Microbiology Exam Questions 2024-2025 PDF

Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor Exam questions Microbiology, bacteriology and virology 2024-2025 1. Live vaccines contain a. attenuated bacteria c. immunogenic component of the bacteria b. inactivated bacteria d. inactivated toxin 2. Killed corpuscular vaccines contain a. attenuated bacteria c. immunogenic component of the bacteria b. inactivated bacteria d. inactivated toxin 3. Subunit vaccines contain a. attenuated bacteria c. immunogenic component of the bacteria b. inactivated bacteria d. inactivated toxin 4. Immunofluorescence test is a a. reaction of precipitation b. reaction of agglutination c. lysis test d. serological reaction with the use of labels 5. Standard quantitative method is a a. slide agglutination c. microagglutination b. tube agglutination d. all of the аbоvе 6. The interaction between somatic antigens and specific antibodies is a. slow and fine granular sediment forms in 18-20 hrs. agglutinate do not break upon shaking b. rapid and fine granular sediment forms in 5-10 hrs. agglutinate do not break upon shaking c. rapid and large flocculi form in 2-4 hrs. agglutinate readily break upon shaking d. slow and large flocculi form in 3-4 days agglutinate readily break upon shaking 7. The antigen causing agglutination is called a. agglutinogen c. agglutinate b. agglutinin d. Precipitinogen 8. Epidemic disease is a. constantly present in particular area b. spreads rapidly, involving many persons in an area at the same time c. spreads through many areas of the world involving many persons within a shot period d. spreads slowly, involving several persons in an area at the same time 9. Plasma cells are: a. mature T cells b. immature macrophages c. mature macrophages Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor d. immature T cells e. antibody-producing cells 10. Which of the following vaccine is attenuated? a. Dysentery vaccines. b. Cholera vaccines c. Diphtheria vaccines. d. Solk polio vaccines. e. BCG 11. Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens? a. Lipids b. DNA c. fatty acids d. sugars e. proteins 12. Large granular lymphocytes which can kill virus-infected cells as part of innate immunity are called: a. neutrophils b. natural killer cells c. monocytes d. lymphocytes e. mast cells 13. Onе of the following statements about exotoxins is false: a. action is often еnzymаtiс b. hаvе specific tissue affinity c. are асtivе in very minute doses d. polysaccharide-lipid complex in nature 14. Cross infection is a. initial infection with organism in host b. subsequent infection by the same organism c. situation, when patient suffering from a disease and new infection is set up from external source d. constantly present in particular area Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 15. Pandemic disease is b. constantly present in particular area c. spreads rapidly, involving many persons in an area at the same time d. spreads through many areas of the world involving many persons within a shot period e. spreads slowly, involving several persons in an area at the same time 16. Reinfecton infection is a. initial infection with organism in host b. subsequent infection by the same organism c. situation, when patient suffering from a disease and new infection is set up from external source d. constantly present in particular area 17. Redaction of virulence is known us a. attenuationc. initiation b. exaltation d. inhibition 18. Transcription is the process by which a. m-RNA, in conjugation with t-RNA and the ribosome, directs the synthesis of specific protein b. genetic information carried in the bacterial DNA is transferred to m- RNA c. DNA is formed a new identical copy d. genetic information carried in the bacterial RNA is transferred to DNA 19. Gene is a a. segment of DNA carrying codons specifying for a particular polypeptide b. triple nucleotide group, coding one specific amino acid c. triple nucleotide group, not coding one specific amino acid d. segment of RNA 20. Transformation is a. the transfer of genetic information trough the agency of free DNA b. the transfer of a portion of the DNA from one of bacterium to another by a bacteriophage c. the transfer of genes from donor cell to recipient by means of physical contact d. a random, undirected, heritable variation caused by an alteration in the nucleotide sequence at some point of the DNA of the cell 21. Plasmid is a a. extrachromosomal genetic element in the bacterial chromosome b. segment of DNA carrying codons specifying for a particular polypeptide c. triple nucleotide group, coding one specific amino acid d. segment of RNA 22. R-plasmids a. determine colicin prodaction b. determine production of heat labile and heat stable endotoxins c. determine production of hemolysins d. determine production of specific enzymes that modify or destroy specific antibiotics 23. Translation is the process by which Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor a. m-RNA, in conjugation with t-RNA and the ribosome, directs the synthesis of specific protein b. genetic information carried in the bacterial DNA is transferred to m-RNA c. DNA is formed a new identical copy d. genetic information carried in the bacterial RNA is transferred to DNA 24. Codon is a a. segment of DNA carrying codons specifying for a particular polypeptide b. triple nucleotide group, coding one specific amino acid c. triple nucleotide group, not coding one specific amino acid d. segment of RNA 25. Transduction is a. the transfer of genetic information trough the agency of free DNA b. the transfer of a portion of the DNA from one of bacterium to another by a bacteriophage c. the transfer of genes from donor cell to recipient by means of physical contact d. a random, undirected, heritable variation caused by an alteration in the nucleotide sequence at some point of the DNA of the cell 26. Col-plasmids a. determine colicin prodaction b. determine production of heat labile and heat stable endotoxins c. determine production of hemolysins d. determine production of specific enzymes that modify or destroy specific antibiotics 27. F-plasmid (fertility factor) a. determine colicin prodaction b. determine production of heat labile and heat stable endotoxins c. codes for a series of genes necessary for conjugal transfer d. determine production of specific enzymes that modify or destroy specific antibiotics 28. Replication is the process by which a. m-RNA, in conjugation with t-RNA and the ribosome, directs the synthesis of specific protein b. genetic information carried in the bacterial DNA is transferred to m-RNA c. DNA is formed a new identical copy d. genetic information carried in the bacterial RNA is transferred to DNA 29. Termination codon is a a. segment of DNA carrying codons specifying for a particular polypeptide b. triple nucleotide group, coding one specific amino acid c. triple nucleotide group, not coding one specific amino acid d. segment of RNA 30. Conjugation is a. the transfer of genetic information trough the agency of free DNA Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b. the transfer of a portion of the DNA from one of bacterium to another by a bacteriophage c. the transfer of genes from donor cell to recipient by means of physical contact d. a random, undirected, heritable variation caused by an alteration in the nucleotide sequence at some point of the DNA of the cell 31. Ent-plasmids a. determine colicin prodaction b. determine production of heat labile and heat stable enterotoxins c. determine production of hemolysins d. determine production of specific enzymes that modify or destroy specific antibiotics 32. Transcription of bacterial DNA is mediated by a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. DNA ligase d. RNA ligase 33. Mutation is a. the transfer of genetic information trough the agency of free DNA b. the transfer of a portion of the DNA from one of bacterium to another by a bacteriophage c. the transfer of genes from donor cell to recipient by means of physical contact d. a random, undirected, heritable variation caused by an alteration in the nucleotide sequence at some point of the DNA of the cell 34. Salt agar is contain of a. 1-2 % sodium chloride b. 3-4 % sodium chloride c. 5-6 % sodium chloride d. 7-10 % sodium chloride 35. Streptococci is a. Gram - positive cocci. They are arranged in grape - like clusters, non- sporing and non - motile. Capsules are produced by some strains. b. Gram - positive cocci. They are arranged in chains, non- sporing and non - motile. Capsules are produced by some strains. c. Gram - negative cocci. They are arranged in pairs, non- sporing and non - motile. Most fresh isolates are encapsulated. d. Gram - negative cocci. They are arranged single, non- sporing and non - motile. Capsules are not produced. 36. Meningococci are a. Gram - positive cocci. They are arranged in grape - like clusters, non- sporing and non - motile. Capsules are produced by some strains. b. Gram - positive cocci. They are arranged in chains, non- sporing and non - motile. Capsules are produced by some strains. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor c. Gram - negative cocci. They are arranged in pairs, non- sporing and non - motile. Most fresh isolates are encapsulated. d. Gram - negative cocci. They are arranged single, non- sporing and non - motile. Capsules are not produced. 37. The optimum pH for good growth vibrio cholera a. 5,3 b. 6 c. 7,2 d. 8,2 38. The alkaline nutrient agar is a a. Basal media c. Differential media b. Selective media d. Natural media 39. Another common bacterial shape is that of a rod, often called a. coccus b. pleomorphic c. bacillus d. vibrio e. spirochete 40. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are: a. Bacterium. b. Corynebacterium c. Mycobacterium d. Bacillus. 41. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of: a. thin monolayer peptidiglycan b. lipoproteins c. lipopolysaccharides d. polilayer peptidiglican 42. Cells that do not have a membrane separating their nuclear material from their cytoplasm are called a. heterozygous. b. homozygous. c. eukaryotic. d. prokaryotic 43. Choose rod-shaped bacteria: a. Meningococcus b. Clostridium c. Vibrio d. Borrelia 44. Credit for the first vaccine for the prevention of human disease is generally given to: a. Louis Pasteur for the prevention of rabies. b. Louis Pasteur for the prevention of anthrax. c. Robert Koch for the prevention of tuberculosis. d. Edward Jenner for the prevention of small pox. 45. Differential Interference Contrast microscopy a. illuminates the specimen with light of two different phases. