OTM & GTM Questions Review 2022 PDF

1. View the exhibit. Bob is a user in the “3PL COMPANY” domain and has been assigned the “Admin” User Role ID. What must you do to make sure that Bob has the authority to view and plan all the orders from all the Client domains shown? A. Create a Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain that has at least “Default” authority, and use OTM’s GRANTS to assign Bob’s user ID in each of the Client domains. B. Use OTM’s VPD to assign Bob’s user ID in each of the Client domains. C. Do nothing, because Bob will automatically be authorized to plan all of the orders. D. Create a Role in each of the Client domains with the same name, and add Bob’s user ID to the Role. E. Use OTM’s to add Bob to the Planner Role in the 3PL COMPANY domain. Answer: C 2.Select three statements that are true. A. Appointments can be used (instead of IB Loads) as a way of checking in Loads into the WMS Cloud for receiving. B. The Duration as specified cannot be exceeded by the users. C. Appointments cannot be used to track lead-time from the trailer’s check-in time to the receipt of the first LPN into the system. D. The matching value type and matching value must be specified when the appointment is created. E. Appointments are useful for tracking time discrepancies in various metrics such as planned and actual arrival time. Answer: ADE 3. Your customer required order revisions from an external system. The customer is concerned that all order lines will have to be sent again in the revised order even through the customer typically changes only one or two lines. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Order lines can be canceled by sending a cancellation request. B. All order lines will have to be sent again in the revised order. C. Missing order lines are assumed to be canceled. D. Missing order lines are not assumed to be canceled. E. A revised order can contain just the updated order line. Answer: ADE 4.Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. A role cannot be assigned external authentication. B. A role can be granted to other roles. C. A role can contain both system and object privileges. D. The predefined resource role includes the unlimited_tablespace privilege. E. All roles are owned by the sys user. F. The predefined connect role is always automatically granted to all new users at the time of their creation. Answer: BC 5. In which two ways can you determine which tables have “parent” or “child” relationships to the CONTACT table? (Choose two.) A. View the data dictionary to identify the relationships. B. Refer to Power Data under Configuration and Administration. C. In OTM, navigate to Configuration and Administration > Contacts > Contacts. Select “Help” and review the data table relationships. D. Export the CONTACTS table, and use the “xcsvwpcd” command. Correct Answer: AD 6. You are creating a Shipment Agent and you need to Raise an Event to trigger another agent for the Order Release that is linked to the shipment. Which agent action do you have to use? A. SCHEDULE EVENT B. FOR EACH C. RAISE EVENT D. RAISE RELEASE EVENT E. FOR Correct Answer: C 7. Which three statements are true regarding tracking events? A. Service Provider can enter tracking events. B. Planner can enter tracking events. C. Tracking events can be created via Integration. D. Workflow can trigger tracking events. Correct Answer: ABC 8.How can you group items with similar characteristics in OTM? A. Use Commodity B. Use Equipment Group Profile. C. Use Equipment Class. D. Use NMFC Class. Correct Answer: A 9.If an agent is associated with a shipment, and the agent also acts upon the order releases that are on that shipment, which definition is an example of this? A. Relationship Proofing B. Agent Object Linkage C. Data Type Association D. Referential Integrity E. Parent-Child Relationship Correct Answer: C 10.The company Planner has a dual role (Planner and Documentation). In which two ways can you assign multiple roles to a user? A. Add Multiple Roles in User Manager. B. Add User Role Grants in User Role. C. Add Grantee user in the User Role. D. Add Access Control List in the User Roles. Correct Answer: BC 11.Which three statements are true, when setting up user signing/approval authority to support Freight Payment rules? A. The user approval rules cannot be changed for the user after the service providers have been paid. B. One can specify the set of service providers that the user has approval limits for. C. If the freight settlement process is automated in OTM, then we do not have to set up user approval limits. D. Different users can have different maximum approval amounts. E. The approval rule profile assigned to the user sets the maximum amounts that a user can manually approve or adjust in an Invoice. Correct Answer: CDE 12.Identify the object in which Saved query cannot be used. A. Automation Agents B. Business Monitors C. Finders (Search pages) D. Reports Correct Answer: D 13. When creating an Itinerary one of the parameters that can be set on the Parameters tab is the "INCO Term Profile ID". What are INCO Terms? A. Insurance Company terms that define the carrier’s indemnification rights and responsibilities. B. International Commerce terms that define which party owns freight at each point in the shipment process. C. International Cargo Operations terms that define the classes of air and ocean vessels approved for shipping commercial freight. D. Incorporation terms that define the geographies that a carrier is licensed to operate within. Correct Answer: B 14.Identify three true statements about CSV import files. A. OTM allows you to import CSV files both manually and automatically. B. CSV files cannot be imported into OTM; they can only be exported from OTM. C. The "iu" command is a valid command you can use when importing a CSV file into OTM. D. OTM imports the data to a database queue. You must run the Integration Manager to refresh the data tables from the queue. E. OTM imports the data directly into the OTM tables that you specify in the CSV file. Correct Answer: ACE 15.Identify the incorrect option about the commodity setup. A. You can select transportation modes while defining a commodity. B. You can link commodity with equipment types while defining a new commodity. C. Specific temperature controls cannot be assigned while defining a commodity. D. Incompatible commodities can be captured while defining a commodity. Correct Answer: C 16.Your customer needs a new Buy Shipment Search Screen where users do not have the "Source Pier Location" and "Destination Pier Location" fields. How can this be achieved? A. Create New Screen Set, Assign to Manager Layout, Assign to Menu Manager, Assign to User via User Access Manager. B. Create Manager Layout- Assign to Screen Set-Assign to Menu Manager-Assign to User via User Access Manager. C. Create New Screen Set, Assign to Menu Manager, Assign to User via Manage User Access. D. Create New Manager Layout, Assign to Menu Manager, Assign to User via Manage User Access. Correct Answer: B 17.A new Business Monitor with an "OR_NEW" ID was created to view Order Releases with the Status "Planning_New". While viewing the Business Monitor, it was showing the Shipment result page instead of the Order Release result page. What should have been the Business Monitor configuration? A. The Business Monitor Query ID and the Saved Query ID Object should be Order Release. B. The Business Monitor Saved Query ID and the Screen Set ID Object should be Order Release. C. The Business Monitor Query ID, Saved Query ID, and Screen Set ID Object should be Order Release. D. The Business Monitor Query ID and Screen Set ID Object should be Order Release. Correct Answer: C 18.When configuring Power Units for a Fleet, there is parameter named "Power Unit Type ID". Select the three statements that are true about this parameter. A. Power Unit Type ID is used to group Power Units based on the GEOGRAPHICAL attributes of the unit, for example, the countries, regions, states, or provinces where is can operate. B. Power Unit Type ID is used to group Power Units based on the PHYSICAL attributes of the unit, for example, those containing sleeper cabs. C. Power Unit Type ID is a required parameter. D. Power Unit Type ID is not a required parameter. Correct Answer: ABC 19.Which statement is false about shipment cost? A. Cost Fixed check box at shipment indicates that the cost for this entire shipment is fixed. B. Rate Record Fixed check box at shipment indicates that the rate record for this shipment is fixed and cannot be changed. C. Rate Offering Fixed check box at shipment indicates that the rate offering for this shipment is fixed. D. Planned cost field can be changed by any shipment modifications that may affect the cost. Correct Answer: D 20.You’ve executed a CSV upload in which you have modified some existing records, and created some new records. There were no errors during the upload. However, OTM is still retrieving only the old data, not the new data that was just uploaded. Select the action that you can take to address this. A. Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the "ii" command. B. You must reboot the database server in order to commit the changes. C. You should clear the OTM cache. D. Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the "uu" command E. Rerun the upload, this time making sure that you specify the "dd" command Correct Answer: C 21.In which two situations is redriving used? (Choose two.) A. To redrive the shipment from the location of the tracking event to the next stops of the shipment B. To redrive the shipment from the first stop of the shipment to the location of the tracking event C. To redrive the shipment if the tracking event location is a specific stop on a shipment D. To redrive the entire shipment Correct Answer: AC 22.Why is OTM considered to be based on an n-Tier model? A. because the OTM presentation layer, the application processing layer, and the data management layers are logically separate processes B. because OTM supports third party application integrations (PCMiler, Rand McNally, etc.) C. because it supports the tiered domain structure, from Public, to Parent, to Child, to grandchild domain levels D. because OTM’s data is based on whether it is Master data, Static data, or Transactional data Correct Answer: A 23.Your customer has US and Germany orders. How would you setup a User role with read/write access for US orders, and only read access for German orders? A. Assign multiple User Roles while creating User. B. Assign multiple User Role grants in User Role. C. Access can be controlled via VPD profile along with external Predicates. D. Access can be controlled via Access Control List and assign to User Role. Correct Answer: C 24.When reviewing Invoices in the OTM Payment Invoice Manager, you have the option of selecting the "Pass Through" checkbox. Identify the correct statement about what the "Pass Through" checkbox does. A. It allows the invoice to be paid without consideration for any invoice matching rules. B. It allows for more invoice amounts to be allocated to the invoice. C. It allows for more shipment cost lines to be added to the associated shipment. D. It allows for the invoices from other shipments to be consolidated onto this invoice. Correct Answer: A 25.While reviewing Invoices in OTM, you want to search for Invoices based on the "Financial Consolidation Type". Identify two Types that you can choose from. (Choose two.) A. BUY B. SYSTEM C. SELL D. PARENT E. STANDARD Correct Answer: DE 26.Which three methods can be used to convert currency rates used by Oracle Transportation Management (OTM)? (Choose three.) A. Write an API to bring in rates from an external source. B. Set the value for the glog.currency.base property to your currency storage default. C. Set the exchange rates on Rate Records in OTM. D. Update rates manually using a CSV file. Correct Answer: ACD 27.What two types of data should you consider importing by using the CSV Import utility in OTM? (Choose two.) A. Transactional data B. EDI documents C. Rates D. Shipment Status Updates E. Static Data Correct Answer: CE 28.What are two things that you can do in order to run a Bulk Plan that will not plan any multi-stop shipments? (Choose two.) A. Create a Bulk Plan Set that specifies that only truckload orders should be created, and select that set for this Bulk Plan. B. Create a Parameter Set that builds only direct or pool shipments. Select this parameter set as a constraint for your Bulk Plan. C. The Bulk Plan option cannot be configured to run in this way; therefore, do not run the Bulk Plan option. D. Create a Parameter Set that builds only direct shipments. Select this parameter set as a constraint for your Bulk Plan. Correct Answer: BD 29.By default, OTM installs some agents at the time of installation. Identify two correct statements. (Choose two.) A. All agents are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and activate those they want to run in their environment. B. All agents are active. