Revision Questions PDF

Mid term questions 2. Which of the following statements describes the skin? A. Sweat glands secrete sebum that helps preserve flexibility of the hair. B. The direction of the rows of collagen in the dermis is known as the lines of cleavage. C. The reticular layer is responsible for the finger prints...

Mid term questions 2. Which of the following statements describes the skin? A. Sweat glands secrete sebum that helps preserve flexibility of the hair. B. The direction of the rows of collagen in the dermis is known as the lines of cleavage. C. The reticular layer is responsible for the finger prints. D. The epidermis contains many blood vessels and nerves. E. The erector pilli muscles are innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers. 3. Which of the following describes the superficial fascia? A. It contains superficial veins and cutancous nerves. B. It is formed of dense white fibrous tissue. C. It keeps contour of the body. D. It facilitates circulation by compressing veins. E. If gives muscular attachment. 4. Which of the following is a function of skin? A. Supports the body. B. Give muscle attachment C. Regulate body temperature D. Reservoir for calcium and phosphorus. E. Formation of blood 5. Which of the following is the type of bowe of the paramasal air sinuses? A. Pneumatic bones B. Sesamoid bones C. Short bones D. Flat bones E. Irregular bones 6.Which of the following vertebrae have cosfal facets? A. Lumbar vertebrae B. Coccygeal vertebrae C. Sacral vertebrae. D. Cervical vertebrae. E. Thoracic vertebrae. 7. Which of the following is a part of the appendicular skeleton? A. The skull. B. The hip. C. The sternum. D. The hyoid boue. E. The vertebra. 8. Which of the following is the type of joint between the tooth and its socket? A. Sutural joint. B. Ball and socket. C. Syndesmosis. D. Gomphosis. E Saddle. 9. Which of the following is the type of joint of the symphysis pubis? A Fibrous joint. B. Primary cartilaginous joint. C. Synovial pivot joint. D. Secondary cartilaginous joint. E. Synovial plane joint. 10. Which of the following can characterize skeletal muscle cells? A. Unstriated, involuntary, multinucleate. B. Unstriated. voluntary. multinucleate. C. Striated, voluntary, uninucleate. D. Striated, voluntary, multinucleate. E. Striated, involuntary, multinucleate. 11. Which of the following is an action of the smooth muscle? A. Prine mover. B. Synergistic. C.Peristalsis. D. Fixator. E. Antagonistic. 12. Which of the following describes the increase in angle between 2 bones? A Adduction. B. Abduction. C Flexion. D. Extension. E Rotation. 13. Which of the following statements describes the skin? A. The deep part of the skin is the hypodermis. B. The superficial part of the skin is the dennis. C. The dermis contains many blood vessels. lymphatics and nerves. D. The skin does not contain any glands. E. Carotene is responsible for the brown color of the skin. 14. Which of the following are the restraining bands of deep fascia that may form in the region of the joints called? A. Retinaculac. B. Synovial sheatlis. C. Aponcurosis. D. Ligaments. E. Bursae. 15. Which of the following is a function of bone? A. Protection against infections. B. Sensations of the body. C Regulates body temperature D. Activation of vitamin D. E. Formation of blood. 16. Which of the following describes the connective tissue? A. It may arise from any of the 3 layers of the cibryonic disc. B. It has a basement membrane. C. its cells are widely separated by large amount of matrix. D. It may form glands. E. It is avascular. 17. Which of the following statements describes the periosteum? A. It shares in the blood supply of bones. B. It is more active in old age. C. It consists of 3 layers. D. Its outer layer contains osteoblasts. E. It is responsible for the growth of bone in length. 18. Which of the following are the bones of the forearm? A. Tibia and fibula. B. Ulna and radius. C. Humerus and radius. D. Clavicle and scapula. E. Humerus and ulna. 19. Which of the following bones is a sesamoid bone? A. Patella. B. Maxilla. C Vertebra. D. Rib. E. Hip. 20. Which of the following muscles is attached to the coronoid process of the mandible? A. The masseter muscle. B. The medial pterygoid muscle. C.The temporalis muscle. D. The buccinator muscle E. The lateral pterygoid muscle. 21. Which of the following joints is most commonly dislocated? A. The hip joint. B. The shoulder joint. C. The intervertebral discs. D The wrist joint. E The ankle joint. 22. Which of the following is the type of joint of the ankle A. Synovial of Ellipsoid variety. B. Synovial of Condyloid variety. C. Synovial of Saddle variety. D. Synovial of Hinge variety E. Synovial of Pivot variety. 