Post Exam Parasitology PDF

Post Exam Parasitology Prepared by: Kristine Cher Abril, RMT Name:______________________________________ Date:__________ School:_____________________________________...

Post Exam Parasitology Prepared by: Kristine Cher Abril, RMT Name:______________________________________ Date:__________ School:_____________________________________ Score:_________ 1. The most specific and exclusive taxon used in the classification of microorganism is: a. Class b. Order c. Genus d. Species 2. An epidemic that spans the world is called. a. Endemic b. Epidemic c. Pandemic d. Outbreak 3. How many samples should be collected when following typical O&P protocol? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 4. Visceral larva migrans is associated with which of the following organisms? a. Toxocara – serology c. Dracunculus – skin biopsy b. Onchocerca – skin snips d. Angiostrongylus – CSF examination 5. A formed stool is received in the laboratory at 3 am for ova and parasite exam. The night shift technologist is certain that the workload will prevent examination of the specimen until 6 am when the next shift arrives. The technologist should: a. Request that a new specimen be collected after 6 am b. Perform a zinc sulfate flotation procedure for eggs and hold the remaining specimen at room temperature c. Examine a direct preparation for trophozoites and freeze the remaining specimen d. Preserve the specimen in formalin until it can be examined 6. In the collection and transport of stool specimens for parasites, which parasitic stage is most affected by length of time from collection to examination? a. Cysts c. Oocysts b. Trophozoites d. Helminth larvae 7. Artifacts found in a stool specimen that can be confused with ova or cysts are: a. Partially digested meat fibers c. Dried chemical crystals b. Degenerated cells from the gastrointestinal d. Pollen grains mucosa 8. How do you measure specific gravity of parasites? a. Tachometer b. Hydrometer c. Centrifuge d. Urinometer 9. A medical technologist finds an E. coli cyst on a wet mount of a fresh stool specimen. Which of the following should be done? a. Request for a second specimen c. Examine the remaining area of the wet b. Look for additional E. coli cysts preparation d. Generate a final report 10. The advantage of thick blood smears for malarial parasites is to: a. Improve staining of the organisms c. Remove RBC artifacts b. Improve detection of the organisms d. Remove platelets 11. With a fecal specimen, which one of the following is the most dependable procedure for the accurate, specific diagnosis of an intestinal amebic infection? a. Direct saline wet mount c. Permanently stained smear b. Direct iodine wet mount d. Formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation 12. Autofluorescence requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of: a. Entamoeba histolytica cysts c. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites b. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites d. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts 13. Trophozoite forms of amoebae are found in what type of stool specimen? a. Formed b. Loose c. Soft d. Watery 14. Which preservation method is most suitable and the most widely used for subsequent fixed smear preparation? a. Formalin-ethyl acetate c. Trichome b. PVA d. MIF 1 15. The only known human tapeworm with an operculum is: a. Diphyllobothrium latum c. Giardia lamblia b. Hymenolepis nana d. Schistosoma haematobium 16. Charcot-Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be formed from the breakdown products of: a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Monocytes d. Lymphocytes 17. The incorrect match between organism and the appropriate diagnostic procedures is: a. Onchocerca volvulus – examination of skin snips b. Cryptosporidium – modified acid-fast stain c. Echinococcus granulosus – routine ova and parasite examination d. Schistosoma haematobium – examination of urine sediment 18. The egg depicted below is most likely to be found in children suffering from: a. Diarrhea c. Perianal itching b. Constipation d. Stomach pain 19. Patients with severe diarrhea should use “enteric precautions” to prevent nosocomial infections with: a. Giardia lamblia c. Cryptosporidium spp. b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Cystoisospora belli 20. A transplant patient on immunosuppressive drugs developed increasing diarrhea. The most likely combination of disease and diagnostic procedure is: a. Trichinosis and trichome stain c. Toxoplasmosis and gram stain b. Microsporidiosis and modified trichome stain d. Paragonimiasis and wet preparation 21. The specimen of choice for the recovery of T. hominis is which of the following? a. Stool c. Intestinal contents b. Urine d. Gastric contents 22. Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrheal disease include: a. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp. c. Blastocystis hominis and Trichomonas b. