Radiology Tests in English (Final) PDF

1. Osteoma most often found in: A. Long bones B. Vertebrae C. Small tubular bones D.Paranasal sinuses* 2. Ewing's sarcoma is more common in the age: A. 15-20 years B. 30-40 years C. 5-10 years* D. 10-15 years 3. A method of ultrasound can be used to: A. Measurement of tissue density B. Determining t...

1. Osteoma most often found in: A. Long bones B. Vertebrae C. Small tubular bones D.Paranasal sinuses* 2. Ewing's sarcoma is more common in the age: A. 15-20 years B. 30-40 years C. 5-10 years* D. 10-15 years 3. A method of ultrasound can be used to: A. Measurement of tissue density B. Determining the displacement of median structures of the brain* C. Detection of gallstones D. Measurement of blood flow velocity in large arteries 4. Which of the symptom is typical to tuberculoma: A. Localization in the lower parts of the lung B. Mediastinal shift C. Consolidation of the lungs D. Non homogenous shade* 5. Which type of fracture characteristic to childhood: A. Epiphysiolysis* B. Pathological fracture C. Going down with a fractured bone fragments D. Fracture with angular deformity 6. Does not apply to symptoms of bone disease: A. Osteonecrosis B. sequestration C.Total opacification* D. Osteolysis 7. The trapezoid configuration of the heart on chest radiography is found in these condition: A. Congenital acyanotic malformations B. Mitrale stenosis C. Myocarditis and pericarditis* D. Left ventricular aneurysm 8. Мiliary foci in the lungs include opacification A. 4-5 mm B. 1-2 mm* C. 8-10 mm D. 3-4 mm 9. What disease can lead to the syndrome of total and subtotal shading: A. Tuberculoma B. Cancer C. Metastases D. Pleural effusion* 10.For pulsion diverticulum is not typical: A. The presence of cervix B. Horizontal level of liquid / barium C. Triangular shape* D. Round shape 11. What is true for the conventional tomography: A. Three dimensional image B. Rapid method C. Looks dark shadow D. Negative image* 12. Sonography is impossible to evaluate: A. Kidney function* B. Perirenal fat C. The state of the renal artery D. The state of the pelvis 13. Symptom index finger is typical for: A.Gastric ulcer* B. Polyp 12 duodenal ulcer C. All the answers are correct D. Diverticulum 12 duodenal ulcer 14. Types of intestinal obstruction due to origin: A. Strangulation B. Mechanical and dynamical C. Paralytic and mechanical D. Congenital and acquired* 15 Tubercular process often is observing in: A. Basal area B. Anywhere C. Apex* D. Lower lobe 16. Intrahepatic bile duct include: A. lobar , segmental, subsegmental ducts* B. The common bile duct C. Common hepatic duct D. The common bile duct, the gallbladder duct. 17. Symptoms of TB of the joints:: A. Osteophytes B. The preservation of the congruence of the articular surfaces C. local of destruction in the epiphysis* D. Bone atrophy 18. Expansion of the lung hilar occur when: A. Diaphragmatic hernia B. Atelectasis C. Silicosis* D. Polycystic 19. The rounded edges of the liver in chronic hepatitis is associated with: A. Stagnation of bile B. Increase the volume of the liver* C. A decrease in hepatic function D. Increased echogenicity 20. Aortic arch and the clavicle normally located: A. Lateral edge of the clavicle at 1 cm below B. The aorta 4 cm below C. on the same level D. Aorta is 2 cm below* 21. What is true for the aortic stenosis: A. Dilatation of the right ventricle B. Dancing heart C. Hypoplastic aorta D. Expanding the ascending aorta* 22. Leads to a total opacification syndrome: A. Miliary tuberculosis B. Pneumoconiosis C. echinococcus D. Atelectasis* 23. Which tissue is the most sensitive to ionizing radiation: A. Nervous B. The myocardium C. Hematopoietic* D. Muscle 24. Hemangiomas bones most often found in: A. Small tubular bones B. Paranasal sinuses C. Pelvis D. Vertebrae* 25. Leads to a total opacification syndrome: A. Peripheral cancer B. Pleural effusion* C. Bronchogenic cyst D. Polycystic 26. What is the characteristic of subluxation: A. Deformation of the articular ends B. Violation of the relevant joint ends C. Partial compliance with articular ends* D. X ray is not defined 27. What is not typical for tetralogy of Fallot: A. Ventricular septal defect B. Pulmonary hypertension* C. Dextraposition of aorta D. Hypovolemia vessels of the pulmonary circulation 28. On the plain film of the abdomen is not visible: A. Abscess with fluid level B. Bowl of Kloybers C. Free gas below the diaphragm D. Symptom of a niche* 29. Atelectasis lung is characterized by: A. Displacement of the diaphragm down B. Ring shaped shadow C. Shift of the mediastinum to the healthy side D. Can be a complication of central cancer* 30. In rheumatoid