Fundamentals of Management PDF Past Paper

Fundamentals of Management Sheet-2 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Who is a person who advanced early scientific management principles? (a)...

Fundamentals of Management Sheet-2 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Who is a person who advanced early scientific management principles? (a) Weber (b) Taylor (c) Vest (d) Fayol 2. A reporting relationship in which an employee receives orders from, and reports to, only one supervisor is known as: (a) Line of authority (b) Centralization. (c) Unity of direction. (d) Unity of command. 3. Which worked on administrative management theory: I. Fayol II. Parker III. Weber (a) I and III (b) II and III (c) none of these worked on administrative management theory (d) I, II, and III 4. is the study of how to create an organizational structure that leads to high efficiency and effectiveness. (a) Scientific management (b) Job specialization (c) Administrative management (d) Allocation management 5. is the singleness of purpose that makes possible the creation of one plan of action to guide managers in resource allocations. (a) Unity of direction (b) Unity of command (c) Unity of authority (d) Unity of resources 6. Which is an organizational - environmental theory? I. The open-systems view II. Contingency theory III. The Theory of Bureaucracy IV. Theory Z (a) I and II (b) I, III, and IV (c) II, III, and IV (d) I, II, and III 7. Theory is based on positive assumptions about workers. (a) Z (b) X (c) Y (d) C 8. The theory states a manager's choice of organizational structures and control systems depends on characteristics of the external environment. (a) Mechanistic (b) Management science (c) Organic (d) Contingency Page 107  Fundamentals of Management 9. Which is not one of Fayol's principles: (a) Authority and responsibility (b) Line of authority (c) Globalization (d) Unity of command 10. Which is not a management science theory: (a) Operations Management (b) TQM (c) MIS (d) None of these 11. Theory states that the average employee is lazy and will try to do as little as possible. (a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) None 12. In recent history, workers have felt that they should be empowered in the workplace. This is an example of (a) social influences (b) political influences (c) technological influences (d) global influences 13. Scientific management, administrative management, and bureaucratic management belong to the management viewpoint known as the (a) classical perspective (b) behavioral perspective (c) quantitative perspective (d) systems perspective 14. The theorist that advocated standard methodology for doing a task and suggested that workers were motivated by pay according to output (piecework) is (a) Elton Mayo (b) Max Weber (c) Frederick Taylor (d) Henri Fayol 15. As a Theory Y manager, you believe that your employees (a) dislike work and will avoid it if possible. (b) need a hierarchy of authority and lots of rules and regulations. (c) should be trained to standard methodology in all their tasks. (d) are self-motivated and self-directed toward achieving organizational goals. 16. What does the case, ‘Scientific management in action’ illustrate? (a) Scientific management theory is an outdated management theory. (b) Managers should apply classical management theory to their everyday work if they want to be more effective. (c) A traditional approach to management can be successfully applied to the problems of a modern organisation. (d) Quality usually suffers as productivity increases. 17. According to Frederick Taylor, who was to blame for the inefficiency in organisations? (a) The unions. (b) The managers. (c) The organisation as a whole. (d) The workers 18. Which of these was not an integral part of scientific management? (a) Differential pay rates. (b) Worker control of production. Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (c) Systematic selection of workers. (d) Work specialisation 19. Which of the following is not a valid criticism of scientific management theory? (a) Increases in pay for workers were not proportional to increases in productivity. (b) Worker discretion over the execution of the task was reduced. (c) Jobs became too complex for workers to handle. (d) Fear of redundancy was increased. 20. Which of the following is not a fundamental characteristics of Bureaucratic Management? (a) Specialisation of labour (b) Well defined hierarchy (c) Striving to be a ‘first-class worker’ (d) Formal rules and regulations. 