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba histolytica vaginalis d. Toxoplasma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni 23. This is the only hemoflagellate morphologic form that does not have an external flagellum: a. Trypomastigote c. Promastigote b. Amastigote d. Epimastigote 24. Toxoplasma gondii is characterized by: a. Possible congenital infection and ingestion of oocysts b. Cosmopolitan distribution and possible difficulties with interpretation of serological results c. Neither A or B d. Both A and B 25. Which of the following is not a reservoir host for L. mexicana complex? a. Squirrels b. Chipmunks c. Rats d. Snakes 26. The enlargement of cervical lymph nodes in reference to trypanosomal disease caused by Trypanosma brucei gambiense? a. Chancre c. Winterbottom’s sign b. Kerandel’s sign d. Somnolence 27. Which of the following is the vector first identified as responsible for transmitting T. cruzi? a. Phlebotomus spp. c. Panstrongylus megistus b. Lutzomyia spp. d. Glossina spp. 28. Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool? a. Formalin concentrate c. Modified acid fast-stained smear b. Trichome-stained smear d. Giemsa’s stain 29. A paroxysm is: a. An allergic reaction c. Both A and B are correct b. A periodic episode characterized by fever, d. None of the above chills, sweats, and fatigue 30. Which of the following is considered an antimalarial medication? a. Amoxicillin b. Erythromycin c. Chloroquine d. Dicyclomine 31. The incorrect match between disease and symptoms is: a. Paragonimiasis – hemoptysis b. Cryptosporidiosis – watery diarrhea 2  c. Toxoplasmosis in compromised host – central nervous system symptoms d. Enterobiasis – dysentery 32. Black water fever can be described by which of the following: a. Marked hemoglobinuria b. Marked hemoglobinuria and kidney involvement in P. falciparum infections c. Marked hemoglobinuria, kidney involvement in P. falciparum infections, and caused by P. falciparum-induced red blood cell destruction d. Marked hemoglobinuria, kidney involvement in P. falciparum infections, caused by P. falciparum-induced red blood cell destruction, and also known as Quartan Malaria 33. The specimen of choice for the recovery of Babesia is: a. Tissue c. Stool b. Cerebral spinal fluid d. Blood 34. Which of the following are laboratory diagnostic procedures recommended for specifically identifying B. microti? a. Thick and thin blood films d. Both B and C are correct b. Serologic testing e. None of the above c. PCR techniques 35. This member of the other protozoa group is typically identified via serologic test methods. a. Blastocystis b. Toxoplasma c. Sarcocystis d. Pneumocystis 36. Which of the following patients would be more likely to contract an infection with Isospora belli? a. HIV-positive man c. Pig farmer b. Female leukemia patient d. Nursing home patient 37. The life cycle of Balantidium coli and clinical symptoms are similar to that of which of the following? a. Isospora belli c. Crypyosporiodium parvum b. Entamoeba histolytica d. Giardia intestinalis 38. Which structure is always visible in the stained cyst and troph of Balantidium coli? a. Macronucleus c. Cilia b. Micronucleus d. Ingested bacteria 39. All of the following are highly recommended when processing samples for the identification of Isospora belli to ensure identification except: a. Iodine wet prep c. Modified acid-fast stain b. Decreased microscope light level d. Saline wet prep 40. Children infected with Trichuris trichiura commonly suffer from: a. Mental confusion c. Severe anemia b. Hemoglobinuria d. Rectal prolapse 41. Of the following choices, the best laboratory diagnosis technique for the recovery of Trichuris trichiura eggs is which of the following? a. Zinc sulfate flotation c. Ethyl acetate concentration b. Modified acid-fast stain d. Wright-giemsa stain 42. Individuals contract Ascaris lumbricoides via which of the following? a. Inhalation c. Ingestion b. Insect bite d. Inappropriate sexual practices 43. The term that describes the lack of an outer mammilated albuminous coating is called which of the following? a. Unfertilized c. Corticated b. Fertilized d. Decorticated 44. Which of the following are appropriate Ascaris lumbricoides prevention and control strategies? a. Proper water treatment c. Appropriate food handling b. Use of insect repellent d. Proper sanitation practices 45. The two clinical symptoms most commonly associated with Trichinella spiralis are which of the following? a. Constipation and abdominal pain c. Diarrhea and vomiting b. Vomiting urticarial d. Abdominal pain and diarrhea 46. The life cycle of Strongyloides stercoralis most resembles that of which of the following? a. Pin worm b. Whipworm c. Hookworm d. Threadworm 47. The eggs of which group of nematodes are indistinguishable? a. Whipworm and trichina worm c. Guinea worm and roundworm of man b. Hookworm and threadworm d. Pinworm and whipworm 48. The diagnostic stage of Trichinella spiralis is: a. Encysted larvae c. Eggs b. Cysts d. Adult worms 49. What type of periodicity is exhibited if microfilariae appear in blood of an individual at 2:00 pm