Physio Final McQ PDF

Multiple Choice Questions PHYSIOLOGY OF BLOOD 1. A set of reactions which provide the maintenance or restoration of the constancy of an organism`s internal environment is... - Variants of answer: а) hemopoiesis; ☆ b) homeo...

Multiple Choice Questions PHYSIOLOGY OF BLOOD 1. A set of reactions which provide the maintenance or restoration of the constancy of an organism`s internal environment is... - Variants of answer: а) hemopoiesis; ☆ b) homeostasis; c) hemostasis; d) hemolysis; e) hematocrit. 2. In 1939 G. F. Lang formulated the notion of blood as the system includ- ing... Variants of answer: а) peripheral blood, organs of hemopoiesis, organs of blood destruction; b) peripheral blood, organs of hemopoiesis, organs of blood destruction, humoral mechanism of regulation; c) peripheral blood, organs of hemopoiesis, organs of blood destruction, ☆ neurohumoral apparatus of regulation. d) peripheral blood, organs of hemopoiesis, organs of blood destruction, nervous mechanism of regulation; e) peripheral blood, organs of blood destruction, neurohumoral apparatus of regulation. 3. Which function of blood is caused by the presence of antibodies and phagocytosis of leukocytes? Variants of answer: ☆ а) protective; b) trophic; c) transport; d) respiratory; e) regulatory. 4. The respiratory function of blood is provided by... Variants of answer: а) heparin; b) plasma; c) hemoglobin; ☆ d) thrombin; e) histamine. 65  5. The hematocrit characterizes... Variants of answer: а) the system of hemostasis; Ab) the volumetric ratio of the formed elements and whole blood; c) the quantitative ratio of the formed elements of blood; d) the ratio of the formed elements and serum of blood; e) the percentage ratio of the number of platelets to the total blood volume. 6. How will the oncotic pressure of blood change, if the amount of gen- eral protein in the blood is not changed and the amount of albumins is low? Variants of answer: a) it will increase; b) it will not change; As c) it will decrease; d) it can either decrease or increase; e) it will not depend on the protein content. 7. Which pressure is created by the proteins of blood plasma? Variants of answer: а) osmotic; b) hydrostatic; ☆ c) oncotic; d) hemodynamic; e) atmospheric. 8. Which protein of blood plasma provides iron transport? Variants of answer: а) albumin; b) transferrin; ☆ c) transcobolamin II; d) transducin; e) none of the above. 9. What factors participate in the maintenance of the acid-alkaline bal- ance of blood plasma? Variants of answer: а) osmotic pressure; ☆ b) buffer systems; c) ions and nutrients; d) plasma blood-coagulation factors; e) all the answers are correct. 66  10. The buffer properties of proteins provide... Variants of answer: а) the maintenance of the osmotic pressure; b) the decreased concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood; c) metabolism in the blood; ☆ d) the maintenance of the constant concentration of hydrogen ions in the blood; e) blood coagulation. 11. Which buffer system does not exist? Variants of answer: a) hemoglobin; b) phosphate; ☆ c) chloric. d) carbonate; e) protein. 12. Carboxyhemoglobin is... Variants of answer: а) a bond of hemoglobin with СО2; b) a bond of hemoglobin with Н2СО3; At c) a bond of hemoglobin with CO; d) a bond of hemoglobin with Са2СО3; e) a bond of hemoglobin with О2. 13. What does the color index of blood reflect? Variants of answer: а) the total amount of hemoglobin in the blood; b) the amount of hemolysed erythrocytes; c) the amount of erythrocytes per 1 liter of blood; ☆ d) relative saturation of erythrocytes with hemoglobin; e) the number of red blood cells in the organism. 14. Destruction of the membrane of erythrocytes and hemoglobin re- lease into blood plasma under the action of various factors is called... Variants of answer: - а) plasmolysis; b) hemolysis; c) fibrinolysis; d) hemostasis; e) homeostasis. 67  15. How does the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) change due to an increased number of large protein molecules (globulins and fibrinogen) in blood plasma? Variants of answer: а) the ESR does not decrease; b) the ESR does not change; c) the ESR does not decrease sharply; ← d) the ESR increases. e) the proteins do not influence the ESR. 16. Which function is not performed by leukocytes? Variants of answer: а) phagocytosis; * b) synthesis of collagen and elastin; c) active movement; d) migration on the gradient of chemical factors; e) humoral and cell-mediated immunity. 17. Which cells are differentiated into macrophages after they leave the blood vessels and enter the surrounding tissues? Variants of answer: Aа) eosinophils; b) basophils; c) T-lymphocytes; d) monocytes; e) B-lymphocytes. 18. Neutrophils provide mainly... Variants of answer: а) the production of specific antibodies; b) heparin transport; c) the phagocytosis of microorganisms; d) the activation of lymphocytes; e) histamine synthesis. 19. The function of eosinophils is... Variants of answer: а) the transport of carbonic gas and oxygen; b) the maintenance of the osmotic pressure; c) the production of antibodies; A d) desintoxication in allergic reactions; e) the maintenance of the oncotic pressure. 68  20. Which blood cells contain active histaminase? Variants of answer: а) basophils; b) monocytes; * c) eosinophils; d) erythrocytes; e) B-lymphocytes. 21. Which cells produce histamin during their stimulation? Variants of answer: а) neutrophils; b) eosinophils; ☆ c) basophils; d) monocytes; e) lymphocytes. 22. How is the percentage ratio of all the kinds of leukocytes called? Variants of answer: а) the color index; b) the hematocrit; * c) the leukocyte formula; d) leukocytosis; e) leukopenia. 23. The increased count of leukocytes in peripheral blood is called... Variants of answer: ☆ а) leukocytosis; b) leucopoiesis; c) leukopenia; d) thrombocytosis. e) anemia. 24. How does the leukocyte count change after food intake, muscle work, in pregnancy, in strong emotions? Variants of answer: а) it decreases; b) it does not change; Ac) it increases; d) it decreases after food intake, muscle work, but increases in pregnancy, strong emotions; e) it decreases in pregnancy, strong emotions, but increases after food in- take, muscle work. 69  25. Agglutinins are a component of... Variants of answer: а) erythrocytes; A b) plasma; c) leucocytes; d) thrombocytes; e) hemoglobin. 26. Agglutinogens are a component of... Variants of answer: а) plasma; b) leukocyte nuclei; c) thrombocytes; : d) erythrocyte membranes; e) hemoglobin. 27. Which combination of agglutinogens and agglutinins does I blood group have? Variants of answer: а) АВ and 0; b) B and alpha; c) 0 and alpha, beta; d) A and beta; e) АВ and alpha, beta. 28. In an individual having III blood group, plasma contains …agglutinin. Variants of answer: а) beta; b) alpha; c) alpha, beta; d) there are no alpha and beta agglutinins. e) delta. 29. In an individual having IV blood group, erythrocytes contain... agglutin- ogens Variants of answer: а) A; b) B; c) 0; d) АВ; e) all the answers are correct. 70  30. Which blood group of the ABO system does not contain A and B ag- - glutinogens? Variants of answer: а) the first; ☆ b) the second; c) the third; d) the fourth; e) the third and the fourth. 31. Which variant has the impossible combination of agglutinogens and agglutinins in the ABO system? Variants of answer: а) B and alpha; b) 0 and alpha, beta; c) B and beta; & d) АВ and 0; e) А and beta. 32. Is it possible to transfuse the blood of the same donor to the patient repeatedly, and if no, then why? - Variants of answer: а) it is possible without restrictions; b) it is possible at small amounts; c) it is possible for the first group of the ABO blood group system; d) it is impossible, because each person has the individual blood group; : e) it is possible for the fourth group of the ABO blood group system. 33. It is possible to transfuse... to an individual with I blood group. Variants of answer: а) any group blood; b) IV group blood; c) I group blood; d) II group blood; e) III group blood. 34. An individual with A (Rh+) blood group can be a donor for people hav- ing the blood group of... Variants of answer: а) A, Rh–; b) 0, Rh+; c) B, Rh+; d) A, Rh+; e) В, Rh–. 71  35. Which blood group is determined, if the mixing of a blood sample with all the standard sera does not lead to agglutination? Variants of answer: а) II (А) blood group; - b) I (0) blood group; c) III (В) blood group; d) IV (АВ) blood group; e) all the answers are correct. 36. Which blood group is determined, if the mixing of a blood sample with all standard sera of I, II, III groups leads to agglutination? Variants of answer: а) II (А) blood group; b) I (0) blood group; : c) III (В) blood group; d) IV (АВ) blood group; e) all the answers are correct. 37. The Rhesus antigen is a component of... Variants of answer: а) plasma; b) erythrocyte membranes; c) leukocyte nuclei; d) thrombocyte membranes. e) hemoglobin. 38. In which situation can Rh incompatibility (Rhesus conflict) be observed? Variants of answer: а) mother — Rh+; father — Rh–, a fetus — Rh–; b) mother — Rh–; father — Rh+, a fetus — Rh–; c) mother — Rh+; father — Rh–, a fetus — Rh–; d) mother — Rh–; father — Rh+, a fetus — Rh+; e) mother — Rh+; father — Rh+, a fetus — Rh–. 39. The system of hemostasis provides... Variants of answer: а) the maintenance of the fluid state of blood; b) blood coagulation inside the blood vessels; Ac) the maintenance of the fluid state of blood and blood coagulation in the damaged blood vessels; d) the compression of fibrin thrombus; e) the maintenance of the constancy of the internal environment. 72  40. Which factor transforms from a soluble state into insoluble one dur- ing blood coagulation? Variants of answer: A а) fibrinogen; b) antigemophilic globulin A; c) prothrombin; d) tissue thromboplastin; e) proaccelerin. 41. For the course of all the hemocoagulation phases the participation of … ions is necessary: Variants of answer: а) sodium; b) potassium; ☆ c) calcium; d) fluorine; e) copper. 42. Which factor provides the transformation of soluble fibrin-polymer into insoluble fibrin? Variants of answer: a) IV-ions of Ca++; b) VII-proconvertin; ☆ c) XIII-fibrinstabilization factor; d) XI-antigemophilic globulin C; e) VIII-аntigemophilic globulin A. 43. What is plasmin and what is it necessary for? Variants of answer: а) it is the dry residual of plasma; b) it is a plasma protein; c) it is a protease, which activates fibrin formation; ← d) it is a protease, which splits fibrin; e) it is a protease, which activates thrombin. 