23. Which of the following terms describes a muscle that opposes or reverses a particular movement? A. Agonist. B. Synergist. C. Antagonist. D. Fixator. E. Peristalsis 24. Which of the following planes divides the body into anterior and posterior parts? A. Medial plane. B. Coronal plane. C. Sagittal plane. D. Transverse plane. E. Horizontal plane. 25. Which of the following glands is closely related to the hair follicle? A. The sweat gland. B. The mammary gland. C. The sebaceous gland. D. The wax gland. E. The parotid gland. 26. Which of the following is the medial bone of the leg? A. Tibia. B. Femur C. Fibula. D. Ulna. E. Radius 28. Which of the following are false ribs? A. Upper 7 ribs B. 5, 6,7 ribs C. Lower 5 ribs D. 8,9 and 10 ribs E. 11 and 12 ribs 29. Which of the following arteries supplies the bone marrow? A. Periosteal artery. B. Epiphyscal artery. C. Hiac artery. D. Metaphyseal artery. E. Nutrient artery. 30. Pronation and supination of the forearm occurs at which of the following joints? A. Elbow joint. B. Superior and inferior radio-ulnar joints. C. Shoulder joint. D. Radio-carpal joint. E. Carponetacarpal joints. 31. Which of the following nerves pass through the mandibular foramen? A. The mandibular nerve. B. The inferior alveolar nerve. C. The buccal neive D. The lingual nerve. E. The mylohyoid nerve 32. The xiphoid process is a part of which of the following bones? A. The sternum B. The humerus C. The temporal bone. D. The tibia. E. The vertebra. 33. Which of the following joints is a synovial uniaxial? A. Ankle joint B. Temporomandibular joint C. Wrist joint. D. Shoulder joint E. First carpometacarple 34. Which of the following statements describes the different types of joints? A. The sutures beiween bones of the skull for primary cartilaginous joints. B. The joints between vertebral bodies are of synovial type. C. In the synovial joints. the articular surfaces are covered with hyaline cartilage. D. Cartilaginous joints permit a great degree of freedom of movement. E. Secondary cartilaginous joints have fibrous capsule. 35. Which of the following describes the epithelium? A. It supports the organs and binds them together B. It arises from the 3 layers of the embryonic disc C. It has no basement membrane D. Its matrix may be fluid, semifluid or hard E. It is highly vascular. 36. Which of the following is a function of deep fascia? A. It acts as a heat insulator. B. It acts as a reservoir of fat. C. It is a medium for vessels and nerves. D. It gives soft pads to different pats of the body. E. It gives sheathes around muscles. 37. Which of the following is the type of bone of the vertebra? A. Long bones. B. Flat bones. C. Sesamoid bones. D. Short bones. E. Irregular bones. 38. Which of the following statements describes the long bones? They have long tubular shafts. B. The epiphysis contains a central medullary cavity. C. The articular surfaces are covered by synovial membrane. D. The shafts contain red bone marrow at puberty. E. They have two ends called metaphysis. 39. Which of the following bones Is a part of the axial skeleton? A. The pectornl girdle. B. The sternum. C. The phalanges. D. The metacarpals. E. The tarsal bones. 40. Which of the following can characterize smooth muscle cells? A. Sinated, voluntary, multinucleate. B. Not striated. voluntary, multimucIcate. C. Striated, involuntary, uninucleate. D. Not striated, involuntary, uninucleate. E. Striated. involuntary. multinucleate. 41. Which of the following describes the sensation of a muscle? A. Touch B. Proprioception C. Temperature D. Pressure E. Pain 42. When does the secondary center of ossification appear? A. Before birth. B. In old age. C. After birth. D. After puberty, E. In childhood. 43. Which of the following is responsible for the growth of bone in length? A. The diaphysis ossification centers. B. The epiphyseal plate of cartilage. C. The periosteum. D. The medullary canal. E. The epiphysis ossification centers. 45. Which of the following is the type of joint between the manubrium and the body of the sternum? A. Synovial plane joint. B. Fibrous joint. C. Primary cartilaginous joint. D. Secondary cartilaginous joint. E. Synovial saddle joint. 46. Which of the following is a type of fibrous joints? A. The hinge joints. B. The ellipsoid joints. C. The sutural joints. D. The ball and sockel joints. E. The condyloid joints. 