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and activate those they want to run in their environment. C. By default, some agents are active, while others are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review the agents and activate or deactivate appropriately. D. OTM will install agents into domains such as PUBLIC and SERVPROV. E. OTM will install agents into the designated "company" domain, but not into domains such as PUBLIC and SERVPROV. Correct Answer: AD 30.Which statement explains the meaning of the term "foreign key" as it relates to the OTM Data Dictionary? A. Foreign key refers to data objects that are stored in a domain other than the PUBLIC domain. B. Foreign key objects reference Primary key objects, therefore tables containing Foreign keys must be loaded after tables containing Primary key objects. C. Foreign key objects are referenced by Primary key objects, therefore tables containing Primary keys must be loaded before tables containing Foreign key objects. D. Foreign key identifies objects in the Location tables. Correct Answer: B 31.When defining a Region, there is a parameter called "Representative Location". When is it appropriate to set a value for "Representative Location"? A. Do it if you are using Cooperative Routing and you want the location to be considered in the cooperative routing aggregation. B. Representative Location is the location of the person assigned to the LOGISTICS Role for the region. C. Do it when you want to create a template Region that you can use to quickly create other regions in the future. D. Use this parameter to define a range of values that will be included in the region you are defining, such as a range of zip codes. Correct Answer: A 32.What is the minimum number of Legs required on a Multi-Leg Itinerary? A. One for each Transportation Mode required on the Itinerary B. Two C. Zero D. One E. One for each Leg of the Multi-Leg Itinerary Correct Answer: B 33.Which SOAP Web Service should you use to process agent actions against one or more existing transactional objects? A. CommandService B. TransmissionService C. Workflow Web Services D. MessageService E. GtmRestrictedPartyService Correct Answer: C 34.Which three statements are true when setting up Match Rules for Freight Payment in OTM? (Choose two.) A. The matching rule could be different for different service providers. B. You could specify several shipment reference values to match to. C. You need to specify at least one shipment reference number qualifier to match to. D. BM or Bill Of Lading is a mandatory shipment reference number qualifier to match to. E. The match rule will apply to all invoices, unless only certain service providers are specified on the match rule. Correct Answer: ABC 35.Which three of the following are true when you are configuring General Ledger (GL) key components? (Choose three.) A. One can configure more than one key component per domain. B. The key components are used in the GL lookup key. C. The key component can be defined for shipments, order releases, and order bases. D. The key component is a basic building block that is used to assign GL codes. E. We can define a new key component type to be used in the key component. Correct Answer: BCA 36.Which option represents Original Invoice Cost field at Shipment? A. Total Approved Cost on a sell Shipment B. Contains the initial invoice amount adjusted by any additional charges or invoices that the carrier later sent to you C. Total Actual Cost minus the rebate amount as defined in the Secondary Charge Rules D. The initial invoice amount received from the carrier Correct Answer: D 37.Which object, when added to an Advanced Layout, will define the data that is seen when the user accesses the advanced layout? A. Adding a Table B. Adding a Screen Set C. Adding a Panel Splitter D. Adding a Menu Correct Answer: A 38.If you have just installed OTM, which domain would not be created by default? A. GUEST B. STAGE C. MASTER D. BLUEPRINT E. SERVPROV Correct Answer: C 39.Identify the option which cannot be performed by the Screen Set Manager. A. Define default criteria for search fields. B. Customize the Actions menu. C. Customize the Results page columns. D. Create multi-panel layouts containing tables, maps, Gantt charts. Correct Answer: D 40.In order to be considered for the Match Pay process, what three of the following SECURE RESOURCES statuses must a shipment be assigned? (Choose three.) A. Pickup Notification B. BOL C. Accepted D. Booked Correct Answer: ACD 41.After creating a report, which step must occur in order to register the report for execution within Oracle Transportation Management? A. Create a new Data Source pointing to the OTM database. B. Select the Report System and specify the Report Path. C. Create a new Data Source pointing to the BI Publisher database. D. Make a directory "BIPCatalogUtil" under [BI Publisher Home] Correct Answer: B 42.Which statement is false about the User Role? A. User Role controls data visibility via function security (Level). B. User Role controls data visibility via a private database (VPD). C. You can assign multiple roles to a master role. D. Only one role can be assigned to one User. Correct Answer: D 43. How does one execute the CSVUTIL upload into OTM? A. In the browser URL window, point to "server name"/GC3/html/UTILS, then select CSVUTIL from the dropdown list. B. Download CSVUTIL (freeware) from the internet, install it to your PC, and direct it to your OTM database. C. Select CSVUTIL under Business Process Automation > Data Management > CSVUTIL. D. Select CSVUTIL under Business Process Automation > Data Management > Power Data > CSVUTIL. E. Run the import just as you would for a standard CSV file. Correct Answer: E 44.How should you set up permissions for users to access data in other domains? A. Use domain Grants. B. Assign User Preference via Manage User access. C. Use Insert User Role in VPD Profile. D. Assign Access Control List in User Role. Correct Answer: A 45.Assume that you have made changes to the Default Parameter Set. Which statement is true? A. Regardless of your user role, you won’t be able to save the changes within the Default Parameter Set without renaming it first. B. In order to reset all the changed settings back to their original settings, select "Actions", then "Utilities", and then "Set Defaults" from the drop-down menu. C. In order to reset all the changed settings back to their original settings, you should review them on the screen and be able to tell which ones have been changed, and what the default settings were. D. In order to reset all the changed settings back to their original settings, you should delete the Parameter Set and recreate it using the Default as your template. Correct Answer: C 46.In which two of the following cases is it useful to use the "Show Routing Options" shipment planning method? (Choose two.) A. when you want to view OTM’s recommendation without actually planning the shipment B. when you want to auto-tender the shipment after planning is complete C. when you want to specify the carrier that you want to receive the shipment tender D. when you want to override the delivery constraints on the Order Base E. when you want to specify the itinerary that you want to use for the shipment Correct Answer: AE 47.Select the two true statements about OTM Agents. (Choose two.) A. Agents "listen" for a condition to occur. B. Agents can be configured to run multiple times on a time-based schedule. C. Agents can be send alerts when a condition has occurred, and then can also create or change data objects. D. Agents can send alerts when a condition has occurred, but they cannot create or change data objects Correct Answer: AC 48.How would you create an association in OTM if you want to associate a Match Rule to a specific Service Provider (carrier)? A. Create the Rule, assign the Rule to an appropriate Rule Profile, then assign the Service Provider to the Rule Profile. B. Create the Rule, then assign the Service Provider to the Rule. C. Create the Rule, then assign the Rule to the Service Provider. D. Create the Rule, assign the Rule to an appropriate Rule Profile, then assign the Rule Profile to the Service Provider. Correct Answer: D 49.What should you select in the Date Emphasis field of the order release so that the delivery dates are set out to infinity? A. SHIP B. DELV C. BOTH D. NONE Correct Answer: A 50.What is the correct sequence of setups to assign a Screen Set ID to a User? A. Create a Screen set ID, assign it to Menu Manager and assign it to User. B. Create a Screen Set ID and assign it to User. C. Always unassign existing menu and create a screen Set ID, assign it to User. D. Create a Screen Set ID and assign it to Domain. Correct Answer: A 51.Which two options must be defined for shipment planning? (Choose two.) A. Equipment Group B. Equipment C. Equipment Group Profile D. Equipment Class E. Equipment Type Correct Answer: AC 52. Which output option from the below is available for exporting data using the CSV Export function? A. a file on your database server B. browser window C. MS Excel D. text editor programs such as Notepad Correct Answer: B 53.At which three levels does Match Rules allow the Invoice Matching to occur? (Choose three.) A. Shipment level B. Shipment Ship Unit level C. Order line level D. Shipment Ship Unit line level E. Shipment location level Correct Answer: ABD 54. Shipment# 10059 is a Multi-Shop shipment with two orders. Both orders are picked up in New York City. One of the orders is dropped off in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, and the other order is dropped off in Baltimore, Maryland. There is empty capacity on this shipment for you to add another order (# 1234), which is picking up in Philadelphia and dropping off in Baltimore. The status of Shipment# 10059 is "SECURE RESOURCES: NOT_STARTED". Which shipment planning option should you use to ensure that order release # 1234 is assigned to Shipment# 10059? A. Bulk Plan B. Manual C. Move Order to Existing Shipment D. Show Routing Options Correct Answer: C 55.In what two ways can you enable auto approval for an Invoice? (Choose two.) A. Invoice Creation recurring Process for Carrier B. Invoice Approval Rule Profile C. Enabling auto pay on carrier D. Match pay with automation agent Correct Answer: BD 56. Your customer has implemented OTM and has a requirement to have a selected menu to be displayed separately. How should you assign this to a user? A. Assign it in User Role ID. B. Assign it via Manage User Access. C. Assign it in User Preference and assign this