44. The substances which prevent blood coagulation and which have the fibrinolytic action are called... Variants of answer: а) coagulants; b) factors of blood coagulation; & c) anticoagulants; d) homostatins; e) myorelaxants. 73  45. How does the initial anticoagulants differ from the secondary antico- agulants? Variants of answer: а) they are activated by thrombin; A b) they are formed in the body constantly and do not depend on the pro- cesses of blood coagulation; c) they are formed in the body changeably and depend on the processes of blood coagulation. d) they do not exist in the body; e) they are activated by thrombostenin. 46. Give the correct sequence of the processes of vascular-platelet hemostasis: Variants of answer: а) a reflex spasm of the damaged blood vessels — aggregation of throm- bocytes — adhesion of thrombocytes — compression of a blood thrombus; b) a reflex spasm of the damaged blood vessels — compression of a blood thrombus — adhesion of thrombocytes — aggregation of thrombocytes; c) a reflex spasm of the damaged blood vessels — adhesion of thrombo- cytes — aggregation of thrombocytes — compression of a blood thrombus. d) adhesion of thrombocytes — a reflex spasm of the damaged blood ves- sels — aggregation of thrombocytes — compression of a blood thrombus; e) compression of a blood thrombus — a reflex spasm of the damaged blood vessels — adhesion of thrombocytes — aggregation of thrombocytes. 47. Give the correct sequence of the processes of coagulating hemostasis: Variants of answer: а) formation of prothrombinase — transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin — formation of thrombin; b) formation of prothrombinase — formation of thrombin — transfor- : mation of fibrinogen into fibrin; c) transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin — formation of thrombin — formation of prothrombinase. d) formation of thrombin — transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin — formation of prothrombinase; e) formation of thrombin — formation of prothrombinase — transfor- mation of fibrinogen into fibrin. 48. Give the correct sequence of the processes of fibrinolysis: Variants of answer: а) transformation of plasminogen into plasmin — splitting of fibrin to pep- tides and amino acids — formation of the blood activator of plasminogen; 74  b) splitting of fibrin to peptides and amino acids — formation of the blood activator of plasminogen — transformation of plasminogen into plasmin; ☆ c) formation of the blood activator of plasminogen — transformation of plasminogen into plasmin — splitting of fibrin to peptides and amino acids. d) formation of the blood activator of plasminogen — splitting of fibrin to peptides and amino acids — transformation of plasminogen into plasmin; e) transformation of plasminogen into plasmin — formation of the blood activator of plasminogen — splitting of fibrin to peptides and amino acids. 49. How will a decrease of Са2+ amount in blood plasma influence the du- ration of hemostasis? Variants of answer: ☆ а) the duration of hemostasis will increase; b) the duration of hemostasis will decrease; c) the duration of hemostasis will not change; d) Са2+ does not influence the duration of hemostasis. e) Са2+ can both increase and decrease the duration of hemostasis. 50. How does the composition of lymph differ from that of blood plas- ma? Variants of answer: а) it has a larger protein concentration; b) their phospholipid concentrations are different; c) it has a smaller protein concentration; d) it has a larger concentration of the formed elements; e) it has a larger concentration of vitamins. 51. Albumin is an important factor for the maintainance of the oncotic (a) pressure, because it has… a) relatively low molecular weight and high blood concentration; ✗ Variants of answer: b) relatively low molecular weight and low blood concentration; c) high molecular weight and low blood concentration; d) high molecular weight and high blood concentration; e) albumin is not important for the maintainance of the oncotic pressure. 52. Which of the following is not a transport or binding protein? Variants of answer: a) hemoglobin; b) ceruloplasmin; c) lactoferrin; d) transferrin; ☆ e) erythropoietin. 75  53. Helper and cytotoxic cells belong to… Variants of answer: ☆ a) T cells; b) B cells; c) monocytes; b) macrophages; e) eosinophils. 54. Thrombosthenin is … Variants of answer: a) a thrombosis preventing protein; Br b) a contractile protein; c) a coagulation protein of blood plasma; d) a protein regulating the production of platelets; e) a transport protein. 55. Which of the following coagulation factors causes cross linking and stabilization of clots? Variants of answer: a) factor XIII; Br b) thrombin; c) factor VIII; d) factor IX; e) factor VII. 56. All the coagulation factors of the hepatic origin are vitamin K- de- pendent except…. Variants of answer: a) II; b) VIl; Kc) VIII; d) IX; e) X. 57. The action of the VIII procoagulant factor is deficient in… Variants of answer: ☆ a) haemophilia A; b) haemophilia B; c) idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura; d) sickle cell anemia; e) megaloblastic anemia. 76  58. Heme synthesis requires… Variants of answer: ☆ a) ferrous iron; b) glycine; c) alanine;. d) thrombin; e) fibrinogen. 59. Iron absorption is increased by… Variants of answer: a) fibre diet; ☆ b) vitamin C; c) phosphate; d) Каstle’s аntianemic factor; e) insulin. 60. Erythropoiesis is promoted by all of the following except… Variants of answer: a) androgens; b) thyroxine; ☆c) estrogen; d) activation of the sympathetic nervous system; e) products of erythrocyte destruction. CORRECT ANSWERS PHYSIOLOGY OF BLOOD № Correct № Correct № Correct № Correct question answers question answers question answers question answers 1 b 16 b 31 c 46 c 2 c 17 d 32 d 47 b 3 a 18 c 33 c 48 c 4 c 19 d 34 d 49 a 5 b 20 c 35 b 50 c 6 c 21 c 36 d 51 a 7 c 22 c 37 b 52 e 8 b 23 a 38 d 53 a 9 b 24 c 39 c 54 b 10 d 25 b 40 a 55 a 11 c 26 d 41 c 56 c 12 c 27 c 42 c 57 a 13 d 28 b 43 d 58 a 14 b 29 d 44 c 59 b 15 d 30 a 45 b 60 c 77  Multiple Choice Questions PHYSIOLOGY OF EXCITABLE TISSUES LAWS OF STIMULATION AND ASSESSMENT OF EXCITABILITY. PHYSIOLOGY OF NERVE TISSUES. PHYSIOLOGY OF SYNAPSES 1. Tissues that are capable to respond to the action of stimuli with an ac- tive physiological reaction are called … Variants of answer: а) relaxable; b) contractive; - с) excitable; d) conductive; e) autonomic. 2. Excitable tissues are… Variants of answer: а) muscular, connective, glandular; b) nervous, epithelial, connective; с) glandular, connective, epithelial; = d) muscular, nervous, glandular; e) fatty, epithelial, muscular. 3. The minimal strength of a stimulus that is capable to cause excitation is called… Variants of answer: а) subthreshold; b) superthreshold; c) threshold; d) submaximal; e) subminimal. 4. The threshold of tissue stimulation is a criterion of … Variants of answer: - а) excitability; b) inhibition; c) conductivity; d) contractility; e) lability. 109  5. The difference between the charges of the internal and external sur- faces of the cell membrane is called … Variants of answer: а) the membrane action potential; b) the local response; -с) the membrane resting potential; d) reversal inhibition; e) electrotone. 6. In the excitable tissue cytoplasm of cells at rest, the concentration of … ions is the highest. Variants of answer: - а) potassium; b) chlorine; с) sodium; d) calcium; e) magnesium. 7. The mechanism of the ion movement through the membrane down the concentration gradient without energy consumption is called … Variants of answer: - а) passive transport; b) pinocytosis; c) endocytosis; d) active transport; e) exocytosis. 8. The mechanism of the ion movement through the membrane against the concentration gradient with energy consumption is called … Variants of answer: а) passive transport; b) pinocytosis; c) endocytosis; - d) active transport; e) exocytosis. 9. The active mechanism providing the removal of sodium ions from cells and introduction of potassium ions into them is called … Variants of answer: а) the sodium selective pump; b) the membrane action potential; с) the critical level of depolarization; 110  a d) the sodium-potassium pump; e) diffusion. 10. The sodium-potassium pump transmits Na+ and K+ ions through the cell membrane … Variants of answer: а) down their concentration gradient; b) without taking into account their concentration gradient; - c) against their concentration gradient; d) down the osmotic gradient; e) down the electrochemical gradient. 11. The change of the membrane potential to a less electronegative val- ue is called … Variants of answer: а) hyperpolarization; b) repolarization; с) exaltation; - d) depolarization; e) subnormality. 12. The change of the membrane potential to a more electronegative value is called … Variants of answer: M а) hyperpolarization; b) repolarization; с) exaltation; d) depolarization; e) refractory period. 13. The correct order of the phases of the membrane action potential is: Variants of answer: а) slow depolarization — fast depolarization — fast repolarization — hy- perpolarization — slow repolarization; - b) slow depolarization — fast depolarization — fast repolarization — slow repolarization — hyperpolarization; c) fast depolarization — slow repolarization — slow depolarization — fast repolarization — hyperpolarization; d) slow repolarization — slow depolarization — fast depolarization — fast repolarization — hyperpolarization; e) slow depolarization — hyperpolarization — fast depolarization — fast repolarization — slow repolarization. 111  14. What happens to the charge of the membrane during the process of its depolarization when an AP is formed? Variants of answer: а) the negative charge of the internal surface of the membrane increases; b) the positive charge of the external surface of the membrane increases; - c) the negative charge changes to the positive one; d) the charge does not change at all; e) the charge is absent. 