Surgery Final Exam MCQ PDF

General Surgery Department MCQs What’s optimum time for performance of a primary surgical treatment? 1. 6-8 hours 2. 12-18 hours 3. 18-24 hours 4. 24-48 hours 5. 4...

General Surgery Department MCQs What’s optimum time for performance of a primary surgical treatment? 1. 6-8 hours 2. 12-18 hours 3. 18-24 hours 4. 24-48 hours 5. 48-72 hours Choose a physical factor of antisepsis: 1. antibiotics 2. hypertonic solution 3. chloramine B 4. primary surgical treatment 5. solution C-4 Choose the remedy used in treatment of gas anaerobic infection: 1. chloramine B 2. chlorhexidin 3. amicacyn 4. hydrogen peroxide 5. fusidin Na Asepsis includes: 1. sterilization of surgical instruments 2. processing of surgeon’s hands 3. all called points 4. following special hygienic and organizational measures at the hospitals What measure doesn’t belong to struggle against air-drop infection? 1. processing of surgeon’s hands 2. correct ventilation and conditioning of operation theatres and dressing rooms 3. restriction of visiting operation unit 4. wet cleansing of premises What temperature of sterilization is in air-heat sterilizer? 1. 100˚C 2. 120˚C 3. 180˚C 4. 150˚C What’s correct direction of processing surgeon’s hands? 1. from tips of fingers to shoulder joint 2. from tips of fingers to elbow 3. from tips of fingers to wrist 4. from the wrist to elbow Call sources of infection form surgeon’s hands: 1. surface of skin 2. all called 3. hair follicle 4. sweat glands 5. sebaceous glands 1  General Surgery Department In what type of latent bleeding one can observe tarry (currant jelly) stool? 1. esophageal 2. uterine 3. renal 4. gastric What bleedings do they distinguish according to anatomical classification? 1. arterial, venous, capillary, parenchymatous 2. primary, secondary 3. internal, external 4. early, late Vascular suture is applied in injury of: 1. capillaries 2. main vessels 3. arteriolas 4. venulas Call the method of final hemostasis in injury of aorta: 1. ligation of the vessel in the wound 2. applying of hemostatic clamp 3. vascular suture 4. tamponade of the wound Call the remedies being used for chemical method of arrest of bleeding: 1. corglyconum, strophanthinum 2. trombin, fibrin 3. hemostatic sponge, fibrin film 4. calcium chloride, ascorbic acid What manipulation belongs to biological method of final arrest of bleeding? 1. all called measures 2. tamponade of a wound by own tissues 3. blood transfusion 4. hemostatic sponge What totality of factors facilitate clotting? 1. slow blood flow, inhibition of fibrinolysis, injury of vascular wall 2. slow blood flow, activation of fibrinolysis, injury of vascular wall 3. rapid blood flow, inhibition of fibrinolysis, injury of vascular wall 4. slow blood flow, inhibition of fibrinolysis, smooth vascular wall What vitamin decreases vascular permeability? 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. E Call the method of final hemostasis in a rupture of spleen: 1. suturing the rupture 2. ligation of a. lienalis 3. splenectomy 4. draining abdominal cavity 2  General Surgery Department What persons are the “universal” donors? 1. with the Ι group of blood 2. with the ΙΙ group of blood 3. with the ΙΙΙ group of blood 4. with the IV group of blood How can we call the reaction “antigen-antibody” in typing of Rh-factor? 1. pseudoagglutinatiоn 2. panagglutination 3. heteroagglutination 4. isoagglutination 5. homoagglutination What temperature regime is required for blood grouping (in C)? 1. 5-8 2. 12-14 3. 15-25 4. 26-38 5. 46-48 Call the stabilizer of blood: 1. glugicir 2. protamin-sulfate 3. isotonic solution 4. sodium acetate 5. sodium citrate Reaction of isohemagglutination is visible with anti-A and anti-B coliclones. What blood group is this? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV 5. additional blood examination is necessary What’s the most effective preparations for arrest of continuing bleeding? 1. platelet mass 2. fresh frozen plasma 3. polyglucin 4. haemodes 5. RBC mass Call early symptoms caused by transfusion of incompatible blood: 1. hypothermy, apathy 2. anuria, hemoglobinuria 3. anisocoria, bradicardia 4. bradipnoe 5. fever, pains in lumbar region, abdomen, behind the breast-bone What is the mechanism of action of hemodynamic blood substitutes? 1. decrease BP 2. increase amount of proteins in blood 3. keep fluid in vessels 4. stimulate functions of liver 5. stimulate immunity 3  General Surgery Department What’s mechanism of action of detoxification blood substitutes? 1. increase BP 2. keep fluid in vessels 3. stimulate functions of liver 4. stimulate hemopoesis 5. join with toxins in blood What test must be performed before i/v infusion of blood substitutes? 1. determination of donor’s group 2. biological test 3. determination of patient’s group 4. on individual compatibility 5. on Rh-compatibility What is anesthesiology? 1. science about resuscitation 2. science about rules of management of anesthesia 3. science about the protection from operative trauma 4. science about rules of first medical aid Which drug may be used for premedication? 1. promedol 2. thiopental-sodium 3. arduan 4. droperidol Call an inhalative anesthetic: 1. thiopental-sodium 2. propanidid 3. cetalar 4. cyclopropane What levels of the 3rd stage of narcosis is the most adequate for major surgical operations? 1. 1-2 2. 2-3 3. 3-4 4. 4-5 What kind of respiratory outline characterizes by the following scheme - “the patient inhales gaseous mixture from apparatus and exhales carbonic oxide partially into the atmosphere of operative theatre, partially – into the apparatus”? 1. open 2. semi-open 3. closed 4. semi-closed Call the non-depolarizing muscle relaxant: 1. tubocurarine 2. flaxedil 3. prostigmin 4. thiopental-sodium 4  General Surgery Department Call the mechanism of action of depolarizing muscle relaxants: 1. blockade of n-cholin-receptors 2. action on cerebral centers of motility 3. stable activation of postsynaptic membrane 4. action on spinal cord Indication to the use of a muscle relaxant is: 1. tetanus 2. hypertonic disease 3. bronchial asthma 4. liver insufficiency What percentage of procaine will you choose for a vagosympathetic block? 1. 0,25 2. 0,1 3. 0,5 4. 1 5. 5 What anatomical site will you introduce a needle for vagosympathetic block procedure? 1. anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM) near collar bone 2. anterior border of SCM near mastoid process 3. posterior border of SCM in place of cross with v. jugularis externa 4. posterior border of SCM near mastoid process 5. anterior border of SCM in place of cross with v. jugularis interna What anatomical site the anesthesia by Oberst-Lukashevitch is used to? 1. fingers 2. neck 3. retrosternal space 4. thigh 5. forearm What’s mechanism of action of local anesthetics? 1. elevation of threshold of painful sensitivity due to the formation of stable epileptiform center in brain 2. activation of own opiate system 3. blockage of K-Na pump in nervous cells 4. dissociative anesthesia due to disorder of connections between cerebral cortex and subcortical nuclei 5. facilitate the production of mediators of cerebral inhibition What level is spinal anesthesia performed on? 1. D12-L1 2. L1-L2 3. L2-L4 4. L4-L5 5. L5-Cc1 What measure should be used for prophylaxis of arterial hypotension at spinal block in postanesthesia period? 1. injections of spasmolytics 2. elevation of upper part of the body 3. i/v infusion of colloid solutions 4. injections of analgetics 5  General Surgery Department What percentage of novocain solution do they use for infiltration anesthesia? 1. 0,25-0,5 2. 2-3 3. 10 4. 20 What anatomical space the anesthetic must be injected in at peridural block? 1. between spinal arachnoid and pia mater 2. between dura mater of spinal cord and pia mater 3. between spinal arachnoid and spinal cord 4. between dura mater of spinal cord and periosteum of vertebral canal 5. into spinal canal The area of both lower extremities (percentage according to the ‘rule of nine’) is: 1. 9 2. 18 3. 27 4. 36 5. 45 The area of adult’s palm is …percent of the total area of a human body 1. 1,0-1,1 2. 0,5-0,6 3. 2,0-2,1 4. 3,0-3,1 5. 9,0-9,1 Call a local symptom of the 1st degree burn: 1. hypoesthesia 2. swelling 3. painfulness 4. charring 5. blisters Call a local symptom of the 2nd degree burn: 1. hypoesthesia 2. painfulness 3. blisters 4. charring 5. necrosis of tendons First aid in burns includes everything listed except: 1. the use of analgesics 2. application of a dry aseptic dressing 3. prophylaxis of asphyxia in burn of upper respiratory tract 4. application of a dressing with antiseptic ointment 5. delivery of a patient to the nearest hospital In what cases urgent prophylaxis of tetanus is not necessary? 1. burns of І degree 2. burns of ІІ degree 3. burns of ІІІa degree 4. burns of ІІІb degree 5. burns of ІV degree 6  General Surgery Department What degree of burns characterizes with charring of tissues? 1. І 2. ІІ 3. ІІІa 4. ІІІb 5. ІV What is the most informative method of examination in rupture of liver? 1. laparoscopy 2. irrigoscopy 3. FGDS 4. X-ray film of the abdomen 5. physical examination The symptom of “tilting doll” may be observed in injury of: 1. liver 2. stomach 3. pancreas 4. kidneys 5. small bowel What is the most informative method of examination in rupture of urinary bladder? 1. X-ray examination of abdomen 2. contrast cystography 3. laparoscopy 4. irrigoscopy 5. urine test When Kulencampf’s symptom is positive? 1. valve pneumothorax 2. closed pneumothorax 3. contusion of the brain 4. intra-abdominal bleeding 5. peritonitis Intestinal murmurs disappear in: 1. toxic phase of peritonitis 2. reactive phase of peritonitis 3. terminal phase of peritonitis What kind of operation is indicated in peritonitis? 1. urgent 2. planned What laboratory finding characterizes peritonitis? 1. eosinophillia 2. leucopenia 3. deviation of a leukogram “to the right” 4. deviation of a leukogram “to the left” 5. monocytosis 7  General Surgery Department What incision should be performed for the most complete revision of abdominal cavity after trauma? 1. pararectal 2. MacBurney’s oblique alternating 3. median laparotomy 4. Kocher’ 5. Pfannenstiel’s What is external valve pneumothorax characterized with? 1. emphysema of smooth tissues about the wound 2. ballotement of mediastinum 3. compression of the opposite lung 4. displacement of mediastinum to collapsed lung 5. displacement of mediastinum to the opposite side What is external open pneumothorax characterizes with? 1. collapse of lung on the side of the injury 2. ballotement of mediastinum 3. collapse of lung on the opposite side 4. displacement of mediastinum to injured side 5. displacement of mediastinum to the opposite side First aid in external opened pneumothorax includes: 1. application of the occlusive bandage 2. pleural drainage 3. application of occlusive bandage & active aspiration of air from the chest Penetrated thoracic trauma is always accompanied with injury of: 1. skin 2. intercostals muscles 3. endothoracic fascia 4. parietal pleura 5. visceral pleura What’s the most informative method of chest assessment for pneumothorax? 