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Altered Immune Response and Transplantation Quiz
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Altered Immune Response and Transplantation Quiz

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Questions and Answers

Chickenpox is an example of which of the following types of immunities?

  • Cell-mediated
  • Innate
  • Natural active (correct)
  • Artificial
  • Which of the following antibodies is involved with an anaphylactic reaction?

  • IgG
  • IgA
  • IgE (correct)
  • IgM
  • The nurse encourages a new mother to breastfeed her infant, even for a short time, because colostrum will provide the infant with which of the following types of immunity?

  • Active
  • Innate
  • Passive (correct)
  • Cell-mediated
  • Which of the following instructions should the nurse include when teaching a client with possible allergies about intradermal skin testing?

    <p>Plan to wait in the clinic for 20–30 minutes after the testing.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    A chest x-ray can suppress immune function.

    <p>False</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse be aware of in a client with Goodpasture’s syndrome?

    <p>Pulmonary hemorrhage</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which statement by a client on immunosuppressant therapy after a kidney transplant should alert the nurse that additional teaching is required?

    <p>After a couple of years, it is likely that I will be able to stop taking the calcineurin inhibitor.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which adverse effect is related to cyclosporine administration?

    <p>Nephrotoxicity</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate action in treating a client admitted to the hospital with an acute rejection of a kidney transplant?

    <p>Administration of immunosuppressant medications</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the initial action for the nurse to take when a client is stung by a wasp and is experiencing difficulty breathing?

    <p>Assess the client’s airway</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority action for the nurse to implement when a client complains of itching at the site of an intradermal allergen injection?

    <p>Apply a tourniquet above the injection site</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take when caring for a client experiencing an allergic reaction to an unknown allergen?

    <p>Administer skin testing by the cutaneous scratch method</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which action should the nurse take first to determine if a client’s angioedema has responded to prescribed therapies?

    <p>Check for swelling of the lips and tongue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of a hemoglobin of 200 g/L and a hematocrit of 54%?

    <p>Do you have any problems with your vision?</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor for a client receiving heparin?

    <p>Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What does a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) indicate?

    <p>Small size of the RBCs</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What lymph node finding should the nurse be most concerned about during physical assessment?

    <p>A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What laboratory result should the nurse anticipate for a client with an intraoperative hemorrhage?

    <p>Elevated reticulocyte count</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What actions should the nurse include in the care plan for a neutropenic client?

    <p>Check temperature every 4 hours</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What should the nurse monitor in the care plan for a client with a 'shift to the left' in complete blood count results?

    <p>Elevated temperature</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the nurse take before an ultrasound of the spleen for a client in a car accident?

    <p>Assist the client to a flat position</p> Signup and view all the answers

    For which diagnostic test should the nurse obtain a signed consent form for a client with pancytopenia scheduled for testing?

    <p>Bone marrow biopsy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which CBC information would be most important to communicate for a client with abdominal pain?

    <p>White blood cells 13.5 million/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as abnormal in a client's clotting study tests?

    <p>Activated partial thromboplastin time 40 seconds</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing the EIA test results with a client who tested positive for HIV antibodies?

    <p>The EIA test will need to be repeated to verify the results.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    According to the World Health Organization (WHO) diagnostic criteria, which diagnosis should the nurse anticipate for a client admitted with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and positive HIV testing?

    <p>Late chronic infection or AIDS</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the nurse implement for a client with a positive rapid-antibody test for HIV who is anxious and not attentive?

    <p>Remind the client about the need for retesting to verify the results.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the most appropriate response by the nurse to a client with AIDS expressing thoughts about dying?

    <p>Can you tell me more about the kind of thoughts that you are having?</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What information should the nurse include when teaching a pregnant woman with early chronic HIV infection?

    <p>Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus.</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which client exposure is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis for the nurse?

    <p>Needle stick with a needle and syringe used to draw blood</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which herb can enhance replication of HIV in clients?

    <p>Echinacea</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What factor is most important to consider when determining initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for a client with a CD4+ cell count of 400/µL?

    <p>Client ability to comply with ART schedule</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which client would be appropriate for teaching about antiretroviral therapy (ART) in an HIV clinic?

    <p>A client who tested positive for HIV 2 years ago and has cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease</p> Signup and view all the answers

    When assessing an individual with early chronic HIV infection and a normal CD4+ count, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

    <p>Palpate the regional lymph nodes</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test does the Canadian Blood Services utilize to detect HIV genetic material in blood?

    <p>Nucleic acid amplification test</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the best way to reduce the risk of HIV infection from injectable drug use?

    <p>Participate in a needle-exchange program</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which nursing action will be most helpful in assisting a young adult college student to adhere to a newly prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen?

    <p>Remind the client of the importance of taking the medications as scheduled</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which of the following goals is most appropriate for a client with HIV infection who has developed Mycobacterium avium complex infection?