15. During the phase of depolarization of the membrane action poten- tial, the permeability of the membrane increases basically to … ions. Variants of answer: а) potassium; b) chlorine; - с) sodium; d) magnesium; e) all the answers are correct. 16. The phase of repolarization of the membrane action potential is caused by the increased permeability of the membrane to … ions. Variants of answer: - а) potassium; b) chlorine; c) sodium; d) calcium; e) all the answers are correct. 17. The correct order of the phases of the changes of excitability during excitation is: Variants of answer: а) hyperexcitability — absolute refractory — relative refractory — sub- normal excitability — supernormal excitability; b) hyperexcitability — relative refractory — absolute refractory — sub- normal excitability — supernormal excitability; a c) hyperexcitability — absolute refractory — relative refractory — super- normal excitability — subnormal excitability; d) hyperexcitability — subnormal excitability — absolute refractory — rel- ative refractory — supernormal excitability; e) hyperexcitability — subnormal excitability — relative refractory — ab- solute refractory — supernormal excitability. 112  18. What is the “absolute refractory period”? Variants of answer: а) it is a gradual increase of excitability; b) It is a decrease of excitability during the period of hyperpolarization; -c) It is a period of full unexcitability; d) it is a period of maximum excitability; e) all the answers are correct. 19. The relative refractory period develops during the phase of… Variants of answer: а) depolarization; b) hyperpolarization; - c) fast repolarization; e) rest period. 20. When the phase of slow depolarization of the membrane develops, excitability is… Variants of answer: а) absolute refractory; b) subnormal excitability; c) relative refractory; - d) hyperexcitability; e) all the answers are correct. 21. Which phase corresponds to the phase of fast depolarization of the membrane action potential? Variants of answer: а) supernormal excitability; b) subnormal excitability; ac) absolute refractory; d) relative refractory; e) hypererethism. 22. The excitability during the phase of slow repolarization is character- ized by … Variants of answer: а) the absolute refractory phase; - b) supernormal excitability; c) the relative refractory phase; d) subnormal excitability; e) normal excitability. 113  23. What corresponds to hyperpolarization? Variants of answer: а) supernormal excitability; - b) subnormal excitability; c) absolute refractory; d) relative refractory; e) hypererethism. 24. Parabiosis is... Variants of answer: - а) a local long condition of excitation arising under the action of narcotic and other substances; b) the dependence between the strength of a stimulus and its duration; c) passive transport with the help of specialized structures; d) the dependence between the strength of a stimulus and strength of a response; e) all the answers are correct. 25. The correct order of the development of the phases of parabiosis is … Variants of answer: а) inhibitory, equaling, paradoxical; b) paradoxical, inhibitory, equaling; - c) equaling, paradoxical, inhibitory; d) inhibitory, paradoxical, equaling; e) paradoxical, equaling, inhibitory. 26. The characteristics of the paradoxical phase of parabiosis are… Variants of answer: a) stimuli of various strength (weak and strong) induce identical responses; b) stimuli of various strength (weak and strong) cannot induce responses; -c) strong stimuli induce weak responses, weak stimuli induce strong re- sponses; d) strong stimuli induce strong responses, weak stimuli induce weak re- sponses; e) all the answers are correct. 27. The minimal time during which a stimulus equal to rheobase should be applied to cause excitation is called… Variants of answer: а) chronaxie; b) rheobase; 114  - с) the useful time; d) electrotone; e) the local response. 28. The minimal time during which a stimulus equal to double rheobase should be applied to cause excitation is called… Variants of answer: а) rheobase; b) the time of reaction; с) the useful time; a d) chronaxie; e) electrotone. 29. Lability is measured by… Variants of answer: а) the minimal strength of a stimulus which is necessary to cause excitation; b) the minimal time during which the threshold stimulus should be applied to cause a response; -c) the maximum number of signals which a cell can produce per second according to the frequency of a stimulus; d) the minimal time during which a stimulus equal to double rheobase should be applied to cause excitation; e) all the answers are correct. 30. The adjustment of rhythm is… Variants of answer: а) the decreased lability of tissue during rhythmic stimulation; b) the decreased excitability of tissue during rhythmic stimulation; - c) the increased lability of tissue during rhythmic stimulation; d) the development of inhibition process in tissue during rhythmic stimulation; e) all the answers are correct. 31. Why does the phenomenon «pessimum» appear? Variants of answer: - а) as a result of getting of each following stimulus into the refractory phase; b) as a result of getting of each following stimulus into the phase of super- normal excitability; c) as a result of getting of each following stimulus into the phase of hyper- excitability; d) in consequence of tissue necrosis; e) all the answers are correct. 115  32. What is typical for the process of signal conduction in nerves? Variants of answer: а) anatomical integrity; b) physiological integrity; c) conduction in two directions; d) isolation of signal conduction; - e) all the answers are correct. 33. What carries out the insulation and trophic function in myelinated nerve fibers? Variants of answer: а) neurofibers; b) microtubulus; c) axon membrane; - d) myelinated membrane; e) all the answers are correct. 34. Excitation in unmyelinated isolated nerve fibers is conducted… Variants of answer: а) excitation skips from one part to another, and the whole fiber is not seized by excitation; -b) it spreads continuously and the whole fiber is seized with excitation; c) following the movement of axoplasm; d) at first it spreads continuously, and at the end of the nerve fibers exci- tation goes in intermittent motion; e) at first excitation goes in intermittent motion, and at the end of the nerve fibers it spreads continuously. 35. Excitation in myelinated isolated nerve fibers is conducted … Variants of answer: а) it spreads continuously and the whole fiber is seized with excitation; b) it goes in intermittent motion and the whole fiber is not seized by exci- tation; в) following the movement of axoplasm; -г) at first it spreads continuously, and at the end of the nerve fibers excita- tion goes in intermittent motion; e) all the answers are correct. 36. The velocity of signal conduction along myelinated nerve fibers in comparison with unmyelinated ones is… Variants of answer: а) slower; 116  b) identical; a c) higher; d) does not have a constant rate; e) all the answers are correct. 37. One-direction transmission of signals, synaptic delay, low lability, in- creased fatigability, transformation of excitation rhythm, high sensitivity to drugs and poisons are typical for… Variants of answer: а) electric synapses; b) mixed synapses; - c) chemical synapses; d) electric and mixed synapses; e) all the answers are correct. 38. What appears on the postsynaptic membrane under the influence of excitatory neurotransmitters? Variants of answer: а) an inhibitory postsynaptic potential; - b) an excitatory postsynaptic potential; c) inhibition of an excitatory postsynaptic potential; d) no changes of the postsynaptic membrane occur; e) an action potential. 39. How does the poison of curare affect synaptic conduction? Variants of answer: а) it facilitates the interactions of the postsynaptic membrane with the cholinergic receptor; b) it causes blockade of the cholinergic receptor of the postsynaptic mem- - branes; c) the synaptic conduction is enhanced; d) it does not affect the synaptic conduction; e) it decreases the mediator synthesis. 40. The processes of fatigue of neuromuscular preparation earlier devel- op in… Variants of answer: - а) synapses; b) skeletal muscle; c) nerve body; d) nerve fiber; e) simultaneously in all the structures. 117  41. Which statement about the Na+-K+ pump is true? Variants of answer: a a) K+ is pumped against the gradient; b) 2K+ are exchanged with 5Na+; c) it pumps out one Na+ for one K+ ; d) hypercalcemia causes arrest in the Na+ K+ pump; e) it can transmit Na+ in and out of cells. 42. The resting membrane potential is formed mainly due to… Variants of answer: a) Na+; b) Ca2+; c) Cl ; d) Mg2+; - e) K+. 43. Which statement about nerve impulses is true? a) they travel in one direction through axons; b) if currents increase too slowly, nerves respond rapidly; - c) they travel in one direction along synapses; d) they travel at the speed of an electric current; e) all the answers are correct. 44. A travelling nerve impulse does not depolarize the area immediately behind it, because this area … Variants of answer: a) is hyperpolarized; - b) is at the refractory period; c) is not self-propagating; d) the conduction is always orthodromic; e) all the answers are correct. 45. The unidirectional conduction of nerve impulses is found in… Variants of answer: - a) synapses; b) axons; c) dendrites; d) all of the above-mentioned; e) none of the above-mentioned. 46. Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because: Variants of answer: a) the dendrities cannot be depolarized; 118  b) once repolarized, the area cannot be depolarized; c) the strength of antidromic impulses is lower; d) the chemical mediator is localized only in the presynaptic terminal; e) all the answers are correct. 47. Which of the following statements is true about excitatory postsyn- aptic potentials? Variants of answer: a) they are self-propagating; b) they induce no response; At c) they are proportional to the amount of the transmitter released by the presynaptic neuron; d) they are inhibitory at presynaptic terminal; e) none of the above-mentioned statements are true. 48. Nerve fibers involved in proprioception are: Variants of answer: Br a) type A fiber; b) type B fiber; c) type C fiber; d) type IV fiber; e) J fiber. 49. Type B nerve fibers are placed in: Variants of answer: a) muscle spindles; b) fibers carrying pain sensation; -c) preganglionic autonomic fibers; d) postganglionic autonomic fibers; e) all the answers are correct. 