1. thoracoscopy 2. X-ray examination 3. pleural puncture 4. puncture of mediastinum 5. selective angiogram of lungs What is hemothorax? 1. accumulation of blood in a pleural cavity 2. petechial hemorrhages in subcutaneous fatty tissue 3. accumulation of gas in mediastinum 4. accumulation of fluid in subcutaneous fatty tissue 5. accumulation of gas in subcutaneous fatty tissue Which kind of chest drainage the method by Bulau-Petrov belong to? 1. active 2. passive 3. flowing 8  General Surgery Department What diagnostic method is more suitable for the differential diagnostic between femur dislocation and the fracture of femur neck? 1. blood test 2. diagnostic puncture 3. palpation 4. X-ray examination Is transport immobilization necessary for dislocation? 1. yes 2. no Overlong immobilization may cause: 1. pseudarthrosis (‘false joint’) 2. interposition of smooth tissues 3. muscle contracture 4. hemartrosis Clinical sign of soft tissue haematoma is: 1. swelling of traumatized area with positive symptom of fluctuation 2. crepitation 3. sharply painful, hyperemic skin with clear border 4. epidermal blisters with hemorrhagic fluid Which is the most important measure of first aid in case of ruptures of ligaments and muscles? 1. diagnostic puncture 2. immobilization of affected area 3. dry heat 4. antiaggregant drugs Which is the most effective treatment tactic in case of complete rupture of ligaments: 1. operative treatment 2. long-term immobilization 3. early active motions 4. novocaine block Call the symptom of closed fracture of a bone: 1. subcutaneous emphysema 2. springy resistance in the nearest joint 3. moist rales in a site of fracture 4. pathologic mobility Examination of a patient with pain in arm should be begun with: 1. questioning 2. X-ray examination of the arm 3. the determination of hemoglobin in blood 4. revealing crepitations Call an indication for transport immobilization: 1. acute osteomyelitis 2. fractures of bones 3. injuries of joints 4. all called cases 9  General Surgery Department How many joints should be immobilized in the fracture of humerus? 1. one 2. two 3. three 4. four What fracture demands the transportation of the patient in “frog position”? 1. pelvis 2. vertebral column 3. scapulas 4. both tibias How many views of X-ray examination are necessary for the diagnostic of fractures? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 Choose the disease which provokes pathologic fracture: 1. pneumonia 2. paraproctitis 3. metastasis of a cancer to the bone 4. peritonitis What’s the main reason of arterial hypotension in traumatic shock? 1. decrease of venous return 2. left ventricle failure 3. right ventricle failure 4. decrease of basic metabolism 5. vascular spasm The 1st period of crush-syndrome manifests with: 1. acute renal failure 2. infectious complications 3. normalization of renal function 4. septic shock 5. local shifts & endogenous intoxication The 2nd period of crush-syndrome manifests with: 1. acute renal failure 2. local shifts & endogenous intoxication 3. infectious complications 4. normalization of renal function 5. septic shock What method isn’t belong to the first aid in crush-syndrome? 1. immobilization of damaged extremity 2. application of a tourniquet 3. administration of analgesics 4. administration of sedatives 5. hemodialysis 10  General Surgery Department Call the indication for decompressive facsiotomy (“stripe incisions”) in crush-syndrome: 1. strong pain in extremities 2. traumatic shock 3. hypovolemic shock 4. septic shock 5. fascial compartment syndrome with swelling and ischemia of tissues Period of acute renal failure in traumatic shock isn’t characterized with: 1. increase of anemia 2. hypokaliemia, polyuria 3. oliguria 4. hyperpotassemia, hypercreatinemia 5. hemodilution What hormones are especially effective against traumatic shock? 1. glucocorticoids 2. adrenal cortical 3. mineralocorticoids 4. sexual 5. thyroid Wounds are divided according to presence of infection into: 1. purulent, aseptic, poisoned 2. purulent, aseptic, cut 3. bit, cut, aseptic 4. purulent, aseptic, infected 5. purulent, poisoned In the case of healing of the wound by secondary intention they distinguish all stages except: 1. primary sticking with fibrin 2. resolving of the died cells & clots of blood 3. development of granulations 4. scarring & epithelization It’s necessary for the stimulation of wound healing in the 2nd phase of wound process: 1. frequent wound dressing 2. the use of enzymes 3. the use of dressings with hypertonic solution 4. the use of ointments What procedure is called as surgical treatment? 1. dissection of wound’s borders & bed 2. dissection of wound’s borders, walls & bed, arrest of bleeding opening the wound recesses, arrest of bleeding 3. washing the wound with antiseptic drug, removing the purulent exudate 4. washing the wound with antiseptic drug, arrest of bleeding What postinjury state determines gaping of a wound? 1. deepness of injury 2. injury of nerves 3. injury of fascias 4. direction of injured elastic fibers 5. injury of tendons & muscles 11  General Surgery Department Microbes get into a wound during primary infecting from: 1. forceps in dressing 2. scalpel 3. surgeon’s hands 4. patient’s skin 5. suture material Which wound heals more rapidly of all? 1. cut wound 2. stabbed one 3. bitten one 4. chopped one 5. crushed one What local sign doesn’t characterize inflammation? 1. cyanosis 2. swelling 3. hyperthermia 4. hyperemia 5. pain How many phases of wound healing do you know? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 What part of the nervous system is activated in the 1st phase of wound process? 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic How many stages do they distinguish in syndrome of acute arterial insufficiency? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 How many stages do they distinguish in syndrome of chronic arterial insufficiency? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 What disease characterizes with intermittent claudication (ischemic lameness)? 1. obliterating atherosclerosis 2. postthrombotic disease 3. Reynault’s disease 4. Hirschprung’s disease What trophic disorder characterizes chronic arterial insufficiency? 1. trophic ulcers of toes 2. hyperhidrosis 3. impregnation of skin with hemosiderin 4. spontaneous extraction of teeth 12  General Surgery Department What method of examination should be used before reconstructive surgery on arteries? 1. rheovasography 2. cappilaroscopy 3. X-ray arteriography 4. fluometry What operation is indicated in the 2nd degree of acute arterial ischemia? 1. thoracic sympathectomy 2. lumbar sympathectomy 3. epinephrectomy 4. thrombintimectomy What tool is used for removal of a thrombus from an artery? 1. Fogerty’s probe 2. Farabef’s retractor 3. “Mosquito” forceps 4. Payer clamp Choose a direct anticoagulant: 1. phenilin 2. heparin 3. penthoxyphillin 4. aspecard Which type of medical knit-fabric will you recommend in the 3rd degree of chronic venous insufficiency? 1. I class 2. II class 3. III class 4. IV class What operation is directed to correction of the incompetence of perforant veins? 1. Coccet’s operation 2. Babcock’s operation 3. Narrat’s operation 4. sclerotherapy What is Homans’s sign? 1. strengthening of pain in the calf due to bilateral palpation 2. strengthening of pain in the calf due to anterior-superior palpation 3. appearance (strengthening) of pain in the calf due to dorsal bending of the foot appearance of pain in the calf after application of an elastic bandage In moist gangrene … is absent 1. demarcation line 2. swelling 3. intoxication 4. pain What’s the main factor of the pathogenesis of endogenous neurotrophic bed-sore? 1. intensive short-term compression of tissues 2. durable compression of tissues 3. immune suppression 4. diabetes mellitus 13  General Surgery Department Is immobilization necessary after surgical operation on diabetic phlegmon of a foot? 1. yes 2. no 3. as a patient wish 4. as a doctor wish Melena – is a sign of: 1. bleeding from a mouth cavity 2. bleeding from a stomach or duodenum bleeding from an uterus 3. bleeding from an urinary bladder What disease characterizes by the loss of body mass? 1. acute appendicitis 2. obesity 3. Graves disease 4. myxedema What infectious disease is accompanied with jaundice? 1. echinococcosis 2. dysentery 3. flu 4. tuberculosis Which type of primary jaundice occurs due to choledocholithiasis? 1. hemolytic 2. mechanical 3. parenchymatous How many quadrants are there in the breast? 1. 2 2. 4 3. 6 4. 8 Sign of “citric peel” presence in: 1. galactocele 2. breast cancer 3. mastitis 4. fibroadenoma At what disease subcutaneous veins are visible on anterior abdominal wall? 1. liver cirrhosis 2. acute hepatitis 3. gallbladder stone disease 4. acute pancreatitis Are kidneys palpable in healthy persons? 1. No 2. Yes 14  General Surgery Department In what disease can we observe pulsation of veins? 1. varicose veins 2. obliterating atherosclerosis 3. arterio-venous fistula 4. deep vein thrombosis Where the posterior tibial artery is placed? 1. between first & second tarseal bones 2. behind lateral malleolus 3. among muscles of the shin 4. between posterior-inferior edge of internal malleolus & Achilles tendon What test reveals vertical reflux of blood in varicose veins? 1. Troyanov’s test 2. Gackenbrookh’s test 3. Pratt’s test 4. Delbet-Pertess test When does hepatic dullness disappear? 1. acute pancreatitis 2. acute cholecystitis 3. perforated stomach ulcer 4. acute appendicitis When palpable pulsation of abdominal aorta is absent? 1. acute pancreatitis 2. acute cholecystitis 3. acute appendicitis 4. perforated stomach ulcer Which disease manifests with “Kloiber’s cups” symptom on abdominal radiograph? 1. acute pancreatitis 2. acute cholecystitis 3. acute appendicitis 4. acute bowel obstruction What tumor is benign? 1. fibroadenoma 2. melanoma 3. adenocarcinoma 4. limphosarcoma 5. fibrosarcoma Cancer develops from: 1. immature connective tissue 2. blood vessels 3. glandular or covering epithelium 4. lymph nodes 5. smooth or striated muscles 15  General Surgery Department Call the symptom of benign tumor: 1. round form & lobous construction 2. immobile & connected with surrounding tissues 3. enlarged lymph nodes are palpated 4. tumor is painful 5. fluctuation above tumor Antiblastics includes: 1. frequent change of instruments, gloves, napkins during an operation 2. repeated washing hands during an operation 3. covering a wound with spirit after removing a tumor 4. removing a tumor en block, without cutting 5. operative access far from a tumor Antiblastics doesn’t include: 1. the use of hormonal drugs 2. the use of chemotheraputical drugs 3. the use of irradiation 4. the use of physiotherapitocal procedures 5. the introduction of antitumoral antibiotics What patient can be considered as cured of cancer? 1. 