arthritis often affects: A. Joints of the hand* B. Hip C. The knee joint D. Joints of the foot 31.calcification of pleura occurs: A. Mesothelioma B.TB* C. Sarcoidosis D. All the answers are correct 32. Normally, the angle of bifurcation of the trachea is: A. 90 degrees B. 60 degrees* C. 40 degrees D. 70 degrees 33. The high standing of the left dome of the diaphragm can occur when: A. Esophageal achalasia B. Cardioesofageal cancer C. Flatulence* D. Esophagitis 34. What kind of radiation is a stream of helium atoms: A. Alpha* B. gamma C. Xrays D. beta 35. heart on the chest radiography sharply increased in both directions. What disease is characterized by: A. Pericardial effusion* B. Tetralogy of Fallot C. Mitral insufficiency D. Left ventricular aneurysm 36. Horizontal liquid level is most characteristic: A. cavitalform of lung cancer B. Bronchiectasis C. Caverns D. Abscess* 37. The boundary of the right contour of the heart in direct projection to normal: A. 4 cm to the chest wall B. 5 cm from the edge of the right vertebral C. To the midclavicular line D. 2 cm from the right edge of the vertebra* 38. The characteristic findings of not changed walls of gallbladder: A. Linear hyperechoic structure* B. mix echogenicity C. Not regular thickeness of walls on view brush D. fivelayers with mix echogenicity 39. Excretory urography does not allow to evaluate: A. The state of the urinary tract B. Kidney function C. State of the renal artery* D. The position of the kidneys 40. The most typical complication of central lung cancer: A. Focal dissemination B. metastasis C. Atelectasis* D. pleurisy 41. In determining the pressure in the cavities of the heart and great vessels, systolic pulmonary artery pressure of 30 mm Hg and systolic pressure A.in the right ventricle was 85 mm Hg For which disease characterized by the appearance of a pressure gradient: B. Aortic valve C. Mitral valve stenosis D. Aortic valve stenosis E. Valve stenosis of the pulmonary artery* 42. What is true for chondroma: A. Compact and spongy types B. calcifications in the structure* C. More of the paranasal sinuses D. Irregular shape 43. Intestinal obstruction is not typical: A. A relatively large diameter B. Normal picture at the barium enema* C. Cloyber bowls are arranged around the periphery of the abdomen D. Can be mechanical and dynamic 44. It is more common among bone tumors: A. Ewing's sarcoma B. Chondrosarcoma C. Myeloma D. Metastasis* 45. Gisterosalpinografy is the method of: A. Ionizing B. Radionuclide C. Ultrasound D. Xray * 46. In the conventional tomography image is obtained on: A. Paper B. X ray C. On film* D. On a computer screen 47. That does not give the artifacts on MRI: A. fat B. Bone* C. The movement of blood D. metal 48. Do not characteristic of lung tuberculoma: A. Often located in segments 2.6 B. Changes in the surrounding lung tissue C. nonhomogeneous D. At the bottom, basal* 49. Myeloma must be distinguished from: A. Osteochondroma B. Osteosarcoma C. Metastases* D. Exostoses 50. A high signal on T1 and T2 images on MRI provides: A. Synovium B. The articular cartilage C. Fat* D. Driving blood 51. The advantage of MRI to CT: A. Obtaining the cross sectional B. Measurement of tissue density C. Synchronization with breathing D. High tissue contrast * 52. The discovery of X rays year: A. 1895* B. 1890 C. 1900 D. 1905 E. 1885 53. Whicht radiological syndrome is not typical for a intestinal diseases: A. Syndrome pathological mucosal folds B. Narrowing of the digestive tract syndrome C. A syndrome with the presence of uneven contour projection or a defect on the contour D. Total shading syndrome* 54. CT picture of cysts of the liver: A. Nonuniform mass B. Hypodenseve cavity* C. Hyperdensive cavity D. Izodensive cavity 55. What is true for liver abscess: A. Density 20 -30 H* B. The effect of the gain of the distal ultrasound C. When hepatobiliscintigraphy cold hearth D. Density up to 20H* 56. That does not typical to ulcerative colitis: A. Continuous intestinal damage B. assymetrical intestinal damage* C. Diarrhea D. The defeat of the intestine symmetrical 57. In stenosis of the stomach is most informative: A. Plain radiography B. CT C. X ray with barium* D. Intragastral ultrasonography 58. At what study uses the Doppler effect: A. Ultrasonic* B. Angiographic C. Xray D. Radionuclide 59. Complications of achalasia: A. bleeding B. Scarry stenosis C. inflammation D. Perforation* 60. Where does fat soluble contrast not used: A. Hysterosalpingography B. Bronchography C. Fistulography D. intravenous urogrphy* 61.The increase in the liver, rounding of the edges, inhomogeneous echogenicity increasing, poor visualization of portal vessels