50. The inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS neurons is… Variants of answer: a) glutamate; b) aspartate; kc) gamma-amino butyric acid; d) noradrenaline; e) all the answers are correct. 119  PHYSIOLOGY OF MUSCLES 1. A motor unit is … Variants of answer: а) a group of quickly contractile muscle fibers; b) a group of quickly and slowly contractile muscle fibers; c) a motoneuron and a group of muscle fibers innervated by it; - d) a motoneuron; e) one (single) contraction. 2. By their structure, motor units are divided into…. Variants of answer: - а) big and small; b) fast and slow; c) multi-unit and unitary; d) sarcoplasmic and myofibrillary; e) actinic and myosinic. 3. By the functional value and rate of contractions, motor units are di- vided into… Variants of answer: а) big and small; -b) fast and slow; c) multi-unit and unitary; d) sarcoplasmic and myofibrillary; e) actinic and myosinic. 4. Muscle contractions with the constant length of muscles are called… Variants of answer: - а) isometric; b) isotonic; c) auxotonic; d) auxometric; e) tonic. 5. What is typical for isometric contractions? Variants of answer: а) muscle changes its strain but does not change length; - b) muscle is shortened but does not change its strain; c) lower muscle tension when muscle length is reduced; d) constant muscle tension when muscle is elongated (stretched); e) constant muscle tension at the constant length. 120  6. What is typical for isotonic contractions? Variants of answer: а) muscle changes its strain but does not change its length; a b) muscle is shortened but does not change its strain; c) muscle tension is lower when the muscle length is reduced; d) muscle length is constant in decreased muscle tension; e) muscle tension is constant in constant muscle length. 7. Auxotonic (mixed) contractions are characterized by… Variants of answer: а) constant muscle strain when muscle is shortened; b) constant muscle length when the size of muscle strain increases; - c) changes of the strain and length of muscle; d) constant muscle tension when it is elongated (stretched); e) constant muscle tension and length of muscles. 8. Muscle contractions with long intervals between stimuli are called… Variants of answer: а) smooth tetanus; b) dentate tetanus; - c) single contractions; d) pessimal contractions; е) optimal contractions. 9. Which order of the phases of single muscle contractions is correct? Variants of answer: а) phase of relaxation, shortening phase, latent phase; b) shortening phase, phase of relaxation, latent phase; - c) latent phase, shortening phase, phase of relaxation; d) shortening phase, latent phase, phase of relaxation; e) latent phase, phase of relaxation, shortening phase. 10. Contractions during frequent stimulation of muscles are called… Variants of answer: - а) tetanus; b) single contractions; c) pessimum; d) optimum; e) maximum. 121  11. What is contracture (cramp)? Variants of answer: а) the time between the action of a stimulus and the beginning of a mus- cle contraction; - b) a steady continuous stationary reversible contraction of muscle with its strongly prolonged relaxation; c) the ability of muscle to change its strain during stretching; d) long and strong muscle contractions influenced by the rhythm of signals with consequent rapid relaxation; e) the change of the length or strain of muscle. 12. During which phase of single muscle contractions is it necessary to in- fluence the next stimulation in order to induce dentate tetanus? Variants of answer: а) during the latent period; b) during the period of shortening; -c) during relaxation; d) during the refractory period; e) during any of the periods. 13. During which phase of single muscle contractions is it necessary to in- fluence the next stimulation in order to induce smooth tetanus? Variants of answer: а) during the latent period; -b) during the period of shortening; c) during relaxation; d) during the refractory period; e) during any of the periods. 14. Why does smooth tetanus arise in rhythmic stimulation of muscles with the high frequency? Variants of answer: а) incomplete summation of single muscle contractions occurs; - b) complete summation of single muscle contractions occurs; c) there is separation of the phases of excitation and excitability; d) summation of single muscle contractions does not occur; e) all the answers are correct. 15. Which type of tetanus has the highest amplitude of muscle contrac- tions? Variants of answer: aа) smooth; b) dentate; 122  c) mixed; d) pessimal; e) smooth and dentate. 16. The strength of muscle is … Variants of answer: - а) the weight of the maximal load lifted at a height; b) the maximal rate at which the muscle can be contracted; c) the weight of the minimal load lifted at height; d) the weight of the minimal load lifted at height and divided by the ana- tomical cross-section; e) all the answers are correct. 17. The absolute force of muscle contractions depends on… Variants of answer: а) the anatomic cross-section of muscles; b) the physiological cross-section of muscles; a c) the anatomic and physiological diameter; d) the strength of the stimulus; e) all the answers are correct. 18. How does the amplitude of a single muscle contraction depend on the strength of stimulation (threshold or superthreshold)? Variants of answer: а) the amplitude is higher under the influence of the superthreshold stimulus; - b) the amplitude is lower under the influence of the superthreshold stimulus; c) the amplitude is identical in both the cases; d) muscle fiber does not contract in either case; e) all the answers are correct. 19. Does the force of contractions of skeletal muscles depend on the strength of stimulation? Variants of answer: - а) yes; b) no; c) only for the suprathroshold stimulus; d) yes, during physical activity; e) yes, during mental activity. 20. Which rhythm of muscle work is called optimum? Variants of answer: - а) when the work is maximal; 123  b) during which the maximum amount of energy is consumed; c) during which the maximal force of muscles develops; d) during which the maximum amount of oxygen is used; e) all the answers are correct. 21. Muscles are capable to perform their maximal work if loads are? Variants of answer: а) minimal; - b) maximal; c) average; d) pessimal; e) any loads. 22. Which order of processes which lead to a muscle contraction is correct? Variants of answer: - а) stimulation — origin of an action potential — its conduction along the cell membrane — conduction of the action potential deep into fibers by trans- verse tubules — release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum — interac- tion between actin and myosin filaments; b) stimulation — origin of an action potential — its conduction along the cell membrane — conduction of the action potential deep into fibers by trans- verse tubules — interaction between actin and myosin filaments; c) origin of an action potential — stimulation — its conduction along the cell membrane — conduction of the action potential deep into fibers by trans- verse tubules — interaction between actin and myosin filaments — release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum; d) stimulation — origin of an action potential — its conduction along the cell membrane — release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum — con- duction of the action potential deep into fibers by transverse tubules — inter- action between actin and myosin filaments; e) stimulation — release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum — origin of an action potential — its conduction along the cell membrane — con- duction of the action potential deep into fibers by transverse tubules — inter- action between actin and myosin filaments. 23. What ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during excitation? Variants of answer: а) potassium; b) chlorine; c) sodium; - d) calcium; e) all answers are correct. 124  24. What inhibits the binding of myosin with actin? Variants of answer: а) actin; b) heavy meromyosin; - c) tropomyosin; d) myosin; e) all the answers are correct. 25. Muscle relaxation is caused by… Variants of answer: а) Са2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum; b) blocking of ATPase; c) active transport of Са2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum; - d) the formation of bridges between actin and myosin; e) all the answers are correct. 26. The energy of ATP is used in muscles for … Variants of answer: а) the work of the Nа+-K+-pump; b) the process of «sliding» of actin and myosin of filaments; c) all the answers are correct; - d) the process of disconnection between actin and myosin; e) active transport of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 27. What will happen to muscle tone after transection of the ventral roots of the spinal cord? Variants of answer: - а) it will disappear; b) it will not change; c) the tone of extensor will increase; d) the tone of flexors will increase; e) it will increase. 28. What are the types of muscle hypertrophy? Variants of answer: а) presynaptic and postsynaptic; -b) myofibrillary and sarcoplasmic type; c) big and small; d) actinic and myosinic; e) all the answers are correct. 29. Automaticity, lower resting potential, rather slow and long tonic con- traction are typical for… Variants of answer: -а) smooth muscles; 125  b) skeletal muscles; c) cardiac muscles; d) all the types of muscles; e) none of the specified types of muscles. 