47. Which of the following movements is allowed by the radioulnar joints? A. Abduction and adduction B. Pronation and supination C. Medial rotation and lateral rotation. D. Flexion and exteusion. E. Circumduction 48. Which of the following is a character of synovial joints? A. They have limited degree of movement. B. They have synovial fluid filling the space between aticulating bones. C. They have synovial membrane covering the articulating bone surfaces. D. All joints contain intra-articular ligaments. E. All joints contain an intra-articular disc. 49. Which of the following statements describes the skeletal muscle? A. They are involuntary muscles. B. They have two or more attainments. C. They are supplied by autonomic nerves. D. Agonist is the muscle that opposes the action of a flexor muscle. E. A fixator is the muscle responsible for a particular movement. 50. Which of the following is a character of the cardiac muscle? A. It is voluntary. B. Its nuclei are peripherally located. C. Its fibers are spiral in shape. D. It is branched. E. It is multinucleated Circulatory system 1. Regarding the heart, the following statements are correct EXCEPT: A. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body. B. The right atrium is separated from the right ventricle by tricuspid valve. C. The base of the heart is formed mainly by the right atrium. D. The apex of the heart is directed downwards, forwards and to the left. 2. Regarding the right ventricle, the following statements are correct EXCEPT: A. It pumps deoxygenated to the lungs. B. It is separated from the right atrium by the mitral valve. C. Its wall is thinner than that of the left ventricle. D. It contains 3 papillary muscles. 3. The cardiac chamber which leading to the aorta is: A. The right atrium. B. The right ventricle. C. The left atrium. D. The left ventricle. 4.Regarding the coronary arteries, the following statements are correct EXCEPT: A. They are the first branches of aorta. B. Right coronary artery supplies posterior 1/3 of the interventricular septum. C. Partial obstruction of these arteries causes angina pectors. D. The 2 arteries are freely anastomosing. 5. Regarding the conducting system of the heart, ONE statement is CORRECT A. A-V node is the pace-maker of the heart. B. The system allows contraction of atria and ventricles at same time. C. The fibers that penetrate the cardiac muscle are Purkinje fibers. D. Sympathetic supply decreases heart rate and force of contraction. 6. The circulation that carries digested food to the liver is called: A. Systemic circulation B. Portal circulation. C. Pulmonary circulation. D. Collateral circulation. 7. The circulation that carries blood from the left ventricle to the whole body is called: A. Systemic circulation oxygenated B. Portal circulation. C. Pulmonary circulation. D. Collateral circulation. 8.The lymph nodes that drain the upper limb and breast are called: A. Inguinal lymph nodes. B. Cervical lymph nodes. C. Axillary lymph nodes. D. Aortic lymph nodes. 9. The lymph nodes that drain the abdomen are called: A. Inguinal lymph nodes. B. Cervical lymph nodes. C. Axillary lymph nodes. D. Aortic lymph nodes. Respiratory system 10. Regarding the right lung the following statements are correct, EXCEPT: A. It consists of 3 lobes. B. It is shorter and heavier than the left lung. C. It has 10 broncho pulmonary segments. D. Its anterior border has a cardiac notch and a lingual 11. Regarding the left lung, ONE of the following statements is CORRECT: A. It is shorter and heavier than the right lung. B. It has 10 broncho pulmonary segments. C. It consists of 3 lobes. D. Its anterior border has a cardiac notch. 12. Regarding the right bronchus the following statements are correct, EXCEPT: A. It is shorter than the left bronchus. B. It is wider than the left bronchus. C. It is more in line with the trachea. D. It divides after entering the lung. 13. The largest paranasal air sinus is: A. The frontal air sinus. B. The sphenoidal air sinus. C. The maxillary air sinus. D. The anterior ethmoidal air sinus. Digestive system 14. The most dilatable part of the Gastro-Intestinal Tract (GIT) is: A. The esophagus. B. The stomach. C. The duodenum. D. The sigmoid colon. 15. The first part of the small intestine is: A. The cascum B. The duodenum. C. The ileum. D. The jejunum 16. The digestive glands include all the following EXCEPT: A. The pancreas. B. The liver. C. The parotid gland. D. The suprarenal gland 17. Taeniae coli is a characteristic of: A. The esophagus. B. The stomach. C. The large intestine. D. The small intestine. 18. Which ONE of the following parts of the large intestine is mobile? A. The ascending colon. B. The descending colon. C. The rectum. D. The sigmoid colon. 19. All the following are parts of the small intestine EXCEPT: A. The duodenum. B. The caecun. C. The jejunum. D. The lleum. 20. All the following are parts of the large intestine EXCEPT A. The vermiform appendix. B. The caecum. C The sigmoid colon. D. The jejunum. 