each day? a. Nocturnal b. Diurnal c. Subperiodic d. Biannual 50. What type of periodicity does Loa loa exhibit? a. Nocturnal b. Subperiodic c. Diurnal d. None 3 51. Skin snips are the specimen of choice for diagnosis of infection with: a. Loa loa c. Brugia malayi b. Onchocerca volvulus d. Wuchereria bancrofti 52. Swelling of the lower extremities due to obstruction of the lymphatic system by adult filarial nematodes is known as: a. Periodicity b. Lymphangitis c. Eosinophilia d. Elephantiasis 53. “Cultures of parasites are different from bacterial cultures; no quality control is needed.” This statement is: a. True, if two tubes of media are set up for each patient b. True, if the media are checked every 24 hours c. False, unless two different types of media are used d. False, organism and media controls need to be set up 54. Which nematode has a characteristic mammillated bile stained egg? a. Ascaris b. Necator c. Strongyloides d. Trichuris 55. A persistent cough, localized pain, and liver and lung involvement are associated with an infection with of the following cestodes? a. Diphyllobothrium latum c. Both A and B b. Echinococcus granulosus d. None of the above 56. Which is the preferred drug for treating intestinal infection by Taenia spp.? a. Praziquantel b. Penicillin c. Nicolasamide d. Pentamidine 57. Prevention and control measures against H. diminuta include all except: a. Vaccination program c. Inspection of food prior to consumption b. Effective rodent control d. Protection of food from rodents 58. Which of the following does not apply to H. nana? a. Dwarf tapeworm c. Proper hygiene and sanitation procedures b. Steatorrhea d. Praziquantel therapy 59. A unique characteristic of Dipylidium caninum is which of the following? a. Lack of suckers on the scolex c. Proglottid resemblance to Taenia spp. b. Formation of egg packets d. Alternation of female and male proglottids 60. A 2-year-old and her pet dog were diagnosed with D. caninum infection. This infection was acquired by which of the following? a. Ingestion of the parasite’s egg c. Ingestion of a flea b. Penetration of soil larva d. Consumption of poorly cooked beef 61. The primary pathology associated with a D. latum infection is: a. Eosinophilic pneumonitis c. Vitamin B12 deficiency b. Vitamin D deficiency d. Fat malabsorption 62. The first intermediate host for all the trematode is: a. Fish b. Snail c. Shrimp d. Water plant 63. Pneumocystis jiroveci is believed to be spread via which of the following? a. Contaminated water c. Person-to-person b. Mosquito bite d. Hand-to-mouth 64. Stool preservative: a. PVA b. Ethyl alcohol c. NSS d. Water 65. The key feature that distinguishes Heterophyes from Clonorchis is which of the following? a. Size c. Appearance of shoulders b. Shape d. Location of operculum 66. The specimen of choice for the recovery of Heterophyes and Metagonimus is: a. Stool c. Urine b. Duodenal contents d. Sputum 67. The typical transmission route of Paragonimus to humans consists of: a. Consumption of contaminated crayfish or c. Hand-to-mouth contamination crabs d. Walking barefoot on contaminated sandy soil b. Swimming in contaminated water 68. What is the specimen of choice for the recovery of Schistosoma japonicum? a. Tissue biopsy b. Urine c. Sputum d. Stool 69. A systemic hypersensitivity reaction caused by the presence of Schistosoma is called? a. Bilharziasis c. Swamp fever b. Katayama fever d. Schistosomiasis 70. A Schistosoma egg with a terminal spine would be most likely found in: a. Feces b. Bile c. Sputum d. Urine 4 71. Which statement is correct for specimen collection and processing? a. Stool samples can contain urine b. Stools can be frozen without affecting parasitic structure c. Liquid stools are best for detecting ameba and flagellate trophozoites d. Unpreserved stools can remain at room temperature for up to 72 hours 72. Cysts are the infective stage of this flagellate: a. Balantidium coli c. Entamoeba coli b. Dientamoeba fragilis d. Giardia lamblia 73. Which organism has the largest egg? a. Clonorchis c. Fasciola b. Diphyllobothrium d. Paragonimus 74. Which of the following is the most important feature in differentiating cysts of Entamoeba histolytica from E. dispar? a. Number of nuclei d. Distinguishing surface antigens by b. Size of the cyst immunologic assays c. Shape of the karyosome 75. When malaria smears are requested, what patient information should be obtained? a. Diet, age, sex b. Age, antimalarial medication, sex c. Travel history, antimalarial medication, date of return to homeland d. Fever patterns, travel history, diet 76. A 60-year old female presents to her physician complaining of a fever that “comes and goes” and fatigue. A complete blood count reveals decreased red blood cell count and hemoglobin. History reveals the patient recently traveled through Europe and Africa. You should suspect? a. Cutaneous larval migrans c. Malaria b. Filariasis d. Trichinella 77. The disease most commonly associated with Acanthamoeba spp. is: a. Diarrhea c. Liver abscess b. Keratitis d. Meningoencephalitis 78. Hydatid cysts in humans are due to ingestion of a tapeworm normally found in canines. This stage is the: a. Cercaria c. Cysticercus b. Cercocystis d. Embryonated egg 79. For which of the following diseases is close contact with an infected human host the most important mechanism of transmission? a. Schistosomiasis c. Trichinosis b. Toxoplasmosis d. Trichomoniasis 80. Migration of larva through the skin can sometimes produce allergic reactions called larva migrans; this is associated with: a. Strongyloides stercoralis c. Onchocerca volvulus b. Dracunculus medinensis d. Loa loa 81. Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective for humans? a. Cysticercus larva c. Filariform larva b. Embryonated egg d. Rhabditiform larva 82. Sanitary disposal of human feces is the most important factor in decreasing the incidence of most infections caused by intestinal parasites. Which of the following diseases would not be affected by that kind of sanitation? a. Ascariasis c. Trichinosis b. Taeniasis d. Hookworm infection 83. Which of the following is the largest intestinal protozoa infecting humans? a. Balantidium coli c. Entamoeba histolytica b. Dientamoeba fragilis d. Giardia lamblia 84. Which species of Plasmodium can have exoerythrocytic stages capable of causing relapses months or years after initial infection? a. Plasmodium falciparum c. Plasmodium malariae b. Plasmodium ovale d. Plasmodium cynomolgi 85. Hematuria is a typical sign human infection caused by: a. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Trichonomas vaginalis b. Trichinella spiralis d. Schistosoma haematobium 86. Which of the following forms of Toxoplasma gondii are produced in infected humans? a. Bradyzoites c. Sporoblasts b. Macrogametes d. Oocysts 87. Which of the following is the vector for Babesia? a. Fleas b. Lice c. Ticks d. Mosquitoes 5 88. Necator americanus rhabditiform larvae can be differentiated from Strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform larvae by: a. Length of the notched tail c. Segmentation b. Length of the head region d. Size of the genital primordium 89. Ova recovered from the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following except? a. Necator americanus c. Trichuris trichiura b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Strongyloides stercoralis 90. Which of the following parasites have migration through the lungs as part of their life cycle? a. Necator americanus, Ancyclostoma duodenale, Strongyloides stercoralis b. Giardia lamblia, Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi c. Enterobius vermicularis, Trichuris trichiura, Trichinella spiralis d. Toxocara canis, Toxoplasma gondii, Blastocystis hominis 91. A patient was diagnosed with diagnosed with cysts in his liver. He works in a sheep herding operation. The adult parasite shown below was passed by his pet dog. It measured 5mm. What is the most likely identification of this organism? a. Diphyllobothrium latum c. Echinococcus granulosus b. Dipylidium caninum d. Taenia solium 92. Identify the following organism as it appears in this peripheral blood smear. a. Trypanosoma sp. c. Wuchereria bancrofti b. Leishmania sp. d. Loa loa 93. If a physician suspects an individual has the potential for infection with Mansonella perstans, what specimen type would you suggest for recovery of the organism? a. Skin snips c. Blood b. Lymphatic fluid d. Infected nodules 94. A 44-year old man was admitted to the hospital following a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Examination of a Giemsa stain revealed many intraerythrocytic parasites. Further history revealed frequent camping trips Martha’s Vineyard and Nantucket Island, but no travel outside the continental United States. This parasite could easily be confused with: a. Trypanosoma cruzi c. Plasmodium falciparum b. Trypanosoma brucei rhodiense/gambiense d. Leishmania donovani 95. A batch of trichrome-stained slides for ova and parasite examination minute crystals, which totally obscure the microscopic field. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate remedial action? a. Change the Schaudinn fixative, remove coverslips and restain b. Change the acid alcohol and restain c. Remove coverslips and remount using fresh permount or similar medium d. Change the iodine alcohol solution to obtain a strong tea-colored solution, restain 96. A 26-year-old woman, who just returned from vacationing in Russia, became ill with steatorrheal diarrhea. The below organism was found in her stool. The patient most likely is suffering from: a. Giardiasis b. Amebiasis c. Ascariasis d. Balantidiasis 97. A liquid stool specimen is collected at 10pm and brought to the laboratory for culture and ova and parasite examination. It is refrigerated until 10:10 am the next day, when the physician requests the technologist look for amoebic trophozoites. The best course of action would be: a. Request for fresh specimen b. Perform a concentration on the original specimen 6  c. Perform a trichome stain on the original specimen d. Perform a saline wet mount on the original specimen 98. The term “internal autoinfection” is generally used in referring to infections with: a. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Trichuris trichiura b. Necator americanus d. Strongyloides stercoralis 99. Which of the following is the preferred anticoagulant for preparing blood smears for diagnosing malaria? a. EDTA c. Sodium citrate b. Heparin d. Sodium fluoride 100. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the asymptomatic carrier state of patient infected with E. histolytica? a. Low virulence strain c. Intact patient’s immune system b. Low inoculation into host d. Patient’s blood type 101. The causative agent of cysticercosis is: a. Taenia solium c. Ascaris lumbricoides b. Enterobius vermicularis d. Heterophyes heterophyes 102. When stool examination is negative, the preferred specimen for the diagnosis of paragonimiasis: a. Bile drainage c. Sputum b. Duodenal parasite d. Rectal biopsy 103. Organisms that can be easily identified to the species level from the ova in fecal specimens include: a. Metagonimus yokogawai, Heterophyes c. Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale heterophyes d. Paragonimus westermani, Hymenolepis nana b. Taenia solium, Taenia saginata 104. The incorrect match between the organism and one method of acquiring the infection is: a. Trypanosoma brucei rhodiense – bite of sand fleas b. Giardia lamblia – ingestion of water contaminated with cysts c. Hookworm – skin penetration of larvae from soil d. Toxoplasma gondii – ingestion of raw or rare meats 105. Which of the following is not a characteristic finding in Chagas’ disease? a. Romana’s sign b. Megacolon c. Cardiomegaly d. Somnolence 106. A gram stain from a gum lesion showed what appeared to be amoebae. A trichome smear showed with a single nucleus and partially digested PMNs. The correct identification is: a. Trichonomas tenax c. Entamoeba gingivalis b. Entamoeba histolytica/E. dispar d. Entamoeba polecki 107. Which of these procedures is involved in the microscopic examination of stool specimens for parasites? a. Performing a concentration technique c. Examining sample for gross abnormalities b. Determining specimen consistency d. Analyzing sample for color 108. An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics: a. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingested RBCs, and clear pseudopodia b. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and uneven chromatin on the nuclear membrane c. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and large glycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm d. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested white blood cells, and granular pseudopods 109. The following organisms are linked with specific, relevant information. The incorrect combination is: a. Strongyloides stercoralis – internal autoinfection b. Echinococcus granulosus – hydatid examination c. Toxoplasma – serology d. Balantidium coli – common within the United States 110. Humans acquire infections with Diphyllobothrium latum adult worms by: a. Ingestion of freshwater crabs c. Ingestion of water chestnuts b. Skin penetration of cercariae d. Ingestion of raw freshwater fish 111. Characteristics of the cestodes include all of the following except: a. They are hermaphroditic d. Their anatomic regions include the scolex, b. They generally require intermediate host neck, and strobili c. Their laboratory diagnosis consists of finding larvae in feces 112. The examination of blood film should be performed at ___ to detect microfilariae. a. LPO c. OIO b. HPO d. Depending if its thick or thin film 113. Which microfilariae are usually not found circulating in the peripheral blood? a. Brugia malayi c. Onchocerca volvulus b. Wuchereria bancrofti d. Loa loa 114. A common name/s for disease/s caused by L. donovani is/are: a. Visceral leishmaniasis b. Kala-azar 7  c. Dum dum fever d. All of the above 115. Which of the following are morphologic features of P. malariae? a. Schuffner’s dots c. Maurer’s dots b. Ziemann’s dots d. None of the above 116. Where do Plasmodium falciparum sporozoites proliferate? a. Bone marrow b. Liver c. RBCs d. nRBCs 117. Fecal immunoassays have become more commonly used to diagnose infections with: a. Endolimax nana and Blastocystis hominis c. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichuris trichiura b. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp. d. Strongyloides stercoralis and T. vaginalis 118. Primary infections with the microsporidia may originate in: a. The lung c. The gastrointestinal tract b. The nervous system d. Mucocutaneous lesions 119. The incorrect match between symptoms and disease is: a. Dysentery – amebiasis c. Cardiac involvement – chronic Chagas disease b. Malabsorption syndrome – giardiasis d. Myalgias - trichuriasis 120. Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. have most commonly been traced to: a. Use of soft contact lenses c. Use of contaminated lens care solutions b. Use of hard contact lenses d. Failure to remove lenses while swimming 121. When staining hen staining Cystoisospora belli oocysts with modified acid-fast stains, the important difference between these methods and the acid-fast stains used for acid-fast bacilli is: a. The staining time is much longer with regular AFB acid-fast stains b. The decolorizer is weaker than acid alcohol used for AFB decolorizing c. A counterstain must be used for the modified methods d. The stain is more concentrated when staining for AFB 122. The incorrect match between organism and characteristic is: a. Chilomastix mesnili – Shepherd’s crook and c. Hymenolepis nana – striated shell lemon shape d. Wuchereria bancrofti – sheathed microfilariae b. Plasmodium malariae – band troph 123. There are few procedures considered STAT in parasitology. The most obvious situation would be: a. Ova and parasite examination for giardiasis c. Blood films for malaria b. Baermann’s concentration for strongyloidiasis d. Culture for amoebic keratitis 124. The incorrect match between method and method objective is: a. Direct wet examination – detection of organism motility b. Knott’s concentration – the recovery of operculated helminth eggs c. Baermann’s concentration – the recovery of Strongyloides d. Permanent stained fecal smear – confirmation of protozoa 125. Diagnosis of infection with Wuchereria bancrofti can be accomplished by all of the following method except: a. Serologic testing c. Knott technique b. Tissue biopsies d. Thick and thin PBS 126. When humans have hydatid disease, the causative agent and host classification are: a. Echinococcus granulosus – accidental intermediate host b. Echinococcus granulosus – definitive host c. Taenia solium – accidental intermediate host d. Taenia solium – definitive host 127. A 45-year-old hunter developed fever, myalgia, and periorbital edema. He has a history of bear meat consumption. The most likely causative agent is: a. Toxoplasma gondii c. Hymenolepis nana b. Taenia solium d. Trichinella spiralis 128. Which specimen type and collection regimen would be most appropriate for the diagnosis of G. intestinalis? a. One stool sample c. Multiple stool samples collected on b. Two stool samples subsequent days d. One stool sample and one blood sample 129. The specimen of choice for the recovery of N. fowleri is which of the following? a. Sputum c. Cerebrospinal fluid b. Stool d. Urine 130. After returning from a 2-year stay in India, a patient has eosinophilia, an enlarged left spermatic cord, and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. The most likely clinical specimen and organism match is: a. Thin blood films – Leishmania c. Thin blood films – Babesia b. Urine – concentration for Trichomonas d. Thick blood films – microfilariae vaginalis 8 131. Which species of malaria parasite usually has ameboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm? a. Plasmodium knowlesi c. Plasmodium malariae b. Plasmodium falciparum d. Plasmodium vivax 132. Which of the following statements is true regarding onchocerciasis? a. The adult worm is present in the blood c. The diagnostic test of choice is the skin snip b. The microfilariae are in the blood during the d. The parasite resides in the deep lymphatics late evening hours 133. When using preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of fixative to stool? a. One part fixative to one part stool c. Three parts fixative to one part stool b. Two parts fixative to one part stool d. Four parts fixative to one part stool 134. It is the largest intestinal roundworm. a. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Trichuris trichiura b. Enterobius vermicularis d. Hookworm 135. The most prevalent helminth to infect humans is: a. Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm c. Taenia saginata, the beef tapeworm b. Ascaris lumbricoides, the large intestinal d. Schistosoma mansoni, one of the blood flukes roundworm 136. Which of the following is mercury-containing fixative used to preserve parasites in stool specimens? a. Formalin c. Buffered glycerol b. Sodium acetate d. Polyvinyl alcohol 137. One of the biggest disadvantages of formalin as fixative for O&P is that: a. It cannot be used for concentration procedures c. It cannot be used for direct microscopic b. It cannot be used for permanent stained slides examinations d. It cannot be used for detecting protozoan cysts 138. Which of these parasite should be quantitated in the parasitology report? a. Giardia intestinalis c. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Entamoeba coli d. Blastocystis hominis 139. The distinguishing feature allows fleas to move quickly. a. Presence of pronotal ctenidia c. Extra long rear pair of legs b. Absence of eyes d. A and C are correct 140. Which of the following findings can help differentiate WBCs from amebic cysts? a. Size c. Absence of protozoan nuclear inclusions b. Number of nuclei d. None of the above 141. Which parasite may be confused with epithelial cells because of their similar size and shape? a. Helminth eggs c. Amebic trophozoites b. Plasmodium spp. d. Dientamoeba fragilis 142. The scientific name for sexual reproduction that occurs in select miscellaneous protozoa is: a. Sporogony c. Gametogony b. Erythrocytic cycle d. Binary fission 143. Fasciolopsis buski infects which organ in humans? a. Bile ducts c. Colon b. Liver d. Small intestine 144. Diagnosis of infection with Wuchereria bancrofti is best accomplished by: a. Examination of stained peripheral blood taken during the night b. Examination of stained tissue biopsy taken during the night c. Use of serologic testing with blood taken during the day d. Examination of stained lymph fluid taken during the day 145. Polyvinyl alcohol is used in the preparation of permanently stained smears of fecal material to: a. Concentrate eggs c. Serve as an adhesive b. Dissolve artifact d. Enhance stain preparation 146. Which of the following is a self-limiting infection characterized by a gradual onset of headache, chills, sweating, and fatigue that demonstrates no periodicity? a. Ehrlichia phagocytophila c. Plasmodium vivax b. Babesia microti d. Plasmodium ovale 147. The determination of Fasciolopsis versus Fasciola can only be accomplished in the laboratory by the recovery of which of the following? a. Eggs b. Larvae c. Adults d. Sporocysts 148. The species of mosquito most commonly known to serve as a vector for the genus Plasmodium is: a. Ixodes b. Anopheles c. Culex d. Glossina 9 149. Parasite that is established inside of a host is called: a. Endoparasite c. Transport host b. Ectoparasite d. Facultative parasite 150. Host other than the normal one that is harboring a parasite is called: a. Accidental host c. Both A and B b. Incidental host d. Neither A nor B 151. It has a Barber’s pole appearance. a. Angiostronglyus cantonensis c. Necator americanus b. Dracunculus medinensis d. Strongyloides stercoralis 152. Types of leishmaniasis. a. Visceral c. Visceral, Mucocutaneous, Cutaneous b. Visceral, Mucocutaneous d. None of the above 153. It is the gold standard for Malaria detection: a. PCR c. Quantitative buffy coat b. Giemsa blood stain d. Trichrome stain 154. Wandering larvae: a. Trichuris trichiura c. Microfilaria b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Hookworm 155. It emulsifies granules and stains the parasites: a. Lugol’s iodine c. Trichrome stain b. Saline d. Iron hematoxylin stain 156. Microsporidial infections can be confirmed using: a. Iron hematoxylin stain c. Lugol’s iodine b. Modified trichrome stain d. NSS 157. It can be acquired through feline feces: a. Echinococcus granulosus c. Toxoplasma gondii b. Taenia saginata d. Heterophyes heterophyes 158. N95 should be: a. Outer part is wet but inner part is dry c. Worn inside the laboratory only b. Snug fit d. None of the above 159. Scabs are: a. Infection c. Either of the two b. Infestation d. Neither of the two 160. Loeffler’s syndrome: a. Peripheral eosinophilia c. Katayama fever b. Mechanical obstruction d. Blackwater fever 161. Operculated with terminal knobs (abopercular knob): a. Diphyllobothrium latum c. Dipylidium caninum b. Echinococcus granulosus d. Hymenolepis nana 162. It resembles eggs of s. haematobium but is acid-fast positive: a. Schistosoma mekongi c. Schistosoma intercalatum b. Schistosoma mansoni d. Schistosoma japonicum 163. What is the infective stage of Paragonimus westermanii? a. Metacercaria c. Schistosomule b. Cercaria d. None of the above 164. Most common non-viral sexually transmitted infection: a. Trichomoniasis c. Syphilis infection b. Chlamydia infections d. Ascariasis 165. A patient present with vague abdominal pains and a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. A possible causative parasite is: a. Enterobius vermicularis c. Brugia malayi b. Ancyclostoma duodenale d. Trichinella spiralis 166. Which of the following roundworms is capable of hyperinfection and a heavy worm burden with characteristic larval migration required in the life cycle? a. Ancylostoma duodenale c. Strongyloides stercoralis b. Enterobius vermicularis d. Ascaris lumbricoides 167. A primate parasite has been isolated from humans in Africa and causes a severe life-threatening condition called “Swollen belly Syndrome”. a. Toxocara cati c. Ancylostoma caninum b. Toxocara canis d. Strongyloides fuelleborni 168. Oocysts of Cryptosporidium spp. can be detected in stool specimens using: a. Modified Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain b. Gram stain 10  c. Methenamine silver stain d. Trichome stain 169. Lymphatic vessel involvement within retroperitoneal region is associated with: a. Brugia malayi c. Onchocerca volvulus b. Loa loa d. Wuchereria bancrofti 170. The tail of this microfilaria is often referred to as a “Shepherd’s crook”: a. Mansonella perstans c. Mansonella streptocerca b. Mansonella ozzardi d. Wuchereria bancrofti 171. The endosymbiont Wolbachia sp. Is required for parasite reproduction in all of the following except: a. Onchocerca volvulus c. Loa loa b. Brugia timori d. Wuchereria bancrofti 172. Removal and gradual retraction of the adult gravid female worm is recommended in infections with: a. Ancylostoma