preference to User. D. It is a customization that OTM does not support. Correct Answer: B 57.To import Rates in OTM, which are four key components that you must configure? (Choose four.) A. Accessorial B. Lanes C. Rate Record D. Rate Quality E. Rate Service F. Rate Offering G. Itinerary Correct Answer: BCEF 58.In the process of "Adjust shipment cost scenario," you select "reversing and adjusting" Shipment cost. What will be performed by OTM? A. The system takes the original cost and adds or subtracts an amount to it to create the new cost. B. The system creates a new cost that negates the original cost. Then it creates another new cost with the new cost value. C. The system reverses a cost by creating a new cost with a negative amount that matches the amount of the original cost. D. The system gives the user an option to update the amount. Correct Answer: B 59.What is the difference between a BUY Shipment and a SELL Shipment? A. BUY Shipments are tendered to third party carries, and SELL Shipments are tendered to a company’s private Fleet. B. BUY Shipments are created for inbound (vendor Purchase Orders) shipments, and SELL Shipments are created for outbound (company Sales Orders) shipments. C. BUY Shipments are created by Planners in a Company domain for their own shipments, and SELL Shipments are created by Planners in a 3PL COMPANY domain for their clients’ shipments. D. BUY Shipments are created when you wish to purchase services, and SELL Shipments are created when you wish to charge a customer for services. Correct Answer: D 60.Identify two statements that are true about multi-stop itineraries? (Choose two.) A. The Multi-Stop Itinerary option needs to be checked. B. The Multi-Stop Itinerary cannot be used to plan direct shipments. C. The "Primary" check box is mandatory on a multi-shop itinerary leg. D. Multi-Stop Itineraries contain multiple itinerary legs. Correct Answer: AB 61.In which two ways can you determine which tables have "parent" or "child" relationships to the CONTACT table? (Choose two.) A. View the data dictionary to identify the relationships. B. Refer to Power Data under Configuration and Administration. C. In OTM, navigate to Configuration and Administration > Contacts > Contacts. Select "Help" and review the data table relationships. D. Export the CONTACTS table, and use the "xcsvwpcd" command. Correct Answer: AD 62.Which two statements are true about Saved query? (Choose two.) A. Saved queries can be created from search page. B. Saved queries cannot be SQL based. C. Saved queries contain pre-defined search and sort parameters. D. Saved queries are user specific, not domain specific. Correct Answer: AC 63.Which two statements are true with respect to userID and domain relationship, during a standard OTM installation? (Choose two.) A. The DEFAULT userID is created in the ADMIN domain. B. The GUEST userID is created in the SERVPROV domain. C. The ADMIN userID is created in the DBA domain. D. The ADMIN userID is created in the GUEST domain. E. The GUEST userID is created in the PUBLIC domain. Correct Answer: CD 64.You have created the following Workflow Agent in your OTM test environment and you want to move it to your OTM production environment: Agent Name: SHIPMENT NOTIFY Event: LATE SHIPMENT (New Custom Event) Saved Condition: SHIPMENT IS INBOUND (New saved condition) Actions: IF SHIPMENT STATUS IS NOT CANCELLED (If uses a new Saved Condition) SET INTERNAL STATUS: ENROUTE_DELAYED ENDIF Which Screen Set ID’s do you have to use in your Migration Project? A. AGENT, CUSTOM_EVENT, SAVED_CONDITION, SAVED QUERY B. AGENT, CUSTOM_EVENT, SAVED_CONDITION C. AGENT, AGENT_EVENT, SAVED_CONDITION_QUERY D. AGENT, AGENT_EVENT, SAVED_CONDITION, SAVED QUERY E. AGENT, EVENT, SAVED_CONDITION, SAVED QUERY Correct Answer: D 65.When assigning rules to service providers to support Freight Payment, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The rules cannot be changed once assigned to a service provider. B. Each service provider can have only one match rule profile assigned. C. One can assign a match rule profile and an approval rule profile to a service provider. D. The Autopay check box should be selected for the rules to apply. Correct Answer: BC 66.Which statement is correcting regarding the OTM Parameter Set? A. There are less than 30 parameters that can be changed in the Default Parameter Set. B. If you want to create a Parameter Set, you must name it "DEFAULT". C. OTM allows only one Parameter Set, and it is stored in the PUBLIC domain. D. OTM allows more than one Parameter Set, but they must be stored in the PUBLIC domain. E. Parameter Sets are mandatory during Bulk planning. Correct Answer: E 67.If a Rate Record and a Rate Offering are configured with conflicting values in the same data elements, how does OTM address this? A. OTM’s planning engine will run the solver for both settings, but only consider the least cost result. B. Such a conflict cannot exist in OTM. C. The Rate Offering will take priority over the Rate Record configuration. D. The Rate Record will take priority over the Rate Offering configuration. E. During planning, the user will have the option of indicating if OTM should prioritize either the Rate Offering or the Rate Record setting. Correct Answer: D 68.Identify the incorrect option pertaining to TIHI. A. This configuration captures the number of layers of boxes/cartons that can be stacked on the pallet. B. This configuration captures the number of layers of boxes/cartons stored on a layer. C. This is configured in Item Setup. D. This configuration will impact mixed pallet functionality. Correct Answer: C 69.Which three of the following are true about Rate Preferences in OTM? (Choose three.) A. To have non-preferred rates included in case the preferred rates are not always selected, the parameter USE RATE PREFERENCE should be set to 1. Preferred Only. B. OTM considers only preferred rates for transport modes with preferred rates defined. C. Rate Preferences are considered only when building shipments if the parameter USE RATE PREFERENCE is configured. D. OTM considers all applicable rates for transport modes where a preferred rate has not been defined. Correct Answer: BCD 70.You are writing an agent to be triggered when an Order Release Update is received via integration. You would like the agent to check if the Order Release is on a shipment and if it is, you want OTM to only update the Order Release. Which option will achieve this? A. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT WITH RESOURCES TENDERED/SECURED and use the ORDER RELEASE – MOD – NO PROCESSING agent action. B. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE – MOD – FULL IMPACT action. C. You can use an agent saved condition OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE – MOD – NO PROCESSING action. D. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE – MOD – NO PROCESSING action. E. You can use an agent saved condition to identify OR ON SHIPMENT and use the ORDER RELEASE – MOD – FUTURE PROCESSING agent action. Correct Answer: E 71.In which part is the Tender Timeout configured? A. On the Service Provider Header B. On the location role C. On the Communication and Remarks tab D. On the contact associated to the Service Provider Correct Answer: D 72.Which rate component defines how transportation time will be calculated for the Rate? A. Rate Offering B. Rate Record C. Rate Distance D. Rate Service E. Rate Lane Correct Answer: D 73.Select the three businesses objects that can be manage using the Fleet Management module. (Choose three.) A. Fleet power units B. Fleet equipment C. Driver payroll D. Driver work hours E. Driver time off, sick time, vacations, etc. Correct Answer: ABD 74.You have created an agent that is supposed to generate an alert whenever an Order Release is created. Alerts are generated when an Order Release is created using OTM’s UI screens, but not when the orders come into OTM via integration. Where should you look within the agent configuration settings to troubleshoot and resolve this problem? A. Saved Conditions B. Restrictions C. Threshold ID D. User Role E. Data Type Association Correct Answer: B 75.Which are two ways in which Milestones differ from Agents? (Choose two.) A. Milestones may be made up of one or more Agents. B. Agents may be made up of one or more Milestones. C. Milestones may be both "reactive" (for example, they monitor for a condition to occur) and "proactive" (for example, they can initiate before, at, or a prescribed occurs.) D. Agents monitor for a condition to occur, whereas Monitors only start and stop based on a time-based schedule. Correct Answer: AC 76.Select the three correct statements regarding Freight Settlement in OTM. (Choose three.) A. Freight Invoices may be created within OTM or interfaced from an external system. B. Freight Settlement in OTM may be used to pay invoices to carriers as well as bill customers for freight. C. Rules for matching, approval, and allocation are the cornerstones of automation in Freight Settlement. D. Invoices in OTM must be tied to a shipment. E. Invoice checks may be printed out of OTM. Correct Answer: ABC 77.When a new Service Provider is created, OTM automatically does which of the following? A. OTM creates a corresponding LOCATION, with the location Role of "CARRIER". B. OTM sends an email or fax to the Service Provider contact, depending on the contact’s preferred contact method. C. OTM assigns the default Calendar defined in the Parameter Set. D. OTM associates the Service Provider calendar with the calendar of the CORPORATION ID identified during setup. Correct Answer: A 78.What must you do in order to export data from the CONTACT table, so that the data only includes contacts with email addresses ending with "@oracle.com"? A. Export the data first, and then use software such as MS Excel, MS Access, or direct SQL to filter the data. B. Use the "Where" clause on the CSV Export screen to specify the "@oracle.com" qualifier. C. Create a CSVUTIL file that specifies the "@oracle.com" qualifier. D. The CSV utility is useful for managing large amounts of data, but is not capable of filtering data during the export process. Correct Answer: B 79.What does enabling "Restriction" on the Agent Header screen do? A. It allows the user to restrict which OTM objects can initiate the agent. B. It allows the user to set whether the agent is active, inactive, or a reference agent. C. It allows the user to restrict whether the agent can be initiated by user actions, system actions, or integration actions. D. It allows the user to restrict who can view or edit the agent. Correct Answer: C 80.Which two can be planned into shipments? (Choose two.) A. Ship Units B. Order Releases C. Order Bases D. Order Movements E. Ship Unit Lines Correct Answer: BD 81.Identify two correct statements about Contacts. (Choose two.) A. Contacts are mandatory on Location records. B. Contacts are people, but not systems. C. Contacts are people or systems you want to send communications to. D. Contacts can be associated with Locations. Correct Answer: CD 82. Which tender method would you use to call a Service Provider on the phone in order to notify them that you have tendered a shipment to them? A. None B. Manual C. No Contact D. Message Center E. Phone or Fax Correct Answer: B 83.View the exhibit. If you created a standard 3PL domain structure, which two relationships would OTM also create by default? (Choose two.) A. SERVPROV domain to have READ and WRITE permission for 3PL Company domain B. GUEST domain to have READ permission for Client 1, Client 2, Client 3, and Client 4 subdomains C. 3PL COMPANY domain to have READ and WRITE permission for Client 1, Client 2, Client 3, and Client 4 subdomains D. BLUEPRINT domain to have READ permission for Client 1, Client 2, Client 3, and Client 