21. The largest organ in the abdomen is: A. The spleen. B. The kidney. C. The liver. D. The pancreas. 22. The salivary glands include the following, EXCEPT: A. The parotid gland. B. The submandibular gland. C. The pancreas. D. The sublingual gland 23. The ducts of the billary system include the following, EXCEPT: A. The common hepatic duct. B.. The common bile duct. C. The cystic duct. D. The main pancreatic duct 24. The bile secreted by the liver is stored in: A. The jejumim B.The ilium. C. The duodenum. D. The gall bladder. 25. The common bile duct is formed by the union of: A. The right and left hepatic ducts. B. The common hepatic duct and cystic duct. C The common hepatic duct and main pancreatic duct. D. The common hepatic duct and accessory pancreatic duct. 26. Regarding the pancreas the following statements are correct, EXCEPT: A. It is a mixed endocrine and exocrine gland. B. It consists of head, neck, body and tail. C. It lies on the anterior abdominal wall. D. Its exocrine part secretes digestive enzymes. Glandular system 27. The exocrine glands include all the following, EXCEPT: A. Parotid gland. B. Sweat glands. C. Pituitary gland. D. Sebaceous glands. 28. Exocrine male genital glands include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Prostatic glands. B. Cowper's glands. C. Semmal vesicles. D. Wax glands. 29. All the following are mixed (endocrine and exocrine) glands, EXCEPT: A. Pancreas. B. Testis. C. Ovary. D. Thyroid gland 30. All the following are endocrine glands, EXCEPT: A. Thyroid gland. B. Pituitary gland. C. Sweat glands. D. Suprarenal gland 31.The endocrine gland that controls secretions of the other endocrine glands is: A. Thyroid gland. B. Suprarenal gland. C. Pituitary gland. D. Pancreas. Urogenital system 32. The male external genital organs include all the following, EXCEPT: A. The scrotum. B. The penis. C. The testis. D. The prostate. 33. The male internal genital organs include all the following, EXCEPT: A. The prostate. B. The seminal vesicles. C. The epididymis. D. The Cowper's glands. 34. The duct that transmits spermatozoa from the epididymis is called: A. The ejaculatory duct. B. The main paucreatic duct C. The connon bile duct. D. The vas defereus. 35. The duct that transmits ova from the ovary to the uterus is called: A. The ejaculatory duct. B. The cervical canal. C. The fallopian tube. D. The vas deferens. 36. The female external genital organs include all the following, EXCEPT: A. The labia majora. B. The labia minora. C. The clitoris. D. The vagina. 37. The female internal genital organs include all the following, EXCEPT: A. The ovaries. B. The fallopian tubes. C. The uterus. D. The clitoris. 38. All are true about the male urethra, EXCEPT: A. It is about 20 cm long, B. It allows passage of urine and semen to outside. C. It consists of 3 parts. D. Membranous part is the longest part. 39. All are true about the urethra, EXCEPT: A. Internal urethral sphincter is involuntary. B. Female urethra is about 4 cm long. C. Penile urethra is the longest part of the male urethra. D. Female urethra consists of 3 parts. Nervous system 40. The central nervous system include all the following parts, EXCEPT: A. The cerebellum. B. The medulla oblongata. C. The spinal cord. D. The cranial nerves. 41. The part of the brain that controls the motor activity is: A. The temporal lobe. B. The frontal lobe. C. The parietal lobe. D. The occipital lobe. 42. The center of vision lies in which ONE of the following lobes? A. The temporal lobe B.The frontal lobe. C. The parietal lobe. D. The occipital lobe. 43. The center of hearing lies in which ONE of the following lobes? A. The temporal lobe. B. The frontal lobe. C. The parietal lobe. D. The occipital lobe. 44. The brainstem include the following parts, EXCEPT: A. The midbrain B.The pons. C. The cerebellum D. The medulla oblongata. 45. The part of the brainstem that contains the vital centers for respiration and circulation is: A.The midbrain B. The pons. C. The cerebellum D. The medulla oblongata. 46. Regarding the spinal cord the following statements are correct, EXCEPT: A. It is the part of the central nervous system that lies within the vertebral canal, B. Its sides receive attachment of 31 pairs of spinal nerves. C. Each spinal nerve is attached to the spinal cord by 2 roots. D.The ventral root of the spinal nerve is sensory in function 47. Regarding the spinal cord the following statements are correct, EXCEPT: A. Ventral rami of the spinal nerve form nerve plexuses. B. The ventral roots of the spinal nerves are motor in function. C. Thoracic region of the cord has 12 pairs of spinal nerves. D. Dorsal rami of the spinal nerve form nerve plexuses. 