21. Which of these statements concerning Weber’s concept of Bureaucracy is not correct? (a) It is based on rules and procedures rather than personal preference and judgement. (b) It is still a relevant concept in today’s organisation. (c) It has acquired a negative reputation for inefficiency and rigidity. (d) It rejects rational approaches to managing organizations 22. Which of the following was an early key management idea, pre-dating the work of Frederick Taylor and Max Weber? (a) Differential pay rates. (b) Rule-by-the-office. (c) Work specialisation. (d) Classical management theory. 23. Which of the following was the key aim of scientific management? (a) To increase worker control of production. (b) To increase productivity. (c) To decrease absenteeism. (d) To develop time-and-motion studies. 24. Which of the following is NOT a key concept associated with scientific management? (a) One best way. (b) Formalisation. (c) Time-and-motion studies. (d) Systematic selection. 25. Contingency theory suggests which of the following as a limitation of classical management theory? (a) Management approaches need to take into account the informal social life of workers at work. (b) Management approaches need to take into account complexity and instability in the environment. (c) Everything is contingent upon the workers in an organisation. (d) Management practices need to recognise stability in the environment. 26. Which of the following is NOT true of scientific management? (a) It gave rise to the modern operations research. (b) It raises questions as to how rewards from increased productivity should be distributed. (c) It is outdated as a theory as it cannot be applied to today’s modern organisations. (d) Managers are chosen for their intellectual ability and rationality. 27. Which of the following does NOT describe a problem with scientific management? (a) Productivity increases may not be reflected in workers’ pay. (b) It is better suited to complex jobs. (c) Improvement is not necessarily maintainable. (d) It is better suited to simple jobs. 28. Scientific management gave rise to which of the following modern disciplines? (a) Theory Y. (b) Behavioural science. (c) Socio-technical systems. Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (d) Operations research. 29. Which of the following men’s writings are associated with bureaucracy? (a) Max Weber. (b) Henri Fayol. (c) Frederick Taylor. (d) Douglas McGregor. 30. According to Fayol’s 14 principles of management, ‘esprit de corps’ refers to which of the following? (a) Being treated fairly and kindly. (b) Spirit of the corporation. (c) Team work and harmony. (d) Spirit of work. 31. Which of the following images best captures how classical management views the organisation? (a) As an organism. (b) As a human being. (c) As a machine. (d) As a wheel in an engine. 32. Which of the following is the ‘odd one out’? (a) Management science. (b) Management accounting. (c) Operations management. (d) Systems management. 33. In general, Theory Y and Theory X belong to which of the following perspectives? (a) Socio-political. (b) Bureaucratic. (c) Cultural. (d) None of these. 34. Which of the following is NOT part of the mix of behavioural sciences informing organisation behaviours? (a) Social psychology. (b) Organisational theory. (c) Systems theory. (d) Psychology. 35. The behavioural science approaches add which of the following emphases to management? (a) The study of people who satisfy social needs at work and how informal as well as formal organisation affects behaviour. (b) Management as a science and developing techniques to control behaviour. (c) The scientific study of human behaviour and developing behavioural techniques. (d) None of these. 36. ystems theory takes into account which of the following? (a) The whole system of anything. (b) Every system involving humans. (c) Socio-technical systems. (d) Open systems. 37. hich of the following phrases is closely connected to contingency theory? (a) No one best way. (b) Today’s ideas are tomorrow’s history. (c) One best way. (d) Universal ideas of good management. 38. Which of the following is not a way of overcoming resistance to change? (a) Incentives Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (b) Bullying and harassing people (c) Education and communication (d) Coercion 39. Which of the following is the reason for resistance to change? (a) Obsolecense of skills (b) Fear of economic loss (c) Fear of unknown (d) All of the above. 40. Changes which take place gradually without any resistance are (a) Evolutionary (b) Revolutionery (c) Planned (d) Unplanned. 