4 subdomains E. BLUEPRINT domain to have READ permission for 3PL Company domain Correct Answer: AC 84.Which three statements are true when configuring allocation rules for OTM Freight Payment? (Choose three.) A. For a service provider, one can assign one allocation rule based on the planned cost and another based on the actual cost. B. One cannot use the same rule in more than one allocation rule profile. C. Allocation rules need to be set up before the allocation rule profiles. D. The allocation rules in the profile can be sequenced in the allocation rule profile. E. OTM uses the first allocation rule that applies. Correct Answer: CDE 85.Which of the following Rate components defines how transportation costs will be calculated for the Rate? A. Rate Distance B. Rate Lane C. Rate Service D. Rate Record Correct Answer: D 86.You are writing an order release agent and need to listen for an order modification event triggered by an integration update to the order release. What is the impact to the agent process if you set the "before persist" flag on the ORDER – MODIFIED event? A. OTM will not persist the new data but will perform the agent actions as long as they do not require persisting the new data. B. OTM stages the new data, will perform the agent actions, will not allow you to use certain actions. C. OTM will perform the agent actions but will not persist any changes to the object. D. OTM will persist the new data immediately after the agent is triggered and then perform the agent actions. E. OTM stages the new data but will not perform the agent actions of the data is not persisted properly. Correct Answer: B OTM filters the new data in staging tables and takes the actions that you have defined. The actions you can use for events configured with the Before Persist parameter are restricted based on the Agent Type you selected 87. Review the exhibit taken from the Actions tab of the Agent setup screen. Select the two statements that are true. A) When you click the "X icon, the Generate Invoice Action will be deleted B) When you click the "X" icon, the entire Agent will be deleted C) When you click the + icon, the Generate Invoice folder will open further and display the detailed commands for this action D) When you click the +icon, OTM will display a screen that allows you to add another Agent E) When you click the +" icon, OTM will display a screen that allows you to add another Action Correct Answer: AE 88.Identify the statement that is true about Ground Schedules A) Ground Schedules are used to define the land legs of a Multi-Leg Itinerary B) Ground Schedules are trip templates that OTM will not optimize with its planning logic. C) Ground Schedules are Rail transport mode schedules provided by Rail Transport boards worldwide. D) Ground Schedules are the TL and LTL portions of the Routing Guide. Correct Answer: B 89. Identify the correct statement regarding OTM Bulk Plans A) Bulk Plans manage multiple orders; therefore, there is no way to research why any individual order failed to plan. B) Bulk Plans are the most efficient way to plan an ORDER BASE onto a Shipment if you have a valid Itinerary C) Bulk Plans are the most efficient way to plan an ORDER RELEASE onto a Shipment if you do not have a valid Itinerary D) Bulk Plans can be set up to create either direct shipments or Continuous Move shipments, but not both from the same Bulk Plan E) Bulk Plans can create a single shipment from multiple orders Correct Answer: E 90.Where can you see Inbound XML Messages in OTM? A) XML Topic Queue B) Transmission Manager C) Process Manager D) Exception Queue Correct Answer: B 91. View the Exhibit. When configuring Line Approval Tolerance Rules for OTM Freight Payment, there is a check box labeled "Match All". What is true about this check box? A) If the Match All check box is not checked, the Shipment Reference Number Qualifiers for that section are considered based the Sequence Number ID assigned to them. B) If the "Match All check box is not checked, the Shipment Reference Number Qualifiers for that section are considered for matching, only in the order they are sequenced in the list C) If the "Match All check box is not checked, any of the Shipment Reference Number Qualifiers for that section can be conside D) If the Match All" check box is not checked, none of the Shipment Reference Number Qualifiers for that section Correct Answer: B 92. Identify two valid reasons among the following why CSV files are useful A) Large volumes of data can be uploaded quickly B) CSV files provide the only way to edit OTM data. C) CSV files can be named so that OTM knows which tables to update. D) CSV files allow for faster data input compared to data entered from the OTM GUI Correct Answer: AD 93.What is the minimum level at which equipment must be defined for shipment creation or planning ? A) Equipment Group B) Equipment C) Equipment Group Profile D) Equipment Class E) Equipment Type Correct Answer: A 94.What are Smart Links used for in OTM? A.to create linkages for the user IDs from one child domain to its parent domain, or the public domain to create linkages for the User IDs from one child domain to an equal child domain B.to access the Actions menus C.to view related objects D.to navigate from one Group on the User Menu to another Group, without closing the active window Correct Answer: C 95.When you define individial legs of multi leg itenaries, one of parameter that must be defined is the Equipment "assignment type" ,Identify any two assignment types that OTM allows you to choose from A) Air B) REuse equipment C) Land D) All modes E) Optimize equipment Correct Answer: BE 96.Review the List below, and select the Statement that is true about CSV import files. A) The options to import a CSV file is Found under OTM's "Configuration and Administration" group B) The option to import a CSV file is Found under OTM's "Operation planning" gourp C) The option to import a CSV file is Found under OTM's "Business process automation" group D) The option to import a CSV file is Found under OTM's Operation Business system administration" group E) Initiate CSV import action by using the browser URL window, changing the text to "server name" /GC3/html/CSV,then selecting "CSV Import" from drop down list Correct Answer: C 97.When creating ground rules, you must select Trip types. Identify the two Trip Types that you may use. A) Multi modal B) voyage C) static D) dynamic E) OTM allows users to configure custom trip type based on need Correct Answer: CD 98.Fill in the blanks , “ An ____is an authorization to pay all or part of amount due on a payment invoice” A) Authorization match B) Credit memo C) Voucher D) Line item match E) Invoice approval memo Correct Answer: C 99.OTM allows interested persons to closely monitor the progress of shipment through its life cycle identify two statement that are true about shipment statuses A) ENROUTE _DELAYED -indicates that the shipment was delayed in leaving the previous location due to late pick up time and will be late arriving to the destination location (maybe) B) ENROUTE _UNLOADED PARTIAL -Indicates that the shipment has reached final destination and is in the process of being unloaded C) ENROUTE _ENROUTE -Indicates that the shipment is moving from one location to another D) ENROUTE_DIVERTED -Indicates shipment was unable to travel on the planned route and taken a detaour E) ENROUTE _NOT STARTED -Indicates that the shipment has not been picked up from the Initial pick up stop yet Correct Answer: CE 100.You want to run a Bulk plan ,order releases are in the statuses listed below identify which order releases the bulk plan will be able to plan A) PLANNING_EXECUTED PARTIAL B) PLANNING_EXECUTED FINAL C) PLANNING_PLANNING HOLD D) PLANNING_PLANNED_FINAL E) PLANNING_CREDIT_HOLD Correct Answer: D 101.You want to schedule OTM to run a Bulk Plan every monday 6 A.M and again every wednesday at 6 a.m ,you have decided to set up this scheduled job from Operaional planning >Process automation>Bulk plan order releases ,You notice a required parameter on the setup screen labelled 'Based on order released what does “Based on order Releases” field represent? A) A check box that lets you to set whether order releases will be one of your selection criteria B) A link to OTM Calendar that lets you set start and end dates/Times for your job C) Parameters set related to order releases D) Queries related to order releases Correct Answer: D 102.Which statements explains why the CSVUTIL function is useful? A) It automatically formats the data correctly B) It automatically sequences the data upload files correctly C) It allows the user to upload multiple files at once D) It automatically creates the CSV file formats during data extracts Correct Answer: C 103.How would you export the CALENDAR table.and all "Child"tables associated with CALENDAR A) Run the SELECT SQL command against the OTM database usinng the "/child/all parameters B) Run Export CSV utility in OTM ,select the command "xcsv"and check the child box C) Run the Export CSV utility in oTM an select the command "xcsvwpcd" D) Run the Export CSV utility in OTM an select the command "xcsvc" Correct Answer: C 104.OTM Can be configured to define Preferences about consolidating or Splitting orders onto shipments, based on various conditions. Where are these preferences and similar rules defined? A) Parameter Set B) Business Rules Set C) Rate Header D) Itinerary Profiles Correct Answer: A 105.Identify the two elements that you must define when creating an Agent. A) Domain Query B) Saved Condition C) Agent ID D) Agent Type E) Event Correct Answer: CD 106.When creating Multi-Leg Itineraries, a variety of Location functions must be considered. Select the two functions with the correct definitions. A) Deconsolidation Pools - Where both inbound and outbound shipments can be “multi-stop shipments." B) Deconsolidation Pools- Where only inbound shipments can be multi-stop shipments. C) Cross-Dock- orders arrive here and are removed from their current shipment,then re-planned with others order on new shipments. D) Breakdown Locations- where orders are dis-assembled and re-assembled onto the new orders and shipments E) Deconsolidation Pools- Selected by OTM Planning based on order’s destination Correct Answer: AC 107.What is the purpose of defining equipment types in OTM A) Equipment types are used to determine capacity information to service provider B) Equipment types are used to associate equipment to itenaries C) Equipment types are used to associate equipment to drivers D) Equipment types are used to associate equipment to rate offering E) Equipment types are used to associate equipment to rate. Correct Answer: A 108.An OTM table has been exported ,contents of table has been changed ,which of these objects should be included in import file to ensure that an error does not occur during data upload ? A) A statement identifying appropriate date format B) The correct INSERT_DATE data for each record C) The correct UPDATE_DATE for each record D) The correct INSERT_USER Data for each record,with appropriate access to the data tables that are being modified E) The correct UPDATE_USER Data for each record,with appropriate access to the data tables that are being modified. Correct Answer: A 109.Choose Two Which two of the following planning option could you use if you wanted to create a shipment for an order that will be carried in charter voyage or flight ? A) Multi -stop B) Build Buy shipment on primary leg C) Multi -leg D) Direct E) Build buy shipment on Primary Leg Show console option Correct Answer: BE 110.Choose Three When creating new order base, which of the three objects are mandatory ? A) Source and destination locations B) Order base ID C) Order Configuration D) Ship Unit /Line Item E) Order Type Correct Answer: ACD 111.Read the