Personal Relationships Psych MCQ PDF

Core: Questions Biological Approach MCQs ○​ Localization ○​ Neuroplasticity ○​ Neural networks ○​ Neural pruning ○​ inhibitory/exhibitory synapses ○​ agonist/antagonist ○​ Hormones ○​ Pheromones...

Core: Questions Biological Approach MCQs ○​ Localization ○​ Neuroplasticity ○​ Neural networks ○​ Neural pruning ○​ inhibitory/exhibitory synapses ○​ agonist/antagonist ○​ Hormones ○​ Pheromones ○​ Kinship studies ○​ MHC genes - evolutionary 2.​ Which of the following is an example of a brain function that is primarily localised to the left hemisphere? ○​ A) Language processing ○​ B) Visual processing from the left field ○​ C) Spatial awareness ○​ D) Regulation of emotional responses​ Answer: A) Language processing 3.​ What does the term “neuroplasticity” specifically refer to in the context of brain function? ○​ A) The creation of new synapses in the brain ○​ B) The ability of the brain to reorganize itself by forming new neural connections ○​ C) The ability to regenerate damaged neurons ○​ D) The process by which neurons are removed during aging​ Answer: B) The ability of the brain to reorganize itself by forming new neural connections 4.​ Which of the following is a key difference between the functions of the amygdala and the prefrontal cortex? ○​ A) The amygdala is responsible for emotional processing, while the prefrontal cortex is involved in higher cognitive functions like decision-making and planning. ○​ B) The amygdala processes visual stimuli, whereas the prefrontal cortex controls motor functions. ○​ C) The amygdala regulates breathing, while the prefrontal cortex is linked to memory consolidation. ○​ D) The amygdala handles short-term memory, while the prefrontal cortex handles long-term memory.​ Answer: A) The amygdala is responsible for emotional processing, while the prefrontal cortex is involved in higher cognitive functions like decision-making and planning. 5.​ In the context of neurogenesis, which factor has been shown to increase the growth of new neurons in the hippocampus? ○​ A) Physical exercise  ○​ B) Chronic stress ○​ C) High-fat diet ○​ D) Sedentary lifestyle​ Answer: A) Physical exercise 6.​ Which of the following best describes the concept of "dopaminergic pathways" in relation to addiction? ○​ A) They are neural pathways that regulate the release of serotonin to control mood. ○​ B) They are involved in the transmission of dopamine, reinforcing rewarding behaviors and contributing to addiction. ○​ C) They regulate the release of cortisol, contributing to the stress response. ○​ D) They are pathways associated with visual processing and memory recall.​ Answer**: B) They are involved in the transmission of dopamine, reinforcing rewarding behaviors and contributing to addiction. 7.​ Which of the following techniques allows for the examination of brain structures and functions in real-time? ○​ A) CT scan ○​ B) fMRI ○​ C) EEG ○​ D) PET scan​ Answer: B) fMRI 8.​ Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for regulating vital functions such as heart rate, breathing, and swallowing? ○​ A) Cerebellum ○​ B) Medulla oblongata ○​ C) Hypothalamus ○​ D) Thalamus​ Answer: B) Medulla oblongata 9.​ Which of the following is a key function of the neurotransmitter serotonin in regulating behavior? ○​ A) Enhancing motor coordination ○​ B) Modulating mood, aggression, and sleep ○​ C) Regulating the stress response ○​ D) Mediating attention and focus​ Answer: B) Modulating mood, aggression, and sleep 10.​How does the brain’s reward system contribute to reinforcement learning? ○​ A) It strengthens behaviors by providing positive reinforcement through the release of dopamine. ○​ B) It suppresses unwanted behaviors by inhibiting dopamine release. ○​ C) It encodes new information into memory during learning. ○​ D) It decreases motivation by reducing serotonin levels.​ Answer: A) It strengthens behaviors by providing positive reinforcement through the release of dopamine.  11.​Which of the following mechanisms best explains the phenomenon of long-term potentiation (LTP)? ○​ A) The process of pruning excess synapses to enhance cognitive function. ○​ B) The process by which synaptic connections are strengthened through repeated stimulation. ○​ C) The formation of new neurons in the hippocampus. ○​ D) The inhibition of neurotransmitter release in response to stress.​ Answer: B) The process by which synaptic connections are strengthened through repeated stimulation. Cognitive Approach MCQs ○​ Multistore memory model MMM ○​ WMM ○​ Schema theory ○​ rational/intuitive thinking ○​ Reconstructive memory ○​ Cognitive biases ○​ Flashbulb memory 12.​Which model of memory emphasizes the importance of short-term memory’s limited capacity and its active role in manipulating information? ○​ A) Atkinson-Shiffrin Multi-Store Model ○​ B) Baddeley and Hitch Working Memory Model ○​ C) Craik and Lockhart Levels of Processing Model ○​ D) Schacter’s Seven Sins of Memory​ Answer: B) Baddeley and Hitch Working Memory Model 13.