5 years passed after complex treatment 2. with no complaints after treatment 3. all called criteria 4. with complete removing a tumor 5. with no metastases after treatment Prophylaxis of postoperative thromboembolic complications includes: 1. spasmolytics 2. sedatives drugs 3. elastic bandage of lower extremities 4. blood transfusion Call the measure of the prophylaxis of postoperative pulmonary complications: 1. administration of ferric drugs 2. inhalation of nitrous oxide 3. laving of a stomach 4. respiratory gymnastic What diagnostic method help to diagnose of a pulmonary embolism: 1. biochemical blood test 2. chest X-ray 3. rheovasography 4. urine test Prophylaxis of suppuration of post-operative wound doesn’t include: 1. respiratory gymnastics 2. close-set sutures 3. catgut sutures 4. draining a wound 16  General Surgery Department Treatment of meteorism doesn’t include: 1. the use of spasmolytics 2. the introduction of 10 % calcium chloride solution intravenously 3. the introduction of a colonic tube 4. the introduction of proserin Prevention of bed-sores includes all the measures except: 1. using rubber rings 2. skin massage 3. regular changing of a patient’s bed linens 4. placement of a patient on a hard mattress Pulmonary complications include all the diseases except: 1. gastritis 2. pneumonia 3. asphyxia 4. bronchitis Which is the sign of clinical death? 1. cadaveric rigidity 2. livores mortis 3. loss of consciousness 4. decreased body temperature 1C0 per hour What they must do before resuscitation at apnea and the presence of foreign bodies in a mouth cavity at first aid? 1. remove the foreign bodies and begin «mouth to mouth» AVL 2. begin closed massage at once 3. begin AVL with «mouth to mouth» method 4. intubate the trachea and perform indirect massage In what area of a chest compression should be done at indirect cardiac massage? 1. upper third of a breastbone on a median line 2. lower third of a breastbone on a median line 3. 3-4 ribs along a left medioclavicle line 4. left clavicle Catheterization of a subclavian vein is contraindicated at: 1. Pedgett-Shretter syndrome 2. hemorrhagic shock 3. acute renal insufficiency 4. arterial pressure less then 60 mm.m.с Possible complication of catheterization of subclavian vein is: 1. pneumothorax 2. allergic shock 3. myocardium infarction 4. lung edema Increased CVP is characteristic for: 1. pulmonary embolism 2. hemorrhagic shock 3. torpid phase of burn shock 4. brain swelling 17  General Surgery Department Decreased CVP is characteristic for? 1. septic shock 2. cardiac tamponade 3. pulmonary embolism 4. tension pneumothorax What tissue cells will die at first in biological death? 1. myocardium 2. stomach epithelium 3. cornea 4. brain and spinal cord The variant of a diagnostic operation is: 1. urinary bladder revision 2. appendectomy 3. herniotomy 4. stomach resection Urgent operation is indicated in: 1. varicose veins 2. trophic ulcer 3. cancer of liver 4. acute appendicitis Planned operation is indicated in: 1. acute pancreatitis 2. cholelithiasis 3. bleeding 4. strangulated hernia The variant of a radical operation is: 1. cholecystectomy 2. gastrostomy 3. the biopsy of lymph nodes 4. nephrostomy Preoperative preparation before appendectomy doesn’t include: 1. cleansing enema 2. premeditation 3. shaving a hair on an abdominal wall 4. catheterization of a urine bladder What microbe causes boil? 1. Clostridium tetani 2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 3. M. tuberculosis 4. Staphylococcus aureus Hydradenitis is acute purulent inflammation of: 1. hair follicle 2. sweat gland 3. sebaceous gland 18  General Surgery Department What is phlegmon? 1. purulent diffuse inflammation of fatty tissue 2. purulent inflammation of sweat glands 3. purulent inflammation of sebaceous glands 4. purulent inflammation of a joint Which stage is initial in local infection? 1. infiltration 2. resorbtion 3. induration 4. dilution What change in general blood test is typical for acute surgical infection? 1. erythrocytosis 2. leucopenia 3. leukocytosis 4. lymphopenia Paraproctitis is inflammation of: 1. fatty tissue around the rectum 2. piles 3. anal sphincter 4. mucous of a rectum What is the most frequent agent of paraproctitis? 1. Streptococcus 2. Pneumococcus 3. E.coli 4. anaerobic microbes Paronychia is inflammation of: 1. paraungual torus 2. all tissues of the finger 3. nail bed 4. interphalangeal joint Pandactylitis is a purulent inflammation of: 1. nail 2. subcutaneous fatty tissue 3. paraungual torus 4. all tissues of the finger What is the most frequent source of acute paraproctitis? 1. inflammation in buttocks 2. inflammation of anal glands 3. piles 4. scratching in perianal region What incision is used in the surgical treatment of retromammary abscess? 1. semi-oval under the gland 2. radial above the gland 3. circular around areola 4. semi-oval above the gland 19  General Surgery Department What sort of acute mastitis doesn’t exist? 1. paramammary 2. intramammary 3. subareolar 4. subcutaneous Exclude the wrong symptom of acute osteomyelitis: 1. pain in extremity 2. gangrene of the affected extremity 3. general weakness 4. fever What tissues can be used for sealing of sequestral cavities after sequesrectomy? 1. cadaver’s pia mater 2. cartilage 3. muscle 4. connective tissue When do the first X-ray symptoms appear in acute osteomyelitis? 1. in 1-2 days 2. in 5-6 days 3. in 7-8 days 4. in 13-15 days What operation is indicated in spreading a purulent process from a joint to a bone (phlegmon of bone marrow)? 1. arthrotomy only 2. the resection of a joint 3. osteotomy and arthrotomy 4. amputation Is immobilization obligatory in acute purulent arthritis? 1. yes 2. no What’s the most frequent agent of acute purulent arthritis? 1. Staphylococcus 2. Gonococcus 3. B. typhosus 4. Pneumococcus Call the early symptom of acute hematogeneous osteomyelitis: 1. periostitis 2. medullary cavity closure 3. osteosclerosis 4. sequestral box What part of long bones is affected by chronic hematogeneous osteomyelitis more often? 1. metaphysic 2. epiphysis 3. diaphysis 4. articular cartilages 20  General Surgery Department What’s the morphological substrate of chronic osteomyelitis? 1. intraossal abscess 2. subperiostal abscess 3. paraossal phlegmon 4. sequesters Choose an anti-tuberculous antibiotic: 1. Kanamycin 2. Maxipim 3. Clacid 4. Oletetrin Choose the X-ray symptom of bony tuberculosis? 1. sign of “melting sugar” 2. periostal reaction 3. diffuse osteoporosis 4. compact sequestral box Alexandrov’s symptom: skin crease on the lateral surface of a thigh is thicker: 1. on affected extremity 2. on a sound extremity What part of bones does tuberculosis begin with? 1. epiphysis 2. metaphysic 3. diaphysis 4. apophysis What is the view of amebic abscess on USE? 1. hypoechoic formation 2. hyperechoic formation 3. not visible What’s the main sign of intestinal amebiasis? 1. diarrhea 2. constipations 3. pains in abdomen 4. positive Schyotkin’s sign Choose the most typical localization of fillariae in a human body? 1. urinary tract 2. lymph vessels 3. nerves 4. veins 5. arteries Call the layers of ecchinococcus cyst: 1. mesotelial, peritoneal 2. germinative, chitinous 3. piogenic, intermediary 4. membranous, serous 21  General Surgery Department What pathology can’t be the source of sepsis? 1. wounds 2. carbuncle of face 3. closed fracture 4. deep burn 5. peritonitis What measures can’t be recommended in sepsis? 1. limiting oral introducing fluids 2. opening purulent center 3. introducing antibiotics 4. blood transfusion 5. vitamins What state promotes to sepsis? 1. diabetes 2. bronchial asthma 3. long-term therapy with corticosteroids 4. hypertonic disease 5. cardiosclerosis What is the most important measure in the treatment of sepsis? 1. bed regime 2. ventilation of patient’s room 3. opening of primary suppurative center 4. treatment of accompanied disease 5. careful intravenous injections The most important component of the treatment of sepsis is: 1. antibiotics 2. massage 3. treatment gymnastics 4. physical procedures 5. vitamins Blood for inoculation in sepsis is taken: 1. just after introduction of antibiotics 2. in algor & highest temperature of patient’s body 3. in normal temperature of patient’s body 4. just after falling the temperature 5. in 6-12 hours after abolishing antibiotics Call the symptom of sepsis: 1. jaundice 2. bradicardia 3. hypothermy 4. hyperproteinemia 5. polyuria 22  General Surgery Department Call the symptom of sepsis: 1. algor 2. deviation of leukogram to the right 3. arterial hypertension 4. increased hematocrit 5. polyphagia Call the late complication of sepsis: 1. clotting pulmonary artery 2. cachexia 3. bedsore 4. pneumonia 5. gastric bleeding What’s most frequent agent of septic shock? 1. Pneumococcus 2. Staphylococcus 3. E.coli 4. Gonococcus What kind of sepsis is accompanied with mental disorders more often? 1. gram-negative 2. gram-positive 3. mycotic Is the usage of inhibitors of proteases indicated in sepsis? 1. yes 2. no Optimal conditions for development of gas gangrene appear in: 1. frostbites 2. bites of insects 3. deep infected wound deprived with oxygen 4. closed fractures 5. deep burns Local features of gas gangrene are: 1. swelling, necrosis 2. swelling, lymphangitis 3. elephantiasis 4. bacteriemia, subfascial phlegmon What is the most frequent localization of gas gangrene? 1. extremities 2. head, neck 3. back 4. perineum 5. abdominal cavity 23  General Surgery Department What changes appear due to action of anaerobic microbes to patient’s organism? 1. desquamation of epidermis with necrosis 2. gas production with necrosis of muscles & connective tissue 3. abscess 4. shock 5. necrosis of skin, muscles & bones What are the symptoms of gas gangrene from the side of the wound? 1. swelling, hyperemia, purulent exudate 2. swelling, red spots & strings on skin 3. subcutaneous emphysema, rapid swelling 4. fetid exudate, pale skin 5. swelling, pains, convulsions Non-specific prophylaxis of gas gangrene includes: 1. primary surgical treatment 2. strong antibiotics 3. antigangrenous serum 4. putting a rope below a wound 5. vitamins The most important component of treatment of gas gangrene is: 1. opening infectious center with necrectomy 2. anti-shock therapy 3. treating doses of anti-tetanus serum 4. antibacterial therapy 5. desensitization therapy What clinical forms of gas anaerobic infection do you know? 1. acute & subacute 2. acute & fulminant 3. acute & chronic 4. chronic & relapsing 5. relapsing & fulminant What anatomic forms of gas anaerobic infection are distinguished? 1. intra-articular & intra-bony 2. epifascial & subfascial 3. epidural & subdural 4. cutaneous & subcutaneous 5. subcutaneous & muscular What group of chemical antiseptics is used for local application in gas anaerobic infection? 1. oxidizers 2. formalin 3. detergents 4. dye-staffs 5. pure alcohol 24  General Surgery Department What exotoxin plays the most important role in pathogenesis of tetanus? 1. tetanokinase 2. tetanolysin 3. tetanospasmin 4. hyalase 5. leukicidin Early symptoms of tetanus are: 1. convulsions of muscles around the wound, hyperthermy 2. rapid swelling 3. opistotonos 4. bradicardia, dry skin 5. lost of consciousness, paralysis Indication for urgent prophylaxis of tetanus is: 1. burns & frostbites of the 1st degree 2. closed fracture 3. operation on large bowel 4. operation on bones Specific active-passive prophylaxis of tetanus includes: 1. 3000 IU of ATS & 1 ml of TA 2. 1 ml of TA & antibiotics 3. 