happens when: A. tuberculosis B. Metastases C. Chronic hepatitis* D. Jaundice 62. The minimum "diameter" of calculus in the bladder, detected by ultrasound is: A. 5 mm B. 6 mm C. 2 mm* D. 3mm 63. Do not characteristic of benign bone tumors: A. Round shape B. Slow growth C. Periosteal reaction* D. No reaction of the surrounding tissues 64. Esophageo- pharyngeal diverticulum is often referred to by name: A. Auerbach B. Zenker* C. Zimsen D. Mallory 65. The best method of assessing the pyelocaliceal system of the kidney is: A. Excretory urography* B. Scintigraphy C. CT D. Ultrasonography 66. Select the right arc contour of the heart is normal: A. Pulmonary trunk and upper vena Vienna B. Right atrium ascending aorta* C. Right ventricle, ascending aorta D. The right atrium, inferior vena Vienna 67. B mode ultrasonography of the kidneys defines ; A. The function of the glomeruli B. All answers are correct C. The function of renal tubules D. State of pyelocaliceal system* 68. MRI picture of liver cysts in the mode T1: A. Hyperintense cavity B. Nonuniform education C. Thickwalled cavity D. Hypointense cavity* 69. What can be multiple tumors in the vertebrae: A. Osteosarcoma B. Osteoblastoclastoma C. Hemangioma* D. osteoma 70. radiological methods of diagnosis of diseases of the adrenal glands: A. MRI B. Scintigraphy C. all answers are correct* D. US 71. Osteoporosis is more common: A. In young women B. In older men C. No laws D. Postmenopausal women* 72. Methods of ultrasound of the bladder: A. Transurethral B. endoscopic C. all answers are correct* D. Transabdominal 73. That does not apply to craniopharyngioma: A. Suprasellar tumor B. Tumor of the posterior fossa* C. A cystic structure D. Tumor region sella 74. What is true for acute osteomyelitis: A. Observed periosteal reaction* B. More common in the elderly C. Early osteosclerosis D. X ray reveals the early signs 75. The reason for traction diverticulum: A. Bronhoadenit* B. Hypermotor disease C. Tracheooesophageal fistula D. Achalasia 76. One of the founders of the CT: A. Xrays B. Mansfield C. Becquerel D. Cormac * 77. What method is best to assess liver function in chronic hepatitis B: A. CT B. MRI C. Holangigrafiya D. Laboratory* 78. What method is easier to measure the angle of bifurcation of the trachea: A. Scintigraphy B. Bronchography C. Chest x-ray* D. Sonography 79. Doppler: A. Examine the situation of midline structures of the brain B. Evaluate the structure of parenchymal organs C. Get ehotomogrammu body D. Measuring blood flow velocity* 80. There are the following forms of fatty liver by ultrasound: A. Diffuse* B. Congenital C. Alimentary D. Purchase 81. What periostitis is benign: A. onion skin B. Codman’s triangle C. Spicules D. Linear* 82. What it is a contraindication to the GI contrast studies with barium: A. External fistula of the small intestine B. Decompensated stenosis C. Toxic megacolon* D. Chronic bleeding 83. Visualization of gas in the intestines by ultrasound: A. Hyperechoic structure B. all answers are correct* C. Can produce artifacts D. May give back an acoustic shadow 84. Bone metastases should be differentiated from: A. Osteosarcoma B. Hemangioma C. Exostoses D. Multiple myeloma* 85. Which method is most informative in diagnostic of pulmonary embolism: A. CT B. SPECT* C. X ray D. Bronchography 86. "Fish" vertebrae found at: A. Hemangioma B. Tuberculosis C. Spondylosis D. Hormonal spondylopathy* 87. It is better to identify damage ligaments: A. Scintigraphy B.MRI * C. Radiography D. CT 88. Residual urine can be determined by: A. Cystostomy B. Ureteropyelography C. Renography D. Ultrasound bladder* 89. Echo signs of calculi of the bladder: A. Izoechogen structure B. Anechoic structure C. Based hyperechoic structure with acoustic shadow* D. Hypoechoic structure 90. On renal ultrasound echogenicity is determined at the highest: A. Calyses* B. Vessels of the kidney C. Renal capsule D. Medulla 91. Angiography is not used: A. Ionic contrast B. Iodine contrasts C. Nonionic contrast D. Fatsoluble contrasts* 92. At what diseases occur syndrome "floating liver": A. Acute hepatitis B. Chronic hepatitis C. cholecystitis D. Cirrhosis* 93. What is a malignant periostitis: A. Spicules* B. linear C. laminate D. solid 94. In the left lung segments 4,5 are called: A. lingular* B. Basal C. In front of them D. back 95. What kind of drugs are not X ray contrasts: A. Water* B. air C. oxygen D. carbon dioxide 96. Bronchiectasis better visualized when: A. radiography B. MRI C. Bronchografy* D. SPECT 97. What is the best method in the evaluation of myocardial perfusion: A. CT B. angiography C. MRI D. Radionuclide* 98. The concentration function of the