​What is the primary criticism of the Multi-Store Model of memory? ○​ A) It suggests that memory is an entirely passive process. ○​ B) It fails to account for the dynamic interaction between different memory systems. ○​ C) It assumes that long-term memory is only a passive storage system. ○​ D) It ignores the role of emotions in memory formation.​ Answer: B) It fails to account for the dynamic interaction between different memory systems. 14.​How does schema theory explain how individuals process and recall information? ○​ A) Information is recalled more accurately if it matches existing schemas. ○​ B) Schemas are irrelevant to memory formation and recall. ○​ C) People retrieve information in a sequential manner, based on the time of occurrence.  ○​ D) Memory retrieval occurs only through sensory processing.​ Answer: A) Information is recalled more accurately if it matches existing schemas. 15.​Which of the following best describes the process of reconstructive memory? ○​ A) Memories are formed and recalled with perfect accuracy. ○​ B) Memories are recalled as static, unchanged representations of past events. ○​ C) Memories are reconstructed by integrating new information and existing knowledge, potentially leading to distortion. ○​ D) Memories are a result of subconscious influences and cannot be manipulated.​ Answer: C) Memories are reconstructed by integrating new information and existing knowledge, potentially leading to distortion. 16.​According to dual-process theory, which cognitive process is associated with rapid, intuitive decision-making? ○​ A) System 1 thinking (heuristic) ○​ B) System 2 thinking (analytical) ○​ C) Episodic memory retrieval ○​ D) Semantic processing​ Answer: A) System 1 thinking (heuristic) 17.​Which of the following is a key factor influencing the accuracy of eyewitness testimony? ○​ A) The use of controlled lab settings during interviews ○​ B) The degree of attention given to the details during the event ○​ C) The length of time spent recalling the event ○​ D) The level of emotional involvement in the event​ Answer: B) The degree of attention given to the details during the event 18.​What does cognitive load theory suggest about working memory? ○​ A) Working memory capacity is unlimited and cannot be overloaded. ○​ B) Information is processed more efficiently when it is spread across both visual and verbal channels. ○​ C) The more information processed in working memory, the easier it is to remember. ○​ D) Memory retrieval is not affected by cognitive load.​ Answer: B) Information is processed more efficiently when it is spread across both visual and verbal channels. 19.​Which of the following best describes the role of attention in cognitive processing? ○​ A) Attention helps to filter out irrelevant stimuli and focuses cognitive resources on important tasks. ○​ B) Attention solely determines the accuracy of memory recall. ○​ C) Attention is not necessary for effective memory formation. ○​ D) Attention is a passive process that automatically selects important stimuli.​ Answer: A) Attention helps to filter out irrelevant stimuli and focuses cognitive resources on important tasks. 20.​What is the relationship between cognitive biases and decision-making?  ○​ A) Cognitive biases enhance the objectivity of decision-making by reducing the influence of emotions. ○​ B) Cognitive biases distort decision-making by leading individuals to focus on irrelevant information. ○​ C) Cognitive biases have no impact on decision-making because they do not affect memory. ○​ D) Cognitive biases only affect memory recall, not decision-making processes.​ Answer: B) Cognitive biases distort decision-making by leading individuals to focus on irrelevant information. 21.​How do flashbulb memories differ from ordinary memories? ○​ A) Flashbulb memories are more likely to be influenced by schemas and biases. ○​ B) Flashbulb memories are typically more vivid and emotionally charged, with higher confidence in their accuracy. ○​ C) Flashbulb memories are often forgotten more quickly than ordinary memories. ○​ D) Flashbulb memories involve logical reasoning rather than emotional experiences.​ Answer: B) Flashbulb memories are typically more vivid and emotionally charged, with higher confidence in their accuracy. Sociocultural Approach MCQs ○​ Social identity theory ○​ Social grouops ○​ Social cognitive theory ○​ Stereotypes ○​ Cultural dimensions ○​ Assimilation ○​ Enculturation ○​ Acculturation 22.​According to social identity theory, what is the role of ingroups and outgroups in shaping behavior? ○​ A) Ingroup members behave more aggressively towards outgroup members to maintain group cohesion. ○​ B) Individuals create an ingroup identity by comparing themselves to outgroup members, leading to stereotyping and prejudice. ○​ C) Ingroup members automatically ignore the behaviors of outgroup members. ○​ D) Outgroup members are more likely to influence ingroup behavior than ingroup members themselves.​ Answer: B) Individuals create an ingroup identity by comparing themselves to outgroup members, leading to stereotyping and prejudice.  23.