1 ml TS & myorelaxants 4. 3000 IU of ATS & antibiotics 5. 3000 IU of ATS & myorelaxants Non-specific prophylaxis of tetanus includes: 1. suturing a wound 2. blood transfusion 3. hyperbaric oxygenation 4. primary surgical treatment with draining of the operation site 5. antibiotics What drug a patient should receive for neutralization of tetanic toxins? 1. hormonal drugs 2. alkaline solutions 3. acid solutions 4. antitetanic serum Duration of incubation period of tetanus is: 1. 1-3 days 2. 4-14 days 3. 15-20 days 4. 21-30 days 5. 31-40 days Obvious symptom of tetanus is: 1. sardonic smile 2. delirium 3. cardiac decompensation 4. anemia 25  GeneralSurgeryDepartment What department the patient with tetanus should be cured in? 1. surgical 2. intensive therapy & resuscitation 3. theraputical 4. neurological 5. infection Normal value of CVP is: 1. 20-40 mm.m.с. 2. 30-40 mm.w.с. 3. 60-120 mm.w.с. 4. 130-140 mm.m.с. 5. 150-200 mm.m.с. What is extramedullary osteosynthesis? a) Metallic constructions stabilize the bone on the inside; b) metallic constructions stabilize the bone On the outside. EXTRA MCQ….. Sem1 1. What’s average sterilizing dose of radiation? a) 2,5 kGr; b) 25 kGr; c) 250 kGr; d) 2,5 MGr; e) 25 MGr. 2. What’s time of the sterilization of surgical instruments by boiling? a) 5 min; b) 10 min; c) 30 min; d) 45 min; e) 60 min. 3. Latent blood on surgical tools after pre-sterilization processing is revealed with: a) methyl orange; b) amidopyrin reagent; c) phenolphthalein; d) hydrogen peroxide; e) brilliant green 4. What substance is used for open-flame sterilization? a) formalin; b) boric acid solution; c) carbolic acid; d) iodine tincture; e) alcohol. 5. What’s time of sterilization in vacuum formalin chambers after vaporizing of 1,2 ml of 16% formalin so-lution per 1l of chamber & temperature 70°C? a) not less 1 hour; b) not less 2 hours; c) not less 3 hours; d) not less 5 hours; e) not less 10 hours 6. What’s time of sterilization of 6% hydrogen peroxide solution in 55°C? a) 30 min; b) 45 min; c) 60 min; d) 90 min; e) 120 min; f) 150 min; g) 180 min 7. What minimal temperature causes the death of spore-forming microbes? a) 60˚C; b) 80˚C; c) 100˚C; d) 120˚C; e) 150˚C; f) 180˚C. 8. Asepsis includes: 26  GeneralSurgeryDepartment a) sterilization of surgical instruments; b) processing surgeon’s hands; c) following special rules in perform-ing surgical operations; d) following special hygienic & organizational measures at the hospitals; e) all above points 9. Who is the father of asepsis? a) Subbotin; b) Dyakonov; c) Bergmann; d) Zimmelweis; e) Hippocrates 10. What measure doesn’t belong to struggle against air-drop infection? a) correct ventilation & conditioning of operation theatres & dressing rooms; b) restriction of visiting operation unit; c) processing surgeon’s hands; d) wet cleansing of premises; e) regular irradiation of premises with UV 1. What’s the prophylactic dose of Lamivudin in low risk of HIV-contamination for medicals? a) 150 mg trice a day; b) 250 mg twice a day; c) 150 mg twice a day; d) 800 mg twice a day; e) not administered. 2. What’s the mechanism of action of sulfonamides? a) decay of H-bonds & between atoms of nitrogen &carbonilic groups & destruction of protein secondary structure; b) dissociation in penetration into cells & denaturation of protoplasma proteins; c) formation of albuminates with cellular proteins; d) cellular dismetabolism due to uniting of sulfhydrilic groups of microbial proteins; e) blockade of dehydrogenases; f) blockade of tissue respiration; g) substitution of para-aminobenzoic acid in cellular metabolism with following disorder of their regeneration. 3. What’s the mechanism of action of nitrofurans? a) decay of H-bonds & between atoms of nitrogen &carbonilic groups & destruction of protein secondary structure; b) dissociation in penetration into cells & denaturation of protoplasma proteins; c) formation of albuminates with cellular proteins; d) cellular dismetabolism due to uniting of sulfhydrilic groups of microbial proteins; e) blockade of dehydrogenases; f) blockade of tissue respiration; g) substitution of tetrahydrofolic acid in cellular metabolism with following disorder of their regeneration. 4. What kind of antiseptics does the use of proteolytic enzymes in the wound belong? a) mechanical; b) physical; c) chemical; d) biological; e) therapiasterilisans magna. 5. How many forms of Kaposi’s sarcoma are distinguished in the clinical practice? a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4; e) 5. 6. Which of signs belongs to great criteria of AIDS? a) constant or intermittent fever within a month; b) cough more a month; c) generalized itching dermatitis; d) generalized lymphadenopathy; e) candydosis of mouth cavity & pharynx. 7. Choose penicillin for oral using: a) benzylpenicillin Na; b) ospen-750; c) carbenicillin; e) metacyclin. 8. Choose cefalosporin of the last generation: a) cefzol; b) zinacef; c) ceftriaxon; d) cefepim; e) duracef. 9. What kind of disease is an indication for administration of 5-NOK? a) meningitis; b) pneumonia; c) ulcerative disease; d) pyelonephritis; e) moist gangrene of lower extremities. 10. Choose antimycotic antibiotics: a) streptomycin; b) cycloserin; c) erythromycin; d) polymixin; e) griseofulvin. 27  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 1. What belongs to biological method of final arrest of bleeding? a) tamponade of wound by own tissues; b) blood transfusion; c) hemostatic sponge; d) local using thrombin; e) all called measures. 2. What kind of analgesia will you choose for the operation a propos of arterio-venous aneurysm? a) local anesthesia; b) conduction anesthesia; c) artificial hibernation; d) electronarcosis; e) inhalation narcosis. 3. Call the method of final hemostasis in injury of a. dorsalis pedis: a) ligating in the wound; b) vascular suture; c) applying hemostatic clamp; d) tamponade of the wound; e) vascular bypass. 4. What totality of factors promotes clotting? a) slow blood flow, activation of fibrinolysis, injury of vascular wall; b) rapid blood flow, inhibition of fibrinolysis, injury of vascular wall; c) slow blood flow, inhibition of fibrinolysis, smooth vascular wall; d) rapid blood flow, activation of fibrinolysis, smooth vascular wall; e) slow blood flow, inhibition of fibrinolysis, injury of vascular wall. 5. What disease is accompanied with formation of segmentararterio-venous aneurysms? a) varicose veins; b) Parx-Weber-Rubashov syndrome; c) postthrombophlebitic syndrome; d) Fallo triad; e) Wilson-Konovalov disease. 6. What remedy decreases blood pressure in bleeding from varicose veins of esophagus? a) ε-aminocapronic acid; b) sandostatin; c) corglycone; d) dibazole; e) oxytocin. 7. How many units of heparin are inactivated by 1 mg of protamine-sulphate? a) ~ 20; b) ~ 40; c) ~ 60; d) ~ 85; e) ~ 120. 8. What remedy will you choose for arrest of bleeding from uterus after its atonia? a) ε-aminocapronic acid; b) sandostatin; c) corglycone; d) dibazole; e) oxytocin. 9. What vitamin exercises influence on vascular permeability? a) A; b) C; c) D; d) E; e) PP. 10. What’s the volume of infusions in severe blood loss? a) 100%; b) 200%; c) 250%; d) 300%; e) 400%. 1.What’s a rate of dry glucose & insulin for i/v introducing glucose solution? a) 1unit of insulin per 1 g of dry glucose; b) 1 unit per 2 g; c) 1 unit per 3 g; d) 1 unit per 4 g; e) 1 unit per 5 g. 2. What’s the reason of homologous blood syndrome? a) citrate intoxication; b) potassium intoxication; c) ammoniac intoxication; d) slow transfusion; e) phenomenon of tissue incompatibility. 3. What derivative of blood is recommended for stimulation of regenerative processes? a) polybiolin; b) entire blood; c) FFP; d) cryoprecipitate; e) stabisol. 4. What substance should be mixed with balanced aminoacids solutions to provide their complete assimilation? a) isotonic NaCl solution; b) 5% glucose solution; c) 40% glucose solution; d) potassium-magnesium asparaginate; e) nothing. 5. The usage of cryoprecipitate is purposeful in treatment of: a) deficiency of clotting factors II, VII & X; b) deficiency of clotting factors VIII & fibrinogen; c) thrombocytopenia; d) all above. 6. Call the indications for packed WBC transfusion: 28  GeneralSurgeryDepartment a) leukopenia less 6x109/l; b) cerebral apoplexy; c) leukopenia less 1,5x109/l; d) Werlhov’s disease; e) hepatic insufficiency. 7. How many units of heparin are inactivated by 1 mg of protamine-sulfate? a) ~ 20; b) ~ 40; c) ~ 60; d) ~ 85; e) ~ 120. 8. Which of remedies has the longest time of action? a) 20% Albumin solution; b) gelatinol; c) Refortan+; d) Stabizol; e) Volekam. 9. Is the performance of biological test obligatory in transfusion of packed platelets? a) yes; b) no. 10. What’s the side effect of HOES derivatives? a) decrease of blood clotting properties; b) decrease of elastase activity; c) increase of urea in blood; d) increase of C-protein; e) increase of AST. 1. In what kind of anesthesia is the phase of excitation absent? a) inhalation narcosis with ether; b) inhalation narcosis with halothane; c) intravenous anesthesia with cetamin; d) intravenous anesthesia with chloral hydrate; e) inhalation narcosis with cyclopropane 2. What kind of respiratory outline is characterized with the following scheme “the patient inhales gaseous mixture from apparatus & exhales carbonic oxide into the atmosphere of an operative theatre? a) open; b) semi-open; c) semi-closed; d) closed. 3. What is minimal alveolar concentration for nitrous oxide? a) 0.76 %; b) 1,92%; c) 101 %; d) 0.16 %, e) 9.2 %; f) 1.6 %. 4. What level of III phase of ether narcosis is characterized with disappearance of pharyngeal reflex? a) I; b) II; c) III; d) IV; e) V; f) VI. 5. What is contraindication for ether narcosis? a) schizophrenia; b) suprarenal failure; c) myocarditis; d) tonsillitis; e) hemorrhoids. 6. Call disadvantage of narcosis by predion: a) slow sleeping; b) hallucinations; c) long stage of excitation; d) phlebitis; e) blockade of respiratory center. 7. What’s the concentration of thiopental-sodium is used for intravenous introducing? a) 1%; b) 3%; c) 5%; d) 10%; e) 15%. 8. What is contraindication for using Midazolam? a) diarrhea; b) gastric ulcer; c) convulsions; d) phlebitis; e) bronchial asthma. 9. What drugs can be used for initial narcosis? a) propanidid; b) thiopental-sodium; c) ketamine; d) predion; e) thalamonal. 10. Call the narcotic part of NLA: a) morphine; b) atropine; c) phentanil; d) diazepam; e) dithilin. 11. What method isn’t included into complex of measures against intestinal paresis? a) introducing pituitrin; b) introducing ephedrine; c) introducing neostegminemethylsulfate; d) hypertonic enemas; e) i/v introducing 10% NaCl sol. 12. What disease is not characterized with irradiation of pain to the shoulder girdle? a) perforated gastric ulcer; b) acute destructive cholecystitis; c) broken ectopic pregnancy; d) rupture of spleen; e) acute pancreatitis. 29  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 13. What is the most informative method of examination in rupture of liver? a) colonoscopy; b) FGDS; c) X-ray examination of abdomen; d) laparoscopy; e) physical examination. 