    <p>Maintain intact perineal skin</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which topic should the nurse include in the client teaching plan for a client with fat redistribution to the trunk after 7 years of HIV treatment?

    <p>A change in antiretroviral therapy</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which medication is most important to administer at the right time for an HIV-positive client hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

    <p>Oral abacavir</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which test is used to evaluate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART)?

    <p>Viral load testing</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which information about an HIV-positive client is most important for the nurse to address when planning care?

    <p>The client states 'sometimes I miss a dose of zidovudine (AZT)'</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is the priority nursing intervention for an HIV-infected client with a CD4+ cell count of 800 cells per microliter and an undetectable viral load ten years after seroconversion?

    <p>Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep</p> Signup and view all the answers

    How soon after delivery of the baby can ART treatment be started for a pregnant client diagnosed with HIV?

    <p>It can be initiated while you are pregnant</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What is a priority information to include in a program to teach a community group about decreasing HIV infection incidence?

    <p>How to prevent transmission between sexual partners</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What event is a client at an increased risk of developing after having an emergency splenectomy following an automobile accident?

    <p>Infection</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which assessment should the nurse anticipate when noting numerous petechiae in a client?

    <p>Pinpoint purplish-red lesions</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which laboratory result should be of most concern when reviewing data for an older-adult client?

    <p>White blood cell (WBC) count of 3.5 × 10^9/L</p> Signup and view all the answers

    What action should the nurse implement following a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest on a client with pancytopenia?

    <p>Apply a pressure dressing on the aspiration site</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a client with chronic iron-deficiency anemia?

    <p>Shiny, smooth tongue</p> Signup and view all the answers

    Study Notes

    Immune Response and Transplantation

    • Types of Immunity:
      • Innate immunity: present at birth, occurs without exposure to an antigen
      • Natural active immunity: occurs when the body produces antibodies in response to an antigen, e.g., chickenpox
      • Artificial immunity: induced by a vaccine or immune serum
      • Cell-mediated immunity: involves T-lymphocytes, responsible for tumour immunity
    • Immune Deficiency Disorders:
      • T-lymphocyte deficiency: increased risk of malignancy
      • B-lymphocyte deficiency: impaired antibody production
      • Combined immunodeficiency: impaired both cell-mediated and humoral immunity
    • Allergic Reactions:
      • Anaphylaxis: severe, life-threatening allergic reaction
      • IgE: involved in anaphylactic reactions
      • Atopic dermatitis: type 1 hypersensitivity disorder, associated with elevated IgE levels
    • Transplantation:
      • Graft-versus-host disease: occurs when donated T cells attack the client's tissues
      • Immunosuppressant therapy: used to prevent rejection of transplanted organs
      • Cyclosporine: nephrotoxicity is a major adverse effect
    • Plasmapheresis:
      • Removes antibodies, antibody-antigen complexes, and complement from blood
      • Used to treat systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and other autoimmune disorders
    • Bone Marrow Transplant:
      • Graft-versus-host disease: occurs when donated T cells attack the client's tissues
      • Immunosuppressant therapy: used to prevent rejection of transplanted bone marrow
    • Post-Transplant Care:
      • Monitor for acute rejection
      • Administer immunosuppressant medications
      • Client education: importance of adhering to medication regimen and monitoring for signs of rejection### Angioedema and Allergic Reactions
    • Angioedema is characterized by swelling of the eyelids, lips, and tongue.
    • Wheal and flare lesions, clear nasal drainage, and hypotension and tachycardia are characteristics of other allergic reactions.
    • To determine whether a client's angioedema has responded to prescribed therapies, the nurse should first check for swelling of the lips and tongue.

    Kidney Transplant and Tissue Typing

    • Positive crossmatching is an absolute contraindication to kidney transplantation, as it will lead to hyperacute rejection.
    • The nurse should communicate the results of client-donor crossmatching to the healthcare provider.

    Immunotherapy and Allergen Injection

    • A local reaction larger than quarter size may indicate that a decrease in the allergen dose is needed.
    • The nurse should communicate the size of the wheal at the site of the allergen injection to the healthcare provider.

    Infection and HIV

    • After an initial positive enzyme immunoassay (EIA) for HIV antibodies, the EIA is repeated before more specific testing such as the Western blot is done.
    • The nurse should include information about the need for retesting to confirm the results when discussing the test results with the client.
    • Development of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) meets the diagnostic criterion for AIDS.
    • The nurse should anticipate a diagnosis of late chronic infection or AIDS in a client with PCP.

    Nursing Care and HIV

    • When a client is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying, the nurse should first retest to confirm the results of the HIV test.
    • The nurse should assess the client's psychosocial status before taking any other action when the client expresses concerns about dying.
    • Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use antiretroviral therapy (ART) during pregnancy.
    • The nurse should teach the client about the need to follow a stringent ART schedule to prevent drug resistance.