​How does cultural dimension theory explain variations in behavior between societies? ○​ A) Behavior differences arise solely due to individual personality traits rather than cultural influences. ○​ B) Behavior differences are the result of unconscious biases formed in childhood. ○​ C) Cultural dimensions like individualism vs. collectivism and power distance influence behaviors and values across different societies. ○​ D) Cultural differences are unrelated to cognitive processes but are based on environmental factors.​ Answer: C) Cultural dimensions like individualism vs. collectivism and power distance influence behaviors and values across different societies. 24.​Which of the following best explains the concept of "cultural norms"? ○​ A) The biological patterns of behavior shared by all humans. ○​ B) Behaviors that are universally accepted in every society. ○​ C) Shared expectations and rules that guide behavior within a group or culture. ○​ D) The cognitive strategies used to process information in a specific culture.​ Answer: C) Shared expectations and rules that guide behavior within a group or culture. 25.​What is the primary focus of the concept of “enculturation” in psychology? ○​ A) The genetic transmission of behavioral traits across generations. ○​ B) The process through which individuals learn and adopt the values, beliefs, and behaviors of their own culture. ○​ C) The adaptation of cognitive processes to different environmental stimuli. ○​ D) The development of personal identity in response to social expectations.​ Answer: B) The process through which individuals learn and adopt the values, beliefs, and behaviors of their own culture. 26.​Which of the following is a key criticism of research into cultural differences? ○​ A) It assumes that all behaviors are influenced by innate biological factors. ○​ B) It tends to overlook the influence of globalization on culture. ○​ C) It overemphasizes the role of individual differences in shaping behavior. ○​ D) It fails to consider the impact of technology on cultural behavior.​ Answer: B) It tends to overlook the influence of globalization on culture. Personal relationships: Congruence: When comments made by others about you, match your perception of yourself - that is, your "self-schema." For example, using flattery that is not congruent with an individual's person of him/herself may result in the "ingratiating effect" and the person may find the flatterer unattractive or no longer a good partner. Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC): a group of genes that play an important role in the immune system. MHC genes make molecules that enable the immune system to recognize pathogens; in general, the more diverse the MHC genes of the parents the stronger the immune system of the offspring. Microexpressions: a brief, involuntary facial expression shown on the face of humans according to emotions experienced. They usually occur in high-stakes situations, where people have something to lose or gain. Microexpressions occur when a person is consciously trying to conceal all signs of how he or she is feeling, or when a person does not consciously know how he or she is feeling. Gottmann argues that microexpressions linked to contempt and disgust are predictors of the end of a relationship. Passionate love: A state of intense longing for union with another. Passionate love is characterized by intense emotions, sexual attraction, anxiety, and affection. When these intense emotions are reciprocated, people feel elated and fulfilled. Unreciprocated love leads to feelings of despondence and despair. Hatfield suggests that passionate love is transitory, usually lasting between 6 and 30 months. Pathogen stress: the level of disease-causing agents within a community. Self-disclosure: Sharing facts about one's past as well as one's inner thoughts, feelings, and emotions. Self-disclosure leads to deeper mutual understanding and demonstrates that one is willing to be vulnerable with someone that they love. Research methods in Personal Relationships Cross-sectional design: Comparing two or more groups on a particular variable at a specific time. The opposite is a longitudinal design where the researcher measures a change in an individual over time. Double-blind testing: an experimental procedure in which neither the researcher doing the study nor the participants know the specific type of treatment each participant receives until after the experiment is over; a double-blind procedure is used to guard against both experimenter bias and placebo effects. Longitudinal study: research over a period of time using observations, interviews, or psychometric testing. (Similar to a repeated measures design in an experiment). Meta-analysis: Pooling data from multiple studies of the same research question to arrive at one combined answer. Prospective research: A study that attempts to find a correlation between two variables by collecting data early in the life of participants and then continuing to test them over a period of time to measure change and development. Single-blind testing: an experiment in which the researchers know which participants are receiving treatment and which are not; however, the participants do not know which condition they are in. Theories:​ The Empathy-Altruism Model: Batson's