30. The ability of smooth muscles to keep the given length without any change of strain is called… Variants of answer: а) automatism of muscles; -b) plasticity of muscles; с) excitability; d) dynamicity; e) conductivity. CORRECT ANSWERS PHYSIOLOGY OF EXCITABLE TISSUES LAWS OF STIMULATION AND ASSESSMENT OF EXCITABILITY. PHYSIOLOGY OF NERVE TISSUES. PHYSIOLOGY OF SYNAPSES № Correct № Correct № Correct № Correct question answers question answers question answers question answers 1 с 14 c 27 c 40 a 2 d 15 c 28 d 41 a 3 c 16 a 29 c 42 e 4 a 17 c 30 c 43 c 5 c 18 c 31 a 44 b 6 a 19 c 32 e 45 a 7 a 20 d 33 d 46 d 8 d 21 c 34 b 47 c 9 d 22 b 35 b 48 a 10 c 23 b 36 c 49 c 11 d 24 a 37 c 50 c 12 a 25 c 38 b 13 b 26 c 39 b PHYSIOLOGY OF MUSCLES № Correct № Correct № Correct № Correct question answers question answers question answers question answers 1 c 9 c 17 b 25 c 2 a 10 a 18 c 26 c 3 b 11 b 19 a 27 a 4 a 12 c 20 a 28 b 5 a 13 b 21 b 29 a 6 b 14 b 22 a 30 b 7 c 15 a 23 d 8 c 16 a 24 c 126  Multiple Choice Questions GENERAL PHYSIOLOGY OF THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM 1. A reflex is… Variants of answer: - а) an organism`s response to the action of a stimulus with the participa- tion of the CNS; b) an organism`s response to the action of a stimulus without the partici- pation of the CNS; c) a sensitive structure which perceives stimuli from the external and in- ternal environments; d) a response of the external environment on the functions of the human body; e) the contact between two neurons or between a neuron and an effector cell. 2. The duration of reflexes is estimated from the moment of the influence of a stimulus up to … Variants of answer: - а) the occurrence of a response; b) the termination of its action; c) the termination of a response; d) achievement of an useful adaptive result; e) all the answers are correct. 3. When will a response arise if the receptors in the reflex arch are blocked? Variants of answer: а) within 1–3 seconds; b) within 5–7 seconds; - c) no response will arise; d) within 2–5 seconds; e) within 5 minutes. 4. What are the basic physiological functions of the neuroglia? Variants of answer: - а) support, trophic, insulating functions; b) maintenance of the process of central inhibition; c) ascending activating influence on the cerebral cortex; d) transmission of nerve impulses; e) all the answers are correct. 142  5. Temporal summation in the nerve center is caused by… Variants of answer: а) the simultaneous excitation of several closely located synapses; - b) the increased frequency of impulses; c) the decreased strength of impulses; d) the increased strength of impulses; e) all the answers are correct. 6. Spatial summation in the nerve center is caused by… Variants of answer: а) simultaneous excitation of several closely located synapses; - b) the increased frequency of impulses; c) the decreased frequency of impulses; d) the increased strength of impulses; e) all the answers are correct. 7. Under the influence of fatigue the duration of reflexes … Variants of answer: а) decreases; b) does not change; - c) increases; d) at first increases, then decreases; e) all the answers are correct. 8. The ability of neurons to make many synaptic connections with vari- ous nervous cells is called… Variants of answer: а) convergence; b) prolongation; - c) divergence; d) summation; e) transformation of rhythm. 9. The junction of various ways to the same nervous cell is called… Variants of answer: - а) convergence; b) prolongation; c) divergence; d) summation; e) transformation. 143  10. Due to which process neurons can receive signals from several affer- ent neurons? Variants of answer: - а) convergence; b) afferent synthesis; c) temporal summation; d) divergence; e) inhibition. 11. Spatial summation of signals is provided by… Variants of answer: а) divergence; b) the presence of feedback; c) convergence; M d) induction; e) inhibition. 12. Excitation through the nerve centers is conducted faster than along nerve fibers. Variants of answer: а) it is true; - b) it is false; c) it is identical; d) it depends on the nerve center; e) it depends on the types of nervous fibers. 13. Which reflexes have the minimum duration? Variants of answer: а) secretory; b) vasomotor; c) viscerovisceral; - d) tendinous; е) viscerodermal. 14. What is reverberation? Variants of answer: а) chaotic distribution of excitation in the CNS; b) increased or reduced number of signals in a closed neural network; с) the аbility of neurons to make many synaptic connections with various nervous cells; -d) long circulation of nervous signals in a closed neural network; е) all the answers are correct. 144  15. Inhibition in the CNS is … Variants of answer: - а) an active nervous process resulting in weakened or depressed excitation; b) a passive process connected with the development of fatigue; с) long circulation of nervous signals in a closed neural network; d) chaotic distribution of excitation in the CNS; е) all the answers are correct. 16. Which role does inhibition play in the work of the nerve centers? Variants of answer: а) it switches the reflex arch in response to stimulation; b) it stimulates the work of the nerve centers; c) it carries out protective, regulating, and coordinating functions; - d) it provides integration of the CNS cells in the nerve centers; е) all the answers are correct. 17. The Renshaw cells are found in … and their functional value is... Variants of answer: а) the cortex of the cerebrum, stimulating action; b) the cerebellum, coordination of complex motion activity; c) the spinal cord, inhibiting action on motoneurons; - d) the medulla, to ensure the functioning of the vasomotor center; е) all the answers are correct. 18. The inhibition of a neuron by the impulses of the inhibitory cell, which is activated by the axon collaterals of this neuron is called… Variants of answer: а) reciprocal; b) forward; A c) recurrent; d) lateral; е) cortical. 19. Inhibition of the same afferent fibers causing excitation of one group of neurons and inhibition of the other group of neurons is called… Variants of answer: а) pessimal; -b) reciprocal; c) antidromic. d) lateral; е) cortical. 145  20. A physiological process during which excitation of the pressor de- partment of the vasomotor center is accompanied by inhibition of the de- pressor department is called… Variants of answer: а) convergence; - b) reciprocal inhibition; c) divergence; d) summation; e) transformation of rhythm. 21. Presynaptic inhibition develops in… Variants of answer: а) axo-somatic synapses; b) somatosomatic synapses; c) axoaxonic synapses; - d) axodendritic synapses; е) all the answers are correct. 22. The structural basis of presynaptic inhibition is… Variants of answer: a а) axoaxonic synapses; b) axo-somatic synapses; c) axodendritic synapses; d) somatosomatic synapses; е) all the answers are correct. 23. The interaction of neurons, and, hence, nervous processes is called… Variants of answer: a а) coordination; b) plasticity; c) divergence; d) convergence; е) reciprocal inhibition. 24. Which properties does the dominant have? Variants of answer: а) hyperexcitability; b) inertia; - c) all the answers are correct; d) the ability to sum up excitation; е) the ability to disinhibit. 146  25. The phenomenon when the simultaneous action of two strong afferent signals causes a weaker effect than the sum of their separate effects is called… Variants of answer: а) inhibition; - b) occlusion; c) lowering transformation; d) convergence; е) plasticity. 4.2. PARTICULAR PHYSIOLOGY OF THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM 4.2.1. Physiology of the spinal cord The CNS is divided into parts by structure, development, and functions. By structure, the CNS is divided into the spinal cord, metencephal (myelencepha- lon, cerebellum, mesencephalon), mediate (thalamus, hypothalamus), and ne- oncephalon (basal nuclei, limbic system, cortex of the cerebrum). 4.2.1.1. Reflex activity of the spinal cord The spinal cord is the most ancient structure of the СNS, which is proved by its segmentary structure. The segments are regions of the spinal cord with two pairs of dorsal and ventral roots growing from it. The spinal cord executes two basic functions (Figure 4.15.): 1. Reflex activity. 2. Conductive function (innervates all musculation except for the head muscles). Functions of the spinal cord Reflex activity of spinal cord Conductive function of spinal cord Vegetative reflexes: Motor reflexes 1. Reflexes of urogenital system. 2. Reflexes of intestine. 3. Reflexes of vascular system. Monosynaptic reflexes Polysynaptic reflexes 4. Body temperature. 5. Respiratory movement, etc Rhythmic reflexes: walking in human Posture reflexes Cervical reflexes Figure 4.15 — Functions of the spinal cord 147  Multiple Choice Questions PARTICULAR PHYSIOLOGY OF THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM 1. Which spinal roots are damaged in an animal if it has all kinds of sen- sitivity on both the sides of the body and no motor reactions on the right side? Variants of answer: a а) the ventral root of the spinal nerve on the right side; b) the dorsal root of the spinal nerve from the left side; с) the dorsal root of the spinal nerve on the right side; d) the dorsal root of the spinal nerve on the right and left sides; e) the ventral root of the spinal nerve on the right and left sides. 2. The reflex arches of …reflexes are not located in the spinal cord. Variants of answer: а) elbow; b) intestines; I c) conditioned; d) urination; е) knee. 3. Which departments of the CNS are linked to posture maintenance, mastication, swallowing, secretion of the digestive glands, respiration, heart activity, regulation of the tone of the blood vessels? Variants of answer: а) the mesencephalon; b) the thalamus; - c) the afterbrain; d) the spinal cord; e) the cerebellum. 4. Why is normal functioning of the medulla vitally important? Variants of answer: а) because the centers of tonic reflexes are located there; - b) because the centers of respiratory and cardiovascular reflexes are lo- cated there; c) because the centers of salivation and swallowing are located there; d) because the centers of vomiting are located there; e) because the centers of sneezing and coughing are located there. 187  5. How are the reflexes providing balance called if there are any changes in speed and movement directions? Variants of answer: а) static; A b) statokinetic; c) vegetative; d) food; e) defensive. 6. Orienting visual and auditory reflexes are regulated by… Variants of answer: а) the afterbrain; b) the thalamus; - c) the mesencephalon; d) the cerebellum; e) the spinal cord. 7. The basic function of the quadrigeminal plate of the midbrain is… Variants of answer: а) to regulate homeostasis of all the vegetative functions; a b) to realize the orientation reactions on acoustical and visual stimuli; c) to regulate muscle tone; d) to participate in the mechanisms of memory; d) all the answers are correct. 