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b. compares two identical specimens on the same microscope. c. illuminates the specimen with light of two different colors. d. illuminates the specimen with both reflected and transmitted light. 46. Fimbriae a. cause bacteria move through fluids. b. sense changes in nutrient concentration. c. attach bacteria to various surfaces. d. are pathways for the secretion of exoenzymes. e. are pathways for the nutrition. 47. Gram positive cells a. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain. b. have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain. c. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain. d. have inclusions that traps crystal violet stain. e. have monolayer of peptidoglycan that traps crystal violet stain 48. In bacterial cells, ribosomes are packed into the cytoplasmic matrix and also loosely attached to the plasma membrane. What is the function of ribosomes? a. Site of energy production b. Site of genetic reproduction c. Site of lipid synthesis d. Site of protein synthesis 49. Indicate gram-negative bacteria. a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Clostridium botulinum c. Bacillus anthracis d. Micrococcus luteus 50. Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using a. fluorescent microscopy b. transmission electron microscopy c. phase contrast microscopy d. Scan. Electron microscopy e. light microscopy 51. Living, unstained cells and organisms can be observed best using a. fluorescent microscopy b. TEM (transmission electron microscopy) c. binocular magnifier d. phase contrast microscopy 52. Louis Pasteur's studies on the unwanted production of acid from beet sugar was the first demonstration that a. sugars are unstable and can breakdown into either ethanol or acid. b. ethanol is unstable and can convert to acid. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor c. microorganisms can be found in air. d. bacteria can cause specific chemical reactions. 53. Mark rod-shaped bacteria: a. Escherichia coli b. Vibrio c. Treponema d. Borrelia 54. Mark rod-shaped bacteria: a. Sarcina b. Spirilla c. Streptococcus d. Mycobacterium 55. Light of which color below would give you the best resolution of light microscopes? a. Red b. Blue c. Orange d. Green 56. Phase Contrast microscopy: a. Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve contrast in the specimen. b. Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phases of the cell. c. Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them. d. Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell with different refractive indices. 57. Phase Contrast microscopy a. Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell with different refractive indices. b. Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve contrast in the specimen. c. Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phases of the cell. d. Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them. 58. Poly-beta-hydroxybutyrate inclusion bodies a. protect bacteria from excessive drying. b. turn reddish brown when stained with iodine. c. store carbon for energy and biosynthesis. d. are composed of polymers of glucose. 59. Resolution is the ability of a lens to distinguish between small objects close together. What approximate resolution can be obtained with a light microscope a. 0.3 nm b. 0.5 nm c. 0.8 nm Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor d. 0.1 nm 60. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is best used to study a. small internal cell structures. b. cytoplasma c. nucleoid d. surface morphology. 61. Show diplococci: a. Vibrio b. Treponema c. Borrelia d. Neisseria 62. Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means: a. they are shaped like bent rods. b. do not have just one shape. c. they have a corkscrew shape. d. they are not either bacilli or cocci. e. they are not either vibrio or spirochete 63. Spherical bacteria arranged in a chain are known as a. spirochetes b. bacilli c. streptococci d. staphylococci. e. streptobacilli 64. Syphilis is caused by which of the following? a. Treponema pallidum b. Helicobacter pylori c. Proteus mirabilis d. Serratia marcesans e. Treponema vincentii 65. The 70S procaryotic ribosomes consist of a. two 40S subunits. b. a 40S and a 30S subunit. c. a 50S and a 20S subunit. d. a 50S and a 30S subunit. e. two 30S subunits. 66. The cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is composed primarily of a. chitin. b. cellulose, c. starch. d. protein. e. peptidoglycan. 67. The construction and use of the compound microscope is attributed to: a. Louis Pasteur. b. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. c. Robert Koch. d. Ferdinand Cohn. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor e. Paul Ehrlich. 68. The first observation that bacteria-like organisms could be found in normal air was by a. Louis Pasteur b. Anton Leeuwenhoek c. Robert Koch d. Joseph Meister e. Edward Jenner 69. The first person to see bacteria did his work mostly in what century? a. 14th b. 16th c. 17th d. 18th e. 19th 70. The first physician to make practical application of the germ theory of disease to surgery was a. Louis Pasteur b. Robert Koch c. Edward Jenner d. Anton von Leeuwenhoek e. Joseph Lister 71. The first techniques of sterilization were introduced by: a. Robert Koch. b. Ferdinand Cohn. c. John Needham. d. Louis Pasteur. e. Gerhardt Domagk. 72. The flagellar filament grows by a. enzymatic addition of subunits to the tip of the flagellum. b. enzymatic addition of subunits to the base of the flagellum. c. self-insertion of subunits along the length of the filament. d. no correct answer e. self-assembly of subunits traveling through the hollow flagellum to the tip. 73. The form of coffee corn is had: a. staphylococcus and streptococcus b. meningococcus and gonococcus c. pneumococcus and monococcus d. peptococcus and peptostreptococcus e. tetracoccus and sarcina 74. The fourth stage of making of a staining smear is: a. Staining b. Fixation c. Washing d. Drying e. Preparation of smear 75. The major defining difference(s) between a PROKARYOTIC and a EUKARYOTIC cell is/are: a. The absence of membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes. b. The lack of photosynthesis by prokaryotic cells. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor c. The use of ATP as an energy source by the more complex eukaryotic cells. d. The absence of chromosomes in prokaryotes. e. The absence of membrane-bound organelles in prokaryotes. 76. The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term describing this shape is a. bacillus b. pleomorphic c. coccus d. vibrio e. spirochete 77. The most important role of the prokaryotic cell wall is to a. maintain the shape of the cell. b. protect the cell from osmotic pressures. c. prevent ions from diffusing away from the cell. d. block the effects of antibiotics like penicillin. 78. The original distinction between the two types of cells, prokaryotic and eukaryotic, was made on the basis of the a. structure of the cell wall b. absence or presence of mitochondria. c. absence or presence of ribosomes d. structure of the cell membrane. e. absence or presence of a nuclear membrane. 79. The outer membrane of Gram negative cells is more permeable than the plasma membrane because a. LPS is larger than most membrane phospholipids. b. lipoproteins stretch the outer membrane. c. the core polysaccharide spans the lipid bilayer. d. porin proteins establish holes in the outer membrane. e. it contains LPS. 80. The primary use of Koch's postulates is to a. demonstrate that a disease is caused by a microorganism. b. clearly identify and characterize a particular microorganism. c. isolate microorganisms from diseased animals. d. develop vaccines for specific diseases. e. environment suround the diseased animals. 81. The substage condenser a. changes the wavelength of the light reaching the specimen b. decreases the amount of light reaching the specimen c. eluminate the specimen d. magnificates size of specimen e. focuses light on the specimen 82. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in: a. Clostridium botulinum. b. Clostridium perfringens. c. Clostridium tetani. d. Clostridium histolyticum. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 83. What disease do Streptococci cause? a. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis b. Enteric fever c. Diphtheria d. Scarlet fever 84. What disease do Streptococci cause? a. Typhoid fever b. Mumps c. Rheumatic fever d. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis e. Tuberculosis 85. What disease does Neisseria meningitidis cause? a. Rheumatic fever b. Scarlet fever c. Cholera d. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitides 86. What does Kingdom Prokaryotae include: a. bacteria. b. protozoa. c. fungi. d. viruses 87. What is the function of an illuminator? a. To control the temperature of the specimen b. To keep the specimen moist c. To keep the specimen dry d. An illuminator is the light source used to observe a specimen under a microscope 88. What microbes do belong to spiral forms? a. Vibrio b. Bordetella c. Clostridia d. Micrococcus 89. What was the first bacterium shown to cause human disease? a. Mycobacterium b. Diphtheria c. Streptococcus d. Anthrax 90. What was the first successful solid medium for colony purification of bacteria? a. Agar b. Potato c. Gelatin d. Meat 91. Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient? a. Treponema. b. Slaphylococcus. c. Mycoplasma. d. Klebsiella. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 92. Which of the following components are not found in the Gram-positive cell wall? a. lipopolysaccharides b. peptidoglycan c. teichoic acid d. N-acetyl muramic acid 93. Which of the following statements is most correct about the differential Gram stain? a. Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive cells. b. Gram's iodine differentially stains Gram positive cells. c. Saffron red differentially stains Gram negative cells. d. Acetone differentially distains Gram negative cells. 94. Choose the unique structure of prokaryotic organisms? a. mitochondria b. ribosomes c. peptidoglycan cell wall d. cell membrane 95. Who did coin the term vaccine? a. Ehrlich. b. Louis Pasteur, c. Robert Koch. d. Edward Jenner. 96. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885? a. Semple. b. Edward Jenner c. Paul Ehrlich. d. Louis Pasteur e. Wasserman. 97. Who did discovere bacillus of tuberculosis? a. Hansen. b. Robert Koch. c. Loeffler. d. Bruce. 98. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox? a. Edward Jenner. b. Louis Pasteur. c. Paul Ehrlich. d. John Hunter. 99. Who first developed the process of colony purification on solid media? a. Louis Pasteur b. Fannie Hesse c. Robert Koch d. Richard Petri 100. Who was this scientist? He was originally trained as a chemist, but his studies on fermentation led him to take interest in microorganisms. His discoveries revolutionized medical practice, although he never studied medicine. a. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. b. Edward Jenner. c. Paul Ehrlich. d. Louis Pasteur. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 101. Why is a bacterium called a prokaryotic organism? a. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus. b. A bacterium is a multicell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus. c. A bacterium is a multicell organism that has a distinct nucleus. d. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus. 102. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as: a. peritrichous. b. polytrichous c. monotrichous. d. amphitrichous. 103. A cytoplasmic membrane is a. a membrane that provides a barrier between the cell’s internal structures b. a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the cell wall and the cell’s internal structures c. part of the cell envelope d. No correct answers e. a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the nucleus and the cell’s internal structures 104. After what sign of mycoplasma differ from bacteria : a. by intracellular parasite b. by absence of cell wall c. by tinctorial properties d. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane 105. Choose one true option about prokaryotes: a. produce endospores. b. possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes. c. have cell walls. d. lack mitochondria. 106. An important property of the cell envelope of acid-fast bacteria is: a. the presence of porins in the outer membrane b. the lack of oxidative phosphorylation enzymes c. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer d. the abundance of mycolic acid in the cell wall 107. Appearance of a hard chancre is characteristic of: a. secondary syphilis. b. latent syphilis. c. tertiary syphilis. d. primary syphilis. 108. Bacilli are differed from bacteria according to their ability to form: a. capsules; b. spores c. flagella; d. volutin; 109. Bacteria do not have some organelles, but always have: a. Mitochondria b. Cell membrane c. Chloroplasts d. Nucleoid Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 110. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which produce endospores is/are: a. Bacillus. b. Bacterium. c. Corynebacterium d. Mycobacterium e. Micrococcus 111. Bacterial genus/genera of medical importance which does not produce endospores is/are: a. Bacillus. b. Cl. botulinum c. Bacteroides d. Cl. tetani 112. Capsules to the bacteria are needed for: a. toxins production b. defence from fagocytosis c. antibodies production d. spore production e. survival in an external environment 113. What is incorrect? a. Spores are formed under adverse environmental conditions such as the absence of a b. Spores are resistant to boiling c. Spores are metabolically inactive and contain dipicolinic acid, a calcium chelator d. Spores are formed primarily by organisms of the genus Neisseria 114. Choose among listed bacteria microorganism, which is not able to form a capsule: a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Rickettsia typhi c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Bacillus anthracis e. Yersinia pestis 115. Choose correct statement about bacterial L-forms: a. they have no nucleoid b. they have no ribosomes c. they have no cell wall d. they have no cell membrane 116. Clostridium and Bacillus are unique among most bacteria, because they ______ a. produce endospores b. are acid-fast c. do not have teichoic acids d. are mesophiles 117. Endospore formation is a property of: a. Clostridium botulinum b. Escherichia coli c. Treponema pallidum d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis e. Staphylococcus aureus Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 118. Indicate disease caused by Leptospira interrogans: a. Endemic relapsing fever b. Lyme disease c. Weil syndrome (icterohemorrhagic fever), canicola fever d. Syphilis e. Enteric fever 119. Medical important spore forming bacteria belong to next genus: a. Fusobacterium b. Streptococcus c. Escherichia d. Proteus e. Clostridia 120. Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to: a. lysosomes of eukaryotes. b. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes. c. mitochondria of eukaryotes. d. polyribosomes of eukaryotes e. no correct answers. 121. Spores are necessary to bacteria for: a. Defence from fagocytosis b. Defence from acid in stomack c. Survival into human and animal’s organism d. Survival in an external environment e. Reproduction 122. The bacterial capsule is: a. A form of storage granule within the cell. b. a long thin protein rod that is used for bacterial exchange of genetic material. c. Always present on a cell that has the ability to form a capsule. d. a long thin protein rod that is used for attachment. e. A coating on the exterior of many cells. 123. The major function of the cell membrane is: a. To keep water from entering the cell, which causes it to burst. b. To protect the internal components of a cell from the chaos outside of a cell. c. No correct answer d. To bind lipids in the hydrophobic inner layer. e. To trap energy so the cell can use it for the functions of life. 124. The significance of the plasma membrane is that a. it prevents movement of molecules out of the organism b. it is the site of protein synthesis c. All answers are correct d. no correct answers e. it selectively allows some molecules to pass into the organism 125. The structure of DNA was discovered by: a. Darwin and Crick b. Pasteur and Koch c. Watson and Crick d. Baltimore and Flemming Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor e. Watson and Griffith 126. To the spiral-shaped bacteria ______ belong: a. staphylococci b. streptococci c. bacilli d. clostridia e. spirillas 127. What are plasmides of bacteria? a. circular DNA in a shell b. fragments DNA in volutin granules c. circular RNA in cytoplasm d. circular DNA in a cytoplasm e. circular DNA in nucleoid 128. What is necessary component of bacterial ultrastructure? a. Mesosome b. Nucleus c. Mitochondria d. Cell membrane e. Golgi apparatus 129. The main task of the bacteriological laboratory: A) study of the epizootic situation. B) diagnosis of diseases of farm animals. C) development of planned activities. D) analysis of statistical data. E) treatment of animals. 130. CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by: a. T cells. b. В cells. c. monocytes. d. granulocytes. 131. Which departments are available in the bacteriological laboratory: A) epizootic. B) therapeutic. C) bacteriological, serological, virological. D) operational. E) clinical. 132. Normal human microflora is: a. Set of microbiocenoses of all parts of the body b. Skin c. Mucous membranes d. Intestine 133. Microflora of the oral cavity is represented by: a. Lactobacilli b. Kokkovymi bacteria Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor c. Karinebacteria d. Spirochetes 134. The founder of the theory of the normal microflora: a) P. V. Tsiklinskaya b) L. G. Peretz c) R. Koch d) I. I. Mechnikov 135. Sanitary-indicative microbes of air: a. Proteus b. Meningococcus c. E. coli d. Enterococcus e. Staphylococcus aureus 136. Microflora of the upper respiratory tract: a. L-hemolytic streptococci b. The virus of poliomyelitis c. Mycobacterium d. Brucella 137. The microflora of the oral cavity of an adult: a. S. typhі b. Lactobacterium bіfіdum c. Treponema pallіdum d. Neisseria gonorhoeae 138. Flora of the large intestine of an adult: a. E. coli b. Acidophilic rod c. Treponema dentіum d. It changes with antibiotic therapy 139. Which species of microbes in the intestine are the vitamins essential for the human body (B1, B2, B12, K) produce? A. Streptococcusviridans C. Escherihiacoli.. B. Streptococcusmutans D. Staphylococcusepidermidis. 140. Solutions made in the pharmacy inoculated on medium to detect of microbial contamination. On Endo medium red colonies with metallic blistengrew. What it can be microbes? A Shigella C.Salmonella B.streptococci D.Escherihia 141. Spores of bacilli can be located in a cage: A) is terminal. C) issuperficial. B) subterminally. D) centrally, subterminally, terminally. 142. Boy, 7 years old, has vomiting, acute diarrhoea. The previous diagnosis was cholera. But after inoculation of feces on Endo medium dark red colonies with metallic shine grow. Under the microscope they are gram-negative, small, straight rods. What Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor these microbes are? A. Escherichia coli C. Vibrio cholera B. Shigella spp. D. Salmonella spp. 143. The first word in the name of microorganisms means: A)type; C) genus B) the species; D) family 144. For the prevention of diphtheria vaccine is used: A) BCG; C) DTP B) TAVTE; D) Sabin. 