    HIV and Herbs

    • Some herbs, such as echinacea, should not be used by clients with HIV because they can enhance the replication of HIV.

    HIV and Antiretroviral Therapy (ART)

    • The nurse should consider the client's ability to comply with the ART schedule when determining whether to initiate therapy.
    • Drug resistance develops quickly unless the client takes ART medications on a stringent schedule.
    • The nurse should teach the client about the importance of taking ART medications as scheduled.

    HIV and CD4+ Count

    • Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is common in the early stage of chronic HIV infection.
    • The nurse should assess the client's lymph nodes when assessing an individual with early chronic HIV infection and a normal CD4+ count.

    HIV and Blood Donation

    • The Canadian Blood Services uses a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) to detect HIV genetic material in blood of potential donors.

    Preventing HIV Infection

    • Participation in needle and syringe exchange programs has been shown to control the rate of HIV infection.
    • The nurse should inform the client that the best way to reduce the risk of HIV infection from drug use is to participate in a needle-exchange program.### HIV Infection and Care
    • A client with a CD4+ cell count of 800 cells per microliter and an undetectable viral load is in the early chronic stage of HIV infection.
    • At this stage, the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain a normal CD4+ count.
    • AIDS and opportunistic infections typically develop when the CD4+ count is much lower than normal.
    • Priority nursing intervention at this stage is to encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep.

    ART Treatment and Pregnancy

    • Women infected with HIV should receive optimal ART immediately, regardless of pregnancy.
    • ART treatment can be initiated while pregnant.

    HIV Prevention and Education

    • The most common way HIV is transmitted is through sexual contact.
    • Education on preventing transmission between sexual partners is a priority.
    • Other methods of transmission, such as perinatal transmission, needle sterilization, and blood transfusions, should also be addressed.

    Prophylactic Measures for HIV Clients

    • Vaccines recommended for HIV clients include hepatitis B, pneumococcal, and influenza.
    • These vaccines are important for preventing other infections in HIV clients.

    Hematological System

    Splenectomy

    • Splenectomy increases the risk of infection, especially with gram-positive bacteria.
    • The risk of lymphedema, bleeding, and anemia is not increased after splenectomy.

    Petechiae and Bleeding

    • Petechiae are small, purplish-red lesions.
    • Ecchymosis is bruising on the skin.
    • Telangiectasia is small, focal red lesions.
    • Purpura is a rash of purple, red, or brown spots on the skin or mucous membranes.

    Laboratory Results

    • A low WBC count indicates compromised immune function.
    • A normal platelet count is around 400 ´ 109/L.
    • A slight decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit is not unusual in older clients.

    Bone Marrow Aspiration

    • A pressure dressing is used to cover the aspiration site after a bone marrow biopsy.

    Anemia and Iron Deficiency

    • Chronic iron deficiency anemia can cause loss of papillae on the tongue.
    • Scleral jaundice is associated with hemolysis.
    • Gum bleeding and tenderness occur with thrombocytopenia or neutropenia.

    Polycythemia

    • Polycythemia may cause visual abnormalities.
    • A hemoglobin level of 200 g/L and a hematocrit of 54% indicate polycythemia.

    Heparin and Coagulation

    • aPTT testing is used to determine whether heparin is at a therapeutic level.
    • FDP is useful in diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
    • PT and INR are used to test for therapeutic levels of warfarin.

    Red Blood Cell Indices

    • A low MCV indicates smaller-than-normal RBCs.
    • Inadequate numbers of RBCs indicate anemia.
    • Low levels of hemoglobin in RBCs result in a low MCH.

    Lymph Nodes

    • Enlarged and nontender nodes are most suggestive of malignancy.
    • Firm nodes are an expected finding in an area of infection.

    Hemorrhage and Hemoglobin

    • Hemorrhage causes the release of more immature RBCs from the bone marrow into the circulation.
    • The reticulocyte count is elevated after hemorrhage.

    Neutropenia

    • Neutropenic clients are at high risk for infection and sepsis.
    • Monitoring temperature frequently is important in neutropenic clients.

    Shift to the Left

    • A shift to the left indicates that the number of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils, or bands, is elevated.
    • This is a sign of severe infection.

    Ultrasound and Spleen

    • The client is placed in a flat position before splenic ultrasound.

    Pancytopenia and Bone Marrow Biopsy

    • Bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires a signed consent form.

    Complete Blood Count

    • An elevation in WBCs indicates that an abdominal infection may be the cause of the client's pain.
    • Further diagnostic testing is needed in this case.

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    Take this quiz to test your knowledge on Chapter 16 of Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing in Canada, 4th Canadian Edition, covering topics such as immune response and transplantation.

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