8. The basic function of the black substance of the midbrain is… Variants of answer: - а) to participate in the complex coordination of movements and regula- tion of muscle tone; b) to participate in the mechanisms of memory; c) to regulate biorhythms; d) to act as the center of pain sensitivity; d) all the answers are correct. 9. What develops in animals after transection of the brainstem below the level of the red nucleus and how this influences the tone of extensor muscles? Variants of answer: a а) decerebrate rigidity develops, and the tone sharply rises; b) muscle atrophy develops, and the tone sharply rises. c) denervation develops; d) muscle hypertrophy develops, and the tone sharply reduces; e) ataxia develops, and the tone is disturbed. 188  10. The nuclei of which cranial nerves are located in the midbrain? Variants of answer: - а) III and IV; b) V—VIII; c) IX—XII; d) V—XII; е) the midbrain contains no nuclei of cranial nerves. 11. Damages of the cerebellum do not result in … Variants of answer: а) disorders of movement coordination; b) loss of consciousness; I c) changes of muscle tone; d) vegetative disturbances; e) all the answers are correct. 12. Damages of which department of the CNS do not cause ataxy, atony, astasia, adiadochokinesia, asynergia? Variants of answer: а) the thalamus; b) the spinal cord; c) the afterbrain; - d) the cerebellum; e) the hypothalamus. 13. Which part of the CNS has an activation influence on the cerebral cortex? Variants of answer: a) the hypothalamus; b) the reticular formation; - c) the subcortical nucleus. d) the thalamus; e) all the answers are correct. 14. The thalamus is … Variants of answer: а) a regulator of all the motor functions; b) a regulator of muscle tone; a c) a collector of afferent pathways, the highest center of pain sensitivity; d) a regulator of the digestive system; e) all the answers are correct. 189  15. The medial geniculate bodies transfer impulses into the cortical cen- ter of… Variants of answer: а) the visual analyzer; - b) the acoustic analyzer; c) the motor analyzer; d) the pain analyzer; e) all the answers are correct. 16. The lateral geniculate bodies transfer impulses into the cortical cen- ter of… Variants of answer: - а) the visual analyzer; b) the skin analyzer; c) the acoustic analyzer; d) the pain analyzer; e) all the answers are correct. 17. What is the highest subcortical center of the ANS and all the major vegetative functions? Variants of answer: а) the cerebellum; A b) the hypothalamus; c) the medulla; d) the spinal cord; e) the thalamus. 18. The functional zones of the cerebral cortex are… Variants of answer: а) only sensory; b) only motor; c) both motor and sensory; - d) motor, sensory, and associative; e) sensory and associative. 19. If the primary projective areas of the visual analyzer in the cerebral cortex are damaged, the person … Variants of answer: - а) loses vision; b) sees images, but does not understand the value of signals; c) has no impairment in the visual analyzer; d) loses color vision; e) cannot determine the distance to objects. 190  20. The functions of which part of the cerebral cortex will be affected in hemorrhage within the area of the temporal lobe? Variants of answer: -а) the primary acoustical cortex; b) the primary visual cortex; c) the primary somatosensory cortex; d) the primary motor cortex; e) the primary visual cortex and motor cortex. 21. The functions of which zone of the cerebral cortex will be affected in extensive hemorrhage within the area of the occipital cortex? Variants of answer: а) the primary acoustical cortex; -b) the primary visual cortex; c) the primary motor cortex; d) the primary somatosensory cortex; e) the primary associative cortex. 22. The alpha rhythm of the electroencephalogram is registered in a person … Variants of answer: а) during active mental work; a b) at rest and absence of external stimuli; c) when the person is falling asleep; d) under anesthesia; e) has disturbed brain function. 23. The beta rhythm of the electroencephalogram is registered in a per- son … Variants of answer: - а) during active mental work; b) at rest and absence of external stimuli; c) when the person is falling asleep; d) under anesthesia; e) has disturbed brain function. 24. The division of the ANS into departments is based on… Variants of answer: -а) all the answers are correct; b) on the localization of the brain centers; 191  c) on the character of the influence on the functions of the organs; d) on the secreted mediator; e) on the location of the vegetative ganglia. 25. The preganglionic neurons of the sympahthetic nervous system are located in… Variants of answer: а) the sacral department of the spinal cord, medulla, and midbrain: -b) the thoracal-lumbar segments of the spinal cord; c) the basal nucleus; d) the geniculate bodies; e) the black substance. 26. Which body functions do not belong to the vegetative functions? Variants of answer: I а) the motor functions performed by skeletal muscles; b) blood circulation; c) respiration; d) excretion; e) the motor functions performed by smooth muscles. 27. The centers of the parasympathetic nervous system are located in... Variants of answer: а) the department of the spinal cord and reticular formation; b) the sacral department of the spinal cord, medulla and midbrain; a c) the basal nucleus; d) the geniculate bodies; e) the black substance. 28. Which organs do not have parasympathetic innervation? Variants of answer: а) the lungs, liver, kidneys, adrenal glands; b) the salivary glands, stomach, small intestine, spleen; - c) the skeletal muscles, CNS, most blood vessels, uterus, sweat glands; d) the pancreas, bronchi, heart, esophagus; e) smooth muscles, the large intestine. 29. The metasympathetic nervous system … Variants of answer: aа) all the answers are correct; b) possesses a relative independence; c) is located in the walls of the internal organs; 192  d) can regulate the activity of the internal organs by means of the periph- eral reflex arches. e) is a complex of the microganglionic formations forming the nervous plexus. 30. The viscerodermal reflexes arise under the stimulation of the internal organs and can result in … Variants of answer: -а) changes of sweat secretion and skin sensitivity; b) changes of the internal organs; c) changes of cardiac activity; d) changes in the activity of the digestive system; e) all the answers are correct. 31. Which of the following chemicals acts as the major neurotransmitter in the substantia nigra? Variants of answer: -a) dopamine; b) noradrenaline; c) acetylcholine; d) serotonin; e) none of the above. 32. The nucleus of the basal ganglia includes… Variants of answer: a) the dentate nucleus; b) the thalamus; a c) the caudate nucleus; d) the red nucleus; e) the blue nucleus. 33. The efferent fiber bundle of the substantia nigra releases dopamine to one of the following areas… Variants of answer: a) the thalamus; -b) the corpus striatum; c) the pontine tegmentum; d) the tectum of the midbrain; e) all the answers are correct. 34. The output from the cerebellum is solely from… Variants of answer: a) Basket cells; 193  b) Granular cells; c) oligodendrocytes; - d) Purkinje cells; e) pyramidal cells. 35. The function of the hypothalamus is… Variants of answer: a) the regulation of temperature; b) the synthesis of antidiuretic hormone; c) the regulation of food intake; d) hypophyseal control; -e) all the answers are correct. 36. Which of the following states of a patient do the Beta waves of the electroencephalogram reflect? Variants of answer: a) deep anesthesia; b) surgical anesthesia; c) light anesthesia, the eyes are closed, relaxed; -d) awake/alert state; e) when a patient is at rest, there are no external stimuli, the eyes are closed. 37. The EEG waves from the hippocampus are… Variants of answer: a) the alpha-waves; b) the beta-waves; - c) theta-waves; d) the delta-waves; e) none of the above. 38. The functions of Broca’s area are linked to… Variants of answer: - a) word formation; b) comprehension; c) repetition; d) reading; e) all the answers are correct. 39. Sympathetic stimulation causes all of the following except… Variants of answer: a) high heart rate; b) high blood pressure; 194  c) high total peripheral resistance; - d) high venous capacitance; e) pupillary dilatation. 40. Parasympathetic stimulation causes… Variants of answer: a) decreased gastrointestinal secretion; b) bronchodilation; c) sweat secretion; - d) pupillary constriction; e) high heart rate. CORRECT ANSWERS NERVOUS REGULATION OF PHYSIOLOGICAL FUNCTIONS GENERAL PHYSIOLOGY OF THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM № Correct № Correct № Correct № Correct question answers question answers question answers question answers 1 a 8 c 15 a 22 a 2 a 9 a 16 c 23 a 3 c 10 a 17 c 24 c 4 a 11 c 18 c 25 b 5 b 12 b 19 b 6 a 13 d 20 b 7 c 14 d 21 c PARTICULAR PHYSIOLOGY OF THE СNS № Correct № Correct № Correct № Correct question answers question answers question answers question answers 1 a 11 b 21 b 31 a 2 c 12 d 22 b 32 c 3 c 13 b 23 a 33 b 4 b 14 c 24 a 34 d 5 b 15 b 25 b 35 e 6 c 16 a 26 а 36 d 7 b 17 b 27 b 37 c 8 a 18 d 28 c 38 a 9 a 19 a 29 a 39 d 10 a 20 a 30 a 40 d I ⑮ 195  Multiple Choice Questions PHYSIOLOGY OF THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM 1. What kinds of action can hormones provide? Variants of answer: а) metabolic; - b) all the answers correct; - c) morphogenetic; d) kinetic; e) correcting. 2. Hormone receptors are localized … Variants of answer: а) in blood hemoglobin; - b) in the cells of target organs; - c) in the endothelial cells of the blood vessels; d) in blood plasma; e) within the surface layers of the skin. 3. Where are tropic hormones produced? Variants of answer: а) in the hypothalamus; - -b) in the hypophysis; c) in the adrenal glands; d) in the pancreas; e) in the thyroid gland. 4. Which hormones are produced in the anterior lode of the hypophysis? Variants of answer: а) oxytocin, vasopressin, melanotropin; - b) somatotropin, corticotropin, follicle-stimulating hormone; c) prolactin, luteinizing hormone, lipotropin; d) antidiuretic hormone, adrenaline, parathormone; v e) thyrotropin, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids. 5. Which hormone stimulates protein synthesis in muscles? - Variants of answer: а) parathormone; - b) somatotropin; c) antidiuretic hormone; 233  d) thyrotropin; e) adrenaline. 