statements below regarding OTM ship Units ,Select 3 statements that are True A) ship units are created and managed under Shipment Management group in user menu B) ship units are created and managed under Order management-->Material Management group C) ship Units refers to containers that ocean and rail carriers load onto theirs cars and vessel D) Ship units could represent a single or many item that will be shipped on a single pallet E) Ship units could represent single or many items that will be shipped in a single container Correct Answer: ADE 112.Choose the Best Answer How is the “ Resource Type” field used in fleet management driver setup screen? A) Allows administrator to identify whether the drier is an EMPLOYEE and INDEPENDENT OPERATOR and a THIRD PARTY DRIVER B) Allows administrator identify whether driver is an INDIVIDUAL or part of TEAM C) Allows administrator to group drivers ,based on special skills or certification D) Allows administrator identify whether drivers payroll is determined within OTM or independent of OTM work history E) Allows Administrator identify whether driver's work hours are null ,TRACKED updated via INTEGRATION Correct Answer: A 113.Choose the Best Answer Assume that you are creating an Agent, and you are at the point of configuring the Agent Error Handler. If you wanted your agent to make changes to object types other than the ones that the agent is associated to, which parameter would you set up? A) Saved Condition B) Data Type Association C) Reference Action D) Restrictions E)Threshold ID Correct Answer: B 114.Choose Two Review the following statements about Itinerary Legs and select the two statements that are true? A) Itinerary Legs are configured from Shipment Management > Itinerary Management > Itinerary Profile. B) Itinerary Legs must be configured with sequence numbers ranging from 0 to 999. C) The Itinerary Leg with the higher sequence number receives the higher priority from OTM’s planning Engine. D) The Itinerary Leg with the Lower sequence number receives the higher priority from OTM’s planning Engine. Correct Answer: BD 115.Choose Three OTM is very robust application. Review the list-below and select the three functionalities that OTM offers, either from the core product or from add-on modules that are available with additional licensing fees. A) Latitude and Longitude Geography Identification B) Supply Chain Event Managament C) Carrier and Asset Management D) Driver Payroll Management E) Freight Settlement Correct Answer: BCE 116.Choose the Best Answer Fill in the blanks with most appropriate answer: “Defining a(n)__________ is a way of grouping items together that have something in common, which is generally used for assigning equipment”. A) Equipment Class B) NMFC Class C) Equipment Group Profile D) Commodity Correct Answer: D 117.Choose Three In which three of the following ways can invoices be created in OTM? A) via Automation Agents B) Via Integration from an external system C) Manually from a Buy Shipment or a Sell shipment D) From a voucher, provided it has the correct status value E) Via upload from MS Excel spreadsheet formatted and saved as a.csv file 118.How is the “Driver Type” field used on the Fleet Management driver setup screen? A) allows the administrator to identify whether the driver is an EMPLOYEE, an INDEPENDENT OPERATOR, or a THIRD PARTY DRIVER B) allows the administrator to identify whether the driver is an INDIVIDUAL, or a part of TEAM C) allows the administrator to group drivers, for example, based on special skills or certifications D) allows the administrator to identify whether the drivers payroll is determined within OTM or independent of the OTM work history E) allows the administrator to identify whether the drivers work hours are null, TRACKED, or updated via INTEGRATION Correct Answer: C 119.In the following statement, fill in the blank with the best answer. A(n)_____________ represents an ocean transport movement by a carrier from loading port to a discharge port. A) Shipping Lane B) Charter Voyage C) LCL D) FCL E) Multi-Leg Itinerary Correct Answer: B 120.Which statement describes the functionality of the redrive rate service? A) Redrive the shipment from the location of the tracking event to the next stop of the shipment. B) Redrive the shipment from the first stop of the shipment to the location of the tracking event. C) Redrive the shipment if the tracking event location is a specific stop on a shipment. D) Redrive the entire shipment. Correct Answer: AC 121.Where would you navigate in order to set up or modify Fleet logic Configuration parameters? A) Shipment Management > Group Management > Fleet Group B) Shipment Management > Equipment Management > Fleet Equipment C) Fleet Management > Fleet Management > Equipment D) Shipment Management > Power Data > General > Parameter Sets. E) Shipment Management > Power Data > General > Logic Configuration Correct Answer: E 122.Choose two Identify the two true statement below regarding multi stop itenaries A. Multi stop allows stops for pick up or deliveries of goods to occur in a single lane B. A single leg itenary and a multi stop itenary cannot have the same lane C. Multi stop shipment take advantage of lower cost by creating a efficient route that save money D. In a multi stop shipment each move can use a different rate E. Multi stop itinary allow stops for pick up or delivery of goods to occur on as many as necessary to support the entire end to end process. A) The Multi-Stop Itinerary check box is used to identity an itinerary that is used by OTM when planning multiple direct Shipments B) The “Primary” Check box is Mandatory on a multi-stop itinerary leg. C) Implementation best Practices suggest having only one multi-stop itinerary for a given geography D) Multi-Stop itineraries contain multiple itinerary legs 123.Choose the best answer On the agent header screen which condition could you used to include a control on the agent so that it will wait one hour after a condition occurs A. domain query B. agent ID C. Agent type D. Saved condition E. Event Correct Answer: D 124.Which three of the following objects can have one or more calendars defined for them A. DBA.Admin B. Roles C. Rate preference D. Location E. Contacs 125.A Company purchases only the Core V6.2 OTM License. Which two of the following modules or functionalities would be available for their use? A) Financials B) Logistics Guide C) Sourcing D) RIQ E) Fleet Management Correct Answer: BD 126.When creating Itineraries,OTM Provides for the option of creating Itinerary Profiles Instead. In which case is it Useful to create an Itinerary Profile rather than an Itinerary? A) to support the planning of shipment groups B) to support the planning of Multi-Stop Shipments C) to support the planning of Shipments as Work (SAWs) D) to support planning complex multi-port, Multi-Leg Shipments Correct Answer: A 127.View the Exhibit You’ve just created a new U.S. Location in the standalone “Company” domain. As part of the Location definition, you’ve input the address ( Street address,city,state, and postal code). You’ve saved the Location Object, then opened the object to view it. You notice that although you had not keyed in the latitude or longitude(“LAT and LONG”) of the location, both the latitude and longitude are defined on the Location now. What can you assume happened? " A) OTM’s RIQ function has been activated for the Company domain. B) The Company domain is integrated to third party application. C) OTM’s default Parameter Set has been modified to automatically populate the LAT and LONG for all Location objects in the Company Domain." D) This doesn’t surprise you because OTM’s default Parameter Set is programmed to Identify the LAT and LONG for any Location that is created. Correct Answer: B 128.Choose the Best Answer Fleet Management can be setup to store commercial Driver’s License(CDL) information for each driver. What happens when a driver’s license expires? A) Nothing happens in OTM because this is just informational B) During driver configuration and setup, OTM allows the administrator to set up an alert that will kick off a message to one or more involved parties. C) OTM has no alert feature at this time. However, OTM will NOT allow the driver to be assigned to a shipment once a license has expired. D) If OTM has been configured to interface to the governing CDL licensing bureau, the bureau will alert the driver according to their established process. Correct Answer: A 129.Sarah manages orders and shipments in her company’s standalone domain and she ahs been assigned the “Admin” User Role ID. You want to restrict Sarah from creating and changing Rates in OTM. Which two methods would you use to accomplish this? A) Set up a new user role with special ACL Limitations, and assign Sarah this new Role. B) Set Sarah’s personal USER Role ID to LOGISTICS, because LOGISTICS can only view data in a standard OTM installation and you havent change this C) Set Sarah’s personal VPD so she cannot create or modify rates D) Change Sarah’s personal user Role ID to DEFAULT, because DEFAULT can only view data in a standard OTM installation and you havent change this E) Set Sarah’s Personal ACL so she cannot create or modify Rates Correct Answer: AC 130.Select three scenarios where it is appropriate to use Auto Pay process is used ? A) Each time an accessorial cost is added to a shipment,generate and auto pay invoice B) When resource are secured for shipment Auto pay proces creates an Invoice C) When a PICKUP takes place by a carrier ,generate and auto pay an Invoice D) When a carrier send s proof of delivery at the final destination ,generate and auto pay an invoice E) When order release is created in OTM,generate and auto pay invoice. Correct Answer: BCD 131.Review the statements below regarding OTM Freight Payment Approval Rules and Select the two statements that are true. A) Approval Rules may be based on Cost As WELL AS the weight on an Invoice and Shipment B) Approval Rules may be based on Cost OR the Weight on an Invoice and Shipment, but not both. C) OTM applies Approval Rules BEFORE the Match Pay Process is begun. D) OTM applies Approval Rules AFTER the Match Pay Process is completed. Correct Answer: AD 132.Select the true statement about Calculated Fields used in Fleet Management. A) They can be configured using the drag -and- drop functionality that is new to OTM. B) They are an advanced feature of Fleet Management and require knowledge of PL/SQL and for proper configuration C) They are associated only with Drivers. D) They are associated with Drivers, Equipment, and Power Units. Correct Answer: D 133.Assume you have a shipment with a cost=$500. An Invoice for $500 comes in and is matched and approved for the shipment. Then,a new shipment cost of $100 is applied to the same shipment. When this new cost is applied to the shipment, which outcome are possible? A) The old Invoice amount will be changed to $600 B) A new Invoice Line for $100 will be created, but a new Voucher WILL NOT BE created C) The Invoice will be adjusted to $600 and a new Voucher WILL BE Created. D) The Invoice amount remains at $500 E) A new Invoice Line for $100 will be created, and a new Voucher WILL BE created. Correct Answer: C 134.What types of objects would you add to a "bucket"? A. Equipment that will be used by the fleet drivers B. Drivers that will be working in the company fleet C. The number of hours that a driver can work in a given period D. Locations that the fleet will service Correct Answer: AB 135.If you wanted to create a fleet team of two drivers, how must their work hours be defined? Select the best answer. A. OTM doesn't force any constraint on the work hours, so that the drivers can overlap if their assigned shifts overlap B. Fleet teams are not configurable in OTM since only the equipment