14. The symptom of “tilting doll” may be observed in injury of: a) stomach; b) liver; c) pancreas; d) kidneys; e) small bowel. 15. What is the most informative method of examination in rupture of urinary bladder? a) X-ray examination of the abdomen; b) laparoscopy; c) contrast cystography; d) irrigoscopy; e) urine test. 16. Rupture of descendent part of duodenum is usually accompanied with: a) bleeding; b) peritonitis; c) retroperitoneal phlegmon; d) combined rupture of right kidney; e) nothing. 17. When is Kulencampf’s symptom positive? a) valve pneumothorax; b) closed pneumothorax; c) contusion of the brain; d) intra- abdominal bleeding; e) peritonitis. 18. Choose the constant symptom of peritonitis: a) air under the diaphragm in X-ray film; b) moist tongue; c) dysuria; d) hiccup; e) tenderness in examination over rectum. 19. What must one perform before reinfusion of blood from abdominal cavity after rupture of spleen? a) to determine concentration of Hb in blood; b) to count pulse & BP; c) to determine concentration of bilirubin in blood; d) to exclude contamination of blood & hemolysis; e) to determine concentration of urea in blood. 20. What sign isn’t characteristic for manifestation of contusion of abdominal wall? a) change of skin color; b) local superficial tenderness in the place of hematoma; c) presence of tumor-shaped mass in smooth tissues; d) pains after abduction of straightened leg. 11. The most frequent source of bleeding for epidural hematoma is: a) a. basilaris; b) aneurysm of a. temporalis; c) a. meningea media; d) vessels of brain; e) dural sinuses. 12. How many conditions of consciousness do you know? a) 1; b) 3; c) 5; d) 7; e) 9. 13. What facilitates increase of permeability & swelling of the brain in closed trauma? a) arterial spasm; b) spasm of veins; c) dilation of arteries; d) dilation of veins; e) spasm of veins & dilation of arteries. 14. The symptoms of cerebral concussion are conditioned by: a) the injury of cerebral nerves; b) hemorrhages on the head; c) swelling of brain; d) mental state at time of trauma; e) pulse pressure at time of trauma. 15. What therapy is carried out in concussion of the brain? a) symptomatic only; b) dehydration only; c) detoxication only; d) symptomatic & dehydration; e) symptomatic &detoxication. 16. What sign is revealed more often in contusion of heart? a) effusion in pericardiac bag; b) retrosternal pain; c) sinuous tachycardia; d) arterial hypertension; e) collapse. 30  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 17. What patient’s position is the most informative for X-ray examination of thoracic organs? a) horizontal; b) vertical; c) on the side; d) on the back. 18. What can relief patient’s condition with cardiac injury before surgery? a) inhalation of oxygen; b) cardiac glycosides; c) pericardiac puncture; d) blood transfusion; e) respiratory analeptics 19. Signs after closed trauma of the chest: severe condition, cyanosis, breathlessness, disorder of phonation, subcutaneous emphysema on the neck. The most probable diagnosis: a) abrupture of principle bronchus; b) damage of esophagus; c) massive rupture of lung; d) contusion of lungs; e) contusion of heart; f) multiple fractures of ribs 20. Choose the sign characteristic for closed thoracic trauma with rupture of lung: a) pains; b) breathlessness; c) presence of moist rales on the side of injury; d) absence of respiratory murmurs on the side of damage; e) presence of dry rales on the side of injury; f) crepitating in subcutaneous fatty tissue; g) disphonation. 1. What is not a complication of shock? a) immune blockade; b) intensive GI motility; c) respiratory distress-syndrome; d) hypotension. 2. In Allgover’s index =1 blood loss is: a) no blood loss; b) 20-30%; c) 10-15%; d) 35-45%; e) > 50%. 3. How many degrees has traumatic shock? a) 2; b) 3; c) 4; d) 5; e) 6. 4. What type of Novocain blockade is indicated in pleuro-pneumonial shock? a) intercostals; b) paranephric; c) vago-sympathetic; d) intrapelvic; e) retrosternal. 5. Main pathogenic factor of crush-syndrome is not: a) painful irritation; b) traumatic toxemia; c) plasma loss; d) autohemodilution; e) ischemia of tissues. 6. Select wrong assertion as for CVP in patients with severe trauma: a) low CVP is a reliable criterion of absence of cardiac tamponade; b) CVP- monitoring objectively reflects restoration of circulatory volume; c) if cardiac & pulmonary diseases are absent CVP correlates with diastolic pressure. 7. How many periods are there in the course of crush-syndrome? a) 2; b) 3; c) 4; d) 5; e) 6. 8. І period of crush-syndrome is manifested with: a) local necroses and endogenous intoxication; b) acute renal failure; c) infectious complications; d) normalization of renal function; e) septic shock. 9. Metabolic acidosis in shock: a) decreases releasing oxygen on tissues; b) increases cardiac output; c) decreases tropism of hemoglobin to oxygen. 10. What method isn’t included in the first aid in crush-syndrome? a) immobilization of damaged extremity; b) application of a tourniquet; c) administration of analgesics; d) administration of sedatives; e)hemodialysis. 11. Call the wrong motive of slow consolidation of bones: a) bad immobilization; b) the development of infection; c) interposition of smooth tissues; d) pneumonia; e) cachexia. 31  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 12. In the appearance of swelling & pains at the site of fracture after putting plaster- of-Paris bandage it’s necessary: a) to fix the extremity in upper position; b) to introduce analgesics; c) to cut the bandage along its axis; d) to put a compress; e) to appoint diuretic. 13. What’s Dupuitren’s fracture? a) extensive fracture of radius; b) flexing fracture of radius; c) fracture of pelvis; d) subcapital fracture of humerus; e) fracture of both malleoli. 14. What factor does not influence on the form of fracture? a) power of out force; b) duration of out force; c) direction of out force; d) properties of bone; e) patient’s position at time of trauma. 15. What’s volume of hematoma in fracture of pelvis? a) to 100 ml; b) to 500 ml; c) to 1 l; d) to 2 l and more; e) to 5 l and more. 16. What anatomical structures are damaged more often in supracondylar distal fracture of humerus? a) а.brасhіаlіs, n.ulnаrіs; b) а.brасhіаlіs, n.mеdіаnus; c) а.rаdіаlіsеtn.rаdіаlіs; d) а.ulnаrіsеtn.ulnаrіs 17. What state does not slow consolidation of fractures? a) pregnancy; b) anemia; c) reception of anti-inflammatory drugs; d) reception of hormones; e) diabetes mellitus. 18. What fracture consolidates most quickly? a) oblique; b) impacted; c) spiral; d) comminuted; e) gunshot. 19. Administer a remedy for stimulation of bony consolidation: a) L-thyroxin; b) parathyroidin; c) nerobol; d) testosterone; e) aspirin. 20. How many projection of x-ray examination is necessary for correct complete diagnostics of fractures? a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4; e) 5. 1. Call the symptoms of dislocations: a) straightening of extremity; b) pathologic mobility; c) springy fixation; d) forced bending of extremity; e) fever. 2. Is intra-articular introduction of Novocaine solution possible for the first aid in dislocations? a) yes; b) no. 3. Is the immobilization by the scarf possible for the first aid in dislocations? a) yes; b) no. 4. Is the immobilization by Desault’s bandage possible after the reduction of the dislocations? a) yes; b) no. 5. Call the components of the treatment of dislocations? a) postponed setting a bone; b) the reduction of a dislocation in 2 days after the trauma; c) administration of Ca remedies; d) treatment gymnastics; e) performing habitual work just after the reduction of the dislocation. 6. How many stages does the reduction of dislocation of humerus by Kocher’s method include? a) one; b) two; c) three; d) four; e) five. 7. Call the indications for the operative treatment of dislocations? 32  GeneralSurgeryDepartment a) dislocations of fingers of the foot; b) dislocations of collar-bone; c) neglected dislocations; d) dislocations of femur; e) dislocations without interposition of smooth tissues. 8. The examination of the patient with pains in arm should be begun with: a) questioning; b) X-ray examination of the arm; c) the determination of hemoglobin in blood; d) revealing crepitations; e) revealing pathologic mobility. 9. Call the indications for transport immobilization: a) acute osteomyelitis; b) acute thrombophlebitis; c) fractures of bones; d) injuries of joints; e) all called cases. 10. How many joints should be immobilized in fractures of humerus? a) one; b) two; c) three; d) four. 1. In how many joints should immobility be performed in case of Achilles tendon rupture: A) 1; B) 2; c) 3; D) 4. 2. In a complete rupture of the muscle, the following will be revealed: A) crepitus in the area of rupture; B) local deformity in the rupture zone, determined by palpation;C) an increase in the length of the limb; D) the absence of hematoma at the rupture site. 3. In order to stop capillary bleeding in a superficial injury, it is necessary: A) carry out transport immobilization; B) treat the wound with furacillin solution; C) apply an aseptic compression bandage; D) warm the affected area. 4. Active unbent movements in the ankle joint with incomplete rupture of the Achilles tendon: A) limited due to pain; B) absent; C) painless, in full; D) are possible after performing transport immobilization. 5. Autoimmobilization is: A) bandaging the injured lower limb to the healthy or upper limb to the trunk; B) using the Cramer’s splint; C) using the Diterikhs splint; D) using hand materials. 6. The Dieterichs splint is used: A) in damage of the upper limb; B) in injuries of the spine; C) in injuries of the lower limb; D) in all of above cases. 7. The most common use of pneumatic splints: A) immobilization in spinal injuries; B) immobilization in hip joint damage; C) immobilization in injuries of forearm and lower leg; D) as the most optimal way of immobilization in injuries of shoulder joint. 8. What splints are improvised: A) ski; B) Cramer’s; C) Dieterikhs’s; D) mesh. 9. Which of splints does not belong to the means of transport immobilization: A) Beller’s; B) Cramer’s; C) Dieterikhs; D) pneumatic 10. What complication can occur if you do not use soft material as a lining between the splint and the skin: A) bleeding; B) bedsores; C) hyperthermia; D) paresis, paralysis. 33  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 1. The penetrating wound of the abdomen is called the wound with the injury of: a) skin; b) muscles; c) parietal peritoneum; d) visceral peritoneum; e) abdominal organs. 2. It’s necessary for the stimulation of wound healing by secondary intention in the ІІ phase of wound process: a) frequent wound dressings; b) application of enzymes; c) use of ointments stimulating growth of granulation tissue; d) dressings with hypertonic solution; e) treatment gymnastics. 3. Select correct description of primary surgical suture: a) dissection of wound’s borders & bed; b) opening the wound recesses, arrest of bleeding; c) laving a wound with antiseptic drug, removing the purulent exudate; d) dissection of wound’s borders, walls & bed, arrest of bleeding; e) laving a wound with antiseptics, arrest of bleeding. 