6. Which hormone stimulates bone tissue growth? Variants of answer: а) somatotropin; -b) parathormone; v c) adrenaline; d) thyrotropin; e) glucocorticoids. 7. How does somatotropin activate the plastic processes in the organism? Variants of answer: а) it increases amino acid transport in cells; b) it increases the synthesis of protein in ribosomes; c) it activates the synthesis of the DNA, RNA; d) it retains nitrogen in the body; W a e) all the answers are correct. 8. During sleep the level of somatotropin secretion … Variants of answer: а) decreases; a b) increases; - c) does not change; d) at first decreases, then increases; e) at first increases, then decreases. 9. Which hormone stimulates estrogen synthesis? Variants of answer: а) thyrotropin; b) somatotropin; v - c) follicle-stimulating hormone; d) aldosterone; e) melanotropin. 10. Which hormone stimulates progesterone synthesis? Variants of answer: а) prolactin; ~ - b) luteinizing hormone; c) thyrotropin; d) aldosterone; e) melanotropin. 234  11. The production of which hormones does luteinizing hormone regulate? Variants of answer: -а) prolactin, progesterone; b) glucocorticoids; - c) mineralocorticoids; d) thyroxin, calcitonin; e) insulin, glucagon. 12. Which hormone stimulates the synthesis of glucocorticoids? Variants of answer: а) luteinizing hormone; b) corticotropin; - c) antidiuretic hormone; W d) thyrotropin; e) melanotropin. 13. Which hormone stimulates lactation? Variants of answer: а) parathormone; b) aldosterone; ~ c) prolactin; - d) thyroxin; e) calcitonin. 14. Which hormone influences skin pigmentation? Variants of answer: а) thyrotropin; b) prolactin; v - c) melanotropin; d) thyroxin; e) calcitonin. 15. Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions? Variants of answer: - а) oxytocin; b) progesterone; w c) somatotropin; d) thyrotropin; e) melanotropin. 235  16. Where is oxytocin synthesized? Variants of answer: а) in the neurohypophysis; ✓ b) in the adrenal glands; - c) in the hypothalamus; d) in the thyroid gland; e) in the pancreas. 17. Where is oxytocin deposited? Variants of answer: а) in the adrenal glands; ✓ b) in the thyroid gland; c) in the adenohypophysis; I d) in the neurohypophysis; e) in the pancreas. 18. What are the effects of oxytocin action? Variants of answer: а) stimulation of uterine contractions; - b) all the answers are correct; c) contractions of the smooth muscles of the ducts of mammary glands; d) regulation of the water-salt exchange; e) regulation of drinking behavior. 19. The basic action of vasopressin is the stimulation of… Variants of answer: - а) water reabsorption; b) potassium reabsorption; - + c) Н ion reabsorption; d) protein reabsorption; e) glucose reabsorption. 20. How does antidiuretic hormone influence the permeability of the col- lective tubules of the nephrons to water? Variants of answer: а) it decreases; ☆ b) it increases; c) it does not change; d) at first it decreases, then increases; e) at first it increases, then decreases. 236  21. How does antidiuretic hormone influence diuresis? Variants of answer: okа) it decreases; b) it increases; c) it does not change; d) at first it decreases, then increases; e) at first it increases, then decreases. 22. What hormones are produced by the thyroid gland? Variants of answer: а) somatotropin, thyrotropin; b) estriol, progesterone; c) thyroxin, calcitonin; ✓ - d) glucocorticoids; e) mineralocorticoids. 23. How does thyroxin influence metabolism? Variants of answer: - а) it increases basal metabolism; ✓ b) it decreases basal metabolism; c) it does not influence metabolism; d) at first it decreases basal metabolism, then increases it; e) at first it increases basal metabolism, then decreases it. 24. Underactive thyroid function in adults causes the development of… Variants of answer: а) Addison’s disease; ✓ b) Basedow’s disease; - c) myxedema; d) Cushing’s disease; e) acromegaly. 25. Overactive thyroid function in adults causes the development of… Variants of answer: а) Addison’s disease; ✓ s b) Basedow’s disease; c) myxedema; d) Cushing’s disease; e) acromegaly. 237  26. The lack of which hormone in children causes inhibited growth with- out disproportionate constitution or any delay of intellectual development? Variants of answer: а) thyroxin, triiodthyronine; - b) somatotropin; ✓ c) parathormone; d) aldosterone; e) insulin. 27. If a patient`s basal metabolism is increased by 45 %, then most likely this patient has the increased function of… Variants of answer: а) the epiphysis; b) the beta cell of the pancreas; ✓ c) the cortex of the adrenal glands; r d) the thyroid gland; e) the pancreas. 28. Which hormone decreases the Са2+ level in the blood? Variants of answer: а) parathormone; b) thyroxin; - c) thyrocalcitonin; r d) adrenaline; e) thyrotropin. 29. Which endocrine gland is the integrator of the immune and endo- crine systems of the organism? Variants of answer: а) adenohypophysis; b) neurohypophysis; ✓ ☆ c) thymus; d) adrenal glands; e) thyroid gland. 30. Which endocrine gland produces hormones which influence the blood glucose level? Variants of answer: а) parathyroid gland; b) pancreas; c) parotid gland; 238  d) adrenal glands; e) thyroid gland. 31. Which hormone decreases the blood glucose level? Variants of answer: а) thyroxin; b) estradiol; - c) insulin; - d) aldosterone; e) parathormone. 32. Which endocrine gland produces hormones which influence mineral exchange? Variants of answer: а) thymus; b) ovary; - c) adrenal glands; ✓ d) pancreas; e) all the answers are correct. 33. How does aldosterone influence the formation of urine? Variants of answer: а) it decreases the reabsorption of Na + into the blood; b) increases the reabsorption of Са2+ into the blood; c) increases the reabsorption of Na + into the blood; - ✓ d) increases the reabsorption of protein into the blood; e) decreases the reabsorption of glucose into the blood. 34. Which hormone stimulates the synthesis of proteins in the liver? Variants of answer: а) follicle-stimulating hormone; b) adrenaline; c) cortisol; ✓ - d) adrenaline; e) parathormone. 35. Which hormone has the anti-inflammatory effect? Variants of answer: а) hydrocortisone; b) aldosterone; c) thyroxin; d) adrenaline; e) glucagon. 239  36. Which hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis? Variants of answer: - а) cortisol; b) aldosterone; c) oxytocin; d) adrenaline; ✓ e) calcitonin. 37. The atrophy of the cortex of the adrenal glands causes the develop- ment of… Variants of answer: - а) Addison’s diseases; b) Basedow’s diseases; ✓ c) myxedema; d) Cuching’s diseases; e) diabetes mellitus. 38. Which hormone regulates the production of glucocorticoids? Variants of answer: а) oxytocin; b) somatotropin; - c) adrenocorticotropic hormone; - d) prolactin; e) aldosterone. 39. How do big dozes of adrenaline influence the formation of urine? Variants of answer: а) it decreases; b) it increases; c) it does not change; d) at first it decreases, then it increases; e) at first it increases, then it decreases. 40. How does adrenaline influence the eye pupil? Variants of answer: а) adrenaline narrows it; - b) adrenaline enlarges it; c) adrenaline does not influence the eye pupil; d) at first adrenaline narrows and then enlarges it; ✓ e) at first adrenaline enlarges and then narrows it. 240 41. Which hormone decreases the secretion of gastric juice? Variants of answer: а) prolactin; b) noradrenalin; - c) thyroxin; - d) calcitonin; e) melanotropin. 42. Which hormone decreases the motor activity of the intestines? Variants of answer: а) luteinizing hormone; 2 - b) noradrenalin; c) glucagons; d) prolactin; e) aldosterone. 43. Which hormone regulates male sexual behavior? Variants of answer: а) aldosterone; b) testosterone; - c) insulin; - d) prolactin; e) calcitonin. 44. Which hormones are produced by the ovaries? Variants of answer: а) somatotropin, thyrotropin; b) estriol, progesterone; - w c) thyroxin, calcitonin; d) glucocorticoids; e) mineralocorticoids. 45. Which hormones increase the blood glucose level? Variants of answer: а) parathormone, prolactin; v - b) thyroxin, cortisol, adrenaline, glucagon; c) aldosterone, insulin, calcitonin; d) oxytocin, antidiuretic hormone; e) luteinizing hormone, follice-stimulating hormone. 241  46. Which hormones play an important role in the adaptation of the or- ganism to stressful factors? Variants of answer: ~ а) glucagon, mineralocorticoids; - b) catecholamines, glucocorticoids; c) glucocorticoids, testosterone, estrogens; d) parathormone, prolactin; e) luteinizing hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone. 47. Which hormones participate in the regulation of protein metabolism? Variants of answer: а) adrenocorticotropic hormone, antidiuretic hormone, parathormone; b) aldosterone, glucagon, prolactin; a c) testosteron, insulin, somatotropin, estrogens, thyroid hormones; - d) follice-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, insulin e) all the answers are correct. 48. The elevated glucocorticoid level leads to decreased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone by the adenohypophysis, which is an example of… Variants of answer: а) positive feedback; ~ S b) negative feedback; c) starting action; d) Addison’s diseases; e) Graves’s disease. 49. The elevated estrogen level in the blood causes increased secretion of oxytocin, which is an example of… Variants of answer: I а) positive feedback; b) negative feedback; c) morphogenetic effect; d) metabolic effect; W e) Addison’s disease. 50. Where is natriuretic hormone produced? Variants of answer: а) in the posterior lode of the hypophysis; - b) in the right atrium of the heart; ~ c) in the hypothalamus; 242  d) in the placenta; e) in the pancreas. 51. Acromegaly is caused by excessive amounts of… Variants of answer: a) somatostatin; ✓ b) growth hormone; - c) aldosterone; d) insulin; e) thyroxin. 52. The posterior pituitary gland secretes… Variants of answer: a) oxytocin; b) prolactin; c) thyroid-stimulating hormone; d) melanocyte-stimulating hormone; e) follicle-stimulating hormone. 53. The greatest stimulator for the secretion of antidiuretic hormone is … Variants of answer: - a) hyperosmolarity; b) hyponatremia; - c) hypotension; d) hypovolemia; e) hypervolemia. 54. Iodine uptake is found in the following organ … Variants of answer: a) ovary; - b) thyroid gland; - c) parathyroid gland;. d) salivary gland; e) mammary gland. 