Aircraft Wood Materials & Repair PDF

1. Where is information found concerning acceptable species substitutions for wood materials used in aircraft repair? a. AC 43. 13-1B b. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets c. Technical Standard Orders 2. Which of the following conditions will determine acceptance of wood...

1. Where is information found concerning acceptable species substitutions for wood materials used in aircraft repair? a. AC 43. 13-1B b. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets c. Technical Standard Orders 2. Which of the following conditions will determine acceptance of wood with mineral streaks? a. Careful inspection fails to reveal any decay b. They produce only a small effect on grain direction c. Local irregularities do not exceed limitations specified for spiral and diagonal grain 3. Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterized by buckling of the fibers that appear as streaks on the surface a. At right angles to the growth rings b. Parallel to the grain c. At right angles to the grain 4. Which statement concerning wood decay is correct? a. Decay that appears to be mineral streaks is acceptable b. A limited amount of decay along the beveled edges of unrouted beams is acceptable c. Any form or amount of decay is not permitted 5. In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes, a. It is permissible to ream the hole, plug with hardwood, and re-drill b. The spar may be reinforced by using hardwood reinforcing plates c. A new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely 6. Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is indicated a. When a joint has separated and the glue surface shows only the imprint of the wood with no wood fibers clinging to the glue b. When a joint has separated and the glue surface shows pieces of wood fibers clinging to the glue c. By any joint separation 7. The I-beam wooden spar is routed to a. Increase strength b. Obtain uniform strength c. Reduce weight 8. Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided a. They produce a small effect on grain direction b. They have no mineral streaks c. No pitch pockets are within 12 inches 9. Which statement about wood decay is correct? a. Decay that occur before the wood is seasoned does not affect the strength of the finished piece b. A limited amount of certain kinds of decay is acceptable in aircraft woods since decay affects the binding between the fibers and not the fibers themselves c. Decay is not acceptable in any form or amount 10. Any wooden member that has been overstressed is subject to which type of failure? a. Bond failure b. Compression failure c. Finish failure 11. The cantilever wing uses a. External struts or wire bracing b. No external bracing c. The skin to carry most of the load to the wing butt 12. Laminated wood is sometimes used in the construction of highly stressed aircraft components. This wood can be identified by its a. Parallel grain construction b. Similarity to standard plywood construction c. Perpendicular grain construction 13. Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid rectangular wood spars a. Only in certain instances where the primary load is shared by one or more other original structural member b. If the same quality wood is used in both c. Only upon specific approval by the manufacturer or the FAA 14. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates a. Compression failure b. Shear failure c. Decay 15. When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross-sectional areas which will develop dangerous stress concentration should be avoided by using a. Circular or elliptical patches b. Square patches c. Doublers with any desired shaped patches 16. The strength of a well-designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the a. Bearing surface of the wood fibers b. Glue c. Reinforcement plates AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEM 1. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire is an indication of a. Overinflation b. Excessive toe-in c. Underinflation 2. How long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure? a. At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather) b. At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather) c. At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather) 3. Aside from an external leak in the line, what will cause parking brakes to continually bleed off pressure? a. An internal leak in the master cylinder b. Insufficient hydraulic fluid in the reservoir c. Glazed brake linings 4. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to a. Relieve pressure to a sensitive component b. Restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other c. Relieve pressure in one direction and prevent flow in the other direction 5. Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to operate the brakes generally a. Use independent master cylinder systems b. Do not use brake system accumulators c. Use power brake control valves 6. Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing valves that a. Allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber b. Cannot allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber c. Must be bled separately after brake bleeding has been completed 7. What would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder? a. The brakes would become spongy b. The brake would become excessive c. The brakes would drag 8. What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line to isolate the emergency brake system from the normal power brake control valve system? a. A bypass valve b. An orifice check valve c. A shuttle valve 9. Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found a. On the airplane data plate b. In the aircraft operations limitations c. In the aircraft manufacturer’s service manual 10. The metering pin in oleo shock struts serve to a. Lock the struts in the DOWN position. b. Retard the flow of oil as the struts are composed. c. Meter the proper amount of air in struts. 11. On an air valve core stem, what indicates high- pressure type? a. An embossed letter ‘NP’ b. An embossed letter ‘HP’ c. An embossed letter ‘H’ 12. The purpose of a relief system valve in a brake assembly system is to a. Reduce pressure for break application b. Prevent the tire from skipping c. Compensate for the thermal expansion 13. In shock struts, chevron seals are used to a. Absorb bottoming effect b. Prevent oil from escaping c. serve as a bearing surface 14. The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane on which no recent brake service work has been performed. The most probable cause is. a. Foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder compensating port. b. Excessively worn brake linings. c. Low fluid supply in the brake system reservoir. 15. A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending onto the sidewall of a tube-type tire is a a. Slippage mark. b. Wheel-to-tire balance mark c. Wheel weight reference mark 16. Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tire to help a. Nose gear extension at higher air speeds. b. Reduce the possibility of hydroplaning. c. Deflecting water away from the fuselage. 17. An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing gear would most likely be a a. Shunt field series-wound motor. b. Split field shunt-wound motor. c. Split field series-wound motor. 18. What device in a hydraulic system with a constant- delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid no demands are on the system? a. Pressure relief valve. b. Shuttle valve c. Pressure regulator 19. A hydraulic system referred to as a ‘power pack’ system will a. Have an engine-driven pump for greater pressure b. Have all hydraulic power components located in one circuit. c. Have a pressurized reservoir. 