Lakshya NEET 2025 Short Practice Test 01 PDF

Lakshya NEET (2025) SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 DURATION:: 60 DURATION 90Minutes Minutes DATE: 21/04/2024 M. MARKS: 192...

Lakshya NEET (2025) SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 DURATION:: 60 DURATION 90Minutes Minutes DATE: 21/04/2024 M. MARKS: 192 Topics Covered Physics: Electric Charges and Fields: Introduction, Charge, Coulomb's Law Chemistry: Solution:, Binary Solution, Concentration Terms, Solubility, Vapour Pressure Botany: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plant:, Flower- A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms, Pre- Fertilization - Structures and Events, Pre-Fertilization - Structures and Events, Pollination Zoology: Male reproductive system upto seminiferous tubule General Instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet. 2. The test is of 60 minutes duration. 3. The test booklet consists of 48 questions. The maximum marks are 192. 4. All questions are compulsory. 5. There is only one correct response for each question. 6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response. 7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall. 8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR). OMR Instructions: 1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens. 2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software. 3. Never use pencils to mark your answers. 4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process. 5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may create problems during the evaluation. 6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses. 7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR). Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________ Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________ OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________ Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________  NEET SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 Lakshya NEET (2025) PHYSICS Q1 A comb rub through one's dry hair attracts small Q5 If a charge on the body is - 1 nC , then how bits of paper. This is due to many number of excess electrons are present (A) Comb is a good conductor on the body? (B) Paper is good conductor (A) 1. 6 × 1019 (C) The atoms in the paper get polorised by the (B) 6. 25 × 109 charged comb (C) 6. 25 × 1027 (D) The comb possesses magnetic properties (D) 6. 25 × 1028 Q2 Two charges are placed at a certain distance Q6 Charges on two spheres are +10μC and apart in vacuum. If a glass slab is placed −5μC respectively. They experience a force F. If between them, the force between them each of them is given an additional charge (A) will increase +2μC then new force between them keeping (B) will decrease the same distance is (C) will remain unchanged (A) 18F (B) F 25 (D) may increase or decrease depending on the (C) 18F (D) 25 F 25 18 material of the slab. Q7 A region surrounding a stationary electric Q3 An object has charge of 1C and gains dipole has 5.0 × 10 18 electrons. The net charge on the (A) Magnetic field only object becomes (B) Electric field only (A) –0.80C (B) +0.80C (C) Both electric and magnetic fields (C) +1.80C (D) +0.20C (D) No electric and magnetic fields Q4 A charge q is placed at the mid point of the line Q8 What is the value of minimum force acting joining two equal charges Q. The system of the between two charges placed at 1 m apart three charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal from each other to : (A) K e2 (A) − Q (B) Ke 2 (B) − Q (C) Ke 4 4 (D) 2 Ke (C) + Q 2 4 (D) + Q 2 Q9 Two point electric charges of values q and 2q are kept at a distance d apart from each other Android App | iOS App | PW Website 1/6  NEET in air, A third charge Q is to be kept along the same line in such a way that the net force acting on q and 2q is zero. Calculate the position of charge Q in terms of d. (A) d √2−1 (B) d √2+1 (C) d √3+1 (D) d √3−1 Q10 Three identical charges are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. If the force between any two charges is F, then the net force on any one charge will be – (A) √2 F (B) 2F – (C) √3 F (D) 3F Q11 Two spherical conductor B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion, between B and C is (A) F /4 (B) 3F /4 (C) F /8 (D) 3F /8 Q12 The branch of physics in which we study about the charge and its properties, when the charge is at rest is called (A) current electricity (B) electrostatics (C) dynamic electricity (D) kinematics. Android App | iOS App | PW Website 2/6  NEET SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 Lakshya NEET (2025) CHEMISTRY Q1 The normality of 0.3 M Al2(SO4)3 is : Q7 The vapour pressure of two pure liquids (A) and (A) 1.8 N (B) 0.3 N (B) are 100 and 80 torr respectively. The total (C) 0.81 N (D) 0.9 N pressure of solution obtained by mixing 2 mole of (A) and 3 mole of (B) would be ; Q2 An Aqueous solution of urea containing 18 g (A) 120 torr (B) 36 torr urea in 1500 cm3 of soluiton has a density of (C) 88 torr (D) 180 torr 1.052 g/cm3. If the molecular weight of urea is 60. Then molality of solution is ; Q8 As scuba divers come towards water surface (A) 0.2 (B) 0.192 from underwater, solubility of gases in their (C) 0.064 (D) 1.2 blood ; (A) Increases Q3 Mole fraction of glycerine (C3 H5 (OH)3 ) in a (B) Decreases solution of 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine (C) Firstly Increases then decrease is; (D) Firstly Decreases then Increase (A) 0.46 (B) 0.36 (C) 0.20 (D) 0.40 Q9 Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure (in torr) P = 254 - 119 XA Q4 If 18 g of glucose is present in 1000 g of solvent, where XA is mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence the solution is said to be : P ∘ and P ∘ are (in torr) :- (A) 1 molar (B) 0.1 molar A B (A) 254, 119 (B) 119, 254 (C) 0.5 molal (D) 0.1 molal (C) 135, 254 (D) 154, 119 Q5 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10 Q10 Statement I: Molarity of a solution in liquid state g of calcium carbonate concentration of the changes with temperature. solution is ; Statement II: The volume of a solution changes (A) 10 ppm (B) 100 ppm with change in temperature. (C) 1000 ppm (D) 10,000 ppm (A) Statement I and Statement II both are Q6 The vapour pressure of a given liquid will correct. decrease if :- (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (A) The volume of the vapour phase is increased incorrect. (B) The volume of liquid is decrease (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (C) Surface area of liquid is increased correct. (D) The temperature is decreased (D) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect. Android App | iOS App | PW Website 1/4  NEET Q11 Assertion (A): An ideal solution obeys Raoult's List-I List-II law. Solution of gas Reason (R): In an ideal solution, solute-solute as (A) Soda water (I) in solid well as solvent-solvent, interactions are similar Sugar Solution of gas to solute-solvent interactions. (B) (II) solution in gas (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true Solution of gas and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (C) Air (III) in liquid Assertion (A). Hydrogen (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true Solution of (D) gas in (IV) but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation solid in liquid palladium of Assertion (A). (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (C) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Q12 Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (D) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II option. Android App | iOS App | PW Website 2/4  NEET SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 Lakshya NEET (2025) BOTANY Q1 Exine is made up of; (C) 4 (D) 2 (A) cellulose only. Q5 Which of the following are the characteristic (B) both cellulose and pectin. features of flower pollinated by insect? (C) sporopollenin. (A) Absence of nectaries (D) pectin only. (B) Non sticky pollen grain Q2 Out of the given 4 whorls, which of the following (C) Non fragrant are fertile? (D) Sticky pollen grains a. Calyx b. Androecium Q6 Mark the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level. c. Sepal d. Corolla (A) Antipodal cell (A) a and b (B) b only (B) Synergid cell (C) Only c (D) c and d (C) Secondary nucleus Q3 Match the List-I with List-II to find out the (D) Egg cell correct option. Q7 Geitonogamy is functionally _________ & List-I List-II genetically _________. (A) Hilum (I) Base of the ovule (A) autogamy, allogamy Parenchymatons (B) allogamy, autogamy (B) Nucellus (II) mass of tissue (C) allogamy, xenogamy Is called female (D) autogamy, autogamy (C) Chalaza (III) gametophye Q8 The anther in most angiosperms is; Junction (A) bilobed and monosporangiate. (D) Embryo sac (IV) between ovule (B) tetragonal and dithecous. and funcile (C) bilobed and bisporangiate. (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (D) tetrasporangiate and without vasculature. (B) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III Q9 Pollen banks; (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (A) store pollen grain in liquid nitrogen. (B) store pollen of extinct plants only. Q4 In majority of angiosperms one of the (C) are source of pollen grains for various megaspores remains functional and remaining artificial plant breeding programmes. ________ degenerate. (D) Both (A) and (C) (A) 5 (B) 3 Android App | iOS App | PW Website 1/4  NEET Q10 Statement I: The proximal end of the filament is (A) water. attached to the thalamus or the petal of the (B) wind. flower. (C) insects. Statement II: The number and length of (D) Both (B) and (C) stamens are variable in flower of different Q12 Assertion (A): It has become a fashion in recent species. years to use pollen tablets as food (A) Statement I and Statement II both are supplements. correct. Reason (R): Pollen gains are rich in nutrients. (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true incorrect. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Assertion (A). correct. (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (D) Statement I and Statement II both are but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation incorrect. of Assertion (A). Q11 In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is (C) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. carried out by; (D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. Android App | iOS App | PW Website 2/4  NEET SHORT PRACTICE TEST - 01 Lakshya NEET (2025) ZOOLOGY Q1 Which of the following cells secrete testicular Q5 The attachment of blastocyst to the uterine hormones called androgens and form wall is; endocrine part of testis? (A) implantation. (B) gestation. (A) Leydig cells (C) parturition. (D) fertilisation. (B) Oogonial cells Q6 The male reproductive system includes; (C) Sertoli cells (A) a pair of testes (D) Both (A) and (C) (B) accessory ducts Q2 In humans, the testes are located in scrotum for; (C) glands and the external genitalia. (A) more space to visceral organs. (D) all of these (B) spermatogenesis. Q7 Match the List-I with List-II and choose the (C) sex differentiation. correct option. (D) independent functioning of kidney. List-I List-II Q3 Statement I: Sperm formation continues even in (A) Germ cells (I) Nursing cells old men. (B) Sertoli cells (II) Male gamete Statement II: Formation of ovum ceases in (C) Leydig cells (III) Spermatogonia women around the age of forty years. (D) Sperm (IV) Androgens (A) Statement I and Statement II both are (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - IV correct. (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) incorrect. (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) (C) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. Q8 The testis is covered by a dense covering. Each (D) Statement I and Statement II both are testis has about __________ compartments incorrect. called __________. Choose the option which fill the blanks Q4 The male reproductive system is located in the; correctly. (A) abdominal region. (A) 350, testicles compartments (B) pelvis region. (B) 150 ,testes compartments (C) thoracic region. (C) 320 , testicular compartments. (D) none of these (D) 250, testicular lobules. Android App | iOS App | PW Website 1/4  NEET Q9 How many seminiferous tubules are present in (B) Embryogenesis takes place in both male each lobules? and females body. (A) 2-3 (B) 5-6 (C) Insemination takes place in both male and (C) 1-3 (D) 10-12 female. (D) Oogenesis takes place in both male and Q10 Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by; female body. (A) spermatogonia. (B) sertoli cells. Q12 Gestation is; (C) oogonia. (A) transfer of sperms into the female genital (D) both (A) and (B) tract. (B) embryonic development. Q11 Select the correct statement. (C) delivery of the baby. (A) Gametogenesis takes place in both male (D) formation of zygote. and female body. Android App | iOS App | PW Website 2/4