NHA Final Review Answer Key PDF

Which of the following words applies to the term sinistrad? a. Without b. Left c. Contralateral d. Right The suprarenal gland is located in which of the following anatomic sites? a. below the kidney b. medial to the kidney c. above the kidney d. latera...

Which of the following words applies to the term sinistrad? a. Without b. Left c. Contralateral d. Right The suprarenal gland is located in which of the following anatomic sites? a. below the kidney b. medial to the kidney c. above the kidney d. lateral to the kidney Which of the following descriptive parts of an organ is farthest from its opening? a. margin b. orifice c. os d. fundus Which of the following locations describes where a laparoscope is introduced? a. through the abdominal wall b. into the chest cavity c. into the cranial cavity d. through the thoracic cavity Which of the following syllables has the primary accent in anesthetic? a. "as" b. "es" c. "thet" d. "ik" Which of the following accurately describes the term staging? a. a system used to evaluate tumors b. a method for removing tissue c. a surgical procedure d. a alternative therapy Which of the following describes the term percussion? a. Tapping the body and listening to the sounds produced b. Visual examination of the body c. Examination of the back of the eye d. Homeopathy A bronchoscope is a type of which of the following? a. exoscope b. chronometer c. endoscope d. audiometer A symptom is which of the following? a. a course of treatment b. determination of the cause of disease c. outcome of a disease d. evidence of a disease Which of the following occurs when neoplasm metastasizes? a. it spreads b. it drops c. it shrinks d. it loses color Which of the following terms describes the action of an antiemetic? a. prevent fever b. prevent blood clots c. prevent diarrhea d. prevent vomiting NSAIDs are a class of which of the following types of drugs? a. anxiolytics b. steroids c. anti-inflammatory drugs d. antipsychotic drugs Which of the following describes how a nosocomial infection is acquired? a. on a trip b. in childhood c. in a hospital  d. in a swimming pool The abbreviation "po" means which of the following? a. as desired b. by mouth c. twice a day d. before meals Which of the following describes the generic name of a drug? a. The brand b. Written with a capital letter c. Not listed in drug references d. Chemical name of the drug Which of the following describes how a drug given by the transdermal route is administered? a. under the tongue b. through the skin c. into the spinal canal d. into a vein Which of the following describes what happens in an adenectomy? a. a gland is removed b. the palate is sutured c. a tumor is removed d. a hormone is injected Which of the following describes a craniotomy? a. incision of the skull b. suture of the skull c. tap of the skull d. x-ray of the skull Which of the following describes the term eczema? a. fungal infection of the skin b. chronic allergic dermatitis c. a form of skin cancer d. hardening of the skin  Which of the following does the term diaphoresis refer to? a. excess sweating b. white lines on fingernails c. inflammation of the sebaceous glands d. staphylococcal infection BSA is used in assessing which of the following? a. age b. adipose tissue c. temperature d. burns Which of the following do STSG and FTSG refer to? a. hydration b. skin growth c. skin grafting d. burns Which of the following causes excoriation? a. falling b. scratching c. vitiligo d. shingles Which of the following is another term for athlete's foot? a. dermatophytosis b. dyskeratosis c. bromhidrosis d. alopecia Which of the following is the outermost layer of the epidermis? a. stratum basale b. stratum corneum c. follicle  d. stratum granulosum Which of the following describes the term onychomalacia? a. infection of a nail b. splitting of a nail c. breaking of hair d. softening of a nail Which of the following describes the term hidradenitis? a. inflammation of a sweat gland b. infection of the hair c. loss of pigment d. redness of the skin Which of the following structures does a hair grow within? a. muscle b. follicle c. receptor d. shaft Which of the following is the region of a long bone between the epiphysis and diaphysis? a. Metaphysis b. Periosteum c. Ischium d. Marrow cavity Which of the following is an example of an immovable type of joint? a. Suture b. Symphysis c. Periosteum d. Diarthrosis  The acronyms THA and TKA are forms of which of the following procedures? a. Arthroplasty b. Grafting