20. What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut? a. Limit compression stroke. b. Hold the strut in place. c. Maintain correct wheel alignment. 21. Debooster valves are used in brake system primarily to a. Ensure rapid application and release of the brakes. b. Reduce brake pressure and maintains static pressure. c. Reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly. 22. In brakes service work, the term ‘bleeding brakes’ is the process of: a. Withdrawing air only from the system. b. Withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system. c. Replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir. 23. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the: a. Amount of oil in the strut. b. Physical condition of the strut itself. c. Proper operating position of the strut. 24. Many brake types can be adapted to operate mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not adaptable to mechanical operation? a. Single-disk spot type. b. Single-servo type. c. Expander-tube type. 25. Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems primarily to: a. Reduce brake pressure and maintain static pressure. b. Relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive release. c. Reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow. 26. What condition would most likely cause excessive fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic pump is operating? a. Accumulator air pressure low b. Inadequate supply of fluid c. System relief valve sticking closed 27. If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and single-disk brake pedal travel, but the brakes are hard and effective, the probable cause is a. The master cylinder one-way cup is leaking b. Worn brake linings c. Worn brake disk causing excessive clearance between the notches on the perimeter of the disk and the splines or keys on the wheel 28. A flexible hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8788 will have a stripe running the length of the hose. The stripe a. Is used to ensure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting b. Identifies that the hose is for high pressure fluids, with a 60 degree flexing range c. Identifies that the hose is constructed of Teflon and is suitable for a wide temperature range 29. An automatic damping action at the steering damper if for any reason the flow of high-pressure fluid is removed from the a. Outlet of the steering damper b. Inlet of the steering damper c. Replenishing check valve 30. A brake debooster valve is installed in systems where the high pressure of the hydraulic system (300 psi) is used to operate brakes a. That are designed to work with lower pressure b. That are used in conjunction with an antiskid system c. That are used on aircraft having high landing speeds 31. The repair of an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of main landing gear wheels determined not to be the result of bent or twisted components consists of a. Shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion b. Inserting, removing, or changing the location of washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of the scissors torque links c. Placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of the out-of-tolerance wheel or wheels. 32. If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing gear wheel assemblies in intersects aft of the aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having a. Toe-out b. Toe- in c. Negative amber 33. An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with a. A blue striper or dot b. one or more white dots. c. A white and yellow stripe. 34. When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care should be ta to extend and compress the strut completely at least two times to a. Thoroughly lubricate the piston rod b. Force out any excess fluid c. Ensure proper packing ring sealing and removal of air bubbles. 35. When installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal should face a. Opposite direction of fluid pressure b. Up or forward when the unit is installed in a horizontal position. c. The direction of fluid pressure. 36. Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can cause a. Fading brakes b. Slow release of brakes c. The pedal to slowly creep down while pedal pressure is applied. 37. Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend that the tubes in newly installed tire must be first inflated, fully deflated and the re-inflated to the correct pressure? a. To allow the tube to position itself correctly inside the tire. b. To eliminate all the air between the tube and the inside of the tire c. To test the entire assembly leaks 38. Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following is considered harmful to the aircraft tires? 1. Humidity 5. Helium 2. Fuel 6. Electrical equipment 3. Oil 7. Hydraulic fluid 4. Ozone 8. Solvents a. 2,3,4,5,6,7,8 b. 1,2,3,5,7,8 c. 2,3,4,6,7,8 39. What action of any, should be taken when there is a difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure in tires mounted as duals? a. Replace both tires b. Correct the discrepancy and enter in the aircraft records c. Replace the tire with the lowest pressure 40. Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is an indication of a. Incorrect camber b. Excessive toe-out c. Over inflation 41. How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system? a. By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system pressure gauge for smooth, full- scale deflection. b. By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy c. By noting the amount of fluid return to the master cylinder upon brake release. 42. After performing maintenance of an aircraft’s landing gear system which may have affected the system’s operation, it usually necessary to a. Conduct a flight test. b. Re-inspected the area after the first flight. c. Make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks 43. What is the purpose of compensating port or valve in a brake master cylinder of an independent brake system? a. Permits the fluid flow toward or away from the reservoir as temperature changes. b. Assists in the master cylinder piston return. c. Prevents fluid from flowing back to the reservoir. 44. A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose paper is identified as a a. Sediment trap b. Cuno filter c. Micronic filter 45. A landing gear positon and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when throttle is a. Retarded and gear is not down and locked. b. Advanced and gear is down and locked. c. Retarded and gear is down and locked. 46. The hydraulic packing seal used in a landing gear shock strut are a. Generally designed to be compatible with more than one type of fluid. b. Keep from direct contact with fluid Teflon or nylon back up rings. c. Used only with a specific type of fluid. 47. The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft tires are a. Proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and ground rolls into the wind b. Short ground rolls, sloe taxi speeds, minimum braking and proper tire inflation c. Minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and long ground rolls. 48. The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate on an aircraft owned or operated is considered to be a. A violation of the Federal Aviation Regulations b. A minor repair c. Preventive maintenance 49. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose landing gear shock strut? a. Provides an internal shimmy damper b. Straightens the nose wheel c. Provides steering of aircraft during ground operation. 50. Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often recommended that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before removing the wheel from the axle? a. To relive the strain on the wheel retaining nut and axle threads. b. As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have been damaged or weakened. c. To remove the static load imposed upon the wheel bearing by the inflated tire. 51. Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable landing gear systems. The primary purpose of the centering device is to: a. Align the nosewheel prior to touchdown. b. Engage the nosewheel steering. c. Center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel well. 52. A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a landing gear oleo shock strut to: a. Limit the extension of the torque arm. b. Limit the extension stroke. c. Reduce the rebound effect. 53. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is: a. The hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking. b. Air in the brake hydraulic system. c. The hydraulic master cylinder piston return spring is weak. 54. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot- pounds are required? a. 36.8 b. 38 c. 36.6 55. If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake system, its position in the system will be: a. Between the pressure manifold of the main hydraulic system and the power brake control valve. b. Between the brake control valve and the brake actuating cylinder. c. In the brake pressure line between the brake pedal and the brake accumulator. 56. Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk type brake assemblies? a. There are no minimum or maximum disk clearance checks required due to the use of self- compensating cylinder assemblies. b. Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot. c. No parking brake provisions are possible for this type of brake assembly. 57. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a brake system? a. The brakes will operate normally. b. The reservoir will be filled by revers flow. c. The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes. 58. On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some means must be provided to: a. Retract and extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails. b. Extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails. c. Prevent the throttle from being reduced below a safe power setting while the landing gear is retracted. 59. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the: a. Brake linings. b. Wheel hub. c. Wheel flange. 60. When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 the strut should be: a. Collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening. b. Fully extended and fluid added at the filler opening. c. Partially extended and fluid added at the filler opening. 61. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked: a. Using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1- pound increments. b. At least once a week or more often. c. As soon as possible after each flight. 62. A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive travel. A probable cause is: a. Weak return springs. b. Lack of fluid in the brake system. c. Oil or some foreign matter on the brake rotors and linings. 63. What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing? a. Air pressure. b. Packing seals for correct installation. c. Fluid level. 64. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to: a. Prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration. b. Distribute the aircraft weight properly. c. Reduce excessive wear and turbulence. 65. A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides: a. Air pressure to the various hydraulic components. b. A source for additional hydraulic power when heavy demands are place on the system. c. Positive fluid flow to the pump inlet. 66. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be obtained from: a. Tire manufacturer’s specifications. b. The aircraft service manual. c. The information stamped on the aircraft wheel. 67. When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a tire to deflate, the tire should be: a. Replaced. b. Externally inspected for damage. c. Removed from the wheel and inspected for carcass and tread damage. 68. If it is determined that spongy brake action is not caused by air in the brake system, what is the next most likely cause? a. Worn brake lining. b. Internal leakage in the master cylinder. c. Deteriorated flexible hoses. 69. If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon initial landing contact, but functions correctly during taxi, the most probable cause is: a. Low fluid. b. Low air charge. c. A restricted metering pin orifice. 70. On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut is check by: a. Removing the oil filler plug and inserting a gauge. b. Measuring the length of the strut extension with a certain air pressure in the strut. c. Releasing the air and seeing that the oil is the level of the filler plug. 71. The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk between two opposite brake linings. How is equal pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured? a. By allowing the brake rotor to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor. b. By allowing the caliper to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor. c. By allowing the brake linings to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor. 72. If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly serviced, the a. Strut should be disassembled and the metering pin orifice plate replaced. b. Air pressure should be increased. c. Strut should be removed, disassembled, and inspected. 73. Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that have: a. High landing speeds. b. Low normal hydraulic system pressure. c. More than one brake assembly per axle. 74. The pressure source for power brakes is: a. The main hydraulic system. b. The power brake reservoir. c. A master cylinder. 75. A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and bead may be recapped a. A maximum of three times. b. Only by the tire manufacturer. c. An indefinite number of times. 76. When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, the initial shock of landing shock of landing is cushioned by: a. Compression of the air charge. b. The fluid being forced through a metered opening. c. Compression of the fluid. 77. To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression resulting from landing impact, a. Various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow. b. The metering pin gradually reduces the size of the orifice as the shock strut extends. c. The air is forced through a restricted orifice in the reverse direction. 78. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to: a. Prevent heavy landing gear from falling too rapidly upon extension. b. Provide a means of disconnecting the normal source of hydraulic power and connection the emergency source of power. c. Ensure the operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order. 79. When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications that the air has been purged from the system is: a. Partial brake pedal travel. b. Full brake pedal travel. c. Firm brake pedals. 78. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will: a. Indicate tire tread separation. b. Prevent over inflation. c. Melt at a specified elevated temperature.