4. What’s the main indication to put primary postponed sutures? a) shock; b) large blood loss; c) possible infecting; d) injury of a nerve. 5. When are primary postponed sutures applied? a) on the 3-4-th day; b) on the 5-7-th day; c) on the 8-15-th day; d) on the 20-30-th day. 6. What medicine is the most effective against pyocyanic infection? a) aethazol; b) penicillin; c) salicylic acid; d) boric acid; e) iodine tincture. 7. When debridement is impossible? a) in bleeding; b) in shock; c) during the first hours after injuring; d) in cases of wound contamination; e) in AIDS. 8. What’s the term of late secondary sutures application? a) on the 3-4-th day; b) on the 5-6-th day; c) on the 8-15-th day; d) on the 20-30-th day. 9. What determines wound gaping? a) deepness of injury; b) injury of nerves; c) injury of fasciae; d) injury of tendons & muscles; e) coincidence with direction of elastic fibers. 10. Microbes get into the wound in primary infection from: a) forceps in dressing; b) scalpel; c) surgeon’s hands; d) patient’s skin; e) suture material. 1.What level is peridural anesthesia performed on? a) D12-L1; b) L1-L2; c) L2-L4; d) L4-L5; e) L5-Cc1; f) any of them. 2. Call contraindications for local anesthesia: a) strangulated hernia; b) mental disease; c) pregnancy; d) age > 70; e) renal failure. 3. Call indications for paranephric blockade: a) myocardial infarction; b) angina pectoris; c) intestinal dynamic obstruction; d) thrombophlebitis; e) acute pyelonephritis. 4. What concentration of procaine will you use for vagosympathetic blockade? a) 0,25%; b) 0,1%; c) 0,5%; d) 1%; e) 5%. 5. Where will you prick skin for vagosympathetic block? a) anterior border of sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM) near collar bone; b) anterior border of SCM near mastoid process; c) posterior border of SCM near mastoid process; d) posterior border of SCM in place of cross with v. 34  GeneralSurgeryDepartment jugularisexterna; e) anterior border of SCM in place of cross with v. jugularisinterna. 6. Call the indication for Loreen-Epstein blockade; a) hepatic colic; b) renal colic; c) myocardial infarction; d) acute gastritis; e) acute pancreatitis. 7. Choose the drug from the group of combined ethers of aminoacids with aminospirits: a) bupivacain; b) pyromecain; c) xycaine; d) novocaine; e) trimecaine. 8. Anesthesia by Oberst-Lukashevitch is performed on: a) fingers; b) neck; c) retrosternal space; d) thigh; e) forearm. 9. What’s mechanism of action of local anesthetic drugs? a) elevation of threshold of painful sensitivity due to the formation of stable epileptiform center in brain; b) blockade of K-Na pump in nervous cells; c) activation of own opiate system; d) dissociative anesthesia due to disorder of connections between cerebral cortex & subcortical nuclei; e) facilitate the production of mediators of cerebral inhibition. 10. What’s a possible side effect of local anesthetics? a) hypertension; b) diarrhea; c) polyuria; d) intraocular hypotension; e) muscular twitching. SEM-2 1. What complication may occur in the usage of antibiotics? a) aseptic peritonitis; b) pleural adhesions; c) epidemic parotitis; d) Lyell’s syndrome; e) viral pneumonia. 2. Call one of the stages of local reaction in the development of local infection? a) infiltration; b) induration; c) desquamation; d) dilution; e) penetration. 3. Choose one of symptoms of penetrating pyogenic microbes into human organism: a) hypothermia; b) bradicardia; c) normal pulse rate; d) gastric pains; e) fever. 4. What of diseases is complicated by purulent infection more often? a) malignant tumor; b) cardiac defects; c) diabetes mellitus; d) chronic renal insufficiency; e) closed trauma of the skull. 5. Call the treatment indicated in beginning boil: a) application of leeches; b) massage; c) processing skin by ether; d) processing skin by 70% alcohol; e) squeezing a boil out. 6. Pelvic phlegmon has been complicated with spreading pus into popliteal pit. What hole has pus spread from pelvis through? 35  GeneralSurgeryDepartment a) lacuna musculorum; b) lacuna vasorum; c) foramen ischiaducum minus; d) foramen suprapiriforme; e) foramen infrapiriforme. 7. What method is used more often in treatment of hidradenitis? a) local use of cold compress; b) UHF; c) local use of resolving substances; d) opening abscess 8. Choose the most important component of swine rose treatment: a) antibiotics; b) immobilization of extremity; c) introducing specific serum; d) opening inflammatory center; e) UHF. 9. Is immunity stable after erysipeloid? a) yes; b) no. 10. Why are antibiotics inactive in centre of abscessing? a) due to presence of capsule; b) due to low pH in abscess; c) due to low tension of oxygen in abscess; d) due to high pressure in abscess; e) due to presence of anaerobic bacteria. 1. What kind of panaritium is characterized with “hook” sign? a) cutaneous; b) subcutaneous; c) thecal whitlow; d) bony; e) cuff-link-shaped. 2. What disease may cause spontaneous development of arthritis without an external wound & previous thecal whitlow? a) cancer; b) diabetes mellitus; c) electric trauma; d) radiation affection; e) osteomyelitis. 3. Where’s Kanavel’s point localized? a) between thumb & index; b) in the middle of the palm; c) between transverse palm creases on the ulnar side; d) on the middle of fore-arm; e) between transverse palm creases on the radius side. 4. Is immobilization obligatory in acute purulent arthritis? a) yes; b) no. 5. What is the early complication of acute purulent arthritis? a) joint stiffness; b) pathological dislocation; c) fibrous ankylosis; d) bony ankylosis; e) secondary degenerative osteoarthrosis. 6. What agent of venereal disease often causes acute purulent arthritis? a) gonococcus; b) B. typhosus; c) pneumococcus; d) streptococcus; e) staphylococcus. 7. What disease is characterized with Kanavel’s sign? a) inflammation of thenar; b) ulnar bursitis; c) radial bursitis; d) pandactilitis of thumb; e) U-shaped phlegmon. 8. Call the early symptom of acute hematogeneous osteomyelitis? a) obliteration of bony channel; b) sequester bag; c) osteosclerosis; d) ossifying myositis; e) periostitis. 9. What symptom characterizes acute purulent gonitis? a) pale skin above the joint; b) dull pains in the joint; c) ballottement of knee-cap (patella); d) patholological mobility in the joint; e) diminu-tion of the joint. 10. What part of long bones is affected by osteomyelitis more often? a) diaphysis; b) epiphysis; c) articular cartilages; d) Havers’s canals. 1. What parts of vertebrae are damaged in tubercu-lous spondylitis? a) bodies; b) arch; c) transverse processes; d) spinous processes; e) ligaments. 36  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 2. What are X-ray symptoms of bony tuberculosis? a) diffuse osteoporosis; b) periostal reaction; c) en-dostal reaction; d) compact sequestral box; e) sign of “melting sugar”. 3. Call the earliest symptom of bony tuberculosis: a) pulsing pains; b) pneumonia; c) high temperature; d) inexplicable appearance of exudate in a joint; e) lameness. 4. Call anti-tuberculous antibiotic: a) Maxipim; b) Penicillin; c) Cycloserin; d) Oletetrin; e) Clacid. 5. What clinical form of tuberculous lymphadenitis is wrong? a) caseous-necrotic; b) sclerotic; c) oedematous. 6. What drug belongs to derivatives of isonicotinic acid? a) Cycloserin; b) Pirazinamid; c) Phtivazid; d) Tibon; e) Soluthizon. 7. What operation should be performed in tubercu-lous spondylitis accompanied with compression of spinal cord? a) spondylodes; b) laminectomy; c) vertebrotomy; d) synovectomy; e) resection of spinal column. 8. What’s Ponset’s syndrome? a) tuberculous myocarditis; b) toxic-allergic paratuber-culous arthritis; c) tuberculous affection of short tubular bones; d) tuberculous arachnoiditis; e) tuberculosis men-ingitis. 9. What is the main method of treatment of spinal caries? a) local heating; b) local cooling; c) specific drug treatment; d) opening pathologic center; e) dissection of pathologic center. 10. What joints are affected by consumption more often? a) interphalangeal, wrist, ankle; b) intervertebral, sa-croiliac; c) knee, hip, shoulder; d) all called; e) joints aren’t affected. 1. Optimal conditions for development of gas gangrene appear in: a) closed fractures; b) infected wounds; c) deep burns; d) frostbites; e) bites of insects. 2. Local features of gas gangrene are: a) inflammatory reaction, swelling; intoxication; b) swelling, necrosis; c) swelling, lymphangitis; d) elephantiasis; e) bacteriemia, subfascialphlegmon. 3. What is the most frequent localization of gas gangrene? a) head, neck; b) extremities; c) back; d) perineum; e) abdominal cavity. 4. What changes appear in action of anaerobic microbes on patient’s organism? a) abscesses; b) desquamation of epiderm with necrosis of fatty tissue; c) forming gas with necrosis of muscles & connective tissue; d) shock; e) necrosis of skin, muscles & bones. 5. What are the symptoms of gas gangrene from the side of the wound? a) swelling, hyperemia, purulent exudate; b) swelling, red spots & strings on skin; c) fetid exudate, pale skin; d) subcutaneous emphysema, rapid spreading swelling; e) swelling, pains, convulsions. 6. What do the patient receive for the neutralization of tetanic toxins? a) hormonal drugs; b) ATS; c) blood; d) alkaline solutions; e) acid solutions. 7. What is the curative dose of ATS? a) 50000-100000 IU per day; b) 100000-150000 IU per day; c) 150000-200000 IU per day; d) 200000-250000 IU per day; e) 250000-300000 IU per day. 8. Agent of tetanus causes the disease getting into the organism through: 37  GeneralSurgeryDepartment a) injured serous coat of bowel; b) injured skin or mucous; c) upper respiratory tract.# 9. The duration of incubation period of tetanus is (the most often): a) 1-3 days; b) 4-14 days; c) 15-20 days; d) 21-30 days; e) 31-40 days. 10. Obvious symptom of tetanus is: a) delirium; b) cardiac decompensation; c) anemia; d) sardonic smile; e) relapsing attacks of fever. 1. What species of microbes is smeared in urosepsis more often? a) Staph. aureus; b) Staph. epidermidis; c) Ps. aer-oginosa; d) E. coli; e) Proteus vulgaris. 2. Call the early complication of sepsis: a) pneumonia; b) bedsores; c) clotting pulmonary ar-tery; d) cachexia; e) gastric bleeding. 3. What kind of antibiotics is especially active in an-giogenic sepsis? a) sulfonamides; b) penicillins; c) glycopeptides; d) lyncosamines; e) antimycotic. 4. What form of sepsis is accompanied by the for-mation of purulent metastases? a) septicopyemia; b) septicemia. 5. What is the main pathogenic mechanism of shock in gram-negative sepsis? a) vasodilation; b) vasoconstriction; c) increase of car-diac output; d) decrease of venous return; e) de-crease of circulation volume. 6. What‘s the most frequent pathogen of sepsis? a) pneumococcus; b) staphylococcus; c) gonococcus; d) streptococcus; e) peptostreptococcus. 7. Call morphological features of endotoxic shock? a) patch necrosis of myocardium; b) patch necrosis of brain; c) patch necrosis of liver; d) pneumonia; e) thrombus in lung. 8. What’s most frequent pathogen of gram-negative sepsis? a) Str. putridus; b) S. albus; c) Sarcinalutea; d) Diplo-coccus pneumoniae; e) E. coli. 9. What kind of toxin causes intravascular defibrina-tion of blood? a) endotoxin; b) exotoxin. 