theory that helping behavior may be motivated either by the need to get rid of distress or because of a feeling of empathy toward the person who is in need of help. Batson argued that one's level of "egoism" is a key factor in why one may or may not help. Exchange theory: Argues that human behavior is based on a rational cost-benefit analysis of a situation. This may explain why people choose not to help - that is, they think about the safety involved in helping, whether they are able to help, the fear of the repercussions of failing to help someone, or the cost to health or wealth. However, it is difficult to use this theory to explain snap decisions to help which are often seen in cases of altruism. Kin Selection Theory: the more two individuals are genetically related, the more sense (at the level of the genes) it makes for them to behave selflessly with each other. This is the basis of Dawkin's "Selfish Gene" theory. This is done to maximize the "inclusive fitness" of the individual - that is, to increase one's chance of reproduction and passing down genetic material. Matching hypothesis: the idea that people are more likely to form successful relationships with and express liking for people whose level of physical attractiveness roughly equals their own. Mere Exposure Effect: Feeling a preference for an individual because he or she is familiar. This is the basis for the proximity principle - the tendency for individuals to form interpersonal relations with those who are close by. Negative State Relief Model: Argues that we help in order to lower one's feeling of distress when seeing someone who is in need of help. This is an argument that helping behavior is not altruistic. Social Penetration Theory (Taylor) argues that close relationships are formed by a gradual process of self-disclosure. Failure to disclose in a relationship leads to a lack of intimacy which eventually may lead to the end of the relationship. Cultural dissonance Qualitative: A priori coding: A process of coding qualitative data whereby the researcher develops the codes ahead of time based on a theoretical framework, the interview question, or pre-existing knowledge. Case study: The study of a particular person, group, or situation over a period of time. Case studies are technically not a research method - but a combination of research methods. Content analysis: A data analysis technique used to interpret textual material. This is done by looking for data or themes in a text - for example, a transcript of an interview. The researcher may decide what to look for before reading the interview. This is a priori coding. This then converts the qualitative data into quantitative data. This is a deductive approach. The researcher may also wait until she has all the interviews and then note what trends "emerge" from the text. This is an inductive approach. Covert observation: An observation in which the identity of the researcher, the nature of the research project, and the fact that participants are being observed are hidden from those who are being studied. The opposite of an overt observation. Credibility: This word is often seen as a synonym for validity in qualitative research. Cross-sectional design: Comparing two or more groups on a particular variable at a specific time. The opposite is a longitudinal design where the researcher measures a change in an individual over time. Data triangulation: Collecting data from more than one source. Also called "source triangulation." For example, collecting data from four different hospitals. Emergent thematic coding: A qualitative data analysis approach in which a text is read several times to identify themes that emerge from the data. This is a common method for interpreting interviews. Epistemological reflexivity: When a researcher reflects on their choice of method or materials may have influenced the findings of the study - for example, how did using a participant observation affect the potential behavior of the people being studied? Event sampling: A data collection strategy for observational studies. This is when the researcher makes note only when a specific behavior is observed. For example, only when aggression is observed on the playground. Focus group: A group interview, using 5 - 12 participants who share a common trait or interest. Inter-rater reliability: the degree of agreement among researchers recording behavior during an observation. Longitudinal study: research over a period of time using observations, interviews, or psychometric testing. (Similar to a repeated measures design in an experiment). Meta-analysis: Pooling data from multiple studies of the same research question to arrive at one combined answer. Method triangulation: the use of more than one method to carry out a study. Case studies often use method triangulation. This is important because it increases the credibility of the study - we know it was not the choice of the research method alone that led to the findings. Narrative interview: An interview in which the researcher asks an open-ended question and invites the interviewee to respond, The interviewee is not asked any other questions