c. Meniscectomies d. Traction Which of the following describes the motion of subluxation? a. Bending inward b. Partial dislocation c. Bending outward d. Removal of cartilage Which of the following terms describes a very large, blunt, bony projection? a. Tubercle b. Foramen c. Trochanter d. Facet The acronyms PIP, TMJ, and DJD refer to which of the following structures? a. Joints b. Vertebrae c. Epicondyles d. Sinuses Lack of synovial fluid is described by which of the following terms? a. Synovitis b. Synostosis c. Spondylosis d. Asynovia Which of the following describes the acetabulum? a. A socket in the scapula b. Part of an intervertebral disk c. A socket in the hip bone d. The anterior joint of the pelvis Which of the following terms describes bundles of muscle cells? a. Synapses b. Fascicles c. Tendons d. Fascia Peristalsis is produced by which of the following? a. Cardiac muscle b. Skeletal muscle c. Smooth muscle d. Voluntary muscle Which of the following describes the location of the hamstring muscles? a. Posterior thigh b. Anterior thigh c. Foot d. Forearm Which of the following is an enzyme used to diagnose muscle damage? a. Creatine kinase b. Glycogen c. Acetylcholine d. Myosin Which of the following is the meaning of the root kin/o? a. Tendon b. Fascia c. Movement d. Fiber An inotropic substance does which of the following? a. Causes abnormal movement b. Acts on muscle fibers c. Weakens the heart d. Acts on adipose tissue Which of the following describes the direction in which an axon carries impulses? a. Toward the cell body b. Into the cell body c. Toward the nucleus d. Away from the cell body Which of the following describes neuroglia? a. Junctions between nerve cells b. Unmyelinated tissue c. Cells that support and protect neurons d. Outer portion of the cerebrum Which of the following are divisions of the autonomic nervous system? a. Central and peripheral divisions b. Sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions c. Dorsal and ventral divisions d. Cortical and medullary divisions In which of the following parts of the brain are the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland located? a. Diencephalon b. Cerebral cortex c. Medulla d. Cerebellum Which of the following is the innermost layer of the meninges? a. Pia mater b. Dura mater c. Arachnoid mater d. White matter Which of the following is the meaning of the root in the word "psychosis?" a. Self b. Imaginary c. Mind d. Speech Which of the following terms describes a hernia of the meninges? a. Meningocele b. Meningitis c. Leptomeninges d. Meningioma Which of the following describes a hypersomnolent person? a. Oversensitive to pain b. Hyperactive c. Excessively sleepy d. Sleepwalker Which of the following is a condition involving multiple tumors of peripheral nerves? a. Hemiballism b. Hematomyelia c. Neurofibromatosis d. Sciatica Which of the following describes groups of motor fibers, many of which cross the spinal cord in the medulla? a. Cerebral arterial circle b. Reticular activating system c. Blood-brain barrier d. Pyramidal tracts  Which of the following terms describes a network? a. Plexus b. Sulcus c. Tract d. Gyrus Which of the following describes the CNS and PNS? a. Studies of the brain b. Divisions of the nervous system c. Segments of a nerve d. Networks of nerves The six muscles attached to the outside of the eye are important for which of the following visual processes? a. Proprioception b. Convergence c. Accommodation d. Refraction Which of the following terms pertains to the ear? a. AMD b. IOL c. ORL d. sc Blepharospasm is described as which of the following? a. Drooping of the eyelid b. A mass on the eyelid c. Inflamed eyelid gland d. Sudden contraction of the eyelid Which of the following describes the term keratoplasty? a. Protrusion of the eyeball b. Absence of the lens c. Paralysis of the ciliary body d. Plastic repair of the cornea  The vestibular apparatus is associated with which of the following sensations? a. Smell b. Hearing c. Touch d. Equilibrium Which of the following structures is the middle ossicle of the ear? a. Labyrinth b. Incus c. Stapes d. Malleus The auditory tube connects which of the following structures? a. Tympanic membrane with the outer ear b. Semicircular canals with the nasal cavity c. Middle ear cavity with the pharynx d. Spiral organ with the vestibular apparatus Conjunctivitis affects which of the following eye structures? a. Membrane that lines the eyelid and covers the eye b. Layer of the eye between the retina and sclera c. Layer of the eye