Patient Care Management Q&A PDF

Patient Care Management 1. Rectal temperature is = 99.6 2. Tympanic temperature = 97.6 3. Oral temperature = 98.6 F 4. Axillary temperature = 97.6 F 5. Radiographs are property of = health care institution 6. Chemical substances that inhibit the gr...

Patient Care Management 1. Rectal temperature is = 99.6 2. Tympanic temperature = 97.6 3. Oral temperature = 98.6 F 4. Axillary temperature = 97.6 F 5. Radiographs are property of = health care institution 6. Chemical substances that inhibit the growth of pathogenic microorganisms without necessary killing them = antiseptics 7. Which of the following body fluids are potential carriers of HIV = semen = vaginal secretions = blood 8. Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure = sphygmomanometer = stethoscope 9. Symptoms of shock = increase in pulse rate = relentlessness and apprehension 10. Diseases which is mode of transmission is thru air = tuberculosis = mums = rubella 11. Ambulatory patient is one who = is able to walk 12. All of the following statements regarding oxygen delivery are true except = none of the above. All of them are true ✓ = oxygen is classified as drug and must be prescribed by a physician ✓ = mode of delivery must be part of the physicians order for oxygen ✓ = oxygen may be ordered continuously or as needed by the patient 13. Material safety data sheets (MSDS) provide directions for = all of the above  ✓ = cleaning up and disposal of hazardous chemical ✓ = handling of hazardous materials ✓ = safe use of hazardous materials 14. What agency regulates processing chemistry = EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) 15. Pelvicalyceal can be seen approximately how many minutes after the injection = 2 to 8 16. The number 1 frequent site of nosocomial infection = urinary tract 17. Acquired by injection of anti-bodies of a particular infection into an individual = passive immunity 18. What is the first stage of infection = incubation period = latent period 19. What microorganisms that need of a host cell to produce and virtually unresponsive to anti-microbial drugs = viruses 20. What is the best position of patient with tracheostomy = semi-fowlers position 21. Any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms = medical asepsis 22. Which of the following procedures does not required the use of surgical aseptic technique = gastro intestinal series 23. What drug used in gastric disease as an anti-spasmodic = aertropic 24. Abnormal sensation of numbness = paresthesia 25. Deep vein thrombosis is suspected when one of patients sign or symptoms is = Homan’s sign 26. Protective or reverse isolation is required in which of the following conditions = burns = leukemia 27. Which of the following are examples of tissue drains = hemovac = penrose 28.. 29. A drugs chemical name is called  = generic name 30. Guidelines of cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces includes = clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area = clean from the top down 31. If the radiographer perform a lumbar spinal examination on a patient who was supposed to have an elbow exam. Which of the following charges can file against the radiographer = battery 32. Instead physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include = loss of bone calcium 33. Which statements would be true regarding tracheostomy patients = tracheostomy patients have difficulties in speaking = audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction 34. A esophagogram might be requested for patients with which of the following esophageal disorders or symptoms = varices = achalasia 35. When a GI series has been requested on a patient with suspected of perforated ulcer the type of contrast media medium to be used is = water soluble iodinated media 36. Which of the following statements are true regarding proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy = employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason = before you suction a tracheostomy the patient should be well aerated = never suction for longer than 15seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between 37. A Patient experience an episode of syncope should be placed in which of the following position = dorsal recumbent with feet elevated 38. The angle of needles tip is termed = bevel 39. It attaches the needle to the syringe = hub 40. The diameter of a needle is termed = gauge 41. Which of the following drugs is considered a bronchodilator = epinephrine 42. Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be use for an anaphylactic reaction and cardiac arrest  = epinephrine 43. Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called = germicides = disinfectance 44. Which of the following radiographic examination is a consent form is usually required = angiogram 45. All of the following rules regarding surgical hand scrubbing are correct EXCEPT = keep hands and forearms lower than elbow = use antimicrobial agent = arms should be bear for at least 4inches above the elbow 46. Local anesthetics are likely to be use in all of the following radiographic examinations EXCEPT = post-operative or t-tube cholangiography ✓ = lower extremity ✓ = arteriography ✓ = arthrography ✓ = myelography 47. During a grand mal seizure the patient should be = protected from injury 48. Patient suffering from orthopnea but experience the least discomfort in which body position = fowlers 49. Which of the following conditions is a double contrast barium enema essential for demonstration of the condition = polyps = colitis 50. When a radiographer is obtaining a patient history, both subjective and objective data should be obtained. An example of subjective data is = the patient states that he experiences extreme pain in the upright position 51. Which of the followings are symptoms of shock = pallor = weakness = increase pulse rate 52. The current chairman of board of radiologic technology = Reynaldo Apollonio Tisado 53. The salary grade for rad tech 2 in public health center = grade 15 54. The salary grade for rad tech 3 in public health center  = grade 18 55. The salary grade for rad tech 4 in public health center = grade 20 56. The salary grade for rad tech 5 in public health center = grade 22 57. The salary grade for rad tech 1 in public health center = grade 12 58. In line with patient preparation, what order should the following examinations may perform = IVP = GB = BE = UGI 59. Which of the following examination can be perform together = GI and IVU 60. Which of the following examination can be perform together = GI and GB 61. An assessment of patients neurologic function = Glasgow coma scale 62. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =4 = eyes open continuously = motor response to localize pain = verbal response is oriented 63. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =7 = eyes open to voice = motor has no response = verbal response is inappropriate words 64. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =8 = eyes open to painful stimulus = motor response to abnormal flexion = verbal response is inappropriate word 65. in assessment of patients neurologic functioning, what are the possible corresponding points for the following circumstances is present =3 = eyes have no response = motor has no response = has no verbal response 66. a common group of drugs that are used to control generalized seizures = Dilantin = phenytoin 67. the drug name given by the manufacturer = trade name 68. factors that may influence the effect of drugs are = medication history and patients temperament = age and weight = gender and time of the day 69. a law mandating and strengthening the obtained professional development program for all regulated professions creating a continuing professional development (CPD) council = R.A. 10912 70. Refers to the inculcation or advance knowledge, skill, and ethical values in post licensure specialization or in a inter – or multidisciplinary field of study = Continuing professional development CPD 71. Refers to the body created to promote and ensure the continuous improvement of professionals in accordance with national, regional and international standard of practice = CPD council 72. Refers to learning that occurs in daily life assessed thru the recognition, validation and accreditation process and which can contribute to a qualification = informal learning 73. Refers to a person’s skills, knowledge, and competencies that have been acquired to work experience, training, independent studies, volunteering activities and hobbies that may be applies for academic credit as a requirement of training program or for occupational certificate = prior learning 74. CPD council shall be composed of a chairperson and two members. The chairperson of the CPD council shall be the = member of the PRB 75.. CPD council shall be composed of a chairperson and two members. The first member of the CPD council shall be the = president or officer of APO 76. CPD council shall be composed of a chairperson and two members. The second member of the CPD council shall be the = president or officer of the national organization of deans 77. The current chairperson of the CPD council = ORESTES P. MONZON 78. The incumbent first member of the CPD council is from = APO 79. The second member of CPD council is coming from = Academe or association of deans