gallbladder in the study: A. Cholangiography B. CT C. Ultrasound D. Cholecystography* 99. Where usega of MRI not appropriate: A. Polycystic kidney B. Urolithiasis* C. Kidney Cancer D. Carbuncle kidney 100. That does not evaluateby sonography: A. liquid in the pericardium B. pulmonary image* C. Calcifications in heart D. The diameter of the mitral valve 101. In direct projection for aortic insufficiency is characterized by all except: A. aortic configuration of heart B. expansion of the left ventricle C. Pronounced widening of the ascending aorta D. high atriovasal angle * 102. Cardiothoracic index decreases when: A. emphysema * B. aortic stenosis C. Myocarditis D. Mitral stenosis 103. From which vessels formed a. basilaris: A. Aa. vertebralis* B. aa. toracica interna C. Aa. carotis interna D. Aa. carotis externa 104. The syndrome is observed in the diffuse dissemination: A. cirrhosis B. infiltrative tuberculosis C. Abscess D. focal pneumonia* 105. What is not included in the MRI study: A. radiofrequency coil B. airwaves C. permanent magnet D. ionizing radiation* 106.Pyelography is evaluate: A. state of the renal parenchyma B. Blood flow in the kidney C. function of kidney D. State of the ureter* 107. Which group of lymph nodes first affected in sarcoidosis: A. regionar B. bifurcation C. bronchopulmonary* D. paratracheal 108. Which is not true to exophytic gastric cancer forms: A. ulcerative infiltrative* B. Plate like with superficial ulceration C. look like to polyp D look like to cabbage 109. Signs of osteogenic sarcoma: A. onion like abscess B. periosteal reaction* C. destruction, sequestration D. Intactness of the surrounding tissues 110. Ultrasonic symptom of invasive tumor growth: A. non echogen area with irregular contour at the center of education B. Areas of calcification in the tumor C. A sharp heterogeneity of the structure of the tumor D. Blurred boundaries* 111. What disease is often accompanied by the formation of an abscess: A. penetration of ulcer B. nonspecific ulcerative colitis C. Diverticulum D. Crohn's disease* 112. Colonic obstruction is characterized by: A. There is only mechanical B. width bowls of Cloybers more of their height C. in the central part of the abdomen D. barium can reveal the level of stenosis* 113. What is the method is preferable for the diagnosis of acute hepatitis: A. Cholangiography B. CT C. US* D. MRI 114. Tactics at a perforated gastric ulcer and 12 duodenal ulcer: A. computed tomography B. contrast study with barium C. plain radiography of the abdominal cavity* D. ultrasonography 115. How many arcs of the heart is normal in the frontal projection is defined on the right projection: A. three B. one C. Two* D. four E. five 116. On radiographs- marked decrease of the lung transparency and heart pattern in the form of "bootshaped heart ": A. shortage of aortic valve B. Coarctation of the aorta C. Patent ductus arteriosus D. tetralogy of Fallot* 117. The kidneys are located: A. in lateral abdominal canals B. retroperitoneal* C. In the upper abdomen; D. in the pelvis E. In the middle floor of the abdominal cavity; 118. The interstitial pneumonia is characterized by: A. increased lung pattern in honeycomb type, multiple focal shadows * B. flying infiltrates C. peribronchial infiltration D. mono or bilateral segmental infiltrates 119. What applies to hamartoma: A. clear contours* B. homogenous C. The need to differentiate lung cancer D. can malignant 120. The second arc of the left heart in direct projection: A. a left ventricular B. rules a left ventricular atrial C. pulmonary artery * D. the right atrium 121. Not characterized the functional disorders of the esophagus: A. diffuse advanced esophagus B. a local spasm of the esophagus C. cork-sqrew esophagus D local expansion* 122. In any wave frequency greater than that of X rays: A. ultraviolet B. gamma * C. infrared D. beta 123. Which parameter is required to calculate the ejection fraction: A. Minute volume of blood B. the diameter of the aorta C. blood flow at the mouth of the aorta D. end diastolic volume of the left ventricle* 124. Does not apply to signs of gastric cancer: A. stenosis B. deformation of stomach C. secretion violation* D. damage of evacuation 125. The phenomenon of magnetic resonance was discovered in: A. 1972 B. 1982 * C. 1895 D. 1946 E. 1950 126. What pathology lead to the syndrome round shading: A. miliar tuberculosis B. cirrhosis C. peripheral cancer* D. superficial edema 127. Osteosarcoma most commonly occurs in: A. Diaphysis B. apofisis C. metaphysis* D. Epiphysis 128. The sign of venous congestion in the lungs: A. increased pulmonary pattern* B. symptom of cherry stones C. symptom of