145. The main carrier site on the human body for strains of potentially pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus is the A. nasal membranes C.gastrointestinal tract B. oral cavity D..throat (posterior nasopharynx) 145. Infection diseases are transmitted from its source. Choose the source of an infection A. Polluted foodstuff C.sick animal B. fly D.mosquitoes 146. A major difference between EHEC and EPEC is A. EHEC possesses a type III secretion system and EPEC does not B. EHEC secretes a Shiga-like toxin and EPEC does not C. EPEC rearranges host cell actin and EHEC does not D. EPEC passes through the placenta to infect the fetus and EHEC does not 147. The bacterial sore throat is caused by A. Staphylococcusaureus B. Haemophilusspp C. Streptococcuspyogenes D. Mycoplasmapneumoniae 148. Crystal violet blood agar is a selective medium for A. β-haemolytic streptococci B. Staphylococcusaureus C. Corynebacteriumdiphtheriae D. Mycobacteriumtuberculosis 149. Generation time of Escherichia coli is A. 20 minutes B. 20 hours Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor C. 20 days D. 200 hours 150. Transmission of bubonic plague is by A. Inhalation B. ratflea C. Ingestion D. mice 151. Transmission of pneumonic plague from man to man is through A. Inoculation B. Ingestion C. dropletinfection D. Inhalation 152. The agent(s) which can cause plague is/are A. Proteusmirabilis B. Pseudomonasaeruginosa C. Yersiniapestis D. mycoplasma 153. Humans become infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis most frequently by A. Ingestion B. Inhalation C. Contact D. Inoculation 154. Medusa head appearance of the colonies may be due to A. Proteus mirabilis B. Bacillus anthracis C. Clostridiumtetani D. Pseudomonasaeruginosa 155. The role of bacterial capsules as virulence factors is usually related to their ability to interfere with a. Antibody binding Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b. B lymphocyte activation c. Antibacterial penetration of bacterial cells d. Phagocytosis 156. Resistance of Staphylococcus aureus to methicillin is most often caused by a. Alternation of the major target for the drug b. cell membrane impermeability c. decreased uptake of the antibiotic d. Inactivation of autolysins 157. The molecular basis for the effect of cholera toxin on duodenal mucosal cells is a. Activation of adenylateCyclase b. Inactivation of a G1 protein c. Increased activity of potassium pumps d. increased generation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) 158. The synthesis of erythrogenic toxin by specific strains of group A Streptococcus is determined by a a. Bacterial chromosomal gene b. gene carried by a lysogenic phage c. Specific virulence plasmid d. Transposon 159. A patient develops explosive, watery diarrhea 24 hours after eating seafood. What bacterium is most likely involved? a. Campylobacter fetus b. Salmonella typhimurium c. Shigellaflexneri d. Vibrio cholera 160. Which of the following bacteria is not a most common bacterial pathogen causing diarrhea? a. Shigellaspp b. Salmonella spp c. Enterococcus faecalis d. E.coli 161. Which of the following bacteria is rarely associated with urinary tract infections? a. E.coli b. Enterobacter spp c. Proteus spp d. Shigella spp 162. Which of the following Gram negative rod is not a blood borne bacterial pathogen? a. Shigellaspp b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiellapneumoniae d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 163. Sterilization is done by autoclave that consists of exposure to stream at about A. 120°C B. 170°C C. 121°C D. 116°C Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 164. Penicillin is drug that destroy cells only when they are in growing stage, so penicillin is A. Bacteriocins B. Bactericidal C. Bacteriostatic D. Bacteriainhibiting 165. Tularemia is zoonotic disease that is caused by A. Francisellatularensis B. E. coli C. Brucellaspecie D. Yersinia pestis 166. Shigella and Campylobacter are isolated by A. Urine culture B. Stool Culture C. Spinal fluid culture D. Blood culture 167. Minimum time for doubling of E. Coli generation is approximately A. I hour B. 30 minutes C. 40 minutes D. 20 minutes 168. Anthrax is a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis that is common in most animals but rare in A. Birds B. Human C. Algae D. Fungi 169. Gram negative rods that do not ferment lactose is A. Bacillus B. Bacillussabtlis C. Salmonella D. Klebsilla 170. Other name for pertussisis A. Cough B. Coldcough Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor C. Whoopingcough D. Fever 171. Q fever word 'Q' is used to denote A. Question B. Query C. Quotation D. Quality 172.. Human urban yellow fever is transmitted by A. Mosquito B. Rats C. Pigs D. Monkeys 173. Mycobacterium tuberculosis doubles their generation in A. 20 hours B. 20 minutes C. 24 hours D. 36 hours 174. Tuberculosis is caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis that enters body via A. Respiratory tract B. Skin C. Gastrointestinal tract D. Mucosa 175. The most pathogenic Brucella spp for man is A. B melitensis B. B abortus C. B suis D. B canis 176. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are two medically important genera of A. Gram-positive baccilli B. Aerobicbacteria C. Gram-negativebacteria D. Gram-positivecocci 177. Yersinia caused A. Plague Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor B. Proteus C. Treponema D. Mycobacterium 178. Diphtheria iscausedby A. Corynebacterium diphtheria B. Rods C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Cocci 179. Diseases for which animals are reservoirs are called A. Animals transmitters B. Congenital C. Zoonosis D. Reservoirs 180. Which drug can be used for the setting of skin-allergic tests with a diagnostic purpose: a) BCG b) Tuberculin c) Tetanus toxoid d) DTP 181. Acid resistance is characteristic for: a) Diphtheria bacillus b) Staphylococci c) Rickettsius c) Tuberculosis bacillus 182. The causative agent of the tetanus bacillus forms: a) Proteases b) Endotoxin c) Thetanospazmine d) Plasmocoagulase Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 183. How do they call cocci, arranged in the form of bunches of grapes: a) Streptococci b) Staphylococci c) sarcinas d) bacilli 184. Widespread immunity that protects the population from the spread of disease is called C. population immunity C. crossreactivity D. epidemic prophylaxis D.Herd immunity 185. Sources of staphylococcal infections: a) patients, bacterial carriers b) medical instruments c) water d) household items 186. The optimum temperature for cultivation of pathogenic bacteria: a) 37.0С b) 20.0С c) 52.0C d) 0.0С 187. Sanitation-indicative microorganisms of water are: a) E. coli b )spore-forming bacteria c) cholera vibrio d)Protozoa 188.Sanitary-indicative microorganisms of air are: a) Staphylococcus aureus b) pneumococci c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d.E. Coli 189.Representative of the microflora of the upper respiratory tract: a) The virus of poliomyelitis. b) Brucella. c) Streptococci. d) Cholera vibrios. 190. The fight against rodents - the sources of infectious diseases is called: a)disinfection b) deratization c) disinsection d) sterilization 191.For thermophiles, the optimal growth temperature is: a) 0-5 degrees Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b) 50-60 degrees c) 10-15 degrees d)35-37 degrees 192.The DTP vaccine includes: a) Tabte b) Corpuscular leptospirosis. c) Diphtheria, tetanus toxoid. d) Influenza. 193.Choose bacteria that secrete enterotoxins: a) Brucella. b) Pathogen plague. c) Vibrio cholerae. d) Pneumococci. 194.Which microorganism causes scarlet fever: a) Corynebacterium b) Streptococcus c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Klebsiella 195.Specify a family of staphylococci: a.Neiseriaceae b) Streptococcaceae c) Micrococcaceae d) Bacіllaceae 196.Streptococci: a) Causes purulent-inflammatory infections b) Grow on the IPA c) In the smear are arranged in groups, congestions d) Do not have adhesives 197.Indicate the causative agent of typhoid fever: a) Salmonella enterіtіdіs b) Salmonella typhіmurіum c) Salmonella anatum d) Salmonella typhі 198.Which of these bacteria are characterized by the capacity for intensive propagation at low temperatures (0-4 C): a) Escherichia b) Shigella c) Yersinia d) Klebsiella 199.The Mantoux test is set for: a) Detection of infected individuals with tuberculosis mycobacteria b) Treatment of tuberculosis Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor c) Accelerated diagnosis of tuberculosis d) Diagnosis of the tuberculosis process 200. The material for bacteriological research in the diphtheria of throat is: a) Cerebrospinal fluid b) Pus c) Exercises d) Slime from the throat, larynx 201.Prevention of brucellosis is carried out with the help of: a) Neutralization of products and raw materials of animal origin b) Bacteriophage c) The killed vaccine d) Gamma globulin 202. The pathogenesis of brucellosis is associated with: a) endotoxin production b) The ability of the toxin to spread along the nerve trunks c) Formation of granulomas d) The effect of toxin on the mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract 203.Which brucella often causes brucellosis in goats and sheep: a) Brucellamelіtensіs b) Brucellaabortus c) Brucellasuis d) Brucellacanis 204. The causative agent of the plague opened: a) Gotschlich b) Kitasamo c) Leffler d) Jersen 205. Carriers of infection in the plague are: a) Lice b) Fleas c) Ticks d) Cervix 206.The causative agent of anthrax belongs to the family: a) Enterobacteriacae b) Spirllaceae c) Bacіllaceae d) Brucellaceae 207.Choose obligate aerobes among these microorganisms: a. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini b. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi c. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcus spp. 208.Choose obligate anaerobes: a. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum b. Escherichia coli Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor c. Salmonella typhi d. Proteus vulgaris 209.Material from patient with gas gangrene must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them: a. Kitt-Tarozzi medium b. 1 % alkaline peptone water c. Ru’s medium d. Blood agar 210.Gas gangrene bacilli is a. Facultative anaerobe b. Obligate aerobe c. Microaerophylic bacteria d. Obligate anaerobe 211.Clostridium tetani is a. Gram negative bacilli b. Gram positive cocci c. Spiral-shaped bacteria d. D. Gram positive bacilli 212.Vaccines are sterilised by a. Hot air oven b. Autoclaving c. Heat inactivation d. Seitz filtration 213. Which of the following regarding chlamydia trachomatis is true a. Cause infertility b. Ttransmitted parenterally c. They are viruses d. Gram negative 214.Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in: a. Clostridium perfringens. b. C. tetani. c. С. botulinum. d. C. histolyticum. 215. A degree of heterotrophy may be different. The highest heterotrophy have prokaryotic organisms that are able to live only inside the living cells. They are: a. staphylococci and streptococci b. escherichia and salmonellas c. mycobacteria and bordetella d. rickettsia and chlamidia 216. What is unique about the Mycoplasma bacterial group? a. they lack cell walls b. they lack a cell membrane c. they have organelles d. they are prokaryotes 217.Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient? a. Mycoplasma. b. Treponema. c. Slaphylococcus. d. Klebsiella. 218. The main causative agent of gas anaerobic gangrene: A. C. perfringens B.C. novyi C. C. septicum Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor D. C. histolyticum 219.Accelerated diagnostics of gas anaerobic infection: A. The Ermolieva Method B. Gas-liquid chromatography C. Detects the presence of clostridia D. Neutralization reaction 220.Botulinum sticks are characterized by the formation of: A. Hyaluronidase B. Plasmocoagulases C. Neurotoxin D. Neulysin 221.For laboratory diagnostics of botulism use: A. Neutralization reaction in white mice B. Agglutination reaction C. RPGA D. Allergic test 222.For the treatment of botulism use: A. Bacteriophage B. Antimicrobial serum C. Polyvalent antitoxic serum D. Antibiotics 223.Infectiousness of chlamydia provides: A. The initial bodies B. Reticular bodies C. Elementary bodies D. Exotoxin 224.Mycoplasmas: A. Affect the genito-urinary tract B. Causes diseases with acute course C. Cause OCI D. Affect the mucosa of the small intestine 225.The laboratory diagnosis of mycoplasmosis includes: A. Serological B. The phenomenon of plaque formation in cell culture C. The biological method D. Inhibition of growth by specific sera 226.Rickettsia: A. obligate intracellular parasites B. contain only DNA C. reproduce by spores D. grow on ordinary nutrient media 227.Causative agent of epidemic typhus: A. Rickettsia sibirica B.Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia prowazekii D. Rickettsia australis 228.Source of infection in epidemic typhus: A. pets B. rodents C. sick people Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor D. mites 229.Infection with epidemic typhus occurs: A.when in contact with a sick person B. when bitten by infected lice C. through intact skin D. when rubbing the feces of infected lice 230.Chlamydia trachomatis causes everything, in particular: A. trachoma B. urogenital chlamydiosis C. respiratory chlamydiosis D. pneumonia of newborns 231.. M.pneumoniae is mycoplasma that is pathogenic only for A. Pigs B. Rats C. Cats D. Human 232.Mycoplasma are free living and small organisms of size nearly A. 0.5 μm B. 0.4 μm C. 0.3 μm D. 0.2 μm 233.Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria: A. by structure of the nucleoid B. by intracellular parasite C. by tinctorial properties D. by absence of cell wall 234.Choose among the listed reservoirs for human infections a. food b. sick animals, snsects c. fly d. sick humans, cariers 235.Biological control used in an autoclave is: A. Fungy B. Ricketsia C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Spores of bacillus 236.Dark Ground microscopy is used for detection of a. Chlamydia b. Fungi c. Virus d. Spirochetes 237. Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means: a. they are shaped like bent rods. b. they have a corkscrew shape. c. they do not have just one shape. d. they are not either bacilli or cocci. 238.Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis? a. Mechnikov b. Vinogradsky c. Pasteur d. Koch Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 239.Factors of pathogenicity of rickettsia: A. Toxins B. RNAse C. DNAse D. hyaluronidase 240.Reticular chlamydial bodies: A. adapted to extracellular survival B. Infectious form of Chlamydia C. Not sensitive to antibiotics D. are metabolically active 241.The causative agent of Q-fever? A. R. sibirica B. R. typhi C. R. conori D. Coxiella burnetti 242.. Rickettsia and chlamydia are characterized by: A. Absolute intracellular parasitism B. the presence of DNA or RNA C. reproduction according to the genetic information of the host cell D. lack of cellular organization 243.Prevention of neonatal tetanus: A. Vaccination of all women of childbearing age B. vaccination of pregnant women C. vaccination of newborns D. pasteurization of breast milk 244. When we use Romanowsky-Giemsa technique for staining of Borrelia, they have such color: a. green b. red c. black d. violet 245.Which brucella often causes brucellosis in goats and sheep: a) Brucellamelіtensіs b) Brucellaabortus c) Brucellasuis d) Brucellacanis 246.The causative agent of the plague opened: a) Gotschlich b) Kitasamo c) Leffler d) Jersen 247.Carriers of infection in the plague are: a) Lice Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b) Fleas c) Ticks d) Cervix 248.Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient? A. Mycoplasma. B. Treponema. C. Slaphylococcus. D. Klebsiella. 249.Mycoplasmas: A. Affect the genito-urinary tract B. Causes diseases with acute course C. Cause OCI D. Affect the mucosa of the small intestine 250.Causative agent of epidemic typhus: A. Rickettsia sibirica B.Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia prowazekii D. Rickettsia australis 251.Chlamydia trachomatis causes everything, in particular: A. trachoma B. urogenital chlamydiosis C. respiratory chlamydiosis D. pneumonia of newborns 252.M.pneumoniae is mycoplasma that is pathogenic only for A. Pigs B. Rats C. Cats D. Human 253.Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria: A. by structure of the nucleoid B. by intracellular parasite C. by tinctorial properties D. by absence of cell wall 254.Biological control used in an autoclave is: a. Fungy Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b. Ricketsia c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis d. Spores of bacillus 255.Dark Ground microscopy is used for detection of a. Chlamydia b. Fungi c. Virus d. Spirochetes 256. Factors of pathogenicity of rickettsia: A. Toxins B. RNAse C. DNAse D. hyaluronidase 257. Reticular chlamydial bodies: A. adapted to extracellular survival B. Infectious form of Chlamydia C. Not sensitive to antibiotics D. are metabolically active 258.Prevention of neonatal tetanus: A. Vaccination of all women of childbearing age B. vaccination of pregnant women C. vaccination of newborns D. pasteurization of breast milk 259.The causative agent of Q-fever? A. R. sibirica B. R. typhi C. R. conori D. Coxiella burnetti 260.Rickettsia and chlamydia are characterized by: A. Absolute intracellular parasitism B. the presence of DNA or RNA C. reproduction according to the genetic information of the host cell D. lack of cellular organization 261.Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis? a. I. Mechnikov b. S. Vinogradsky c. L. Pasteur d. R. Koch 262."The science of microbiology is""" a.The study of microorganisms and their relationships to the world around them Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b. The study of very small insects that are too small to inspect macroscopically c.The study of only small species of the animal and plant kingdoms d.The study of microscopes 263.The fist man to use a simple microscope to observe microorganisms was""" a.Pasteur b. Leeuwenhoek c.Koch d.Mixon 264."Classification of all living organisms divided? a. Kingdom, family, phylum, genus, class, order, species b.Kingdom, phylum, family, order class, genus, specie c.Kingdom, genus, phylum, , order, family, class, species d.Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species 265.Which of the following structure is present in prokaryotic cells""" a.Mitochondria b.Chloroplasts c.Golgi structure d.Mesosome 266.Pathogenic microorganisms are"" a.Capable of causing disease b.Capable of curing disease c. Organisms that never caused disease d.The essential continuance of our species 267.Monotrichous organisms have""" a.One flagellum at each end b.A tuft of flagella at one end c.One flagellum d.A tuft of flagella at each end 268."The study of form and structure of bacteria is" a.Zoology Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b.Microbiology c.Morphology d.Physiology 269.The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgD 270.The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the enzyme a. Coenzyme Q b. Luciferase c. Lactose dehydrogenase d. Carboxylase reductase 271.Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that a. Fail to reproduce on artificial meida b. Have a rigid cell wall c. Are resistant to penicillin d. Stain well with Gram’s stain 272.The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during a. Lag phase b. Log c. Stationary d. Decline 273.Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in a. Peptidoglycan b. Lippolysacharide c. Theichoic acid d. Inner membrane 274.. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall a. Lysozome b. Reductase c. Protease d. Lysozyme 275.Gamma radiations are used for sterlizing :" a.Syringes b.Cystoscopes c.Dressing aprons Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor d. Metal instruments 276.The process of destroying all microbes including spores is called :" a.Disinfection b.Antisepsis c.Disinfestation d.Sterlization 277.Which of the following is most resistant to anticeptics? a.Spore b.Prion c.Cyst d.Fungus 278.Which of the following statement is true : a.Solid media are enrichment media b.Nutrient broth is basal media c.Agar adds nutrient to media d.Chocolate agar is selective media 279..Decreasing order of resistance to sterilization a.Spores, prions, non-lipid of smll virus" b.Prions, spores, enveloped viruses c.Spores, mycobacteria, lipid or medium size virus d.Bacterial spores, prions, bacteria 280.Sterilising agents include" a.Dry heat b.Ethylene oxide c.Ether d.Alcohol 281.Sporocidal disinfectant is following except : a.Glutaraldehyde b.Formaldehyde c.Ethylene oxide d.Benzalkonium chloride Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 282.All are sporicidal except a.Lysol b.Glutaraldehyde" c.Ethylene dioxide" d.Formaldehyde" 283.Sterlization of culture media containing serum is by : a.Autoclaving b.Micropore filter c.Gamma radiation d.Centrifugation 284.Asepsis means : a. Absence of pathogenic microbes b.Disinfection of the surface c.Prevention of infection d.Destroying all forms of microorganism 285.PCR is used to: a.Detect target plasmids b.Amplify small amount of DNA c.Seal the cut ends of DNA d.Cleave the bacterial plasmid 286.Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA:" a.Transformation b.Conjugation" c.Transduction" d.None" 287.Reverse transcriptase is: a.DNA dependent RNA polymerase b.RNA dependent DNA polymerase c.DNA dependent DNA polymerase Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor d.RNA dependent RNA polymerase 288.Enzyme(s) used in polymerase chain reaction is/are: a.Restriction endonuclease b.DNA polymerase c.Alkaline phosphate d.RNA polymerase 289.Which of the following is enzyme of pathogenicity a. Fibrinolysin b.Interferon c.Lisocim" d.A and d" 290.Transfer of genetic material from a donor to a recipient bacterial cell with bacteriophage as a carrier is:" a.Conjugation b.Transcription c.Transduction d.Transformation 291.What dye in the Gram stain do Gram positive bacteria retain? a. iodine b. malachite green c. sarfanin d. crystal violet e. methylene blue 292.The Gram stain is based on differences in the __________ of bacteria. a. cell wall b. sportes c. flagella d. nuclear membrane e. ribosomes 293.The gram stain: a. will differentiate bacterial cells based on chemical differences in their cell walls b. requires acid alcohol as decolorizer c. requires the use of steam heat while staining the cells on the slide d. can be used to determine if a bacterial cell is capable of photosynthesis e. uses acidic dyes 294.Which is true of bacterial cell walls: a. contain cellulose Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor b. protects against osmotic shock c. selectively permeable d. chemically identical in all bacterial cells e. also called capsules 295.Which one of the following allows bacterial cell motility? a. cilia b. plasmid c. flagella d. capsule e. pill 296.Which term is used to describe flagella that are found all over the surface of the bacterial cell: a. peritrichous b. monotrichous c. amphitrichous d. atrichous e. lophotrichous 297.A disease of slow progress and long duration is:" a. Secondary disease b.Primary disease c.Chronic disease d.Persistent disease 298.The destruction or removal of all pathogenic organisms, or organisms capable of giving rise to infection is: a.Sterilisation b.Washing c.Asepsis d.Disinfection 299.Type of infection disease is: a.Sporadic b.Endemic c.Pandemic d.All of the above 300.Additional infection with new microorganism is: a.Reinfection b.Recidivation c.Mono-infection d.Mix-infection Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 301. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent is :" A. "Hepatitis B virus" B. "Hepatitis C virus" C. "Hepatitis E virus" D. "Hepatitis A virus" 302. "Which of the following hepatitis virus have significant perinatal transmission" A. "HEV" B. "HCV" C. "HBV" D. "HAV" 303. "A pregnant woman from Bihar presents with hepatic encephalopathy. The likely diagnosis" A. "Hepatitis E" B. "Hepatitis B" C. "Sepsis" D. "Acute fatty liver of pregnancy" 304. "HCV is associated with" A. "Anti LKM-1 antibody" B. "Scleroderma" C. "Cryoglobulinemia" D. "Cryoglobulinemia" 305. "Chronic liver disease is caused by :" A. "Hepatitis B" B. "Hepatitis A" C. "Hepatitis C" D. "Hepatitis E" 306. "Non - parenteral hepatitis is :" A. "Hepatitis A" B. "Hepatitis B" C. "Hepatitis C" D. "Hepatitis D" 307. "Reverse transcriptase of HBV is coded on following gene" A. "C gene" B. "S gene" C. "P gene" D. "X gene" 308. A blood donor is not considered for safe transfusion, if he has" A. "Anti HBS Ab ve" B. "Anti HBS Ab and HBc Ag ve" C. "HbS Ag ve and IgM anti HBC ve" D. "Anti HBe ve" 309. "During epidemic of hepatitis E, fatality is maximum in :" A. "Pregnant women" B. "Infants" C. "Malnourished male" D. "Adolescents" 310. "Acute infection with HBV is characterized by :" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor A. "HBs Ag" B. "Anti HBs Ag" C. "IgM anti HBc Ag and HBs Ag" D. "Anti HBc Ag" 311. "Marker for acute hepatitis B is" A. "HBV DNA" B. "IgM anti-HBc" C. "Core antgen (HbcAg)" D. "Anti-HbsAg" 312. "In a patient of active chronic hepatitis B all are seen except" A. "HbsAg" B. "IgM anti HbcAg" C. "HbeAg" D. "Anti-HbsAg" 313. "Which of the following Hepatitis virus is cultivable" A. "Hepatitis A" B. "Hepatitis B" C. Hepatitis D" D. "Hepatitis E" 314. "With which of the following of viral hepatitis infection in pregnancy, the maternal mortality the highest" A. "Hepatitis A" B. "Hepatitis B" C. "Hepatitis C" D. "Hepatitis E" 315. "A 30 year old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests showed bilirubin of 10mg/dl, SGOT/SGPT - 1100/ 1450, serum alkaline phosphatase - 240 IU. He was positive for HbsAg. What should be the confirmatory test to establish acute hepatitis B infection ?" A. "IgM Anti-HBc antibody" B. "HbeAg" C. "HBV DNA by PCR" D. "Anti-HBc antibody" 316. "A 30 year old lady delivered a healthy baby at 37 week of gestation. She was a known case of chronic hepatitis B infection. She was positive for HBsAg but negative for HBcAg. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for the baby ?" A. "Both active and passive immunization soon after birth" B. "Passive immunization soon after birth and active immunization at 1 year of age" C. "Only passive immunization soon after birth" D. "Only active immunization soon after birth" 317. Hepatitis C virus is a" A. "Togavirus" B. "Flavi virus" C. "Filovirus" D. "Retrovirus" 318. "Which one of following is true regarding HIV infection :" A. "Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside analogues" B. "CD 4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor C. "Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients" D."In latent phase HIV has minimal replication" 319. "HIVvirus has" A. "Single stranded DNA" B. "Single stranded RNA" C. "Double stranded DNA" D. "Double stranded RNA" 320. "Regarding HIV which of the following is not true:" A. "It is a DNA retrovirus" B. Contains Reverse Transcriptase" C. "May infect host CD 4 cells other than T lymphoctyes" D. "Causes a reduction in host CD 4 cells at late stage of disease" 321. "CMV retinitis in HIV occurs when the CD - 4 counts fall below :" A. "50" B. "100" C. "200" D. "150" 322. "Regarding HIV infection, not true is :" A. "P24 is used for early diagnosis" B. "Lysis of infected CD4 cells is seen" C. "Dendritic cells do not support replication" D. "Macrophage is a reservoir for the virus" 323. "Reverse transcriptase sequence in HIV is best described as" A. "RNA - DNA - RNA" B. "DNA - RNA" C. "DNA - RNA - DNA" D. "RNA - DNA" 324. "Multifocal tumour of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS :" A. "Kaposi sarcoma" B. "Astrocytoma" C. "Gastric carcinoma" D. "Primary CNS lymphoma" 325. "A patient with HIV has diarrhoea with AFB ve organism in stool. The most likely organism is :" A. "Mycobacterium avium intracellulare" B. "Mycobacterium TB" C. "Mycobacterium leprae" D. "Mycoplasmas" 326. "A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhoea and sexual contact 2 weeks before the best investigation to rule out HIV is :" A. "P24 antigen assay" B. "ELISA" C. "Western blot" D. "Lymphnode biopsy" 327. "AIDS involves primarily" A. "T-helper cells" B. "T-suppressor cells" C. "T-5 cytotoxic cells" D. "B-cells" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor 328. "When compared to the Western blot technique, ELISA test is :" A. "More sensitive, less specific" B. "More sensitive, more specific" C. "Less sensitive, less specific" D. "Less sensitive, more specific" 329. Which of the following is not true about measles:" A. High secondary attack" B. Only one strain causes infection" C. Not infectious in prodromal period" D. Infections confer life long immunity" 330. "H5N1 is :" A. "Bird flu virus" B. "Vaccinefor HIV" C. Causative agent of Japanese encpehalitis" D. "An eradicated virus" 331. "The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancy is :" A. "Influenza virus" B. Parainfluenza virus" C. Rhinovirus" D. Respiratory syncytial virus" 332. "With reference to mumps which of the following is true :" A. Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis" B. Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids" C. The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement" D. Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility" 333. All of the following statement are true about congenital Rubella except" A. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth" B. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 month" C. MC congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformation and cataract" D. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation result in major congenital defects" 334. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except :" A. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen" B. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings" C. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture" D. Detection of viral hemagglutination inhibiting (HAI) antibodies in a single serum specimen" 335. "All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus except :" A. It is transmitted by feco-oral route" B. Asymptomatic infections are common in children" C. There is a single serotype causing infection" D. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity" 336. All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except" A. Mycocarditis" B. Pleurodynia" C. Herpangina" D. Hemorrhagic fever" 337. Commonest complication of Mumps is" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor A. Orchitis and Oophritis" B. Encephalitis" C. Pneumonia" D. Myocarditis" 338. True statement about Influenza A virus" A. It has a double stranded segmented RNA" B. Pandemics are caused by antigenic drifts" C. Nucelocapsid antibody is not specific" D. Hemaglutinin and neuraminidase are strain specific" 339. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by" A. Enterovirus" B. Adenovirus" C. Poliovirus" D. Hepadna virus" 340. A 11 month old child presents with complaints of respiratory distress. On examination there is bilateral crepitation and wheezing. Which of the following is the most likely cause" A. Pneumonia" B. Adenovirus" C. Respiratory syncitial virus" D. Rhinovirus" 341. Rota virus is diagnosed by" A. IgM specific antibody in stool" B. ELISA demonstrates antibody in stool" C. Immunoflorescence antigen in stool" D. Culture of rota virus" 342. Segmented double stranded RNA virus is seen in" A. Reovirus" B. Myxovirus" C. Rabies" D. Parvo virus" 343. Micro- Organism used as weapon in biological terrorism" A. Small pox Virus" B. Rabies Virus" C. Ebola Virus" D. Influenza C Virus" 344. Incubation period less than 10 days seen :" A. Influenza" B. Cholera" C. Plague" D. Chickenpox" 345. Organism (s) causing, bronchiolitis in infant" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor A. RSV" B. Rhino virus" C. Parainfluenza" 346. Lipid envelope is found in which virus :" A. Relapsing fever" B. Herpes" C. Picorna" D. All of the above" 347. Soft tick transmits" A. Relapsing fever" B. KFD" C. Tick typhus" D. Tularemia" 348. Negre body is seen in :" A. CMV" B. Rabies" C. Inclusion of herpes simplex" D. EBV" 349. Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick :" A. Japanese encephalitis" B. Dengue fever" C. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD" D. Yellow fever" 350. New infectious agents are :" A. Nipah virus" B. Pneumocystis jeruveci" C. Corona virus" D. SARS" 351. Following are Arboviral disease" A. KFD" B. West Nile Fever" C. Ganjam virus" D. RSV" 352. Which of the following statement is/are true of all paramyxoviruses :" A. They contain a single-standed RNA genome of negative polarity" B. Envelopes are derived from the host cells plasma membrane" C. They have a cytoplasmic site of replication" D. They enter the body by the respiratory route" 353. Which of the following vaccine [s) should not be given to an immunodeficient patient :" A. Influenza vaccine" B. Rubella vaccine" C. Pneumococcal vaccine" D. Trivalent oral polio vaccine" 354. In India, human infections has been reported dengue virus type :" A. Types I and 1" B. Types 1 and 3" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor C. Types 2 and 4" D. All 4 types" 355. Which of the following is not common in India :" A. Japnese B encphalitis" B. Lassa fever" C. KFD" D. Dengue" 356. Neurological complications following Rabies vaccines is common with :" A. HDC Vaccine" B. Chick embryo vaccine" C. Semple vaccine" D. Duck egg vaccine" 357. Acute epidemic keratoconjuctivitis is caused by" A. Herpes virus" B. Echo" C. Enterovirus 70" D. Enterovirus 72" 358. Diarrhea in Rota virus infection is due to :" A. Increased intestinal hypermotility" B. Decreased absorption by villi" C. Increased Secretion by villi" D. None of the above" 359. Virus causing chicken pox belongs to :" A. Pox virus" B. Herpes virus" C. Coxsackie virus" D. Adeno virus" 360. Japanese B encephalitis virus is transmitted by :" A. Aedes aegypti" B. Culex fatigans" C. Culex tritaeniorynchus" D. Hard tick" 361. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is associated with :" A. Chicken pox" B. Rabies" C. Measles virus" D. Measles virus" 362. In which of the following virus is shed in stool :" A. Herpangina" B. Influenza" C. Varicella" D. Small pox" 363. Which viral infection always causes clinical disease in human beings :" A. Rubella" B.Poliomyelitis" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor C. Measles" D.Rabies" 364. "Strain used in measles vaccine is" A. Salk" B. Sabin" C. Wrong,"TAF" D. Edmonston jagreb" 365. "RSV causes :" A. Bronchiolitis" B. Mumps" C. Croup" D. Bronchitis" 366. "True about influenza A is :" A. Double strained segmented RNA" B. Pandemic are caused by antigenic drift" C. Nucleocapsid antibody is specific" D. Hexaminidase and Neuraminidase is type specific" 367. "True about picornavirus is:" A. OPV provides herd immunity" B. Immunity in poliomyelitis is type specific" C. Best method of isolation is tissue culture" D. Passive immunization of human immunoglobulin has more value" 368. Herpes - zoster is caused by" A. Herpes-simplex type I" B. Herpes-simplex type II" C. Epstein-barr virus" D. Varicella 369. Viral enterotoxin is detected as a possible mechanism of pathogenesis in" A. Adeno virus B. Rota virus C. Calcivirus D. Astrovirus 370. Varicella are classified under :" A. Enterovirus" B. Retrovirus" C. Poxvirus" D. Herpes virus 371. EB virus belongs to which group :" A. Retrovirus" B. Herpes virus C. RNA virus" D. Pox virus" 372. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?" A. Urine culture of CMV B. IgG CMV antibodies in blood C. Intra-nuclear inclusion bodies in hepatocytes" D. CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain reaction" 373. Parvovirus B19 does not cause" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor A. Roseola infantum B. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell" C. Fetal hydrops" D. Collapsing FSGS" 374. Epstein Barr virus is associated with" A. Carcinoma larynx B. Carcinoma bladder C. Carcinoma nasopharynx D. Carcinoma maxilla 375. The most common cause of sporadic viral encephalitis is :" A. Japnese B encephalitis" B. Herpes simplex encephalitis C. HIV encephalitis" D. Rubeola encephalitis" 376. A 40 year old man underwent kidney transplantation. Two month after transplantation, he developed fever and feature suggestive of bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. Which of the following is most likely etiologic agent :" A. Herpes simplex virus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Epstein-barr virus D. Varicella - zoster virus 377. A neonate develops encephalitis without any skin lesions most probable causative organism is :" A. HSV I B. HSV II C. Meningococci D. Streptococci 378. Encephalitis is caused by" A. HSV-I B. EBV C. Infectious mononucleosis D. CMV 379. Parvo virus causes :" A. Aplastic anemia B. Erythema infectiosum C. Roseola infantum D. Arthritis 380. In parvovirus infection what is common in adult" A. Bone marrow B. PRCA C. Erythema infectiosum D. Arthropathy 381. Which of the following pair is correct" A. RSV “ Brochiolitis B. HHV5 вЂ“ Infectious mononucleosis C. Parvovirus Exanthem subitum D. HHV - 6 - Kaposi sarcoma" 382. Which of the following statement is correct :" A. Viral warts usually resolve spontaneously B. Plantar warts should not be excised" C. Callosity are formed occupationally" D. CornвЂ™s are viral in etiology" 383. Renal involvement is seen in which of the following infections" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor A. Cytomegalovirus" B. Polyoma virus C. Human papilloma virus D. HIV 384. EBV associated with" A. Ca tonsil B. Nasopharyngeal Ca C. Anal Ca D. Infectious mononucleosis 385. True about Herpes Virus :" A. HSV encephalopathy is treated with acyclovir B. Oropharyngeal involvement is common in HSV1 C. Recurrent genital involvement is seen in HSV-2 D. Recurrence is rare in HSV-1 386. Disease caused by Epstein Barr virus are" A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Burkitt lymphoma C. Kaposi sarcoma D. Nasopharyngeal Ca 387. Regarding HSV-2 infection True is / are A. Primary infection is usually widespread B. Recurrent attacks are due to reactivation of latent infection C. Encephalitis can be caused by HSV-2 D. Newborn may acquire infection via the birth canal at the time of labour 388. Vaccine preparation requires which virus as vector:" A. Rhinovirus B. Vaccinia C. Adenovirus D. Ebola 389. EBV does not cause" A. Nasopharyngeal Ca B. Inverted papilloma C. Burkitt lymphoma D. Infectious mononucleosis 390. Immunocompromised patient due to transplantation is suffering from pyrexia and neutropenia. Most likely cause is : A. HSV B. CMV C. Gram -ve organism D. Gram ve organism 391. Most sensitive test for diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis :" A. Monospot test B. Paul Bunnet test" C. Lymphocytosis in peripheral smear" D. Culture of the virus" 392. Patient present in your clinic. On physical examination, there is bilateral lymphadenopthy, which is tender on palpation. He gave history of sexual contact. He is truck driver by profession. The probable causative agent is :" A. Herpes B. LGV C. H. ducreyi D. Treponema 393. African burkitts lymphoma is cuased by" Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor A. Cytomegala virus B. EB virus C. Herpes zoster D. Infectious mononucleosis 394. Erythema infectosum is caused by :" A. Human parvovirus is B19 B. Papova virus C. Human herpes virus type 8 D. Measles virus 395. Most common extra skin manifestation of varicella is involvement of :" A. CNS B. Lungs C. Kidneys D. CVS 396. True about Herpes virus:" A. HSV encephalopathy is treated with acyclovir B. Oropharyngeal involvement is common in HSV :1 C. Recurrent genital involvement is seen in HSV :2 D. Recurrence is rare in HSV :1 397. Following virus is of pox family" A. Variola B. Coxsackie C. ECHO D. HSV 398. Small pox belongs to which class of poxviruses A. Parapoxvirus B. Capripoxvirus C. Leporipoxvirus D. Orthopoxvirus 399. Which pox virus doesn grow in egg, animal cells?" A. Cow pox" B. Vaccinia" C. Variola" D. Molluscum" 400. Which of the following is not a pox virus A. Cow pox B. Molluscum contagiosum C. Small pox D. Chicken pox 401. Pharyngoconjunctival fever is caused by: A. Adeno virus B. Parainfluenza C. Coxsakie viruses D. All of the above 402. Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis is: A. RSV B. Rhinovirus C. Adenovirus D. Rotavirus 403. Space vehicle virus is: A. Reovirus B. Rhabdo virus C. Retrovirus Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor D. Adenovirus 404. Slapped cheek sign is seen in:" A. Parvovirus B19 B. JC virus C. Rota virus D. Mumps 405. Parvovirus infection is associated with: A. Hydrops fetalis B. Aplastic anemia C. Abortion D. Sixth disease 406. In parvovirus infection what is common in adult:" A. Bone marrow aplasia B. Prca C. Erythema infectiosum D. Arthropathy 407. HPV belongs to: A. Papova virus B. Parvovirus C. Herpes virus D. Poxvirus 408. