enzymes.
  • Transcription is the process of creating mRNA from DNA.
  • Mutation is a change in the DNA sequence, resulting in a heritable variation.
  • Salt agar contains 1-2%, 3-4%, 5-6%, or 7-10% sodium chloride.
  • Streptococci are Gram-positive cocci, arranged in chains.
  • Meningococci are Gram-negative cocci, arranged in pairs.
  • Vibrio cholerae optimum pH for growth is 8.2.
  • Bacterial genera that produce endospores include Bacillus, Clostridium, Corynebacterium, and Mycobacterium.
  • Gram-positive bacterial cell walls mainly consist of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids.
  • Gram-negative bacterial cell walls have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
  • Cocci are spherical bacteria.
  • Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria.
  • Spiral bacteria include spirochetes and vibrios.
  • Gram-positive bacteria appear purple after Gram staining.
  • Gram-negative bacteria appear pink after Gram staining.
  • 70S procaryotic ribosomes consist of a 50S and a 30S subunit.

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Description

Test your knowledge on various pathogens, their transmission methods, and the laboratory techniques used for their isolation. This quiz covers a range of topics like β-haemolytic streptococci, plague transmission, and bacterial classifications. Ideal for microbiology students and enthusiasts.

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