burnt wood D. lung pattern on the periphery does not change 129. The right upper arch of the heart in direct projectionis : A. ascending aorta* B. right ventricle C. a left atrium D. aorta 130. Increasing the frequency of ultrasound leads to: A. Decrease the depth of its penetration into the tissue* B. An increase in the depth of its penetration into the tissue C. Reduction amplitude ultrasound D. Reduction spatial resolution 131. The best method of assessing osteoporosis is: A. CT* B. is the usual X ray C. is the usual imaging D. MRT 132. When emphysema notes: A. extensive illumination light* B. decreaseof transparency C. increase of lungpicture D. more density 133. Types of fractures of the skull: A. incomplete B. Linear* C. Helical D. oblique 134. What is true for liver metastases: A. often rounded shape* B. often hyperdensity C. Late accumulation of contrast D. contrast not accumulate 135. Increased echogenicity of the liver are: A. increasing frequency ultrasound B. deterioration conduction liver tissue* C. increase ultrasonic instrument settings D. Increase the ultrasonic velocity E. Improved conduction liver tissue 136. Which organs are more affected by metastasis of cancer of rectum: A. liver* B. to bones C. in the pelvic organs D. in kidney 137. Under what condition is recommended to perform radionuclide study: A. lactorhea B. oliguriya C. amenorrhea D. steatorrhea* 138. Diverticula of duodenal ulcer often are located: A. on the transition into the jejunum B. In the bulb C. The upper horizontal part D. descending part* E. The lower the horizontal part 139. The shift of the mediastinum toward the affected side characteristic of: A. exudative pleuritis B. disease of heart C. hiatal hernia D. atelectasis* 140. On radiographs nonhomogeneous darkening of the right lung with displacement of the mediastinum to the right. A. Pleuropneumonia B. pneumothorax C. atelectasis D. cirrhosis* 141. Pulsion and traction diverticula can be distinguished by: A. a contour B. form* C. peristaltis D. mucosal layer 142. Typical signs of chronic bronchitis: A. all answers are correct* B. bronhografic bronchial distortion C. non homogenous of hilar D. simptom "tram rails" 143. The ultrasound picture of gallstones is not typical: A. hypoechoic structure* B. movement of stones C. round shape D. acustically shadow 144. The decrease ofechogenicity of the liver can occur when: A. acute hepatitis* B. cirrosis C. fatty liver D. rake liver 145. The esophagus is widened: A. achalasia* B. diverticule C. cicatrical stenosis D. varicosis veins 146. What it is a contraindication to MRI: A. cardiac pacemaker* B. heart failure C. renal failure D. children 147.The destruction does not occur when: A. myelom disease B. tuberculous of bones C. osteomielitis D. acromegaly* 148. When CT density of the ешыыгу is measured in relation to: A. gas B. muscles C. fat D. water* 149. Trapezoidal heart observed at: A. aortal insufficiency B. pericarditis* C. Hypertonic disease D. aterosclerosis 150. Ultrasound can be used in the diagnosis of: A. diffuse dissemination B. bronchoadenite C. tuberculoma D. exudative pleuritis* E. central cancer 151. What is wrong with regard to fatty liver: A. with hypodensiv CT liver B. Vessels in the liver sonography clearly visible* C. a contour of the liver smooth D. the density of the liver 0.65* D. increase the density in early stages of liver* E. Increase the caudate lobe* F.atrophy of medial segment of the left lobe 261. The complications of cirrhosis: A. hepatocellular carcinoma* B. spontaneous bacterial peritonitis* C. cholangiocarcinoma* D. cysts of spleen E. phelios hepatitis F. cysts of kidneys 262.Reasons for increasing the density of the contents of the gallbladder by CT: A. hematobilia* B. cholecystitis* C. adenomiomatoz D. calculus* E. phelios hepatitis F. fatty liver 263.Complications of acute cholecystitis: A. gangrenous cholecystitis * B. emphysematous cholecystitis* C. sepsis D. cirrhosis E. abscess* F. acute hepatitis 264.Complications of acute cholecystitis: A. perforation* B. emphysematous cholecystitis* C. sepsis D. hepatitis E. fistula between gall bladder and intestine * F. cirrhosis 265.Which diseases detected secondary lesions of the gallbladder: A. cirrhosis* B. hepatitis* C. pancreatitis* D. cancer of esophagus F. cancer of stomach E. cysts of kidney 266.The cause of pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen with fever without sign of Murphy A. Cholangitis* B. No correct answers C. Pancreatitis * D. Gangrenous cholecystitis* E. cirrhosis* F. hepatitis 267..Features of gangrenous cholecystitis A. Irregular wall thickening* B. Liquid around the gallbladder* C. sign of Murphy D. The required emergency surgery* E. liquid in the pelvis F. extension of the hepatic artery 268.Causes of diffuse wall thickening of the gallbladder A. Heart failure* B. Hepatitis* C. Cirrhosis * D. Spherocytosis E. Proctitis F. Endocarditis 269.What is true for liver adenoma A. Pseudocapsule* B. associated with taking anabolic steroids* C. Most affected women* D. homogenous tumor E. most in normal liver F. hypovascular tumor 270.Complications of hemangiomas A. Break* B. Abscess formation* C. Sequestration of platelets* D. Mechanical jaundice E. malignancy F. cirrhosis 271.Hypoechoic metastatic tumors to the liver A. Colon cancer B. Gepatoma C. Cervical cancer* D. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma* E. Lymphoma * F. kidney cancer 272.What is true for acute pancreatitis: A. The reason of cholelithiasis* B. Increase risk of cancer* C. hypoechogenicity of parenchyma* D. most causes are iatrogenia E. calsinates F. Stomach cancer 273.What is true for dystopia of pelvic kidney: A. Blood flow through the external iliac artery B. Frequency 1/1500* C. Lack of development of adrenal glands D.Shape of adrenal glands are changed* E. Blood flow through the internal iliac artery F. Abdominal dystopia -kidney at the iliac crest * 274.What is true for renal anomalies: A. Hilar dystopia often on the right side B. Pelvic dystopia combined with cryptorchidism* C. Hilar dystopia more common in men* D. 50% of pelvic dystopias combined with reflux or hydronephrosis E. Hilar dystopia more common in woman 275.What is true for polycystic kidney disease: A. Autosomal recessive cysts in the kidneys and liver* B. Autosomal dominant in adults* C. Autosomal recessive in children* D. Autosomal recessive cysts in the pancreas E. Autosomal dominant in children* F. Autosomal recessive in adult 276.What is true for the complicated renal cyst: A. Infection* B. Hemorrhage * C. Malignization* D. Injury E. Striatal renogram F. Reducing the size of the kidney 277.Abscess of kidney: A. Central accumulation of contrast is not typical* B. wall of abscess contrasted when subacute and chronic course * C. Perinephric reaction is not typical D. Thickening of Gerota's fascia* E. Has a hyperintense signal in T1 mode F. homogeneity 278.Chronic pyelonephritis: A. Decrease the size of the affected kidney* B. Hypoechoic kidney C. Scars in the parenchyma* D. Expanding the pyelocaliceal system* E. Dimensions of kidneys are not changed F. Increase the size of the affected kidney* 279.Glomerulonephritis: A. Acute increase density of kidney* B.Chronic calcifications* C. Hyperechoic parenchyma D.Acute smooth contours of the kidney* E. Chronic hypoechoic pyramid F. Air formation around the kidneys 280.What is true for osteomyelitis: A. Linear periostitis* B. Osteolytic islands, osteoblastic types C. Irregular shape* D. More common in the vertebrae E. Non homogeneous structure* F. Regular shape 281.What is true for arthritis: A. Local osteoporosis* B. Joint space narrowing* C. Impression fracture D. increase density of subchondral layer E. Erosive and destructive changes* F. Diffuse osteoporosis 282.What is true for bone metastases: A. The structure of metastases can determine the primary tumor B. X ray reveals early changes C. Pathological fracture* D. Destruction* E. Osteolytic and osteoblastic types* F. Diffuse osteoporosis 283.What is true for avascular necrosis: A. More common in the elderly B. MRI is considered the best in the early diagnosis* C. Local osteoporosis* D. Flattening of the epiphysis* E. CT is considered the best method for early diagnosis F. Ultrasonography is considered the best method for early diagnosis 284.What is true for osteosarcoma: A. Destruction of the cortical layer* B. Often in the epiphysis C. Spicules* D. More common in the vertebrae E. Irregular shape* F.Regular shape 285.What is true for X ray: A. Good visible calcification* B. Good identifies comminuted fractures* C. A high tissue contrast D. Clearly visible ligament E. High spatial resolution* F. Clearly visible muscles 286.What is true for osteoarthritis: A. Swelling of the soft tissues B. narrowing of articular surface* C. Osteophytes* D. impression fracture E. Subluxation* F. widening of articular surface 287.Normally the esophagus contour deformed due to: A. Aortic arch* B. The trachea C. Left main bronchus* D. Diaphragms* E. stomach F. Right main bronchus 288.Which statements are correct: A. in the right lung- 3lobes* B. in the left lung 2-lobes* C.5 segment-in the upper lobe of the right lung D. 3 segment- in the right upper lobe* E. 2 segment located at the front F.in the left lung 3-lobes 289.Which symptoms are more important of the syndrome of