braziliense c. Trichinella spiralis b. Dracunculus medinensis d. Toxocara cati 173. The following infection may resemble acute appendicitis: a. Parastrongylus costaricencis c. Toxocara cati b. Gnathostoma sp. d. Parastrongylus caninum 174. Protozoan with large karyosome, may be surrounded by refractile granules that are difficult to see (Basket Nucleus): a. Endolimax nana c. Entamoeba histolytica b. Entamoeba coli d. Iodamoeba butschlii 175. Which one of the following tests for Entamoeba histolytica has the highest sensitivity and specificity? a. Colonic ulcer biopsy c. Stool EIA b. Stool microscopy d. Urine PCR 176. The organism is found most commonly in the crypts in the duodenum: a. Cryptosporidium c. Giardia lamblia b. Isospora spp. d. Entamoeba histolytica 177. Xenodiagnosis is used for which parasite? a. Schistosoma mansoni c. Loa loa b. Trypanosoma cruzi d. Wuchereria bancrofti 178. The leading cause of death in malaria endemic areas; although the host can develop antibody protection is train specific and short-lived: a. Plasmodium falciparum c. Plasmodium ovale b. Plasmodium malariae d. Plasmodium vivax 179. Important cause of chorioretinitis may be result of congenital or acquired infection, acquired infection being more common than conne infection: a. Cyxlospora cayetanensis c. Toxoplasma gondii b. Cryptosporidium spp. d. Dientamoeba fragilis 180. What is the test for the detection of Cryptosporidium: a. Baermann technique c. Sabin-feldman dye test b. Knott’s technique d. Sheather’s sugar flotation 181. The protozoa causing diarrhea that has been associated with raspberries, strawberries, herbs, and some vegetables is: a. Cyclospora cayetanensis c. Dientamoeba fragilis b. Cryptosporidium spp. d. Cystoisopora belli 182. Elements of plant origin that resembles some parasite includes: 1. Plant cells/fibers 3. Starch granules 2. Pollen grains 4. Vegetable spirals a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 183. The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the flotation method is: a. 1.01 b. 1.04 c. 1.18 d. 1.48 184. A host in which the parasite does not develop further to later stages, however, the parasite remains alive and is able to infect another susceptible host: a. Intermediate host c. Paratenic host b. Definitive host d. Reservoir host 185. Relapses in malarial infections are caused by: a. Further mosquito bites b. Delayed development of red cell schizonts c. Differentiation of gametocytes into trophozoites d. Reinvasion of the blood form infected liver cells 186. Which parasite/s is/are hermaphroditic? 1. Flukes 2. Roundworms 3. Tapeworms a. 1 and 2 c. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 11 187. The zoonotic disease knowns as creeping eruption is caused by: a. Ascaris lumbricoides c. Dirofilaria spp. b. Ancylostoma braziliense d. Toxocara canis 188. The fluke acquired by eating contaminated vegetation is: a. Clonorchis sinensis b. Fasciolopsis buski d. Paragonimus westermani c. Heterophyes heterophyes 189. All of the following except one infect humans by entrance of the infective stage through skin. Which one has a different route of entrance? a. S. japonicum c. Ancylostoma duodenale b. Strongyloides stercoralis d. Heterophyes heterophyes 190. Proper collection of a sample for recovery of Enterobius vermicularis includes collecting: a. A 24-hour urine collection c. A scotch tape preparation from the perianal b. A first morning stool collection with proper region preservative d. Peripheral blood from a finger 191. Identify the parasite below seen from a muscle biopsy: a. Trichinella spiralis c. Enterobius vermicularis b. Ascaris lumbricoides d. Trichuris trichiura 192. Identify the Schistosoma egg below: a. Schistosoma mansoni egg c. Schistosoma haematobium egg b. Schistosoma japonicum egg d. None of the above 193. Identify the Schistosoma egg below: a. Schistosoma mansoni egg c. Schistosoma haematobium egg b. Schistosoma japonicum egg d. None of the above 194. Identify the Schistosoma egg below: a. Schistosoma mansoni egg c. Schistosoma haematobium egg b. Schistosoma japonicum egg d. None of the above 195. Identify the cestode egg below: a. Taenia spp. eggs d. Dipylidium caninum eggs b. Diphyllobothrium latum eggs c. Hymenolepis nana eggs 12 196. Identify the netamode egg below: a. Trichuris trichiura egg c. Enterobius vermicularis egg b. Ascaris lumbricoides egg d. Hookworm egg 197. Identify the nematode below: a. Trichuris trichiura egg c. Enterobius vermicularis egg b. Ascaris lumbricoides egg d. Hookworm egg 198. Identify which Plasmodium spp. does this macrogametocyte belongs to: a. Plasmodium ovale c. Plasmodium malariae b. Plasmodium falciparum d. Plasmodium vivax 199. Which specimen would be suitable for a demonstration of a trypanosomes of sleeping sickness? 1. Blood 3. CSF 2. Fluid from a lymph node a. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 b. 1 and 3 d. All are correct 200. How would you collect liquid stool from an infant? a. Stool collected in a diaper b. Cotton swab c. Stool from a plastic bag d. Stool container 13