55. Calcitonin is secreted by… Variants of answer: a) the thyroid gland; b) the parathyroid gland; c) the adrenal glands; d) the ovaries; e) the adenohypophysis. 243  56. Which of the following hormones is a peptide hormone? Variants of answer: ÷ a) parathormone; b) adrenaline; c) cortisol; d) thyroxine; e) estrogen. 57. A true fact about the action of insulin is that it... Variants of answer: a) causes gluconeogenesis; b) is not useful for growth and development; c) is required for the transport of glucose, amino acids; : d) it is a catabolic hormone; e) all the answers are correct. 58. Aldosterone synthesis is inhibited by … Variants of answer: a) renin; b) endothelin; c) dopamine; d) endorphin; e) hypernatremia. 59. The hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla is: Variants of answer: a) glucagon; b) cortisol;. c) noradrenaline; d) insulin; e) aldosterone. 60. Melatonin is secreted by … Variants of answer: a) the hypothalamus; b) the adrenal cortex; c) the pineal gland; d) the melanocytes; e) the adrenal medulla. 244  Multiple Choice Questions PHYSIOLOGY OF RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 1. Give the correct sequence of the stages of respiration. Variants of answer: а) lung ventilation, gas exchange in the lungs, gas transport by blood, bio- logical oxidation, gas exchange between blood and tissues; b) gas exchange in the lungs, lung ventilation, gas transport by blood, gas exchange between blood and tissues, biological oxidation; - c) lung ventilation, gas exchange in the lungs, gas transport by blood, gas exchange between blood and tissues, biological oxidation; d) gas exchange between blood and tissues, gas transport by blood, lung ventilation, gas exchange in the lungs, biological oxidation; e) lung ventilation, gas exchange in the lungs, biological oxidation, gas transport by blood, gas exchange between blood and tissues. 2. As a result of lung ventilation … Variants of answer: а) air exchange within the gas-exchange zone occurs; b) air cleaning occurs; : c) all the answers are correct; d) the constancy of the composition of alveolar air is maintained; e) air warming and humidifying occur. 3. How does the lumen of the airways change during inspiration? Variants of answer: а) it decreases; b) it increases; c) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases; d) it does not change; e) at the beginning it decreases, and then it increases. 4. Internal respiratory intercostal muscles participate in … Variants of answer: а) quiet inspiration; b) forced inspiration; - c) forced expiration; d) quiet expiration; e) all the answers are correct. 284  5. The lungs of an adult are stretched... Variants of answer: : а) constantly; b) during quiet inspiration; c) during quiet expiration; d) during forced inspiration; e) during forced expiration. 6. The elastic recoil of the lungs is… Variants of answer: а) the force aimed at increased lung volume; b) the passive strain of elastic lung tissue fibers; c) the tone of bronchial muscles; d) the force aimed at decreased lung volume. e) elasticity of the costal cartilages. 7. Which factor provides about 2/3 of the elastic recoil of the lungs? Variants of answer: а) elasticity of lung tissues; b) the tone of bronchial muscles; c) elasticity of the costal cartilages; -d) surface tension of alveolar liquid; e) surfactant. 8. Which factor promotes decreased surface tension of the alveoli? Variants of answer: : а) surfactant; b) Fletcher’s factor; c) bradykinin; d) lysozyme; e) histamine. 9. Negative pressure in the pleural cavity is provided mainly by... Variants of answer: а) the decreased tone of the bronchioles; b) the presence of dead space; c) the elastic recoil of the lungs; d) the aerohematic barrier; e) all the answers are correct. 285  10. What is the name of the condition under which air penetrates into the pleural cavity? Variants of answer: а) hemothorax; : b) pneumothorax; c) hydrothorax; d) plevritis; e) hypercapnia. 11. The maximal volume of air which can be present in the lungs is called… а) vital capacity of the lungs; b) functional residual capacity; c) total capacity of the lungs; d) reserve volume of the lungs; e) inspiratory capacity. 12. Physiologic dead space is the sum of... Variants of answer: а) anatomic dead space and respiratory volume; /b) anatomic and alveolar dead spaces; c) anatomic dead space and residual volume; d) alveolar dead space and reserve volume of inspiration; e) alveolar dead space and respiratory volume. 13. The partial pressure of gas in liquid is a force, exerted by... Variants of answer: а) gas molecules which tend to be dissolved in the liquid; b) gas molecules cooperating among themselves; : c) gas molecules which tend to leave the liquid; d) gas molecules cooperating with hemoglobin; e) all the answers are correct. 14. If the partial pressure of gas above liquid is higher than its pressure in the liquid,... Variants of answer: а) the gas leaves the liquid; b) the gas is not dissolved in the liquid; c) the gas is dissolved in the liquid; d) the gas is accumulated in the lungs; e) the gas leaves the lungs. 286  15. The permeability of the alveolar membrane to gases is characterized by the parameter... Variants of answer: / а) diffusion capacity of the lungs; b) elastic resistance of the lungs; c) size of dead space; d) size of vital capacity of the lungs; e) superficial tension of the alveoli. 16. In which form is oxygen transported by blood? Variants of answer: а) only in dissolved state; b) only in connection with hemoglobin; : c) in dissolved state and in connection with hemoglobin; d) in connection with blood plasma proteins; e) in dissolved state and in connection with blood plasma proteins. 17. Can the amount of oxygen transported in physically dissolved blood (not bound with Hb), provide the oxygen demands of an organism in usual conditions? Variants of answer: а) yes, it can; b) yes, it can in conditions of rest; c) no, it can`t; d) yes, it can, in conditions of basal metabolism; e) yes, it can, in conditions of low atmospheric pressure. 18. What valence does iron have if it binds to a hemoglobin molecule? Variants of answer: а) 3; b) 4; : c) 2; d) 1; e) 6. 19. In which hemoglobin compounds is iron trivalent? Variants of answer: а) in oxyhemoglobin; b) in carbohemoglobin; c) in methhemoglobin; d) in carboxyhemoglobin; e) in oxyhemoglobin and carbohemoglobin. 287  20. How much oxygen can one gram of hemoglobin bind? Variants of answer: а) 0.8 milliliters; b) 2.5 milliliters; : c) 1.34 milliliters; d) 1.8 milliliters; e) 3.14 milliliters. 21. The maximum amount of oxygen which can be bound by hemoglobin in full saturation by oxygen is named... Variants of answer: а) the oxygen capacity of blood; b) the color index; c) the parameter of saturation; d) the hematocrit; e) the vital capacity of blood. 22. How does the oxygen capacity of blood change if the concentration of hemoglobin decreases? Variants of answer: а) it increases; b) it does not change; - c) it decreases; d) it can change in different ways; e) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases. 23. Give the comparative description of the affinity of hemoglobin and myoglobin to oxygen. Variants of answer: а) the affinity of hemoglobin is higher than that of myoglobin; b) hemoglobin and myoglobin possess the same affinity to oxygen; : c) the affinity of myoglobin is higher than that of hemoglobin; d) myoglobin is not capable of oxygen binding; e) hemoglobin is not capable of oxygen binding. 24. In normal conditions arterial oxygen saturation makes approximately... Variants of answer: а) 98–100 %; b) 96–98 %; c) 100–105 %; d) 60–75 %; e) 75–85 %. 288  25. How does the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen change if the dissoci- ation curve shifts to the right? Variants of answer: / а) it decreases; b) it increases; c) it does not change; d) it can change in different ways; e) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases. 26. A shift of the dissociation curve of oxyhemoglobin to the right pro- motes... Variants of answer: а) decreased oxygen supply of tissues; : b) increased oxygen supply of tissues; c) development of oxygen starvation of tissues; d) tissue oxygenation does not change; e) at the beginning tissue oxygen saturation increases and then it sharply decreases. 27. How does oxyhemoglobin dissociation change if the dissociation curve shifts to the left? Variants of answer: а) it increases; b) it does not change; c) it decreases; d) it can change in different ways; e) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases. 28. How does the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen change if the body temperature of a patient increases up to 39 °С? Variants of answer: а) it increases; b) it does not change; : c) it decreases; d) it increases greatly; e) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases. 29. How does the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen change if the concen- tration of hydrogen ions and СО2 in the blood increases? Variants of answer: а) it increases; b) it decreases; 289  c) it does not change; d) it can change in different ways; e) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases. 30. How does oxygen supply of muscles change, if during physical exercise an acid medium is created, and the СО2 concentration and temperature rise? Variants of answer: / а) it increases; b) it decreases; c) it does not change; d) it can change in different ways; e) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases. 31. Transition of tissues from rest into an active state creates conditions for... Variants of answer: : а) increased dissociation of oxyhemoglobin; b) decreased dissociation of oxyhemoglobin; c) decreased dissociation of carbohemoglobin; d) increased dissociation of carbohemoglobin; e) decreased dissociation of methhemoglobin. 32. How will the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen change if the concen- tration of 2,3-diphosphat glycerate in erythrocytes increases? Variants of answer: а) it will increase; b) it will decrease; c) it will not change; d) it can change in different ways; e) at the beginning it increases, and then it decreases. 33. Compare the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen in a fetus (HbF) and in an adult (НbА): Variants of answer: а)