between the retina and choroid d. Substance that fills the eyeball Hormones that are made from lipids are categorized as which of the following? a. Amino acids b. Carbohydrates c. Steroids d. Proteins Gigantism and acromegaly result from which of the following? a. Excess growth hormone b. Excess epinephrine c. Hypothyroidism  d. Hypopituitarism Diabetes insipidus affects which of the following? a. Glucose levels b. Water balance c. Steroid production d. Prostaglandin levels Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are signs of which of the following? a. Exophthalmic goiter b. Acromegaly c. Panhypopituitarism d. Diabetes mellitus FPG, FBS, and OGTT are tests for which of the following? a. Calcium balance b. Thyroid hormone c. Estrogen levels d. Glucose metabolism Which of the following glands produce GH, ACTH, and PRL? a. Anterior pituitary b. Posterior pituitary c. Thyroid d. Adrenal medulla Which of the following describes a thyrolytic substance? a. Stimulates the thyroid gland b. Destroys thyroid tissue c. Destroys the adrenal gland d. Stimulates the thymus gland Thyroid hormones contain which of the following elements? a. Sulfur b. Zinc c. Iron d. Iodine Aldosterone decreases elimination of which of the following? a. Blood glucose b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Sodium Oxytocin and PRL are involved in which of the following? a. Lactation b. Water balance c. Electrolyte balance d. Calcium exchange The pituitary gland is divided into which of the following? a. Superior and inferior lobe b. Cortex and medulla c. Anterior and posterior lobe d. Lateral and medial lobe Into which of the following structures do the superior and inferior venae cavae bring blood? a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium d. Left ventricle To which of the following do impulses in the heart travel from the AV bundle? a. Apex b. SA node c. AV node d. Bundle branches Which of the following is a localized, irregular dilation of a vessel wall? a. Fibrillation b. Angioplasty c. Aneurysm d. Angina Which of the following describes aortostenosis?  a. Twisting of the aorta b. Narrowing of the aorta c. Fissure of the aorta d. Rupture of the aorta Which of the following is the adjective for tonsil? a. Tonsil b. Tonsilloid c. Tonsillitis d. Tonsillar Which of the following describes a lymphangioma? a. Tumor of lymph nodes b. Inflammation of lymphatic vessels c. Tumor of lymphatic vessels d. Removal of lymph nodes Which of the following does the term lymphadenopathy describe? a. Inflammation of a lymphatic vessel b. Removal of a lymph node c. Any disease of a lymph node d. An x-ray image of lymphatic vessels Which of the following is the function of the thoracic duct? a. Drains lymph from the upper right side of the body b. Drains blood from the head and neck c. Drains lymph from the lower body and upper left side d. Carries lymph to the tissues Cytopenia is described as which of the following? a. Deficiency of cells b. Excess of cells c. Distorted shape of cells d. Enlargement of cells Which of the following describes the action of erythropoiesis? a. Formation of white cells b. Formation of red cells c. Destruction of red cells d. Dissolving of a blood clot Which of the following is a term for the destruction of red cells? a. Hemopoiesis b. Erythema c. Hemolysis d. Cytopenia Which of the following blood types is used in an emergency? a. A+ b. AB c. O d. O+ Acidity is measured as which of the following? a. Clotting time b. Rh c. pH d. Crossmatching The typical lifespan of an erythrocyte is which of the following lengths? a. 4 weeks b. 12 days c. 120 days d. 1 year  Which of the following terms is another name for platelet? a. Megakaryocyte b. Thrombocyte c. Reticulocyte d. Leukocyte Autologous blood is which of the following? a. Blood from another animal of the same species b. A fraction obtained by freezing blood c. An anticoagulant d. A person's own blood Protease inhibitors block which of the following actions? a. HIV multiplication b. Histamine production c. Cryoprecipitation d. Seroconversion PMNs, polys, and segs are all abbreviations for which of the following? a. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes c. Monocytes d. Basophils Which of the following is the membrane that covers the lungs? a. Turbinate b. Phrenic c. Pleura d. Glottis Which of the following describes alveoli? a. Tiny air sacs in the lungs that allow for gas exchange b. Fluids that coat the inside of the lungs c. Bones in the nose that hold the smell receptors d. Nerves that stimulate the diaphragm A temporary stoppage of breathing is identified by which of the following terms? a. Apnea  b. Dyspnea c. Dysventilation d. Polypnea Which of the following describes the term orthopnea? a. A rapid rate of breathing b. A whistling sound during breathing c. Difficulty breathing unless upright d. Difficulty speaking Which of the following describes hemoptysis? a. Spitting up blood b. Infection with Myobacterium tuberculosis c. Infection of the blood d. Expectoration of acid Which of the following describes the amount of air that remains in the lungs after maximum exhalation? a. Tidal volume b. Inspiratory reserve volume c. Residual volume d. Vital capacity Which of the following is another term for epistaxis? a. Croup b. Nosebleed c. Aphonia d. Rales Which syllable has the primary accent in "rhinitis?" a. Ri b. Ni c. Tis d. Rhin Which syllable has the primary accent in "oximetry?" a. Ok b. Sim c. Eh d. Tre  Which of the following terms describes the inflammation of the membranes around the lungs? a. Pneumonia b. Pleurisy c. Bradypnea d. Pulmonary embolism The root in "dysphonia" means which of the following? a. Passageway b. Effort c. Voice d. Flow The adjective for "bronchiole" is which of the following terms? a. Bronchiolic b. Bronchiolitis c. Bronchiolitic d. Bronchiolar Which of the following describes the term "rhinorrhea?" a. Discharge from the nose b. Inflammation of the tonsils c. Removal of the adenoids d. Swelling of the nares Which of the following describes a phrenicectomy? a. Removal of the diaphragm b. Incision of the diaphragm c. Excision of the phrenic nerve d. Surgical repair of the phrenic nerve Which of the following describes a pleurocentesis? a. Surgical puncture of the lung b. Excision of the pleura c. Surgical puncture of the pleura d. Pain in the pleural space Bile aids in the digestion of which of the following? a. Carbohydrates  b. Fats c. Proteins d. Starch Stomach acid is neutralized in the small intestine by which of the following? a. Amylase b. Bicarbonate c. Chyme d. Water Dysphagia means which of the following? a. Difficulty swallowing b. Flatulence c. Gastric reflux d. Eructation Ascites is which of the following? a. Degeneration of the liver b. Acute abdominal pain c. Accumulation of fluid in the abdomen d. Intestinal obstruction BE, ERCP and UGI are types of which of the following? a. Symptoms b. Intubations c. Ducts d. Radiographic studies Intussusception, volvulus and ileus are forms of which of the following? a. Inflammation b. Hernia c. Intestinal Obstruction d. Diverticula The term glossolabial refers to which of the following? a. Tongue and lips b. Palate and jaw  c. Teeth and tongue d. Lips and cheek The root proct/o means which of the following? a. Rectum b. Colon c. Anus d. Cecum The root cholecyst/o means which of the following? a. Bile ducts b. Pancreas c. Gallbladder d. Liver The duodenum, jejunum and ileum are part of which of following? a. Uvula b. Small intestine c. Appendix d. Large intestine Which syllable has the primary accent in mastication? a. Mas b. Tih c. Kah d. Shun Which of the following is one of the main digestive secretions produced in the stomach? a. Pepsin b. Saliva c. Bile d. Amylase Which of the following describes the portion of the large intestine between the sigmoid colon and the anus? a. Ileocecal valve b. Ascending colon c. Rectum  d. Jejunum Villi are which of the following? a. Subdivisions of the hard palate b. Projections in the lining of the small intestine c. Projections in the lining of the stomach d. Ducts in the mouth Which of the following hormones stimulates red blood cell production? a. Renin b. Erythropoietin c. Angiotensin d. Cortisol Which of the following is the renal medulla is divided into? a. Pelves b. Glomeruli c. Cortices d. Pyramids Which of the following describes a glomerulus? a. Cluster of capillaries that filters blood b. Collecting area for urine c. Triangular section in the kidney d. Funnel-shaped portion of the ureter Which of the following do the renal artery and vein circulate blood to? a. Kidney b. Bladder c. Adrenal gland d. Prostate Which of the following does angiotensin do? a. Increase blood pressure b. Promote urination c. Concentrate the urine d. Decrease blood pressure  Which of the following is the process by which materials are returned from the kidney to the blood? a. Glomerular filtration b. Natriuresis c. Tubular reabsorption d. Diuresis Which of the following is a hormone that acts to concentrate the urine? a. Renin b. Insulin