spherical shade: A. the contours of shadows* B. Location of shade* C. pulmonary picture D. volume fraction / segment E. structure of shade* F. hilar of lungs 290.Symptoms of emphysema: A. total lucency* B. decrease the transparency C. weakening of lung pattern* D. horizontal arrangement of ribs* E. increase the diaphragm excursion F. total opacity 291.What is true for tetralogy of Fallot: A. hilar expansion B.hypovolemia in the lungs* C. decrease of lung pattern* D. pulmonary stenosis* E. displacement of the aorta to the left F. hypervolemia in the lungs 292.Dilatation of the left atrium is typical for: A. ductus arteriosus* B. ventricular septal defect* C. atrial septal defect D. coarctation of the aorta E. mitral insufficiency* F. aortal insufficiency 293.Right ventricular hypertrophy characteristic of: A. cirrhosis of the lung* B. ductus arteriosus* C. aortic insufficiency D. atrial septal defect* E. venricular septal defect F. Coarctation of aorta 294.Radionuclide method to measure: A. ejection fraction* B. infarct* C. myocardial perfusion* D. the state of the valves E. cardiac calcifications F. calcification of valves 295.Arcs the left contour of the heart in direct projection: A. ascending aorta B. pulmonary artery* C. descending aorta* D. the left ventricle* E. the right ventricle F. the right atrium 296.What is true for aortic insufficiency: A. dilatation of the left ventricle* B. hypertrophy of the right atrium C. expansion of the aorta* D. waist bulges E. atriovasal angle moved down* F. atriovasal angle moved up F. Decrease pulmonary pattern in the center and the periphery 297. CT angiography of the abdominal cavity. What kinds of pathological changes defined in this CT reconstruction? A. B. C. D. Atherosclerosis of the aorta and its branches* hypoplasia of the right kidney Splenomegaly aortic aneurysm 298. Male 38 years. When abdominal CT before (upper left) and after a bolus intravenous injection of iodinecontaining contrast agent in the arterial (top right), portal (bottom left) and late (bottom right) phases in liver revealed two entities accumulating contrast agent from the periphery to the center. Your opinion? A. B. C. D. E. Echinococcosis Metastatic Liver Cancer Focal nodular hyperplasia, Hemangioma* 299. Complications of diverticulitis of the esophagus: A. scarry stenosis B. inflammation * C. perforation * D. ulcer 300. Achalasia symptoms A. local expansion B. uneven contours of the restriction C. bird peak * D. rat tail * 301. The filling defect in the esophagus occurs when: A. axial hernia B. foreign body * C. polyp * D. achalasia 302. Complications of achalasia: A. aspiration pneumonia * B. scarry stenosis C. perforation * D. inflammation 303. What is true for diverticula: A. traction diverticula often true * B. pulsion diverticula often true C. diverticula often manifested clinically D. traction diverticula can occur at the level of the bifurcation of the trachea * 304. What is true for diaphragmatic hernia: A. inhomogeneous shadow * B. Lung volume reduction C. mediastinum is shifted in a healthy side * D. intercostal distance is reduced on the affected side 305. Types of diverticula: A. axial B. endophytic C. traction * D. pulsion * 306. It is characteristic of Crohn's disease: A. Cobblestone * B. Gas and liquid levels in the intestine C. notes the fragmentation contrast D. narrowed lumen of the intestine * 307. Specify the types of intestinal obstruction: A. reflex B. Mechanical * C. Dynamic* D. exophytic 308. What pathology on plain film of the abdomen can be seen: A. free gas below the diaphragm * B. symptom of a niche C. roentgen positive foreign body * D. abscess with fluid level * 309. Dynamic ileus is characterized by: A. bowel paralysis * B. bowl of Kloyber often located in the central part of the abdomen C. radiographic picture is changed D. peristalsis is not traced * 310. What is true to the X-ray signs of achalasia: A. local expansion B. narrowing smooth contours * C. deformation of the gas bubble stomach D. pathological peristalsis * 311. What is true to esophageal leiomyoma: A. stenosis * B. filling defect * C. pathological relief D. uneven contours 312. What is true for achalasia: A. esophagus extends diffusely * B. paradoxical dysphagia * C. can occur as a complication of reflux esophagitis D. Need to differentiate epiphrenal diverticulum 313. What is true for fluoroscopy with barium: A. Functional condition * B. Status of the wall C. anatomy of the body * D. Status of the surrounding tissues 314. Which statements are true for regarding the hiatal hernia: A. better detected in a horizontal position * B. may occur as a result of achalasia C. gastric gas bubble can