is assigned to the shipment C. OTM only considers the work hours of the primary driver of the team, so those are the only hours that need to be defined D. DOT rules and regulations apply to fleet drivers just like private carrier drivers, therefore no special definitions are required Correct Answer: C 136.Which of the following parameters should you configure when you want to restrict the driver assignment by the TIME it takes a driver to get to the shipment? Select the best answer. A. Driver Minimum Distance to Shipment B. Driver Maximum Distance to Shipment C. Driver Committed D. Driver Retained Equipment E. Driver Minimum Duration to Shipment Correct Answer: E 137.What is/are the purpose(s) of the Fleet Logic Configuration feature? Select all that apply. A. It allows you to set screen preferences such as sort order and indicator color B. It allows for the bulk planning of Fleet drivers and equipment onto shipments C. It allows OTM planning parameters to include Fleet preferences during Bulk Plan optimization D. It is used to identify which locations have available equipment to support any shipment Correct Answer: BC 138.For Fleet shipments, which of the following shipment conditions does not meet the criteria to be able to Revert a Relay Swap? Select the best answer. A. Shipment 1 has a last stop as a pickup B. Shipment 1 has a last stop equal to the first stop of shipment 2 C. MOVE_EMPTY or CHECK_INVENTORY cannot be special services assigned to the location of the first shipments last stop Correct Answer: A 139.In order to ensure that your Freight Payment Approval Rule is enabled, what must you do? Select the best answer. A. Click the "Active" check box on the Approval Rule definition page B. Assign the Approval Rule to an active Approval Rule Profile C. Click the "Apply Cost Approval Rule" or "Apply Weight Approval Rule" check box on the Approval Rule definition page D. No special action is required because the Approval Rule is "always on" once created and saved Correct Answer: C 140.When setting up Freight Payment Approval Rules in OTM, which of the following statements is TRUE? Select all that apply. A. OTM 6.2 allows approval of the total invoice even if individual invoice lines on the Invoice may be out of tolerance B. Approval of an Invoice could be done either manually or via automation agents C. A voucher is generated and sent to an external system when an invoice is approved D. OTM 6.2 allows the approval rule to include effective and expiry dates E. Approval tolerances may be by percentage or Amounts, not both Correct Answer: AD 141.When setting up Freight Payment Approval Rules in OTM, which of the following statements is TRUE? Select all that apply. A. You must always define at least one default auto-approval rule B. The default auto approval rule in OTM is to cover all non-detailed approvals C. To create an auto approval rule, at least one approval rule type (cost or weight) needs to be selected D. The approval rule allows you to select the service provider that it applies to E. If the Approval Rule is configured using both "percentages" and "amounts" , the more restrictive tolerance will be used Correct Answer: BCE 142.When you are setting up GL (General Ledger) codes, which of the following rules and statements is/are TRUE? Select all that apply. A. They may be assigned to shipments via automation agents B. Only one Buy-side General Ledger Lookup Key is allowed per domain C. OTM limits the number of general ledger codes to less than a hundred per domain D. General ledger codes are assigned to orders, shipments and Invoices E. The default general ledger codes in OTM are by source or destination location Correct Answer: AD 143.When creating consolidated invoices, which of the following statements is/are TRUE? Select all that apply. A. The child invoice and not the parent invoice is required to match with the buy shipment B. The approval rules apply both to the child as well as the parent invoice C. The standard invoice can be changed to a child invoice if required D. All the child invoices in a consolidated invoice need be for the same service provider E. Integration of invoices into OTM are allowed only for standard invoices and not for consolidated invoices Correct Answer: BCD 144.Review the following statements about Shipment Stops. Select all that are TRUE. A. OTM assigns stop types of P, T and D, which stand for Port, Tracking, and Discharge B. During the planning process, OTM defines Planned, Estimated and Actual arrival/departure times C. During the planning process, OTM defines Early & Late Pickup Times, and Early and Late Delivery Times D. OTM assigns stop types of P, T and D, which stand for Pickup, Transfer, and Delivery E. For each of the stop times that OTM defines, the times can be modified until the shipment status is changed to ENROUTE_ENROUTE Correct Answer: BD 145.OTM allows you to set up. From the list below, select all of the TRUE statements about Static Trips. A. Static Trips are shipment templates, created in the Ground Schedules group B. Static Trips are Order Release templates, created in the Order Release with Stops group C. Static Trip shipments cannot be merged with other shipments at any time. D. Static Trip shipment stops can be changed until the shipment status is ENROUTE_ENROUTE Correct Answer: AC 146.You have a full truckload order to be shipped to a new customer, and OTM failed to plan it because there is no useable rate in your system. Review the list of actions below, and identify all that will create a valid shipment. A. Create the shipment using Show Routing Options, bypass the cost, but identify a valid carrier from your system B. Re-run the Bulk Plan but select a valid itinerary so that OTM will plan the shipment with a zero cost C. Assign the new order to an existing shipment D. Create a Direct Shipment E. Create a Manual Shipment Correct Answer: E 1. What is the number of sourcing options available in the Landed Cost Simulator? Options were like below: (TBC) 1)Three 2)Nine 3)Unlimited, defined while setting up the system 4)Only one 2. In License Code, if Limiting Factor is set to QUANTITY, Balance Type is set to ASSIGNMENT, QUANTITY Balance Method is set to DECREASE, Value Balance Method is set to INCREASE, then what happens when GTM assigns license to a transaction? Answer: GTM will decrease the Used Quantity balance on the License Line and ignore the Used Value balance on the License Line 3.Which function cannot be performed by a Compliance Policy? 1) Compliance Rule Screening 2) Trade Transaction Product Classification Lookup 3) Assigning Product Classification to Item Master 4) Restricted Party Screening 4. On the Compliance Rule tab of the Compliance Rule, what are the criteria to be mentioned for determining if a document type can be assigned. 1)Item Id and classification data 2)Parties 3)Time window 4)Transaction Reference Numbers 5. Which three OTM objects can be used to create Trade Transactions in GTM? (Choose three.) Order Base 1)Invoice 2)Order Release 3)Shipment 4)Voucher 5)Shipment Group 6. On which object do you specify the allowed tolerances used at the time of determining eligible licenses? 1)License Code 2)License Type 3)License category 4)Service Preference 7. What s should be the balance type if license must be committed to Trade Transaction and reported to the government authority. (TBC) Answer: The answer is License Assignment. 1)Assignment 2)Reservation 3)Hold 4)Quantity 8.What are the limiting factors available in License Type? 1)Quantity 2)Value 3)“Quantity and Value” 9. During Sanctioned Territory Screening, which of the following objects is directly used as a parameter? 1) Compliance Rule Set 2)Compliance Rule 3)Control Code 4)Control Category 5)Compliance Rule Set Group 10. where do you define the mapping for downloading data from custom info and to map to GTM objects. Content Type Content Source Control Category Compliance Rule 11. From which object can we create declarations? 1)Trade Transaction 2)Order Release 3)Trade Transaction Line 4)Invoice 12. In the Service Preference Configuration of Restricted party screening, what options are available? 1)Content Type 2)Match Engine 3)Data Source 4)Data Version Id 5)Content Source 13. Which three options can be used to specify User Preference in GTM? (Choose three.) 1)Language 2)User Role 3)Menu 4)Date Format 5)Business Monitor 14. Which Business Object or Concept does not have a direct impact on Compliance Rule setup? 1)Region 2)Service Parameter 3)Transaction Reference Number 4)Product Classification Group 5)The question is about Restriction Party Exclusion List 6)If some party is added in Restriction Party Exclusion List, then RPLS screening is marked as Passed for such parties 15. A GTM table has been exported, and the contents of the table have been changed. Which three steps should be performed next to ensure that an error does not occur during data upload? (Choose three.) TBC A. Make sure that all data is in lowercase and spaces are replaced with the underscore symbol. C. Make sure that all the commas in your data are enclosed in single quotation marks. D. Remove the columns labeled INSERT_DATE and UPDATE_DATE. E. Remove the columns labeled INSERT_USER and UPDATE_USER. 16.During implementation, which option does not need to be set up before Sanction Territory Screening Rules testing? A. Item B. Control Type C. Control Code D. Region or County 17. Identify two true statements regarding the Restricted Party Exclusion List. (Choose two.) A. a mandatory setup in GTM before Restricted Party Screening can work. B. a “black list.” Those on the list are GTM parties confirmed to be restricted parties. C. a “white list.” Those on the list are GTM parties confirmed NOT to be restricted parties. D. an optional setup in GTM. 18. What are the two actions that a user can product on a Party? (Choose two.) A. Execute Compliance Policy B. Sanctioned Territory Screening C. Restricted Party Screening D. Apply Compliance Policy E. Classification 19. What is the main purpose of the Landed Cost Simulator? A. to identify the highest customs rate for a specific SKU B. to compare multiple scenarios for sourcing for a specific SKU C. to identify the lowest customs rate for a specific SKU D. to determine the harmonized code for a specific SKU 20. Which three fields on the User Manager screen need to be populated to provide a new user access to GTI? (Choose three.) A. Account Policy ID B. User Role ID C. Document Use Profile D. Business Intelligence Role ID E. Business Intelligence Application ID. 21. If you want to specify that a license applies to a certain SHIP_FROM country, where do you do it? A. Regime B. Port grid C. Involved Parties grid D. Region grid 22. Your client wants you to exclude certain words that are commonly used for screening. Which configuration would you use in GTM? A. Service Preference B. Service Parameter C. Restricted Party Exclusion List D. Agent Logic 23. Company A has a few systems keeping the Item Master, and GTM is requested to be flexible on Item creation. Which three options are true about Item creation in GTM? (Choose three.) A. Items can be sent from an ERP system, such as Oracle ERP Cloud, to GTM. B. Items can be uploaded by the Product Classification Template in GTM. C. Items can be downloaded from the External Content Provider. D. Items can be manually created in the GTM UI. E. Items can be uploaded by CSV in GTM. 24. The recalculation process in Landed Cost Simulator will ______. TBC A. reassign charges based on the Value Set Rule Set Group defined in Logic Configuration B. calculate charge values based on the Formula Rule Set Group defined in Logic Configuration for the lock and unlock charges C. calculate charge values based on the Formula Rule Set Group defined in Logic Configuration for the lock charges D. calculate charge values based on the Formula Rule Set Group defined in Logic Configuration for the unlock charges 25. Who needs to approve a document before it is ready to be finalized? A. At least one subscriber B. All reviewers C. At least one reviewer and one subscriber D. All subscribers E. At least one reviewer F. All reviewers and all subscribers. 