41. Which of the following is true with people with a Type A personality? (a) They are generally content with their place in the world. (b) They generally fell little need to discuss their achievements (c) They are easy going and relaxed and that’s why take no tension of work. (d) They have an intense desire to achieve and are extremely competitive 42. The difference between a company’s mission statement and the concept of strategic vision is that (a) The mission statement lays out the desire to make a profit, whereas the strategic vision addresses what strategy the company will employ in trying to make a profit. (b) A mission statement deals with "where we are headed " whereas a strategic vision provides the critical answer to "how will we get there?" (c) A mission deals with what a company is trying to do and a vision concerns what a company ought to do. (d) A mission statement typically identifies what the company's products or services are (what we do) and the customers and markets it serves (why we are here), whereas the focus of a strategic vision is on "where we are going and why." 43. The management process functions consist of (a) Planning, organising, staffing and directing (b) Planning, organising, leading and directing (c) Planning, organising, leading and staffing (d) Planning, organizing, leading and controlling. 44. Which of the following is not Kurt Lewin’s famous 3 stage perspective model of change? (a) Unfreezing current attitudes (b) Refreezing attitudes at new level (c) Moving to a new level (d) Melting resistance. 45. Forcefield analysis suggests that before a manager embarks on a change strategy he should properly identify and evaluate and. (a) Positive forces, negative changes (b) Driving forces, restraining forces (c) External forces, internal forces (d) Strong forces, weak forces. 46. Which of the following is not an organ of company management? (a) Officer (b) Board of Directors (c) Managing Director (d) Secretary. Page 107  Fundamentals of Management 47. Disqualifications from becoming a Director of a company is (a) Insolvency (b) Fraudulent, declared by court (c) Unsound mind (d) All of the above. 48. The Central Government may appoint some directors for a period of in case of mismanagement of company affairs (a) 3 and half yrs (b) Not more than 3 yrs (c) 5 yrs (d) Not more than 2 yrs. 49. A director has to hold a minimum qualifying amount of shares of ` within months after his appointment as director. (a) 5000, 2 (b) 50,000, 2 (c) 5000, 5 (d) 5000, 3. 50. The maximum limit of holding Directorship in public companies is (a) 11 companies (b) 12 companies (c) 14 companies (d) 15 companies. 51. A person cannot be appointed as a Managing Director for more than at a time. (a) 5 yrs (b) 6 yrs (c) 7 yrs (d) 4 yrs 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Public sector organization? (a) Private ownership (b) Primary profit making motive (c) Strict financial control by Government (d) None of the above. 53. Which of the following industries does not come within the purview of 1991 Industrial Policy for reservation for public sector? (a) Handicrafts (b) Atomic energy (c) Arms Ammunitions (d) Coal and lignite. 54. Planning is based on: (a) decision-making, (b) forecasting, (c) staffing, (d) organising [Hint: Planning is setting objectives and deciding how to accomplish them.] 55. Planning do not consider: (a) choice, (b) communication, (c) machine, (d) coordination. 56. Strategic plans are: (a) single use plans, (b) long range plans, Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (c) for lower management levels. (d) standing plans 57. Short-term plans guides: (a) lower level management, (b) bridges gap between past and present (c) forecasting (d) environmental factors 58. Participating in the planning process makes: (a) effective planning, (b) cost reduction, (c) increase output. (d) perception of opportunities 59. Negative attitude and Commitment are not the basis for: (a) effective planning, (b) environment, (c) resistance. (d) technology 60. Planning is: (a) looking ahead, (b) guiding people, (c) delegation of authority, (d) fundamentals of staffing 61. Single use plans are: (a) applicable in non-recurring situation, (b) deals with recurring situations, (c) budgets, (d) strategic 62. Programs are a complex of: (a) budgets, (b) goals & policies, (c) rules, (d) None of the above. [Hint: Programs are complex of goals, policies, rules, procedures, tasks.] 63. The limitations of planning are: (a) proper environment, (b) planning premises, (c) wrong information, (d) feasibility. [Hint: Wrong information and time involved are the limitations of planning.] 