48. Regarding the spinal cord the following statements are correct, EXCEPT: A. The dorsal roots of the spinal nerves are motor in function. B. Cervical region of the cord has 8 pairs of spinal nerves. C. Ventral rami of the spinal nerve form nerve plexuses. D. All spinal nerves are mixed sensorimotor. 49. All the following are characteristics of the nervous synapse, EXCEPT: A. The nerve impulse travels in one direction only. B. No protoplasmic continuity. C. There is some delay in nervous transmission. D. Transmission occurs by direct physical contact. 50. Which ONE of the following cranial nerves concerned with smell? A.The optic nerve. B. The vagus nerve. C. The olfactory nerve. D. The hypoglossal nerve. 51. Which ONE of the following cranial nerves concerned with vision? A. The optic nerve. B. The vagus nerve. C. The olfactory nerve. D. The hypoglossal nerve. 52. Which ONE of the following cranial nerves concerned with hearing? A. The oculomotor nerve. B. The vestibulocochlear nerve. C. The olfactory nerve. D. The glossopharyngeal nerve. Case studies questions 1.A 30-year-old woman develops a fever. She is irritable and not feeding. As part of the workup for fever of unknown origin, a lumbar puncture is performed. This puncture must be done below the spinal cord which usually ends at which vertebral level in a patient of this age? A.L1 B.S1 C.L3 D.S3 F.L5 2. A 26-year-old man painting his house slipped and fell fro the ladder, landing on the pavement below. After in examination in the emergency department, the patient is sent the radiology department. Radiographs reveal that the portion of his left scapula that forms the tip, or point, of the shoulder has been fractured. Which part of the bone was fractured? A. Coracoid process B. Superior angle of the scapula C.Glenoid D.Spine of the scapula E. Acromion 3. A 55-year-old patient is to undergo a coronary bypass operation. The artery of primary concern is the vessel that supplies much of the interventricular septum. Which artery is the surgeon most concerned with? A.Right marginal B. Anterior interventricular C.Circumflex D. Artery to the sinu-atrial (SA) node E. Posterior interventricular 4. A 48-year-old man is admitted to the emergency departme with chronic angina. Coronary angiography reveals near total blockage of the anterior interventricular artery just aft it arises from the left coronary. In exposing this artery for bypass procedure, which accompanying vein must be protecter from injury? A.Middle cardiac B. Great cardiac C Small cardiac D. Anterior cardiac E.Posterior cardiac 5. A 21-year-old male football player is admitted to the emergency department with intense back pain. Physic examination shows that his left lower back is bruised and swollen. He complains of sharp pain during respiration. radiograph reveals a fracture of the eleventh rib on the left side. Which of the following organs would be the most likely to sustain injury at this site? A.Spleen B.Lung C.Kidney D.Liver E.Pancreas 6. A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department with markedly elevated temperature and abdominal pain. Physical examination initially indicate paraumbilical pain, but the site of origin of pain soon shifts to the right lower quadrant. Which of the following structures affected? A.Right ovary B. Appendix C.Ileocecal junction D.Ascending colon E. Ileum 7. A 47-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital wit jaundice and epigastric pain that migrates toward the patient's right side and posteriorly toward the scapula Radiographic examination reveals cholecystitis with a large gallstone. Which of the following is the most likely site for gallstone to lodge? A. Common bile duct B. Hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater) C.Left hepatic duct D. Pancreatic duct E.Right hepatic duct 8. On digital examination of the vagina, the portion of the uterus that one anticipates palpating with the examining finder is the cervix and its external -os. Which of the following is the most common position of the uterus? A Anteflexed and retroverted B.Retroflexed and anteverted C.Anteflexed and anteverted D. Retroflexed and retroverted E.Anteflexed and anteverted 9. A 42-year-old woman visits the outpatient clinic due to painful urination. A dipstick test reveals leukocytosis, which confirms the diagnosis of urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the best anatomic explanation for the fact that women are more susceptible to urinary tract infections than men? A. The vagina contains less bacterial flora than the penis B. The prostate gland produces antibacterial prostatic fluids C. The urethra is much shorter in women D. The urethra is located within the vagina E.The seminal vesicles produce fluids resistant to bacteria