26. Your client wants to screen a Trade Transaction with a ship to country of Syria. Which functionality in GTM would enable the client to meet this requirement? A. Restricted Party Screening B. Product Classification C. License Screening D. Sanctions Screening 27. What is not Master Data in GTM? A. Product Classification Codes B. Trade Tariff C. Restricted Party List D. Trade Item E. Party 28. Which three configurations in GTM can help your client ensure that they are not exporting to countries such as Cuba, Syria, and so on? A. Compliance Rule B. Service Preference C. Service Parameter D. Region E. Control Type F. Restricted Party List 29. Which two statements are true about the Product Classification assignment process for items? (Choose two.) A. Only the product classification with a status of APPROVED on the Item can be assigned to a Trade Transaction Line. B. A supervisor can approve the product classification that is in CREATED status using the Approve or Decline Product Classification action. C. When a product classification type and code are added to the Item, the product classification changes to the CREATED status. D. Users can create their own product classification status instead of accepting what is present in the system. 30. Which is the technology that GTM < > Descartes integration uses? A. httppost B. database link C. FTP D. web service E. Oracle Advance Queue 31. Which statement is true regarding the screenshot? A. This Transaction Line needs documents. B. This Transaction Line needs licenses. C. This Transaction Line is violating the regulation and cannot be executed. D. This transaction can be executed with these two lines ignored. 32. Which three statements are true about menus? (Choose three.) A. A menu element can point to a Screen Set. B. Multiple menus can be assigned to a user or role and displayed as a single menu by using Manage User Access. C. Menu elements have to be created in alphabetical order if you want them displayed in alphabetical order. D. It is not possible to have an external link set up as a menu element due to security issues. E. It is possible to hide a menu element in an existing menu. 33. Your client has a requirement to perform automatic Sanction Screening on a Party.Which two configurations do you use in GTM to meet the requirement? (Choose two.) A. Business Monitor B. Restricted Party List C. Compliance Rules D. Service Preference and Service Parameter for Restricted Party Screening E. Agents 34. Which two Agent Types on an automaton agent can you choose to automatically notify the assigned reviewers when a document is generated? (Choose two.) A. GTM Transaction Document B. GTM Document C. GTM Shipment D. GTM Transaction 35. Which method is used to identify the cost components and formula-driven values required for a specific Declaration? A. Execute Compliance Rules to assign a Value Set. B. Set up a Logic Configuration with specific Primary Line - Value Qualifiers. C. Use Allocate Values by Line on a Declaration. D. Configure Data Configuration on the Logic Configuration. 36. Which statement is true about the Detect Invalid Product Classification Recurring Process? A. It is used to detect product classification codes that are in a wrong format as opposed to the one specified in Business Number Generator. B. It is used to search for product classification codes that are disapproved for an Item. C. The recurring process to detect invalid product classification codes can be run only by using an agent action. D. It is used to search for product classification codes that are older that the configured number of days. E. Product classification codes may become obsolete due to the introduction of new codes and the process is used to detect such codes. 37. Which three options correctly define the need for Product Classification Code to be assigned to an item in GTM? (Choose three.) A. to store the revision number of an item so that it can be printed in commercial invoices for creating customs B. to use within a compliance rule to help determine if a license is required for shipping a specific item to a given country C. to provide the information for customs filing or printing in documents D. to determine the value of the customs tariff for an item for calculating the duty to be paid for an item E. to store the dimensions of the item so that can be printed in shipping documents 38. Which two statements are correct about product classification assignment for an Item? (Choose two.) A. Product Classification Notes can be added to each product classification type assigned to an item. B. All the product classifications assigned to an item are deleted automatically by GTM if the item is modified. C. If an item has multiple product classification types, then all of them are assigned to a Trade Transaction Line and there is no provision in GTM to filter the product classification types to be assigned to a Trade Transaction Line. D. There is a limit of up to five product classification types that can be assigned to an item. E. Multiple product classification types can be assigned to an Item. 39. Your client has the following requirement: any party with a company name that has the words “NUCLEAR” or “ATOMIC” should be blocked. For example, “NUCLEAR CORPORATION OF IRAN” should be matched. Which solution will you suggest to the client to meet this requirement? A. Create a Restricted Parties List with “NUCLEAR” and “ATOMIC” and configure Service Preference and Service Parameter for meeting this screening requirement. B. Identify all possible entities like “NUCLEAR CORPORATION OF IRAN” and create a Restricted Parties List with them for performing screening. C. Create a compliance rule for catching any company name with the word “NUCLEAR” or “ATOMIC. D. This requirement can only be met with a stored procedure called from an agent to screen company names. 40. Your client has the following requirements: Perform restricted party screening using first name, last name, address, and country using the DICE algorithm. Screen the company name to check if the word NUCLEAR or ATOMIC is part of the company name. Which option will meet the requirements? A. Requirement 1 can be met, but Requirement 2 cannot be met. B. Requirements can be met by configuring separate Service Preference and Service Parameter, and by making multiple restricted party screening requests using an agent. C. Requirements can be met by configuring multiple Service Parameters in a single Service Preference and by calling the restricted party screening using an agent with the service preference. D. Requirements can be met with a custom stored procedure for requirement 2 along with a restricted party screening for requirement 1, because ONLY ONE restricted party screening request can be made using an agent. 41. Which two options are true about Classification Approval?(Choose two.) A. It is for one user to review and approve the Item Classification that another user performed. B. It is a mandatory process. C. It is an optional process. D. It is for one user to both create and approve the Product Classification Code details, including Description, and so on. 42. Which two statements are true about Screen Sets and ManagerLayouts? (Choose two.) A. You can have a background image by specifying the image in the Manager Layout configuration. B. Using Screen Sets, you can build if…then rules and call different Manager Layouts. C. Using the Manager Layout, you can change the Actions on the Results page. D. Using Screen Sets, you can change the sort order of columns. E. Using the Manager Layout configuration, you can limit the number of text boxes and labels displayed on the details page. 43. Which two statements are true about Regions created using CSV templates? (Choose two.) A. You can upload a Region by using the CSV process only when you are creating Regions using Location ID and not Country ID. B. formulated Region has to be run only once when you load the Region by using CSV. Subsequent updates using CSV upload do not require formulating the Region. C. A Region created using the UI cannot be updated using the CSV upload process. D. The loaded flag has to be set to “N” when you are uploading a Region using CSV for the formulated Region to work. E. You need to formulate a Region after it is uploaded using CSV. 44. Identify correct statements for a Region A. If region created through UI -needs formulation B. If region created through UI -does not needs formulation (Correct) C. If region created through CSV- needs formulation (Correct) D. If region created through CSV - does not needs formulation 45. Which two dates on the license are used during License Assignment to determine if a license can be assigned to a transaction? A. Expiration Date B. Approval Date C. Renewal Date D. Effective Date 46. While setting up a compliance rule, your client finds out that certain information is required and there is no such field in the GTM UI. Identify three ways in which your client can capture this information effectively in GTM. (Choose three.) A. User-defined Code B. Control Code C. Remarks D. Saved Query 47. Which two statements are true about a regime? (Choose two.) A. Bureau of Industry and Security (BIS) is a regime. B. In GTM, a regime can be defined as a set of rules or regulations. C. One country should have only one regime. D. One regime may apply to multiple countries. E. In the USA, Export Administration Regulations (EAR) is the one and only regime for Trade Compliance. 48. GTI Reports – If you need to display the report such that when you select the Country only the relevant Provinces should be displayed, What should you do? Answer – Use Limit by Value 49. Your client has the following requirement: Determine the product classification for a configure-to-order product based on a child-line product classification. The child-line product classification should be based on the component item’s product If any of the transaction lines have an encrypted product, the product classification at the parent level should be different from the case when none of the child lines have an encrypted product. Which three setups are required to meet this requirement? (Choose three.) A. Link each child line to the parent kit line using a parent line linkage for the Transaction Line. B. Maintain the Encrypted Flag as a remark. C. Maintain the Encrypted Flag as a product classification type. D. Link each child line to the parent kit line by creating remarks for the Transaction Line. E. Configure Compliance Rules to find the parent product classification based on the child-line product classification. F. Develop Agent logic to find the parent product classification based on the child-line product classification. 