and the interviewer only asks for clarifications. The goal is that questions asked by the interviewer will not influence the interviewee. Naturalistic observation: An observation carried out in a participant's natural environment. The opposite of a lab or controlled observation. Outcomes-based research: an attempt by healthcare agencies to see how certain healthcare practices, treatments, and other interventions affect a person's health. This type of research focuses on the results. Participant attrition: the rate at which participants drop out of a study over time. This often occurs when research has many steps or takes place over a long period of time. Participant observation: An observational study where the researcher joins the group that is being observed. The opposite of a non-participant observation. Personal reflexivity: When researchers reflect on how their own biases may have affected their research process and the findings of their research. Point sampling: A data collection method used when carrying out an observation of a group where the researcher records the behavior of an individual and then moves on to the next participant until all have been observed. Process-based research: an attempt by healthcare agencies to see how certain healthcare practices, treatments, and other interventions affect a person's health over time. This type of research is focused on the changes over time, rather than the final results. Prospective research: A study that attempts to find a correlation between two variables by collecting data early in the life of participants and then continuing to test them over a period of time to measure change and development. Quota sampling: Similar to a stratified sample, but there is no random selection of participants from the population. For example, you want a sample that reflects your country's population. If your country is 40% of one culture and 60% of another, then the sample would have that same proportion - but they are not chosen randomly. It might be the first 40 people that sign up from culture x and then the first 60 from culture y. Retrospective research: collecting data to gain information about individuals' past about an outcome that has already happened when the study is being conducted. For example, in the study of someone with depression, looking to see what protective and risk factors existed in their life, such as adverse childhood experiences. Snowball sampling: A sampling technique where research participants recruit other participants for a study. Structured interview: a type of interview in which the interviewer asks a particular set of predetermined questions. The questions are created in advance and all participants are asked the same questions in the same order. Time sampling: A data collection method used when carrying out an observation of a group where notes are taken at specific times - for example, every five minutes or every hour. Theory triangulation: The use of more than one theoretical approach to investigate a question - for example, looking at a patient like HM from a biological, cognitive, and sociocultural perspective. Transferability: the degree to which the results of qualitative research can be generalized or transferred to other contexts or settings. Unstructured interview: an interview in which there is no specific set of predetermined questions. The interviews are more like an everyday conversation and tend to be more informal and open-ended. Quantitative: Alternative hypothesis: Also known as the research hypothesis. A hypothesis that states that there will be a statistically significant relationship between two or more variables. Baseline: The level of responding before any treatment is introduced and therefore acts as a control condition. For example, measuring normal brain activity before being asked to recall a stressful event. Confederate: A helper of a researcher who pretends to be a real participant. Control condition: A condition that does not receive the treatment or intervention that the other conditions do. It is used to see what would happen if the independent variable were not manipulated. Correlational research: The researcher measures two or more variables without manipulating an independent variable and with little or no attempt to control extraneous variables. Counterbalancing: A technique used to deal with order effects when using a repeated measures design. When a study is counterbalanced, the sample is divided in half, with one half completing the two conditions in one order and the other half completing the conditions in the reverse order. Cross-sectional design: Comparing two or more groups on a particular variable at a specific time. The opposite is a longitudinal design where the researcher measures a change in an individual over time. Dependent variable: The variable that is measured and is hypothesized to be the effect of the independent variable. Double-blind testing: an experimental procedure in which neither the researcher doing the study nor the participants know the specific type of treatment each participant receives until after the experiment is over; a double-blind