10. How will you assess combination of positive hemo-culture & absence of SIRS signs? a) SIRS of non-infection origin; b) culture-negative sepsis; c) infection without sepsis; d) sepsis. 1. Patient’s diagnose is skin cancer of right cheek T1N0M0. What clinical group does he belong to? a) Іa; b) ІІ; c) ІІІ; d) ІV; e) Іb. 2. Choose the remedy from the group of antimetabolits? a) doxirubicin; b) cyclophosphan; c) vincristin; d) 5-ftoruracil; e) colchicine. 3. What hormones do they use for treatment of cancer of prostatic gland? a) testosterone propionate; b) L-thyroxin; c) polyestradiol phosphate; d) osarsol; e) bismoverol. 4. Antiblastics includes: a) covering a wound with alcohol after removing a tumor; b) frequent change of instruments, gloves, napkins during an opera-tion; c) repeated washing hands during an operation; d) removing a tumor en block, without cutting; e) operative access far from a 38  GeneralSurgeryDepartment tumor. 5. What does term “ІІІ clinical group” mean? a) patients with precancerous diseases; b) patients after radical treatment; c) patients needing special treatment; d) patients needing radiotherapy; e) patients needing chemotherapy. 6. Call the complications of radiation therapy: a) increase of work capacity; b) skin ulcer; c) ulcers in stomach; d) the formation of metastases in organs; e) leukocytosis. 7. What patients can be considered as cured of cancer? a) with complete removing a tumor; b) with no metastases after treatment; c) 5 years passed after complex treatment; d) with no complaints after treatment; e) all called criteria. 8. What isn’t precancerous disease? a) chronic anacid gastritis; b) hemorrhoids; c) polyp in stomach; d) leukoplakia of mouth cavity; e) lipoma. 9. What isotopes can be used for external irradiation? a) I131; b) Co60 c) C14; d) N17; e) F21. 10. What measures does chemical antiblastics include? a) the use of electric scalpel; b) covering a wound with formalin after removing a tumor; c) intravenous introduction of anti-tumoral drugs during the operation; d) the irradiation of a tumor before the operation; e) the irradiation of a tumor during the operation. 1. Choose localization & character of process in Lerich’s syndrome: a) stenosis of renal arteries & symptomatic hypertension; b) stenosis of brachiocephalic trunk; c) atherosclerotic occlusion of aortic bifurcation; d) occlusion of celiac trunk; e) migrating thrombophlebitis of superficial veins with features of disorder of arterial blood supply. 2. What’s the most distributed and efficient method of examination of arteries? a) X-arteriography; b) US dopplerography; c) rheovasography; d) pletismography; e) pulsoxymetry. 3. Which of tests isn’t used in obliterating diseases of arteries? a) Gackenbrookh’s test; b) Moscowitz’s test; c) Samuel’s test; d) Panchenko’s test; e) Goldflam’s test. 4. Where will you palpate posterior tibial artery? a) behind lateral malleolus; b) behind inner malleolus; c) between I & II tarseal bones; d) under heel; e) between muscles of the crux. 5. What tool is used for removal of thrombus from an artery? a) Farabef’s retractor; b) “mosquito” forceps; c) Payer clamp; d) Babcock’s probe; e) Fogerty’s probe. 6. Choose a remedy with a systemic action for the treatment of PTD? a) Iruxol; b) Heparoid; c) Indovasin; d) Detralex; e) Kuriosin. 7. Choose a remedy with a local action for the treatment of varicothrombophlebitis? a) Diovenor; b) Glivenol; c) Heparoid; d) Wobenzym; e) Venoruton. 8. Linton’s operation includes: a) removal of subcutaneous veins from stripe incisions on the thigh & calf; b) ligating perforating veins under fascia; c) transcutaneous stitching varicose veins by catgut; d) removal of veins by probe; e) removal of subcutaneous veins from several small incisions 39  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 9. Application of elastic bandage begins from: a) the thigh; b) the knee; c) the calf; d) the ankle joint; e) the foot. 10. What clinical sign is not characteristic for chronic diseases of veins C2 according to CEAP? a) syndrome of «heavy legs»; b) hyperpigmentation; c) teleangiectasiae; d) reticular varicose veins. 1. They distinguish kinds of bedsores: а) latent & obvious; b) iatrogenic & pathological; c) endogenous& exogenous; d) acute & chronic. 2. What’s not characteristic for moist gangrene? a) swelling; b) intoxication; c) mottled skin; d) demarcation line; e) pain. 3. Choose the optimal method of treatment for trophic ulcers in arterial blood supply disorders: a) treatment under bandage; b) dissection of ulcer; c) covering defect by skin plasty; d) repair of arterial blood supply. 4. Choose wrong option: cardinal features of Martorell’s ulcers are: a) presence of sharply painful ulceration localized simmetrically in area of middle & lower third on anterior-external surface; b) prevalence in male at 40-60 years old; c) presence of severe form of arterial hypertension complicated with disorders form the side of kidneys & retina; d) absence of signs of CVI or lymphostasis; e) preservation of pulsation of arteries on feet & in popliteal pit directed at absence of disorder of arterial blood supply of lower limbs; f) presence of endothelium proliferation &subendothelialhialinosis leading to sharp narrowing of small arteries (reveled after morphological examination of ulcer borders). 5. Choose the main principle of treatment of dry gangrene of foot & leg: a) amputation on the level of sound tissues convenient for pros-thetics; b) amputation on the border of sound & sore tissues; c) cutting dead tissues; d) debridement ; e) conservative treatment till rejection of dead tissues. 6. Moist gangrene courses especially severely in patient with; а) alcoholism; b) furunculosis; c) osteomyelitis; d) tuberculosis of bones; e) diabetes mellitus. 7. What’s indicated in patients with gangrene of abdominal or-gans? а) introducing large doses of analeptics; b) introducing spas-molytic drug; c) introducing analgesics; d) introducing coagu-lants; e) emergency laparotomy with removing affected organ. 8. What kind of ulcer has the most characteristic feature: its edge is thin, reddish blue & undermined, pale granulation tissue with scanty serosanguineous discharge in the floor & slight indu-ration at the base? а) syphilitic; b) venous; c) tuberculous; d) diabetic; e) ischemic. 9. What fistulas can heal spontaneously? а) epithelized; b) lip-shaped; c) granulation. 10. External artificial fistula is: a) tracheoesopafeal; b) gastrostoma; c) arterio-venous shunt; d) choledochoduodenoanastomosis; e) urachus. 40  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 1. In postoperative retention of urine they carry out all the measures except: a) paranephric blockade; b) the introduction of spasmolytics; c) catheterization of urine bladder; d) the introduction of diuretics; e) epicystostomy. 2. How many periods do they distinguish in the non-complicated postoperative period? a) one; b) two; c) three; d) four; e) five. 3. Call measures for the treatment of meteorism: a) introducing a gastric tube; b) the use of spasmolytics; c) introducing proserin; d) oil enema; e) introducing 1% sodi-um chloride solution I.V. 4. Call the features of catabolic phase: a) increased production of insulin; b) normal pulse; c) hyper-phosphatemia; d) paresis of bowel; e) spontaneous stools. 5. What’s the term of immobilization after endoprosthetics of the hip joint? a) to 6 months; b) to 4 months; c) to 3 months; d) to 1 month; e) to 2 weeks. 6. What factors facilitate thromboembolic complications in post-operation period? a) bed-sores; b) cachexia; c) osteomyelitis; d) fibrillation of atriums; e) low BP. 7. Choose the cause of post-operation bleeding: a) diabetes mellitus; b) high patient’s activity; c) suppuration of the wound; d) high temperature; e) low BP. 8. What are symptoms of wound suppuration? a) throbbing pain in the wound; b) decrease of body tempera-ture; c) shriveling of wound area; d) cyanosis of skin; e) de-crease of local temperature. 9. What measures belong to specific prophylaxis of throm-bosis? a) usage of anticoagulants; b) treatment gymnastics; c) daily massage; d) elastic compression of low extremities; e) early activation of patients. 10. Measures for the stimulation of sputum discharge includes everything except: a) inhalations with proteolytic enzymes; b) respiratory gym-nastics; c) intaking pills of nitroglycerin; d) massage of thorax. 151. The dilation of pupils after the arrest of cardiac activity begins in: 1.20 s 2.30 s 3.40 s 4.5 s 5.1 min 152. How should the electrodes of the electric defibrillator be positioned? 1) one electrode is placed on the anterior surface of the chest in the area of the projection of the heart, and the other - in the area of the angle of the left scapula 2) the defibrillator electrodes are located along the mid-axillary lines 3) one electrode is placed on the right parasternal line below the clavicle, the other - laterally from the apex of the heart 4) the red electrode of the electric defibrillator is located at the level of the 2-3 intercostal space on the right along the midclavicular line, the black electrode is below the left nipple 5) the location of the electrodes is not important 153. What signs testify to cardiac arrest? 1. Loss of consciousness 2. Apnea 41  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 3. Absence of pulsation on the main vessels 4. Pupil dilation 5. All answers are correct 154. Recommended frequency of compressions during closed heart massage is: 1.120 2.75 3.80 4.100 5.60 155. Preferable way of adrenalin introducing for CPR: 1.intramuscular 2.subcutaneous 3.intravenous 4.rectal 5.inhalation (nebulizer therapy) 156. In the absence of effect, the duration of CPR is: 1.45 minutes 2.30 minutes 3.60 minutes 4.20 minutes 5.15 minutes 157. What testifies to the final diagnosis of cardiac arrest: 1. EEG 2. Lack of consciousness 3. Lack of breathing 4. ECG 5. Pupil dilation 158. How long is mechanical ventilation stopped, if necessary to carry out electric defibrillation: 1.15 s 2.5 s 3.20 s 4.40 s 5.30 s 159. What measures are performed in asystole: 1. Indirect heart massage 2. mechanical ventilation 3. Intravenous introducing adrenaline 4. Intravenous introducing atropine 5. All answers are correct 160. What measures are performed in ventricular fibrillation: 1. Taking blood pressure 2. Taking heart rate 3. Electric defibrillation 4. EEG 5. All answers are correct 42  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 1. How can we call opening of vein lumen for introducing a needle or a catheter? a) venopunctio; b) venosectio; c) intravenous injection; d) catheterization by Seldinger. 2. What of veins can be used for venosection? a) v. basilica; b) v. jugularisexterna; c) v. poplitea; d) v. axillaris. 3. What anesthesia is the most suitable for venocestion? a) local; b) intravenous narcosis; c) conduction; d) inhalation narcosis. 4. How many ligatures are required for venosection? a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4. 