50. Your client wants to replace a product classification code with a new product classification code for all items with an item remark qualifier of ENCRYPTED and value set to Y. Which two design and configuration options meet this requirement? (Choose two.) A. Create a saved query to identify the item with an item remark qualifier of ENCRYPTED and the value set to Y, and develop agent logic to search and replace the product classification code. B. Create a saved query to identify the item with an item remark qualifier of ENCRYPTED and the value set to Y, and use the saved query with the recurring process Update Product Classification to update the items based on old and newproduct classification code. C. Create a product classification template with the new product classification code, use the UI to select multiple items that meet the criteria based on the remark and old classification code, and assign the new product classificationtemplate. D. Create a product classification template with the new product classification code and use agent logic to update all items with the old product classification code for any item that has the item remark qualifier of ENCRYPTED and the valueset to Y and has the old code. 51. Which three options are supported in Oracle GTM when creating a Declaration? (Choose three.) A. One Trade Transaction to many Declarations B. One Order Release to many Declarations C. Many Trade Transactions to one Declaration D. One Trade Transaction to one Declaration E. One Order Release to one Declaration 52. When creating a new Declaration type, which three processes may need to be configured depending on the requirements of the local customs authority? (Choose three.) A. Define a constraint set with grouping criteria that identifies how to combine Trade Transactions into a Declaration. B. Create aggregation criteria that consolidate Transaction Lines, based on parameters such as tariff code or country of origin, into fewer lines on the final Declaration. C. Set up a data configuration that defines the data required to be copied from the Transaction onto the Declaration. D. Set up a License Code that defines whether a license is incremented or decremented for the Trade Transaction. 53. Which two statements are true about restricted party screening of parties with an agent? (Choose two.) A. Agent logic can be developed to perform selective screening of only certain parties. B. GTM automatically performs the screening of parties as soon as they are created without any agent logic. C. A single agent cannot listen to both creation and modification events to perform restricted party screening; separate agents must be created. D. The SCREEN RESTRICTED PARTIES agent action can be used to perform a sanctions screening of a party. E. Agent logic is required to send outbound integration messages to other applications regarding the status of party screening. 54. Identify three statements that are true about Restricted Party List.(Choose three.) A. When a Restricted Party on the Government Agency Restricted Party List is no longer valid, the External Content Provider will send an update through integration. B. When a Restricted Party on the Restricted Party List is no longer valid, the user should deselect the In Use check box in GTM. C. After a Restricted Party appears on the Restricted Party List, the user should never delete it or mark it as invalid. D. When a Restricted Party on the Restricted Party List is no longer valid, the user should delete it in GTM. E. When a Restricted Party on the Restricted Party List is no longer valid, the user can expire it in GTM. 55. For which three objects can you configure the out-of-box “Restricted Party Screening” UI action in the Screen Set for performing Restricted Party Screening? (Choose three.) A. Trade Transaction B. Shipment C. Trade Transaction Line D. Party E. Item 60. Which statement is true about Trade Transactions? A. A Trade Transaction can have Involved Parties only at the Transaction header level and not at the Transaction Line level. B. A Trade Transaction can have Involved Parties at both the Transaction header and Transaction Line levels, but Restricted Party Screening can be performed only at the line level. C. Trade Transaction Restricted Party Screening can be performed at both the Transaction header and Transaction Line levels. D. A Trade Transaction can have Involved Parties only at the Transaction Line level and not at the header level 61. Based on the screenshot shown below, which two options are correct for Service Preference configuration? (Choose two.) A. At the most sixty-four words can be specified in Exclude Words. B. If the Data Version ID is not specified and if there is a Restricted Parties List with a Data Version with the “Current” flag set, it will be used for screening. C. It is not mandatory to specify Agency Code. D. Exclude Words is used to specify words to exclude when ONLY “Dice” Match Engine is used. E. If the Data Version ID is not specified, then the system will throw an error during screening that Data Version ID needs to be specified. 62. During implementation, the Compliance Manager requests that Sanctioned Territory Screening should be performed against both SHIP_TO and BIL_TO both resulting controls displayed independently in the screening results. What is the best way to set this up? A. There is no way to do that in the current GTM release. B. Set up two rules with the same precedence under the same Rule Set. Use the EAR algorithm. C. Set up two rules with different precedence under the same Rule Set. Use the EAR algorithm. D. Set up two Rule Sets with one rule in each set. Use the CUMULATIVE algorithm. E. Set up two Rule Sets with one rule in each set. Use the EAR algorithm. 63. Your client is running into the following issue: The client had added a few countries to a region by using CSV upload. This region is used in compliance rule for Sanctions Screening. The client also modified the compliance rule. The screening for the parties involved in BILL TO is happening for the newly added countries, but not for the SHIP TO countries. Identify two reasons for this. (Choose two.) A. The region is not formulated. B. For such a requirement, a Restricted Parties List for the sanctioned countries is required in addition to the region requirement, which is missing. C. A separate compliance rule is required for each involved party qualifier BILL TO and SHIP TO to be screened, so the compliance rule may be missing. D. The compliance rule may not be properly set up. 64. Which three of the following does the system perform when you click the “Assign Costs” button in Landed Cost Simulator? (Choose three.) A. Use the Formula Rule Set Group to assign formulas to the charges. B. Use the Value Rule Set Group defined in Logic Configuration to assign charges. C. Determine the customs value based on the INCOTERMS. D. Use the Formula Rule Set Group to calculate the value of the charges. E. Calculate the value of the customs duty and taxes. 65. Identify two pieces of information used to match a license to a transaction. (Choose two.) A. Product Classification data B. Registration information C. Type of License D. Consignee 66. The electronic message received by the broker is missing a data element. What are the two causes of this problem? (Choose two.) A. The User Interface was not configured to require the user to enter the data. B. The External System is incorrectly configured. C. The Declaration Message does not have the correct Logic Configuration attributes specified. D. The Out XML Profile is missing the required data elements. 67. “Partner Type” is an important Party level information in GTM implementation for Company A. Which are the three ways to capture that information on the Party master? (Choose three.) A. Out-of-box “Partner Type” field B. Remarks C. Registration D. User-defined Codes E. Flexfields 68. In a Content Set Detail record, what are two possible statuses available for a particular content type? (Choose two.) A. CONNECTION ERROR B. INITIATED C. PROCESSED D. DOWNLOAD SUCCESSFUL 69. If GTM does not generated document content, what might be the reason? A. One or more subscribers have not viewed the document. B. One or more reviewers have not accepted the document. C. One or more owners have not approved the document. D. One or more document validation rules have not been satisfied. 70. To which Oracle Database instance are Oracle Data Integrator (ODI) repositories specific to GTI deployed? A. Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) database B. Checkpoint Database (CD) C. Replicated Operational Database (ROD) D. Historical Database (HD) 71. The Shipments-Imports and Shipments-Export dashboards enable you to select the time period you want to report on. If the time period is not changed, what’s the default setting? A. Prior month’s shipments B. Prior quarter’s shipments C. Prior week’s shipments D. All shipments 72. Identify two objects that need to be set up in GTM when you want to receive a new tariff containing classification data into GTM. (Choose two.) A. Data Version B. Data Load Type C. Product Classification Type D. Content Set 73. Your client has the following requirements: Order Releases will be obtained using integration. Multiple Order Releases will be bulk planned into shipment. The shipment should be screened for export compliance to check if a license is required and denied party screening. Which option will meet the requirements? A. A Trade Transaction has to be created using an Order Release before the shipment is created. The Trade Transaction should be screened. B. The bulk plan logic should be modified to screen the Order Release just before the shipment is created. C. A Trade Transaction can be directly created using the shipment and can go through export compliance screening and denied party screening. D. The shipment can be directly screened without creating a Trade Transaction. 74. Which method allows you to assign a Bond to a Declaration? A. Storing a Bond in a Logic Configuration for a Declaration Type B. Setting Up a Service Preference for Bond Assignment C. Executing Auto Data Assignment modeled via Compliance Rules D. Specifying a Bond on a Declaration Type Profile 75. Which two options are correct about the purpose of the Declaration message? (Choose two.) A. Provides an aduit trail of useful messages regarding past user edits and screenings of the Declaration. B. A container for capturing the response message from the customs authority or broker to pair it with the original Declaration. C. A business object to help manage the outbound electronic messages sent to a broker or customs authority. D. Required xml message for estimating duty and tax using a third party web service 76. Where do you specify the Value and Quantity Qualifiers used when executing Estimate Duty and Tax action from a Declaration Line? A. Parameter Sets B. Service Preference C. Properties D. Logic Configuration 77. Which three types of content can be downloaded from external content providers? (Choose three.) A. HTS-MX B.“Not a Match” List C. ECCN-US D. Product Classification Group E. Restricted Party List 78. There is one transaction with the TS_CONTROL_SCREENING status gives as TS_CONTROL_SCREENING_FAILED. This status indicates _______. A. that it is a License Exception B. that it may require a license C. nothing is particular. this transaction can just be executed as is D. that it is NOT appropriate to execute this transaction 79. Which business object do you use to set up the details of the classification data that you want to download and configure how it is mapped from the content provider’s data to the GTM data structure? A. Content Source B. Product Classification Category C. Data Load Type D. External System 80. Which option is determined by control code precedence when setting up rule set groups by using the cumulative compliance algorithm? A. The resulting control in a Rule Set B. The resulting control across Rule Sets in a Rule Set Group C. The resulting control across Rule Set Groups D. The control code’s precedence does not influence the cumulative algorithm. 81. Which of the following methods will allow you to combine Transaction Lines with matching HTS codes when creating Declaration? A. Set up a Declaration Type Profile for your Declaration. B. Set up an Aggregation Constraint Set in your Logic Configuration. C. Set up a Grouping Constraint Set in your Logic Configuration. D. Set up Data Configuration in your Logic Configuration.

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