procedure is used to guard against both experimenter bias and placebo effects. Factorial Design: A design including multiple independent variables. Field experiment: A study that is conducted outside the laboratory in a “real-world” setting. Hypothesis: a testable statement of what the researcher predicts will be the outcome of the study which is usually based on established theory. Independent samples design: also called an independent measures design and between-groups design. More than one experimental group is used and participants are only in one group. Each participant is only in one condition of the independent variable. Independent variable: the variable that is manipulated by the researcher. Meta-analysis: Pooling data from multiple studies of the same research question to arrive at one combined answer. Natural experiment: The study of a naturally occurring situation in the real world. The researcher does not manipulate an independent variable or assign participants randomly to conditions. Non-equivalent groups design A between-subjects design in which participants have not been randomly assigned to conditions. A typical example would be to look at gender differences with regard to a certain behavior. Null hypothesis: A hypothesis that says there will be no statistical significance between two variables. It is the hypothesis that a researcher will try to disprove. One-tailed hypothesis: a scientific prediction stating that an effect will occur and whether that effect will specifically increase or specifically decrease, depending on changes to the independent variable. Operationalization: the process by which the researcher decides how a variable will be measured. For example, "marital satisfaction" cannot be measured directly, so the researcher would have to decide what traits will be measured in order to measure the construct. Pretest-posttest design: The dependent variable is measured before the independent variable has been manipulated and then again after it has been manipulated. p-value: The probability that, if the null hypothesis were true, the result found in the sample would occur. Quasi-experiment: The researcher manipulates an independent variable but does not randomly assign participants to conditions. Random allocation: A method of controlling extraneous variables across conditions by using a random process to decide which participants will be in which conditions. This includes random number generators and pulling names out of a hat. Repeated measures design: Also called a “within groups” design. The same participants take part in each condition of the independent variable. This means that each condition of the experiment includes the same group of participants. Single-blind testing: An experiment in which the researchers know which participants are receiving a treatment and which are not; however, the participants do not know which condition they are in. True experiment: A study in which participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment group or a control group; an independent variable is manipulated by the researcher. Two-tailed hypothesis: A hypothesis that one experimental group will differ from another without specification of the expected direction of the difference - that is, without predicting an increase or decrease in behavior. Sampling techniques Opportunity sampling: Also called convenience sampling. A sampling technique where participants are selected based on naturally occurring groups or participants who are easily available. Random sampling: Selecting a sample of participants from a larger potential group of eligible individuals, such that each person has the same fixed probability of being included in the sample. Self-selected sampling: Also called volunteer sampling. Participants choose to become part of a study because they volunteer by responding to an advert or a request to take part in a study. Stratified Random Sampling: A method of probability sampling in which the population is divided into different subgroups or “strata” and then a random sample is taken from each “stratum.” Evaluating research Bidirectional ambiguity: A limitation of many correlational studies. It is not possible to know if x causes y, y causes x, if they interact to cause behavior, or whether it is just coincidental and no relationship truly exists. Construct validity: The degree to which a study consistently measures a variable. For example, if a researcher develops a new questionnaire to evaluate respondents’ levels of aggression, the construct validity of the instrument would be the extent to which it actually assesses aggression as opposed to assertiveness, social dominance, or irritability. Demand characteristics: Cues that may influence or bias participants’ behavior, for example, by suggesting the outcome or response that the experimenter expects or desires. Ecological fallacy: A mistaken conclusion drawn about individuals based on findings from groups to which they belong. For example, if a researcher uses Japanese participants in the sample and assumes that since they are Japanese, they must be collectivistic. The ecological