Veterinary Bacteriology and Mycology Quiz PDF

Veterinary Bacteriology and Mycology Quiz Section 1: Bacteriology 1. What is the main structural difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria? a) Presence of teichoic acids in Gram-negative bacteria b) Thick peptidoglycan layer in Gram-positive bacteria c) Outer membrane in Gr...

Veterinary Bacteriology and Mycology Quiz Section 1: Bacteriology 1. What is the main structural difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria? a) Presence of teichoic acids in Gram-negative bacteria b) Thick peptidoglycan layer in Gram-positive bacteria c) Outer membrane in Gram-positive bacteria d) Lack of a cell wall in Gram-negative bacteria Answer: b 2. Which bacteria lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls? a) Bacillus spp. b) Mycobacterium spp. c) Mycoplasma spp. d) Staphylococcus spp. Answer: c 3. What structural feature helps Mycobacterium spp. resist environmental stresses? a) Thick peptidoglycan layer b) Teichoic acids c) Mycolic acids d) Endospores Answer: c 4. What is the function of bacterial ribosomes? a) DNA replication b) Protein synthesis c) Energy production d) Cell division  Answer: b 5. Which bacterial surface structure enables motility? a) Capsule b) Flagella c) Pili d) Biofilm Answer: b Section 2: Mycology 6. What type of reproduction is characteristic of yeast? a) Binary fission b) Budding c) Spore formation d) Fragmentation Answer: b 7. Which type of fungi can grow as molds in the environment and as yeast in host tissues? a) Dimorphic fungi b) Yeasts c) Molds d) Saprophytic fungi Answer: a 8. What is the primary virulence factor of Listeria monocytogenes that enables escape from phagosomes? a) ActA protein b) Listeriolysin O c) Phospholipases d) Bile salt hydrolase  Answer: b 9. Which fungal disease is caused by poor-quality silage with a pH > 5.5? a) Candidiasis b) Mycotoxicosis c) Listeriosis d) Dermatophytosis Answer: c 10. What is the most common manifestation of listeriosis in humans? a) Myocarditis b) Meningoencephalitis c) Pulmonary infection d) Gastroenteritis Answer: b Section 3: Pathogenic Bacteria 11. Which Staphylococcus species is known as the 'S. aureus' of dogs and cats? a) S. hyicus b) S. pseudintermedius c) S. epidermidis d) S. schleiferi Answer: b 12. What is the Lancefield classification based on? a) Hemolysis patterns b) Gram-staining results c) Polysaccharide and teichoic acid antigens d) Bacterial shape Answer: c 13. Which toxin of Clostridium perfringens causes tissue necrosis? a) Beta toxin b) Alpha toxin c) Epsilon toxin d) Iota toxin Answer: b 14. What is the causative agent of 'Diamond Skin Disease' in pigs? a) Listeria monocytogenes b) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae c) Trueperella pyogenes d) Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis Answer: b 15. What clinical condition is associated with Clostridium chauvoei? a) Blackleg b) Malignant edema c) Gas gangrene d) Botulism Answer: a Section 4: Control and Prevention 16. What is the recommended temperature and time for autoclaving bacterial spores? a) 121°C for 15 minutes b) 150°C for 1 hour c) 100°C for 30 minutes d) 110°C for 10 minutes Answer: a 17. Which vaccine is used to prevent greasy pig disease?  a) Startvac® b) Autogenous S. hyicus bacterin c) Toxoid vaccine d) Lysigin® Answer: b 18. What is a key measure to control Bacillus anthracis outbreaks? a) Refrigerating carcasses b) Incineration or deep burial of carcasses c) Use of broad-spectrum antibiotics d) Drying infected materials Answer: b 19. Which method is effective in reducing the spread of nosocomial Enterococcus infections? a) Vaccination b) Rigorous hygiene protocols c) Antibiotic prophylaxis d) Use of antiseptics in feed Answer: b 20. What is the primary control strategy for lumpy jaw caused by Actinomyces? a) Fly control b) Vaccination c) Wound care and sanitation d) Antimicrobial prophylaxis Answer: c