5. Call the complication of venesection: a) injury of fatty tissue; b) overheparinization; c) injury of muscular tissue; d) phlebitis. 20. What substance is used for filling i/v catheter to prevent blood clotting inside of it? a) aspizol; b) serotonin; c) histamine; d) heparin. 21. What substance isn’t introduced intravenously? a) solution of retinol; b) solution of vikasol; c) solution of sulfocamphocain; d) solution of strophanthin. 22. What drug is introduced intravenously only? a) 10% solution of calcium gluconate; b) 0,9% solution of sodium chloride; c) 10% solution of calcium chloride; d) zinc-insulin-suspension. 23. What will you do after getting blood under skin in i/v injection? a) suck blood with a special pump; b) apply a hot-water bottle or heat compress; c) perform an incision for removal of blood; d) apply a bandage with Wishnevsky’s ointment. 24. What will you do after subcutaneous getting isotonic solution of sodium chloride? a) nothing, it will be absorbed itself; b) apply a hot-water bottle; c) perform an incision for removal of solution; d) apply a bandage with Wishnevsky’s ointment. 25. What of veins can be used for venosection? a) v. basilica; b) v. jugularisexterna; c) v. poplitea; d) v. axillaris.# 31. What signs are included in “Hippocrates’ face”? a) red with cyanotic shade, sharply aggravated features, deeply sunk down suffering eyes, large drops of cold sweat on the forehead; b) pink with cyanotic shade, sharply aggravated features, protruded eyes, large drops of hot sweat on the forehead; c) pale with pink shade, protruded eyes, large drops of cold sweat on the nape; d) pale with cyanotic shade, sharply aggravated features, deeply sunk down suffering eyes, large drops of cold sweat on the forehead. 32. What disease is accompanied with hyperemia of eye-lids? a) Graves’ disease; b) Addison’s disease; c) Buerger’s disease; d) Vaquez’ disease. 33. What nerve is injured in falling of an eye-lid? a) trigeminal; b) facial; c) oculomotorius; d) abducens. 34. What state is accompanied with midriasis? a) poisoning with alcohol; b) poisoning with deadly night-shade; c) uremic coma; d) intracranial bleeding. 35. What state is accompanied with miosis? a) poisoning with alcohol; b) poisoning with deadly night-shade; c) poisoning with fly- agaric; d) gastric bleeding. 43  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 36. Protrusion of eyeballs is a symptom of: a) hypofunction of thyroid gland; b) hyperfunction of thyroid gland; c) hypofunction of suprarenal glands; d) hyperfunction of suprarenal glands. 37. What sign is positive in Graves disease? a) Wintrich’s; b) Argyll-Robertson; c) Abadie’s; d) Romberg’s; e) Kocher’s. 38. Smell odour form a nose is a sign of: a) purulent frontitis; b) ozena; c) putrefactive otitis; d) fracture of skull base. 39. Smell odour form a mouth is observed in: a) gangrene of vermiform process; b) diverticulum of esophagus; c) hyperglicemic coma; d) purulent bronchitis. 40. Disphonia is a feature of affection of: a) bronchi; b) trachea; c) larynx; d) pharynx. 41. How many degrees of thyroid gland enlargement according to a size do you know? a) 2; b) 3; c) 4; d) 6. 42. How many kinds of enlargement of thyroid gland according to the character do you know? a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4; e) 5. 43. How many quadrants are there in a breast? a) 2; b) 4; c) 6; d) 8. 44. Sign of citric peel is characteristic for: a) cancer of breast; b) mastitis; c) fibroadenoma; d) galactocele. 45. Where is Zorgius’s lymph node placed? a) on the III rib crossing m. pectoralis major; b) on the IV rib crossing m. latissimus dorsi; c) on the II rib crossing m. subclavius; d) on the V rib crossing m. pectoralis minor. 46. What type of epigastric angle is observed in male? a) sharp; b) obtuse; c) right. 47. When is a percussive line on the chest oblique? a) pneumothorax; b) hydropneumothorax; c) hydrothorax; d) rupture of lung. 48. How many areas do they distinguish on the ALAW? a) 3; b) 5; c) 7; d) 9. 49. Asymmetry of abdomen is visible in: a) ascitis; b) mechanical bowel obstruction; c) obesity; d) pregnancy. 50. In what disease can one see subcutaneous venous net on ALAW? a) hepatitis; b) gall-stone disease; c) cirrhosis of liver; c) acute panreatitis. 51. Where is greater gastric curvature located? a) in epigastric area; b) in umbilical area; c) in right lateral area; d) in left lateral area. 52. In what area is Chauffard’s zone located? a) right subcostal; b) left subcostal; c) epigastric; d) umbilical; e) right lateral; f) left lateral. 53. What’s projected on Chauffard’s zone? a) pyloric part of stomach; b) caput of pancreas; c) intraperitoneal part of duodenum; d) ligamentumsuspensoriumduodeni. 54. Is pancreas palpable in healthy persons? a) yes; b) no. 55. What’s Plesh’s positive sign? a) dilation of cervical veins in striking on right subcostal area in hepatomegalia; b) hyperemia of lids in thyrotoxicosis; c) appearance of pathologic occipital rigidity in 44  GeneralSurgeryDepartment meningitis; d) tenderness in right ilio-inguinal area in appendicitis. 56. Where is a point of projection of gall bladder on ALAW? a) Kerr’s point; b) Chauffard’s zone; c) Openkovsky’s point; d) McBurney point. 57. What is normal size of liver by Kurlov in adults? a) 10:9:8; b) 16:10:6; c) 14:9:4; d) 16:9:3. 58. What position is used for revealing ascitis? a) standing; b) lying; c) on the side; d) knee-elbow; e) all called. 59. Are kidneys palpable in healthy persons? a) yes; b) no. 60. What’s normal size of prostatic gland? a) 2x3; b) 4x6; c) 6x8; d) 8x4. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… …. 1.What is hematoma? *congestion of blood among tissues. 2.Is biological test carried out in blood transfusion in nacrosis? *No 3.Call correctors of clotting? *Plasma 4.Call substitutes of hemodynamic reaction: *Polyglucin , gelatinol 5.Panagglutination is observed in: *Sepsis 6.Call terms of validity of conserved blood: *21 days 7.How is biological test carried out before blood transfusion? *25ml 3 times in stream 8.What’s the danger in boils of upper lip? *Meningitis developing. 9.Can carbuncle be localized on sole or palm? *No 10.Phlegmom is acute diffuse inflammation of: *fatty tissue 11.Rose is caused by: *Streptococcus 12.What is measure can’t be carried out in serous phase of mastitis? *Massage of gland 13.Primary postponed suture is put on the wound: *Before appearance of granulations 14.Is immobilization necessary after setting lower jaw in its dislocation? *Yes 15.What are fresh dislocation? *Up to 3 days 16.Where is reposition of bony fragments is carried out in opened fracture? *In operative theatre 17.In nacardiosis of lung one observes? 45  GeneralSurgeryDepartment *Abscess 18.Intracutaneous test on heterologous protein is carried out before introducing: *Antitetanic serum 19.Call the indication for urgent prophylaxis of tetanus: *Delivery at home 20.Call local symptoms of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis: *Pain in extremity 21.Absence of hepatic dullness enables to suspect in patient with pains in abdomen: *Pneumoperitoneum 22.Methods of struggle against cancer cell after operation are called? *Disinfection 23.In ischuria after operation one can carry out everything except? *Introducing diuretics. 24.Blood is called “bombey blood “ if it: *Has active 0-agglutinin. 25.Using polyglucin is contraindicated in: *Continuing internal bleeding. 26.Treatment of post-transfusion shock includes: *Exchange transfusion of 1000-2000 group blood with fulfilling test on compatibility 27.If there is a cavity between walls of wound filled by granulations wound heals by: *Secondary intention 28.Call symptom of humerus dislocation: *Springy fixation of humerus 29.What isn’t carried out for prophylaxis of shock in fractures of long tubular bones in rendering first aid? *Reposition of bony fragments. 30.What department are patients with tetanus treated in? *Resuscitative 31.3When does early sepsis develop? *10-14 days 32.They use in filling trophic ulcer by granulations: *Gel of solcoseryl 33.Radical method of treatment of epithelized & lip-form intestinal fistulas is: *Dissection of fistula with suturing defect 34.What changes can be revealed in blood test in malignant tumors? *Increased ESR 35.Call normal rate of bilirubin in blood (by Yendrasic): *8.5-20.5 mkmol/l 36.Call normal rate of fibrinogen in blood(g/l): *2-4 37.Syndrome of homologous blood is caused by: *Tissue incompatibility 38.Black feces is a symptom of: *Gastric bleeding 39.What is an early symptom of hemotransfusion complication caused by transfusion of incompatible blood? *Fever, pains in chest, abdomen, lumbar region 40.Mechanism of substitutes with hemodynamic action: *Detaining fluid in vessels 41.Paronychia is an inflammation of: *Tissues near nail 42.What is primary surgical treatment of wound? *Dissection of wound borders 43.What bone are affected more often in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis? *Long tubular 44.Appearance of fluctuation in affected part of extremity shows at: *Bullous form 45.Constant symptom of sepsis is: *Fever 46.What is symptom of obliterating endarteritis? *Claudication intermittent 46  GeneralSurgeryDepartment 47.May a bed-sore of vascular wall be formed due to tampon or drainage? *Yes 48.Cancer of breast in post-climacteric period & cancer of prostatic gland are cured by: *Female hormones 49. Call normal rate of Hb in blood (g / l): b) 120-150 50. Call normal rate of urea in blood (mmol /l): a) 2.5-8.3 51. Main method of treatment of felon is: e) opening felon. 52. When do microbes start to reproduce after getting to the wound? b) in 6-8 hours 53. In the appearance of swelling & pains at the site of fracture after the application of plaster-of-Paris bandage it's necessary: с) to cut the bandage along its axis 54. Call the position for transporting a patient with the fracture of pelvis: e) "like а frog". 55. If blood got in puncture of pleural cavity isn't coagulated it points at: b) arrest of bleeding 56. Vomiting like "coffee dregs" is observed in: b) gastric bleeding 57. l/a blood transfusion is indicated in: с) terminal states 58. What tissues are mainly affected in посаrdiosis? c) lungs 59. Increase of venous pressure up to 200 mm w.c. is a symptom of: d) cardiac insufficiency 60. Call normal rate of leukосуtes in blood (х 10 9/l) с) 3.9-9.0 61. What's patient's position for X-ray examination in suspiciоn on pneumoperitoneum? b) standing or sitting 62. Treatment measures in increased emphysema of mediastinum: c) urgent operation 63. Intracranial hematoma is formed more often in bleeding from: d) а. Meningea media 64. What is sterilized in heat-air closets? d) surgical instruments 65. Is it possible to drain a wound by gauze with 10% sodium chloride solution during purulent-necrotic phase? a)yes 66. Call antiseptic from group of haloids: e) iodine tincture. 67. Is it correct to apply Desаult's bandage in fracture of a forearm? b) no. 68. Symptom of burn of II degree: d) blisters with limpid fluid on hyperemic skin 69. Area of head & neck skin according to "rule of ninе" is: b) 9% 70. When do X-гау symptoms of acute osteomyelitis appear? d) 12-15 day 71. Is bacteremia determined always in sepsis? b) no. 72