64. What are the three levels of planning? (a) Operational, intermediate and strategic (b) Headquarters, divisional and local (c) Top, middle and bottom (d) None of the above 65. All of the following would be steps or concerns in the process of strategic planning except: (a) Designing a sound business portfolio. (b) Checking to see if an advertising spot had been run in its allotted time slot. (c) Setting supporting objectives. (d) Defining a clear company mission. 66. Identify the best definition of planning. (a) An integrated process in which plans are formulated, carried out and controlled. (b) The core activity of planners and planning departments. (c) Setting an organisation's objectives and the means of reaching them. Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (d) Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organisation. 67. Budget refers to (a) Planned target of performance (b) Steps of handling future activities (c) Systematic action and allocation of resources (d) Statement of expected results expressed in numerical terms 68. Which of the following indicates the importance of planning? (a) Makes way for orderly activities (b) Provides a basic for control in an organization (c) Reduces risk of uncertainty (d) All of the above. 69. Which of the following is not a technique of planning? (a) Budgeting (b) Balanced score card (c) PERT CPM (d) Management by Objectives. 70. plans have clearly defined objectives (a) Directional (b) Flexible (c) Specific (d) Standing. 71. Which one of the following does not fall under qualitative forecasting method? (a) Life cycle analogy (b) Moving average methods (c) Judgmental methods (d) Delphi method 72. For which of the following situation(s) is the market research method of forecasting suitable? (a) When a firm is planning moderate changes on product innovations (b) When a firm is market testing one of its new offerings (c) when a firm is working with stable technology, planning moderate changes on product innovations or market testing one of its new offerings. (d) when a firm is planning moderate changes on product innovations and market testing one of its new offerings. 73. Which of the following forecasting method is suitable for launching new products? (a) Moving average methods (b) Exponential smoothing (c) Causal models (d) Judgmental methods 74. Which of the following method(s) is(are) suitable for forecasting the demand of a product? (a) Delphi method (b) Market research (c) Delphi method and judgmental method (d) Market research and judgmental method 75. Qualitative forecasting methods include (a) delphi (b) Panel of experts (c) (a) and (c) (d) (a) and (b) 76. Forecasts (a) become more accurate with longer time horizons (b) are rarely perfect Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (c) are more accurate for individual items than for groups of items (d) all of the above 77. One purpose of short-range forecasts is to determine (a) production planning (b) inventory budgets (c) research and development plans (d) job assignments 78. Forecasts are usually classified by time horizon into three categories (a) short-range, medium-range, and long-range (b) finance/accounting, marketing, and operations (c) strategic, tactical, and operational (d) exponential smoothing, regression, and time series 79. A forecast with a time horizon of about 3 months to 3 years is typically called a (a) long-range forecast (b) medium-range forecast (c) short-range forecast (d) weather forecast 80. Organizing refers to: (a) planning, (b) delegation of authority, (c) training, (d) selection 81. Organizing aims to serve: (a) common purpose, (b) corruption, (c) authority structure, (d) All of the above. 82. Organizing destroys: (a) individual relationships, (b) plans, (c) simplicity in the organization, (d) environment. 83. The principle of objective states: (a) delegation of authority, (b) existence for a purpose, (c) formal organization, (d) none of the above. [Hint: An organization must exist for a purpose is the principle of objective.] 84. For effective organizing, an organization required: (a) principle of balance, (b) span of management, (c) organization process, (d) planning and forecasting. 85. The structure of organization includes: (a) identification and classification of required activities, (b) informal organization, (c) establishing enterprise objectives, (d) authority relationships. 86. The degree to which an organization relies on rules and procedures to direct the behaviour of employees is: (a) complexity, Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (b) formalization, (c) centralization, (d) motivation. 87. In a formal organization, “power” is associated with: (a) an individual, (b) position, (c) relationship, (d) control 88. Delegation is: (a) a continuous process, (b) unfolding talents, (c) granting the right to command. [Hint: Delegation is the act of granting of conferring something and the term authority means right to command.] 