be seen in the chest * D. hernia is more common paraaxial 315. What applies to Crohn's disease: A. Cobblestone* B. often occurs in the jejunum C. may be complicated by an abscess * D. diffuse expansion intestinal loops 316. Specify the characteristic X-ray signs of achalasia: A. symptom of birdbeak * B. can be expansion of the shadow of the mediastinum * C. diverticulum of wall D. narrowing uneven contours 317.Types of functional disorders of the esophagus: A. beaded esophagus * B. corkscrew esophagus * C. local narrowing D. local expansion 318. Indirect signs of stomach ulcer: A. niche B. Violations of peristalsis * C. symptom index finger * D. inflammatory shaft 319. Symptoms of gastric cancer: A. thickened of mucous folds B. pathological relief * C. Violations peristalsis * D. Extension of the lumen 320. The filling defect in the esophagus occurs when: A. Functional infringements B. diverticulum C. Cancer * D. paraesophageal tumor * 321. Indirect signs of stomach ulcer: A. local pain * B. Violations of peristalsis * C. symptom of index finger * D. Convergence of folds E. inflammatory shaft F. diffuse pain 322. It can be seen on plain radiographs: A. roentgen positive foreign body * B. stomach cancer C. Chronic colitis D. gas bubble stomach * E. calcifications * F. duodenum cancer 323. Types of hiatal hernia: A. kardioesophageal B. fixed * C. Axial * D. paraaxial * E. epiphenal F. diffuse 324 Fluoroscopy with Barium can evaluate: A. Functional condition * B. Status of the wall C. anatomy of the body * D. mucous * E. Status of the surrounding tissues F. surround lymphatic nodes 325. What is true for penetrating ulcer: A. three-layer * B. diverticula- shaped * C. Deep * D. triangular E. flat F. two-layer 326. Which condition is associated with cancer of the stomach with barium X-ray is recommended: A. malignancy * B. penetration * C. scarry stenosis * D. perforation E. Acute bleeding F. suspicion to perirtonitis 327. Complications of gastric ulcer: A. Violations of evacuation B. gastritis C. penetration * D. malignancy * E. bleeding * F. colitis 328. It is characteristic of Crohn's disease: A. No hypersecretion * B. often occurs in the jejunum C. may be complicated by an abscess * D. fragmentation of contrast * E. No diffuse expansion intestinal loops * F. often occurs in the stomach 329. what is true for renal anomalies: A. hilar dystopia - often the right B. pelvic dystopia combined with cryptorchidism * C. hilar dystopia - more common in men * D. 50% of pelvic dystopias combined with reflux or hydronephrosis * E. pelvic dystopia is combined with skeletal abnormalities * F. hilar dystopia - more common in women 330. What is characteristic of acute pyelonephritis: A. Increase the volume of kidney * B. wedge-shaped hypodense areas * C. increasing excretion D. Improved kidney function E. Thickening Gerota's fascia * F. decrease the volume of kidney * 331. What is true for acute pyelonephritis: A. Reducing the size of the kidney B. striatal renogram * C. Loss of cortico-medullary differentiation * D. Improved kidney function E. Thickening Gerota's fascia * F. increasing excretion 332. What is true for chronic pyelonephritis: A. Reducing the size of the kidney * B. striatal renogram C. Loss of cortico-medullary differentiation * D. Improved kidney function E. Thickening Gerota's fascia* F. increasing excretion 333. Chronic pyelonephritis: A. Reducing the size of the affected kidney * B. hypoechoic kidney C. Scars in the parenchyma * D. Enhancing pyelocaliceal system * E. Dimensions healthy kidneys are not changed F. Increasing the size of the affected kidney * 334. Renal tuberculosis: A. The most common extrapulmonary TB * B. More than 75% of the cases combined with pulmonary C. papillary necrosis * D. pyelocaliceal system is not changed E. Calcinates * F. Atrophy of the renal medula 335. Echinococcosis of kidney: A. cyst type I are more common in children * B. III type - multi-chamber cyst * C. II type - one-cyst with calcifications D. V type - the most rare E. III type of cyst is the most common * F. Atrophy of the renal medulla 336. Indirect signs of fracture A. losing function * B. displacement of fragments C. edema * D. changed X-ray E. pain * F. Fracture line 337. Radionuclid methods include: A. Scintigraphy* B. MRI C. SPECT * D. US E. PET * F. CT scan 338. Which methods not included radionuclide: Radionuclid methods include: A. Scintigraphy B. MRI* C. SPECT D. US* E. PET F. CT scan 339.Contrast agents: A. Triambrast* B. Tea C. Oxygen * D. Water E. BaSO4 * F. medications 340. Which symptoms are not typical for stomach ulcer? A. cobblestone* B. nische C. rat tail * D. point finger E. filling defect *