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by:" A. CMV B. EBV C. JC virus D. RSV 409. Condyloma acuminatum is caused by:" A. HSV B. HPV C. HIV D. VZV 410. HPV vaccine is: A. Monovalent B. Bivalent C. Quadrivalent D. Both bivalent and quadrivalent 411. Which of the following statement is correct?" A. Viral warts usually resolve spontaneously B. Plantar warts should not be excised C. Callosities are formed occupationally 412. Renal involvement is seen in which of the following infections:" A. Cytomegalovirus B. Polyoma virus C. Human papilloma virus D. HIV" 413. MC serotype of HPV causing CaCx:" A. HPV 6 B. HPV 11 C. HPV 16 D. HPV 33 414. True about bacteriophage is: Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor A. Helps in gain of new toxigenic property B. Transfers only chromosomal genes C. Helps in transformation of bacteria D. It is a bacteria infecting bacteria" 415. Phage typing is widely used for the intraspecies classification of one of the following bacteria:" A. Staphylococci B. E.coli C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 416. A 74-year-old man develops fever, malaise, and a sore throat followed shortly thereafter by nausea, vomiting, and then stupor. Eastern equine encephalitis is diagnosed. Control of this disease in humans could be accomplished by eradication of which of the following? A. Horses B. Sandflies C. Mosquitoes D. Ticks 417. An arbovirus common in the Middle East, Africa, and Southwest Asia first appeared in New York in 1999. By 2002 the virus had spread throughout the continental United States. This arbovirus, a member of the Japanese B encephalitis antigenic complex, is which of the following? A. Japanese B encephalitis virus B. Tick-borne encephalitis virus C. West Nile virus D. Dengue virus E. Rift Valley fever virus 418. Which of the following descriptions of or statements about Lassa fever is correct? A. It is found in eastern Africa. B. Human-to-human transmission does not occur. C. It seldom causes death or complications. D. It occurs from contact with the house rat Mastomys natalensis. E. There is no drug that is effective in treating Lassa fever. 419. Arboviruses are transmitted by bloodsucking arthropods from one vertebrate host to another. Arboviruses are found in the following virus families except which of the following? A. Togaviridae B. Flaviviridae C. Bunyaviridae D. Reoviridae E. Arenaviridae 420. A 27-year-old man develops fever, chills, headache, and backache. Four days later he develops a high fever and jaundice. Yellow fever is diagnosed. Which of the following statements concerning yellow fever is correct? A. The virus is transmitted by culicine mosquitoes in the urban form of disease. B. Monkeys in the jungle are a major reservoir of yellow fever virus. Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor C. Yellow fever often has long-term complications. D. All infections lead to apparent disease. E. Ribavirin is specific therapy. 421. Regarding the patient in Question 117? yellow fever occurs in which region or regions of the world? A. Asia B. Africa and South America C. North America D. Africa and Middle East E. Throughout the world 422. African hemorrhagic fevers, Marburg and Ebola, are severe diseases often ending in death. Which of the following is most accurate about Ebola virus? A. Is spread by contact with blood or other body fluids B. Is transmitted by mosquitoes C. Is a flavivirus D. Causes infections but no disease in nonhuman primates E. Is antigenically related to Lassa fever virus 423. Which of the following groups can be vaccinated routinely with yellow fever vaccine without special safety considerations? A. Children younger than 9 months old B. Pregnant women C. Persons with compromised immune systems D. All of the above E. None of the above 424. Hantaviruses, which are emerging pathogens in the United States, can be described by which of the following? A. They are arenaviruses. B. They are readily transmitted human to human. C. They cause influenza-like symptoms followed rapidly by acute respiratory failure. D. They are acquired by inhalation of aerosols of deer urine. E. They show a high frequency of antigenic variation. 425. A microbiologist was performing a necropsy in a laminar flow biosafety cabinet on a blue-jay submitted as part of a state’s arbovirus surveillance program. He lacerated his thumb while using a scalpel to remove the bird’s brain. Four days later, he developed a headache, myalgia, and malaise followed by chills, sweats, and lymph node swelling. Two days later, a rash began on his face and spread to the trunk, arms, and legs, persisting for about 3 days. He sought medical care and reported a history of dengue fever and vaccinations with yellow fever and Japanese B encephalitis vaccines. A serum sample taken the day of the injury contained anti- flavivirus immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. A serum sample collected 13 days after the onset of illness showed an increased titer of antiflavivirus IgG antibody and the presence of West Nile virus IgM antibody. The physician could conclude that the most likely cause of the microbiologist’s illness was which virus? A. Dengue virus B. Yellow fever virus C. West Nile virus D. St. Louis encephalitis E. Not identifiable until neutralizing antibody titers from paired sera could be assessed against a panel of arboviruses 426. Which of the following statements about dengue virus is not true? A. It is the most important mosquito-borne viral disease Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor affecting humans. B. It is distributed worldwide in tropical regions. C. It can cause a severe hemorrhagic fever. D. There is a single antigenic type. E. One form of disease is characterized by increased vascular permeability. 427. Which of the following diseases occurring in the United States lacks a known vector? A. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome B. West Nile fever C. La Crosse encephalitis D. Colorado tick fever E. St. Louis encephalitis 428. Which of the following statements about yellow fever is false? A. There is no animal reservoir. B. The name “yellow” comes from the fact that many victims have jaundice. C. Certain mosquitoes are biological hosts for the causative agent. D. Outbreaks of the disease could occur in the United States because a suitable vector is present. E. An attenuated vaccine is widely used to prevent the disease. 429. Which of the following statements about hantaviruses in the United States is correct? A. Are limited in range to southwestern states B. Are carried only by deer mice C. Infect human beings with a fatality rate that can be above 30% D. Were first identified in the early 1970s E. Are contracted mainly in bat caves 430. A 40-year-old emergency services worker is considering smallpox vaccination because of the potential for bioterrorism. He inquires about the vaccine and finds that the most common adverse reaction or complication after vaccinia (smallpox) vaccination is A. Generalized vaccinia B. Eczema vaccinatum C. Progressive vaccinia D. Severe allergic reaction E. Inadvertent autoinoculation 431. Which of the following poxviruses infects only humans? A. Monkeypox B. Molluscum contagiosum C. Tanapox D. Cowpox E. Yaba tumor virus 432. A 7-year-old boy has pox-like lesions on his left hand and arm. He has a pet rodent imported from West Africa. Monkeypox is diagnosed in the boy and the rodent. Which of the following statements about monkeypox virus is most correct? A. Clinical disease resembles smallpox. B. Human infections are never fatal. C. Smallpox vaccination is not protective. D. Infections are readily transmitted among family members. E. Virus particles can be distinguished from smallpox virus Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor by electron microscopy. 433. Which of the following best describes the currently licensed vaccinia (smallpox) vaccines? A. Live attenuated smallpox virus B. Inactivated smallpox virus C. Live vaccinia virus D. Inactivated vaccinia virus E. Reassortant vaccine containing both vaccinia and smallpox viruses 434. Which of the following does not apply to vaccinia virus replication in cultured cells? A. Viral replication cycle takes place in the cytoplasm of infected cells. B. The uncoating step leading to release of the viral genome requires a newly synthesized viral protein. C. Early transcription of more than 50 viral genes occurs within viral cores and precedes viral DNA replication. D. Newly formed virus particles mature by budding through the nuclear membrane. 435. A 37-year-old emergency room nurse is vaccinated for smallpox because of the bioterrorism threat. Twelve days later, she has a major complication from the vaccine. Vaccinia immune globulin therapy is considered. For which of the following conditions is treatment with vaccinia immune globulin of no benefit? A. Severe generalized vaccinia B. Progressive vaccinia C. Postvaccinial encephalitis D. Eczema vaccinatum E. Ocular vaccinia 436. Which of the following does not fulfill the criteria for exposure to vaccinia? A. Smallpox vaccination B. Close contact with a recent smallpox vaccine C. Intrauterine exposure D. Injection of vaccinia immune globulin 437. A researcher wishes to obtain a full-length genome of variola virus for vaccine studies. Which of the following is the appropriate source of the viral DNA? A. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. B. A World Health Organization collaborating center. C. The American Type Culture Collection. D. A colleague with a variola virus clone. E. Distribution of a full-length viral genome is prohibited 438. Laboratory scientists who work with vaccinia virus-infected cultures or animals are at risk of accidental exposure to the virus. Which of the following procedures by the laboratory worker is of least benefit in protecting against inadvertent infection with vaccinia virus? A. Proper use of personal protective equipment such as gloves and goggles B. Cleaning of laboratory work space before experimentation C. Smallpox vaccination D. Safe needle-handling practices E. Use of biosafety hoods 439. The eradication of smallpox was facilitated by several features of the Made with Xodo PDF Reader and Editor virus. Which one of the following contributed least to eradication? A. It has one antigenic type. B. Inapparent infection is rare. C. Administration of live vac

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