89. Unity of command means: (a) parity of authority and responsibility, (b) flow of command from subordinate to superior, (c) flow of command from superior to subordinate, (d) parity in controlling. 90. Defective delegation: (a) hampers coordination (b) size of the organization, (c) establish proper controls, (d) establish sources of powers. 91. Indicate which of the following is NOT among the six main types of organization structure– (a) Line organization (b) Functional structure (c) Committees (d) Department 92. Organisattion structure is primarily concerned with and of tasks and authority. (a) Allocation and Delegation (b) Allocation and apportionment (c) Reporting and delegating (d) Setting standards and delegation 93. Line organization is also known as organization. (a) Scalar (b) Chain (c) Matrix (d) Project 94. An advantage of the matrix structure is said to be – (a) Because product lines can be identified as cost centres,it facilitates financial control (b) Top management has more time to devote to long term strategic issues (c) It is easily understood by the people involved (d) Improved lateral communications. 95. Organizational structure is made up of key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements? (a) Centralisation (b) Coordination (c) Decentralisation (d) Span of control 96. The foundations of ‘behavioral theory of organization’ were laid down by conducted by (a) Structural experiments,Gullick Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (b) Bethlehem steel corporations, Mooney (c) Hawthrone experiments, Mayo (d) The longwell coal mining study,Weber 97. The systems approach ? (a) Emphasises the technical requirements of the organization and its needs (b) Emphasises the psychological and social aspects (c) Encourages the managers to view the organization both as a whole and as a part of larger environment (d) All of the above. 98. The Contingency theory focuses on (a) Situational variables (b) Interrelationships (c) Groups and human behavior (d) Economic needs of workers 99. is attributed with developing the scientific management perspective. (a) Elton Mayo (b) Robert Owens (c) Frank Gilbirth (d) Frederick Taylor 100. provides a focus and direction for formulating strategy to achieve organizational objectives. (a) Management by objectives (b) Strategy by objectives (c) Management by strategy (d) Strategic planning model. 101. refers to changes implemented by an organization due to pressure by external forces. (a) Unplanned change (b) Reactive change (c) Proactive change (d) Revolutionery change. 102. Selection devices must: (a) be explained, (b) match the job in question, (c) to be cost-effective (d) none of the above. 103. The popular on-the-job training methods include: (a) job rotation, (b) classroom lectures, (c) films. (d) description and displays [Hint: On-the-job training methods allow the workers to work in a realistic work environment and gather experiences.] 104. Need refers to: (a) control information and performance review, (b) key result areas and statement of objectives, (c) agree what you expect from me, (d) All of the above. [Hint: Need states agree what you refer from me and give me an opportunity to perform.] 105. Staffing refers to: (a) measuring performance, (b) managing the positions, (c) management in action, Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (d) making strategic plans. [Hint: Staffing refers to appointing the right person for the right job.] 106. Non-financial incentives have many things to do with: (a) Directing, (b) Motivation, (c) Planning, (d) organising. 107. Staffing needs: (a) man power planning, (b) authority, (c) communication, (d) coordination. [Hint: Staffing needs estimates of present and future needs of managerial man power and therefore it needs some pre-thinking.] 108. HRD refers to: (a) remuneration, (b) development, (c) controlling, (d) planning 109. Recruitment covers: (a) selection, (b) job analysis, (c) time, (d) none of the above. [Hint: Recruitment covers job analysis, job design and job descriptions.] 110. Training is the process of: (a) motivation (b) increasing knowledge and skill (c) testing. (d) employee recommendations. 111. Vestibule training provides the worker with: (a) on the job training, (b) off the job training, (c) real life presentations off the job (d) demonstration [Hint: The worker is provided with a real life presentation but not on the job directly.] 112. What is the meaning of the acronym HRM? (a) Humane Resource Management. (b) Humanistic Resource Management. (c) Human Resource Management. (d) Human Relations Management. 