c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Erythropoietin Which of the following describes micturition? a. Formation of urine b. Concentration of urine c. Voiding of urine d. Acidification of urine Which of the following does the root vesic/o refer to? a. Urinary bladder b. Urethra c. Ureters d. Kidneys Which of the following is a method for removing waste material from the blood? a. Hemodialysis b. Urinalysis c. Catheterization d. Hematuria Which of the following is a cystoscope used to do? a. Remove urine from the bladder b. Create an opening into the bladder c. Examine the bladder d. Dilate the bladder  Which of the following is BUN a measure of? a. Filtrate formed per minute b. Concentration of urine c. Uremia d. Electrolyte imbalance Which of the following are CAPD and CCPD abbreviations for? a. Types of renal failure b. Types of dialysis c. Aspects of kidney function d. Aspects of radiographic studies Which of the following terms describes a secretion of excess semen? a. Oligospermia b. Hemospermia c. Spermaturia d. Polyspermia Which of the following terms describes anorchism? a. Absence of the prostate b. Downward displacement of a testis c. Absence of a testis d. Rupture of the scrotum The root osche/o means which of the following? a. Testis b. Seminal vesicle c. Epididymis d. Scrotum The testes descend through which of the following? a. Seminiferous tubule b. Spermatic cord c. Inguinal canal d. Ejaculatory duct The interstitial cells of the testes produce which of the following?  a. Electrolytes b. Serum c. Antigens d. Hormones Which of the following are produced in the seminiferous tubules? a. Seminal fluid b. Spermatozoa c. Mucus d. Testosterone When does spermatogenesis begin? a. At birth b. At puberty c. After coitus d. After orgasm BPH is an abbreviation for which of the following? a. Enlargement of the prostate b. A prostate-specific antigen c. A sexually transmitted infection (STI) d. A reproductive hormone Chlamydia trachomatis mainly causes which of the following? a. Genital warts b. Gonorrhea c. Syphilis d. Urethritis The ductus deferens is cut during which of the following procedures? a. Prostatectomy b. Orchiotomy c. Vasectomy d. Vasography What is a common name for the prepuce? a. Foreskin  b. Glans penis c. Corpora cavernosum d. Urethra Spermatozoa are formed by which of the following processes? a. Descent b. Ejaculation c. Meiosis d. Coitus Which of the following structures add secretions to semen? a. Corpus spongiosum b. Epididymis c. Corpora cavernosa d. Bulbourethral glands Which of the following is the scientific name for a fibroid? a. Rectocele b. Hydatidiform mole c. Leiomyoma d. Sentinel node Which of the following describes the condition oligomenorrhea? a. Pain during sexual intercourse b. Fibroids in the uterus c. Inflammation of the uterine tubes d. Scanty menstrual flow Which of the following procedures describes a hysterotomy? a. Removal of the cervix b. Removal of the uterus c. Surgical fixation of the uterus d. Incision of the uterus The term uterovesical refers to which of the following sites? a. Vagina and cervix b. Vagina and uterus c. Uterus and urinary bladder d. Uterine tube and ovary Which of the following terms refers to narrowing of the vagina? a. Salpingostenosis b. Colpodynia c. Colpostenosis d. Vulvodynia The root mast/o refers to which of the following anatomic sites? a. Breast b. Vulva c. Perineum d. Clitoris For the first 2 months of growth, the developing offspring is referred to using which of the following terms? a. Fetus b. Embryo c. Chorion d. Oocyte Which of the following is the function of the amniotic sac? a. Provides oxygen for the fetus b. Eliminates carbon dioxide for the fetus c. Produces hormones for fetal growth d. Cushions the fetus The umbilical cord contains which of the following vessel combinations? a. Two umbilical veins and one umbilical artery b. Two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein c. One umbilical artery and one umbilical vein d. One pulmonary artery and one pulmonary vein Which of the following describes a multigravida patient?  a. Has been pregnant two or more times b. Has had a difficult birth c. Has been pregnant one time d. Has given birth to many children Which of the following describes the cervix? a. Lower narrow portion of the uterus b. Upper rounded portion of the uterus c. External female genitalia d. Central cavity of the uterus The external female genital organs together are referred to using which of the following terms? a. Perineum b. Mammary glands c. Vulva d. Bartholin glands