fallacy is controlled for by giving a test to measure the assumed variable. Ecological validity: The degree to which results obtained from research or experimentation are representative of conditions in the wider world. Ecological validity is influenced by the level of control in the environment (hence, ecological). Expectancy effect: When a researcher’s expectations about the findings of the research are inadvertently communicated to participants and influence their responses. This distortion of results arises from participants’ reactions to subtle cues unintentionally given by the researcher - for example, through body movements, gestures, or facial expressions. External validity: the extent to which the results of a study can be generalized beyond the sample that was tested. Extraneous variable: Also known as a confounding variable. A variable that is not under investigation in an experiment but may potentially affect the dependent variable if it is not properly controlled. Fatigue effect: A type of order effect where a participant decreases in performance in later conditions because they are tired or bored with the activity. Interference effect: A type of order effect where the first condition may influence the outcome of the second condition. For example, when giving two sets of words to remember, when a participant remembers a word from the first condition when trying to recall words in the second condition. Internal validity: When an experiment was conducted using appropriate controls so that it supports the conclusion that the independent variable caused observed differences in the dependent variable. Mundane Realism: The participants and the situation studied are representative of everyday life. If a study is highly artificial, it is said to lack mundane realism. Order effects: Differences in research participants' responses that result from the order in which they participate in the experimental conditions. Examples include fatigue effect, interference effects, or practice effect. Participant attrition: the rate at which participants drop out of a study over time. This often occurs when research has many steps or takes place over a long period of time. Placebo effect: a beneficial effect produced by a placebo drug or treatment, which cannot be attributed to the properties of the placebo itself, and must, therefore, be due to the patient's belief in that treatment. Practice effect: A type of order effect where a participant improves in performance in later conditions because practice has lead to the development of skill or learning. Random error: Error that is due to chance alone. Random errors occur when unexpected or uncontrolled factors affect the variable being measured or the process of measurement. Reactivity: When participants change their behavior due to their awareness of being observed. Reliability: the consistency of a measure - that is, the degree to which a study is free of random error, obtaining the same results across time with the same population. Sampling bias: When a sample is selected in such a way that it is not representative of the population from which it was drawn. When a sample is biased, population validity is decreased. Type I Error: When the null hypothesis is rejected although it is true; when the research concludes there is a relationship in the population when in fact there is not. Type II Error: When the null hypothesis is retained although it is false; when the research concludes there is no relationship in the population when in fact there is one. Validity: the degree to which a test measures what it claims to measure. 3. A meta-analysis is most useful in personal relationship research because: A) It focuses on observing participants over an extended period of time to identify changes in relationships.​ B) It pools data from multiple studies on the same research question to provide a combined answer, increasing the reliability of the findings.​ C) It compares groups at a single point in time, ensuring that differences in relationships are accurately captured.​ D) It involves collecting data prospectively to track changes in relationship variables over time. Answer: B) It pools data from multiple studies on the same research question to provide a combined answer, increasing the reliability of the findings. 4. In prospective research, which of the following is the main focus? A) Comparing groups at different stages of relationship development.​ B) Collecting data early in the participants' lives and then testing them over time to assess change and development in relationships.​ C) Observing participants in laboratory conditions to determine their relationship behaviors.​ D) Providing a cost-benefit analysis of relationships to predict long-term satisfaction. Answer: B) Collecting data early in the participants' lives and then testing them over time to assess change and development in relationships. **** Prospective longitudinal studies follow subjects forward in time (from the present to the future). Retrospective longitudinal studies look at data from the past to analyze how previous exposures or behaviors might influence outcomes.