113. Which of the following is not a function normally performed by the HR department? (a) Recruitment and selection. (b) Accounting. (c) Training and development. (d) Pay and reward. 114. Recruitment and selection must be effective to ensure it: (a) Offsets high labour turnover (b) Delivers the highest calibre of individuals at optimum most (c) To have a surplus in case of sickness and absence (d) Encourages new blood into the organization. 115. Which of the following is not a selection technique? (a) Performance appraisal Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (b) Ability test (c) Psychometric testing (d) Interviews 116. The primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to (a) Meet the high labour turnover (b) Hire the best individuals at optimum cost (c) Ensure the availability of surplus in case of sickness and absence (d) None of the above. 117. Job evaluation is conducted to develop (a) Compensation package (b) Training modules (c) Organisational grapevine (d) Rules and policies. 118. Which of the following defines the process of recruitment? (a) Forecasting the demand of human resources (b) Forecasting the supply of human resources (c) Discovering potential job candidates for a particular position (d) Making a hire or no hire decision. 119. Which of the following is not a type of remuneration system under Time Rate System? (a) High wage plan (b) Measured day work (c) Taylor System (d) Differential time rate. 120. Which of the following functions or activities requires recruiting and placing qualified personnel needed for the organization so that it may achieve its objectives and goals? (a) Planning (b) Staffing (c) Organizing (d) Controlling. 121. Direction refers to: (a) planning, (b) organizing, (c) driving, (d) staffing 122. Marry Follett pointed that reform was possible provided the following consideration were taken into account: (a) building up new attitudes, (b) planning (c) negative attitudes, (d) None of the above. 123. The characteristics of direction include: (a) guiding, (b) motivating, (c) planning, (d) performance appraisal 124. Direction is a: (a) discrete process, (b) continuous process, (c) circular process, (d) supervisory process 125. The principles of direction do not include: (a) to have a thorough knowledge about the terms to bind the employees and the organization, Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (b) to remove the inefficient employees, (c) labour turnover, (d) to have an effective communication superior and his subordinates. 126. The techniques of direction excludes: (a) an alternative device of communication, (b) supervisory techniques, (c) coordination, (d) standard practices and procedures. Hint: Coordination refers to the link between the different functions of management. 127. Communication is a: (a) two-way process, (b) one-way process, (c) discrete process, (d) circular process [Hint: Communication is a transfer of information from one person to another and getting the feedback to check the efficiency of the message communicated.] 128. The sketch shows the process of communication from A to B. What labels apply to the arrows that cross in the centre? (a) Stimulus; response (b) Transmission; feedback (c) Feedforward; feedback (d) Encoding; decoding 129. What comprises the decoding stage of the communication model? (a) Perception; retention. (b) Attention; perception; retention (c) Receiving; processing and storing information (d) Short term memory; decoding; long term memory. 130. What is the first step to take during communications planning? (a) Decide on means of communication (b) Identify communication constraints (c) Conduct a stakeholder analysis (d) Develop a communications management plan 131. Feedback is a listener's (a) verbal critique of your message. (b) verbal or nonverbal responses to a message. (c) acceptance of a message. (d) aversion to a message. 132. To decode a message is to (a) translate ideas into code. (b) reject a message. (c) evaluate a message. (d) interpret a message. Page 107  Fundamentals of Management 133. In the communication process, to encode means to (a) translate ideas into a code. (b) block a pathway between the sender and receiver of a message. (c) speak to large groups of people. (d) interpret a code. 134. A message is a signal that serves as (a) noise reduction. (b) stimuli for a speaker. (c) stimuli for a mass audience. (d) stimuli for a receiver. 135. Feedback can come in the form of (a) nonverbal communication only. (b) verbal communication only. (c) environmental noise. (d) verbal and nonverbal listener responses. 136. In the communication process, a receiver is (a) message interference. (b) the person who decodes a message. (c) a message pathway. (d) the person who encodes an idea. 137. Noise does the following: (a) causes listeners to listen to messages more carefully. (b) focuses wandering thoughts. (c) distorts or interferes with a message. (d) enhances a message. 138. An example of a communication channel is (a) face-to-face conversation. (b) noise. (c) feedback. (d) context. 139. Which of the three components are part of the human communication process? (a) Message, noise, feedback (b) Feedback, message, critiquing (c) Noise, feedback, jargon (d) Message, recording, feedback 140. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message? (a) Eye contact (b) Yelling (c) Mumbling (d) Jargon 141. The ability to communicate effectively (a) depends on the education level of those around you. (b) can be learned. (c) is a natural talent that cannot be learned. (d) depends on not using technology to send messages. 142. A message can only be deemed effective when it is (a) communicated face-to-face. (b) understood by others and produces the intended results. (c) repeated back as proof of understanding. (d) delivered with confidence. 143. Learning to communicate with others is key to (a) establishing rewarding relationships. Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (b) never being misunderstood. (c) eliminating all of your listeners' physiological noise. (d) winning the approval of everyone around you. 144. Encoding is important because it (a) guarantees that one's message will be decoded. (b) encourages listener feedback. (c) eliminates noise. (d) Produces messages. 145. When a subordinate or a lower level manager passes information or offers suggestions to the higher level management, they are using which level of communication? (a) Upward communication (b) Downward communication (c) Lateral communication (d) Diagonal communication. 146. A high context culture is one where (a) much of the information is spoken. (b) much of the information is in the context or in the person. (c) most people use sign language. (d) much of the information is unspoken. 147. In which type of culture is competition encouraged? (a) Ethnocentric culture (b) Selfish culture (c) Individualist culture (d) Collectivist culture 148. When people who study communication focus their attention on spoken symbolic interaction, their primary interest is in which of the following? (a) The unspoken body language that people use (b) The way people use words to create common meaning (c) All of the ways organisms (including non-human organisms) create meaning (d) The unintentional behaviors that accompany speaking 149. The essential components of communication are (a) source, message, interference, channel, receiver, feedback, environment, and context. (b) symbols, understanding, communication, and communicant. (c) symbols, understanding, purpose, ideas, opinions, nonverbals, and reaction. (d) source, destination, interaction, and correlation. 150. The primary channels that individuals use to communicate with others are (a) television and radio. (b) voice mail, conventional mail, and e-mail. (c) sight and sound. (d) touch and tone of voice. Page 107  Fundamentals of Management (a) late-adult transition 151. In which of the following, does the productivity of some people increase further, while for s ome the productivity may remain stagnant? (a) Exploration (b) Maintenance (c) Decline (d) Existence 152. In which of the following, do attitudes provide a standard of reference which allows people to understand and explain their environment? (a) Adjustment-function (b) Ego-defensive function (c) Value-expression function (d) Knowledge-function 153. Which of the following motives is learned or acquired over a period of time such as power,achievement and affiliation? (a) Affection motive (b) Secondary motive (c) Primary motive (d) Stimulus motive 154. Which of the following theories does say that ‘motivation alone cannot ensure successfulperformance of a task, the employee should have a clear perception of his role and the r equired skills and abilities’? (a) Equity theory (b) The Porter-Lawler model (c) Attribution theory (d) The continuum model Page 107  Fundamentals of Management 155. Match the following approaches with the relevant components. 1. Classical approach a) Operations management 2. Behavioral approach b) Hawthorne studies 3. Quantitative approach c) Administrative management 4. Modern approach d) Quality management (a) 1-(c), 2- (d), 3-(b),4-(a) (b) 1-(c), 2- (a), 3-(b),4-(d) (c) 1-(c), 2- (b), 3-(a),4-(d) (d) 1-(c), 2- (d), 3-(a),4-(b) Page 107